Body weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of prior radiotherapy or condition for any reason that would contribute radiation dose that would exceed tolerance of normal tissues, at the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia (JMML) at original diagnosis and currently have relapsed or refractory disease; the diagnosis is made based on the following criteria\r\n* JMML category 1 (all of the following): the diagnostic criteria must include all features in category 1 and EITHER (i) one of the features in category 2 OR (ii) two features from category 3 to make the diagnosis\r\n** Splenomegaly\r\n** > 1000 (1 x 10^9/uL) circulating monocytes\r\n** < 20% blasts in the bone marrow or peripheral blood\r\n** Absence of the t(9;22) or BCR/ABL fusion gene\r\n* JMML category 2 (at least one of the following if at least two category 3 criteria are not present):\r\n** Somatic mutation in RAS or PTPN11\r\n** Clinical diagnosis of NF1 or NF1 gene mutation\r\n** Homozygous mutation in CBL\r\n** Monosomy 7\r\n* JMML category 3 (at least two of the following if no category 2 criteria are met):\r\n** Circulating myeloid precursors\r\n** White blood cell count, > 10 000 (10 x 10^9/ uL)\r\n** Increased hemoglobin F for age\r\n** Clonal cytogenetic abnormality\r\n** GM-CSF hypersensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic findings consistent with non-small cell lung cancer, including lesions with ground glass opacities with a solid component of 50% or greater; those with ground glass opacities and < 50% solid component will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAML patients in first complete remission (CR) (CR1) or first complete remission with incomplete blood count recovery (CRi) after induction and consolidation chemotherapy; except young (< 60 years) AML patients in European LeukemiaNet favorable group; (the current trial will exclude young favorable group AML patients), patients could receive any cycle consolidation or no consolidation per the discretion by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be deemed surgically resectable by the surgical teams at each institution and must have a determination of degree of anticipated structure preservation of orbit and skull base; this needs to be determined prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave non-epithelial ovarian tumors (e.g., germ cell tumors, sex cord stromal tumors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave known sensitivity to any component of bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHave known sensitivity to any component of paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXCD4 counts: \r\n* For Stratum 1: CD4+ cell count greater than 200 cells/mm^3 obtained within 2 weeks prior to enrollment at any United States (U.S.) laboratory that has a clinical laboratory improvement amendments (CLIA) certification or its equivalent\r\n* For Stratum 2: CD4 cell count between 100-200 cells/mm^3 obtained within 2 weeks prior to enrollment at any U.S. laboratory that has a clinical laboratory improvement amendments (CLIA) certification or its equivalent\r\n* Expansion Cohort: CD4 cell count for this cohort will be specified once Stratum 1 and Stratum 2 have completed enrollment\r\n* Solid Tumor Expansion Cohort: CD4+ cell count greater than 200 cells/mm^3 obtained within 2 weeks prior to enrollment at any U.S. laboratory that has a clinical laboratory improvement amendments (CLIA) certification or its equivalent\r\n* cHL Cohort: CD4 cell count of at least 100 cells/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered medically refractory to decreased immunosuppression (50% or greater reduction) for at least 1 week or there must be documentation in the medical chart that decreased immunosuppression would be associated with an unacceptable risk of rejectionXx_NEWLINE_xXBurkitt morphologyXx_NEWLINE_xXFulminant PTLD defined as: fever > 38 degrees Celsius (C), hypotension, and evidence of multi-organ involvement/failure including two or more of the following: \r\n* Bone marrow (including pancytopenia without any detectable B-cell proliferation) \r\n* Liver (coagulopathy, transaminitis and/or hyperbilirubinemia)\r\n* Lungs (interstitial pneumonitis with or without pleural effusions)\r\n* Gastrointestinal hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere and/or symptomatic refractory concurrent infection other than EBVXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who meet any of the following exclusion criteria related to ocular disease will be excluded from study entry:\r\n* Known risk factors for ocular toxicity, consisting of any of the following:\r\n** History of serous retinopathy\r\n** History of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)\r\n** Evidence of ongoing serous retinopathy or RVO at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have evidence of disease progression per RECIST 1.1 prior to enrollment or have evidence of cancer-related pain requiring symptom management with narcotic analgesicsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedulloblastoma:\r\n* Posterior fossa classic, desmoplastic or extensive nodular or anaplastic/large cell medulloblastoma with appropriate and sufficient tumor material (FFPE or snap frozen) for proposed assays: all stages, age less than 6 years at diagnosis\r\n* Posterior fossa classic or anaplastic/large cell medulloblastoma with sufficient tumor material (FFPE or snap frozen) for proposed assays: clinically high-stage (neuraxis or extra-neural dissemination, M1-4), age greater than 6 years to less than 10 years at diagnosis\r\n* Posterior fossa medulloblastoma, those 6 years of age and above at diagnosis, will only be eligible if they have evidence of neuraxis or extraneural dissemination. Patients 6 years of age and above with low-stage (standard-risk, M0) medulloblastoma will NOT be eligible for this study, irrespective of molecular subgroup and extend of local resectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unbiopsied diffuse intrinsic pontine tumors will NOT be eligible for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis is mandatory for all patients prior to study entry; study eligibility will be based on institutional pathology; however, performance (and ultimate submission for Central Pathology review) of immunohistochemically (IHC) stained slides for INI11 (to rule out CNS AT/RT), GFAP, EMA, neuronal markers (synaptophysin) for all tumors, as well as a reticulin stain for medulloblastomas displaying any degree of desmoplasia on conventional microscopy, is required; in addition, requested, but not required, are IHC slides for P53 and MIB-1/Ki-67 for all tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXKarnofsky performance status > 30% (given the aggressiveness of this disease and the often severely debilitated nature of the patients at initial presentation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of John Cunningham (JC) virus identified in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or previous history of PML will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCirrhosis secondary to any cause will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological evidence of urothelial cancer of the bladder, urethra, ureter, or renal pelvis; differentiation with variant histologies (e.g., squamous cell differentiated) will be permitted provided that the predominant histology is urothelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an ECOG PS score of 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an expected survival of ?3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales must agree to take appropriate precautions to avoid fathering a child from screening through follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion or current risk factors for retinal vein occlusion (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent neuromuscular disorder that is associated with the potential of elevated CK (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParts B1-B6, B8, D1-D6, E3, E4: patients must be >= 12 months and =< 30 years of age at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse\r\n* Parts A & C: patients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, without central nervous system (CNS) tumors or known CNS metastases, are eligible; note: CNS imaging for patients without a known history of CNS disease is only required if clinically indicated\r\n* Part B1: patients with relapsed or refractory neuroblastoma\r\n* Part B2: patients with relapsed or refractory osteosarcoma\r\n* Part B3: patients with relapsed or refractory rhabdomyosarcoma\r\n* Part B4: patients with relapsed or refractory Ewing sarcoma or peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET)\r\n* Part B5: patients with relapsed or refractory Hodgkin lymphoma\r\n* Part B6: patients with relapsed or refractory non-Hodgkin lymphoma\r\n* Part B7: patients with unresectable melanoma or metastatic melanoma or relapsed melanoma or refractory melanoma\r\n* Part B8: Patients with relapsed or refractory neuroblastoma (MIBG evaluable disease without Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors [RECIST] measurable lesion)\r\n* Once the dose-escalation portion of Part A is completed, cohorts that are open concurrently for eligible patients (including Parts B and C and potential pharmacokinetic [PK] expansion cohorts) may be selected at the treating physician’s discretion pending slot availability; in the event a disease group cohort in Part B is completed after the initial stage of Simon’s optimal two-stage design, for selected disease cohorts, a corresponding cohort in the same disease group for select disease types will be open in Part D:\r\n* Part D1: Patients with relapsed or refractory neuroblastoma\r\n* Part D2: Patients with relapsed or refractory osteosarcoma\r\n* Part D3: Patients with relapsed or refractory rhabdomyosarcoma\r\n* Part D4: Patients with relapsed or refractory Ewing sarcoma or peripheral PNET \r\n* Part D5: Patients with relapsed or refractory non-Hodgkin lymphoma\r\n* Part D6: Patients with relapsed or refractory neuroblastoma (MIBG evaluable disease without RECIST measurable lesion)\r\n* Part E3: Patients with relapsed or refractory rhabdomyosarcoma\r\n* Part E4: Patients with relapsed or refractory Ewing sarcoma or peripheral PNETXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance due to pulmonary insufficiency, and a pulse oximetry > 92% while breathing room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with >= grade 2 hypothyroidism due to history of autoimmunity are not eligible; note: hypothyroidism due to previous irradiation on thyroidectomy will not impact eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an HCC diagnosis (initial, recurrent, progressive and/or refractory to other therapies) by at least one criterion listed below =< 360 days prior to study entry\r\n* Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of HCC\r\n* At least one solid liver lesion or vascular tumor thrombosis (involving portal vein, inferior vena cava [IVC] and/or hepatic vein) > 1 cm with arterial enhancement and delayed washout on multi-phasic computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) in the setting of cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis B or C without cirrhosis\r\n* For patients whose CURRENT disease is vascular only: enhancing vascular thrombosis (involving portal vein, IVC and/or hepatic vein) demonstrating early arterial enhancement and delayed washout on multi-phasic CT or MRI, in a patient with known HCC (diagnosed previously < 720 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measureable hepatic disease and/or presence of vascular tumor thrombosis (involving portal vein, IVC and/or hepatic vein) which may not be measureable as per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) on liver CT or MRI, within 28 days PRIOR TO STUDY ENTRYXx_NEWLINE_xXUnsuitable for or refractory to transarterial hepatic chemo-embolization (TACE) or drug eluting beads (DEB) for any of the following reasons, as described by Raoul et al (2011):\r\n* Technical contraindications: arteriovenous fistula, including surgical portosystemic shunt or spontaneous portosystemic shunt\r\n* Severe reduction in portal vein flow: due to tumor portal vein, IVC or atrial invasion or bland portal vein occlusion\r\n* Medical contraindications including congestive heart failure, angina, severe peripheral vascular disease\r\n* Presence of extrahepatic disease\r\n* No response post TACE (or DEB) or progressive HCC despite TACE; prior TACE or DEB is allowed but must be > 28 days from study entry\r\n* Serious toxicity following prior TACE (or DEB); prior TACE or DEB must be > 28 days from study entry\r\n* Other medical comorbidities making TACE (or DEB) unsafe and/or risky (e.g. combination of relative contraindications including age > 80 years, tumor > 10 cm, > 50% replacement of the liver by HCC, extensive multinodular bilobar HCC, biliary drainage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMaximal diameter of any one hepatocellular carcinoma > 15 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal sum of maximum diameters of each definite parenchymal hepatocellular carcinomas within the liver or maximum diameter of a single conglomerate HCC > 20 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 5 discrete intrahepatic parenchymal foci of definite HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable common or main branch biliary duct involvement with HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically suspected Grade II to IV aGVHD as per MAGIC criteria, occurring after allo-HSCT and any GVHD prophylaxis regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to avoid pregnancy or fathering children.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas received more than 1 allo-HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere organ dysfunction unrelated to underlying GVHD, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be enrolled on ANBL00B1 or APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on ANBL1531Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo known contraindication to peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) collection; examples of contraindications might be a weight or size less than the collecting institution finds feasible, or a physical condition that would limit the ability of the child to undergo apheresis catheter placement (if necessary) and/or the apheresis procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females who plan to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral synchronous tumors with inheritable forms of RCC including von Hippel-LindauXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly first and second recurrences of GBM are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of additional risk factors for torsade de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with de novo MDS who have, or have previously had, Intermediate-2 or High risk disease as determined by the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS). Current Intermediate-2 or High risk disease is NOT a requirement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an acceptable MDS subtype:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory cytopenia with unilineage dysplasia (RCUD) (includes refractory anemia (RA))Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB-1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB-2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo intent to use myeloablative conditioning regimens.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following will be ineligible for registration onto this study:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or prior diagnosis of AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psychosocial conditions that would prevent study complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area (BSA) of >= 0.2 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including CNS tumors, are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 94% on room air if there is clinical indication for determination (e.g. dyspnea at rest)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of, or current grade 4 depression are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have adequate nutritional status with Body Mass Index (BMI) > 18 kg/m^2 and body weight of > 40 kg with serum albumin > 3 g/dL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must consent to provision of a sample of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays may be conducted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients to be treated with a regimen containing bevacizumab:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection, symptomatic peripheral vascular disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition (e.g. psychological, geographical, etc.) that does not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible Ages in Australia and Canada; 2 years to 21 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic steroid pretreatment without presteroid WBC documentationXx_NEWLINE_xXCRLF2 rearrangement with JAK1 or JAK2 mutation (JAK+)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCRLF2 rearrangement without JAK mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXOther JAK pathway alterations (eg, JAK2 fusions, erythropoietin receptor (EPO-R) fusions, SH2B3 deletions, interleukin-7 receptor-alpha (IL7RA) mutations) with or without CRLF2 rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXBCR-ABL1-rearranged (Ph+) ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or evidence of cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values adequate for patient to undergo surgery, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject or subject's partner is willing to use condoms for 12 months after receiving Toca 511 or until there is no evidence of the virus in his/her blood, whichever is longer.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a KPS ? 70Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is willing and able to abide by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of more than 2 prior recurrences (including this recurrence) of GBM or AAXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown 1p/19q co deletionXx_NEWLINE_xXMulti focal (defined as 2 separate areas of contrast enhancement measuring at least 1 cm in 2 planes that are not contiguous on either fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) or T2 sequences);Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 5 cm in any dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject intends to undergo treatment with the Gliadel® wafer at the time of this surgery or has received the Gliadel® wafer < 30 days from W1D1 (surgery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll previous treatments are acceptable as long as they did not contain bevacizumab, ramucirumab or PARP inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor inclusion into optional exploratory genetic and biomarker research, patients must fulfill the following criteria:\r\n* Provision of informed consent for genetic research\r\n* Provision of informed consent for biomarker research\r\n** If a patient declines to participate in the optional exploratory genetic research or the optional biomarker research, there will be no penalty or loss of benefit to the patient; the patient will not be excluded from other parts of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must be willing to undergo repeat biopsy at week 16 (for the first 20 patients in the phase 2 part of the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically significant peripheral vascular disease or vascular disease (abdominal aortic aneurysm > 5 cm) or aortic dissection; if known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm with >= 4 cm in diameter, all of the following must be met\r\n* An ultrasound within the last 6 months required to document that it is =< 5 cm\r\n* Patient must be asymptomatic from the aneurysm\r\n* Blood pressure must be well controlled as defined in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy within 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has known and active alcohol or drug dependencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have current signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction within 1 month prior to starting study drugs, except if it was a temporary incident (improved within < 24 hours [hr] with medical management)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis within the last 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXDependency on IV hydration > 1 day per week within the screening periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of natural herb products or other complementary alternative medications; if used previously, patients must have at least 1-week washout and must stop using them while participating in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMen who are sterile (including vasectomy confirmed by post vasectomy semen analysis) OR agree to use a condom with spermicide (refer to Section 2.6.1.3) and to not donate sperm during the study and for at least 180 days following last dose of TRC105 or pazopanibXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoptysis (> ½ teaspoon [2.5 mL] of bright red blood) within 6 months prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPeptic ulcer within the past 3 months prior to randomization, unless treated for the condition and complete resolution has been documented by esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area (BSA) >= 0.84 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known macular degeneration, uncontrolled glaucoma, or cataracts are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart B: Patients with relapsed or refractory neuroblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPart D: Patients with relapsed or refractory rhabdomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.35 m^2 at the time of study enrollment if enrolling on dose levels 1-5; patients must have a body surface area >= 0.46 m^2 at the time of study enrollment if enrolling on dose level 0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with irinotecan are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEXERCISE INTERVENTION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be at least 5 years old and enrolling on SJMB12Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be capable of performing the exercise intervention at the time of baseline assessment as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNEUROCOGNITIVE REMEDIATION INTERVENTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXNo significant cognitive impairment operationalized as either an intelligence quotient (IQ) < 70 for children with SJMB12 baseline testing or based on clinician judgment in the case of missing baseline IQXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA) must be > 0.67 and < 2.5 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia or hypokalemia defined as less than the lower limit of normal for the institution despite adequate electrolyte supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must have a confirmed germline deleterious BRCA mutation; participants with a BRCA1 or BRCA2 classified as “variant, suspected deleterious” by Myriad Genetics are also eligible for the trial; participants with only a BRCA1 or BRCA2 VUS (variant of uncertain significance) are not eligible for this study; if a potential subject is considered high risk for carrying a BRCA1/BRCA2 mutation by National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) criteria but does not have insurance coverage for testing or if results from available testing options will not be ready in time for enrollment in the study Myriad Genetic Laboratories may cover the cost of the test; genetic testing does not have to be performed by Myriad Genetic Laboratories but a study-specific test request form is available for tests submitted to Myriad; this form may also be used for genetic testing which will be covered by the participant’s insurance and may lead to more expedited testingXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant hearing loss that would prevent cisplatin administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXT1 and T2 (< 3.5 cm), N0, M0, confirmed by clinical, cytological or histological examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXIpsilateral diagnostic mammogram within 12 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients known to have BRCA1/2 gene mutations (testing for gene mutations is not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious history of malignant disease does not preclude entry if the expectation of relapse-free survival at 10 years is 75% or greaterXx_NEWLINE_xXPart A1: Patients must be >= 12 months and =< 21 years of age at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPart A2: Patients must be >= 6 months and < 12 months of age at the time of study enrollment; patients will enroll one dose level behind the dose level at which patients in Part A1 are enrollingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including CNS tumors and lymphoma, for which no standard therapy is available are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo supraventricular arrhythmia on electrocardiogram (EKG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 94% on room air if there is clinical indication for determination (e.g. dyspnea at rest)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairment are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunotherapy related myocarditis, colitis, uveitis, or pneumonitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have TCCs tumors harboring a TSC1 or TSC2 mutation identified by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin measurement (HbA1c) < 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnilateral, bilateral, unifocal, or multifocal DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXADH/borderline DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXA patient who has had a lumpectomy with positive margins as part of their treatment for a current DCIS diagnosis is eligible (post-excision mammogram required at enrollment to establish a new baseline)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of invasion or microinvasionXx_NEWLINE_xXAmenable to follow up examinationsXx_NEWLINE_xXMale DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXPapillary or micropapillary DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXBloody nipple dischargeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of and/or current evidence of ectopic mineralization/calcification, including but not limited to soft tissue, kidneys, intestine, myocardia, or lung, excepting calcified lymph nodes and asymptomatic arterial or cartilage/tendon calcifications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be registered to the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) trial prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive for translocation or inversion events involving the ALK gene locus (e.g. resulting in echinoderm microtubule associated protein like 4 [EML4]-ALK fusion) as determined by the Vysis Break Point fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assay and defined by an increase in the distance between 5’ and 3’ ALK probes or the loss of the 5’ probe; this must have been performed:\r\n* By a local Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory: report must indicate the results as well as the CLIA number of the laboratory which performed the assay; tissue must be available for submission for central, retrospective confirmation of the ALK fusion status via ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) OR\r\n* Patient registered to and the ALK fusion status performed centrally on the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had a bilateral mammogram within 12 months prior to registration, unless the initial surgery was a total mastectomy, in which case only a mammogram of the remaining breast is required; (subjects with bilateral total mastectomies do not require imaging)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOMORBID CONDITIONSXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of severe cardiovascular, respiratory or musculoskeletal disease or joint problems that preclude moderate physical activity; examples would include unstable angina, recent myocardial infarction, oxygen-dependent pulmonary disease, and osteoarthritis requiring imminent joint replacement; moderate arthritis that does not preclude physical activity is not a reason for ineligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior bariatric surgery or planning to undergo this procedure within the next 2 years after study registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI >= 27 kg/m^2 documented within 56 days prior to study registration; the most recent body mass index (BMI) obtained must be used for eligibility; if most recent BMI is < 27 then the patient is not eligible to enrollXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported ability to walk at least 2 blocks (at any pace)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pre-treatment blood and tissue specimens submitted for translational medicine as outlined; with patient consent, residuals will be banked for future researchXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients (at National Cancer Institute [NCI] Community Oncology Research Program [NCORP] Institutions only) must be offered the opportunity to participate in the S1207-E01 Behavioral and Health Outcomes study (BAHO); NOTE: patients who have already started endocrine therapy are eligible for the BAHO studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process, the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be enrolled within 1 year after diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior history of gastric/duodenal ulcers documented on endoscopy can be enrolled as long as the ulcers did not cause bleeding requiring a blood transfusion/major intervention; for patients who are Helicobacter pylori positive, a course of Helicobacter pylori eradication treatment must have been completedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have undergone either a mastectomy (total, skin-sparing, or nipple-sparing) or lumpectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrinsic lung disease resulting in dyspneaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hospitalization in past 12 months for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been assigned to S1400FXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) with reflex free T3/free T4 (if TSH is out of normal range) and electrocardiogram (EKG) obtained within 7 days prior to sub-study registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also be offered participation in banking and in the correlative studies for collection and future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously registered to A151216, with the result of lung cancer harboring an EGFR exon 19 deletion or L858R mutation; the testing must have been performed by one of the following criteria:\r\na) Patient registered to A151216 and the assessment performed centrally by the protocol-specified laboratory\r\nb) By a local Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory; the report must indicate the result as well as the CLIA number of the laboratory that performed the assay; these patients will also have been registered to A151216, but can be enrolled on A081105 regardless of the central lab results\r\n* Patients with known resistant mutations in the EGFR tyrosine-kinase (TK) domain (T790M) are not eligible\r\n* Patients that are both EGFR mutant and anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) rearrangements will be registered to A081105Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of cornea abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible under ONE of the following criteria:\r\n* Patients must have histologically confirmed rare cancer and must be able to submit specimens; NOTE: Subsequent to site’s Institutional Review Board (IRB) approval of revision 3, patients are NOT required to participate in EAY131 “National Cancer Institute (NCI)-Molecular Analysis for Therapy Choice (MATCH)” to register to this study\r\n* FOR PATIENTS ENROLLED IN EAY131 “NCI-MATCH” PRIOR TO EAY131 ADDENDUM 10 ONLY: Patients must have histologically confirmed rare cancer that did not have a match to a molecularly-guided therapy on EAY131 “NCI-MATCH” protocol or who are off protocol treatment on EAY131, “NCI-MATCH” and have no further molecularly-matched treatment recommendations per EAY131, “NCI-MATCH” or who are otherwise unable to receive EAY131, “NCI-MATCH” therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that do not qualify for one of the histologic cohorts may be considered for registration in the “Not Otherwise Categorized” Rare Tumors cohort with confirmation of at least one of the study chairs via emailXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate thyroid function, as evidenced by either thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) or, free thyroxine (T4) serum tests demonstrating values within the normal range, within 28 days prior to registration; Note: TSH, with reflex T4 is allowable if per institutional standard; otherwise, both TSH and free-T4 must be obtainedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate adrenal axis function, as evidenced by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) values within the institutional normal ranges OR cortisol levels within institutional normal ranges (ante meridiem [AM] cortisol preferred), within 28 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical T4 tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary surgeon indicates need for abdominoperineal (APR) at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP II: Step 2 registration must be within 6 weeks of completing step 1 therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a clinically relevant hearing impairment >= grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution’s identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study had been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be registered to the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) trial prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must have PD-L1 status tested centrally as part of the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausal statusXx_NEWLINE_xXSCREENING/PRE-SCREENING REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also be offered participation in banking for future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to provide prior smoking history as required on the S1400 Onstudy FormXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXUnited States (U.S.) patients who can complete the survey and the interview by telephone or email in English must be offered participation in the S1400GEN survey ancillary study; NOTE: Patients enrolled to S1400 prior to revision #12 are not eligible for the S1400GEN survey ancillary study; study physicians will provide participants with a hard copy of the survey (at the time of informed consent) to improve tracking and comprehension during the interviewXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-STUDY REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose biomarker profiling results indicate the presence of an EGFR mutation or echinoderm microtubule-associated protein-like 4 (EML4)/ALK fusion are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAs part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution’s identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered into the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impaired decision-making capacity are eligible as long as their neurological or psychological condition does not preclude their safe participation in the study (e.g., tracking pill consumption and reporting adverse events to the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 INITIAL REGISTRATION: HER-2 TESTINGXx_NEWLINE_xXMutation results:\r\n* All patients must have molecular testing performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified lab which includes which includes KRAS and NRAS gene and exon 15 of BRAF gene (BRAF V600E mutation); patients with any known activating mutation in exon 2 (codons 12 and 13), exon 3 (codons 59 and 61) and exon 4 (codons 117 and 146) of KRAS/NRAS genes and in exon 15 (BRAFV600E mutation) of BRAF gene are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 RANDOMIZATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have HER-2 amplification as determined by central testing (3+ or 2+ by immunohistochemistry and HER-2 gene amplification by in situ hybridization with a ratio of HER-2 gene signals to centromere 17 signals >= 2.0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 RANDOMIZATION: As a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 3 CROSSOVER REGISTRATION (OPTIONAL): As a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation identified by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory; acceptable analytic techniques include but are not restricted to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequencing, pyrosequencing, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), melting point assays, and immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible:\r\n* History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or CSR such as:\r\n** Evidence of new optic disc cupping\r\n** Evidence of new visual field defects\r\n** Intraocular pressure > 21 mmHg\r\n* NOTE: ophthalmic exam is required for all patients; exam must be obtained within 28 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen bankingXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2: RANDOMIZATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rheumatoid arthritis and other arthropathies, Sjogren’s syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies should be evaluated for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment but should otherwise be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXResults of central PD-L1 testing available; Q2 Solutions will forward the PD-L1 results to the statistical center and the statistical center will notify the site that the result is available; the notification from the Alliance registration/randomization office will serve as a confirmation of this eligibility criteria; after sites receive the confirmation e-mail from Alliance they can register the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (WNL); supplementation is acceptable to achieve a TSH WNL; in patients with abnormal TSH if free T4 is normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient MUST have had progressive disease (radiographic or clinical) while on arm 1 single agent nivolumab while registered to A091401Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients removed from any immunotherapy for reasons other than progressive disease, including arm 1 single agent nivolumab of A091401, are NOT eligible for re-registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXRe-registration: TSH WNL; supplementation is acceptable to achieve a TSH WNL; in patients with abnormal TSH, if free T4 is normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no known allergies to exemestane, entinostat, or medications that have a benzamide structure (e.g., tiapride, remoxipride, clebropride)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histological or cytological confirmation of melanoma that is metastatic or unresectable and clearly progressive\r\n* NOTE: Any patient with BRAF V600 mutant melanoma (whether cutaneous, acral or mucosal primary) who meets the eligibility criteria is eligible for participation in this trial; patients with uveal melanoma are not eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have BRAF V600 mutation, identified by a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified lab; if test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be provided (FDA approved tests for BRAF V600 mutations in melanoma include: THxID BRAF Detection Kit and Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) < 10 X ULN (patients with LDH > 10 X ULN are felt to have aggressive disease and should be considered for BRAF inhibitor therapy off protocol), obtained within 4 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 (CROSSOVER ARM FOR PATIENTS WITH PROGRESSIVE DISEASE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pathologic staging of ypN0(i+) or ypN0(mol+) are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who have undergone either a total mastectomy or a lumpectomy are eligible; (patients who have had a nipple-sparing mastectomy are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have recovered from surgery with the incision completely healed and no signs of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXN2 or N3 disease detected clinically or by imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with microscopic positive margins after definitive surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or with an active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with new symptoms of congestive heart failure (CHF), cardiomyopathy, myocarditis, myocardial infarction (MI), or exposure to cardiotoxic medications must have a cardiology consultation, creatinine phosphokinase (CPK), and troponin testing at prestudy and as clinically indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not demonstrate any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any unresolved wounds from previous surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXAlbumin, alkaline phosphatase, bicarbonate, blood urea (BUN), chloride, glucose, phosphorus, and total protein must be assessed within 28 days of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a Ki-67 proliferative index of 20-100% OR at least 10 mitotic figures per 10 high powered fieldsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiency will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must NOT have absorption issues that would limit the ability to absorb study agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic peripheral vascular disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with known molecular alterations, institution has been notified that patient is deemed eligible for Arm T per review of molecular testing reportsXx_NEWLINE_xXPredominant non-squamous histology (patients with NSCLC not otherwise specified [NOS] are eligible); mixed tumors will be categorized by the predominant cell type; if small cell elements are present the patient is ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo ongoing major illness or psychosocial issues that would limit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION STEP 1-SPECIMEN SUBMISSIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have specimens submitted for FLT3 testing for randomization stratification; collection of pretreatment specimens must be completed within 1 day of registration to Step 1; specimens must be submitted via the Southwest Oncology Group (SWOG) Specimen Tracking System; FLT3 results will be used for stratification purposes at the time of randomization; E-mail notification of randomization assignment must be received prior to Step 2 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered participation in specimen banking; with patient consent, pretreatment specimens must be collected and submitted via the SWOG Specimen Tracking SystemXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION STEP 2-RANDOMIZATION: FLT3 results will be used for stratification purposes at the time of randomization; E-mail notification that FLT3 specimens have been processed must be received prior to randomization (registration Step 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXARM B (AZACITIDINE + NIVOLUMAB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have baseline troponin test performed for eligibility; however, no associated values must be met in order for the patient to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXARM C (AZACITIDINE + MIDOSTAURIN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven stage III colon adenocarcinoma (any T [Tx, T1, T2, T3, or T4], N1-2M0; includes N1C); tumors must be deemed to originate in the colon including tumors that extend into/involve the small bowel (e.g. those at the ileocecal valve)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of deficient (d) DNA mismatch repair (dMMR); MMR status must be assessed by immunohistochemistry (IHC) for MMR protein expression (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2) where loss of one or more proteins indicates dMMR; dMMR may be determined either locally or by site-selected reference lab; Note: loss of MLH1 and PMS2 commonly occur together; formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue is required for subsequent retrospective central confirmation of dMMR statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with testing that did not show dMMR (loss of MMR protein) are not eligible to participate; patients whose tumors show MSI-H by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based assay are not eligible to participate unless they also have MMR testing by IHC and are found to have dMMR (i.e. loss of one or more MMR proteins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are known to have Lynch syndrome and have been found to carry a specific germline mutation in an MMR gene (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2) are eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must have been completely resected; in patients with tumor adherent to adjacent structures, en bloc R0 resection must be documented in the operative report or otherwise confirmed by the surgeon; near or positive radial margins are acceptable so long as en bloc resection was performed. Proximal or distal margin positivity is not permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXBased upon the operative report and other source documentation, the location of the primary tumor will be categorized as proximal or distal to the splenic flexure (distal includes), and further categorization will be as follows: cecum/ascending, descending, sigmoid colon, or rectosigmoid colonXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (WNL); supplementation is acceptable to achieve a TSH WNL; in patients with abnormal TSH, if free T4 is normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXExcluded if known active pulmonary disease with hypoxia defined as: \r\n* Oxygen saturation < 85% on room air, or\r\n* Oxygen saturation < 88% despite supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have slides available for submission to central pathology review; this review is mandatory prior to registration to confirm eligibility and proper cohort assignment\r\n* HISTOLOGIC COHORT 1: Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (includes: malignant fibrous histiocytoma, myxofibrosarcoma, high grade sarcoma not otherwise specified [NOS])\r\n* HISTOLOGIC COHORT 2: Leiomyosarcoma (either uterine or extra-uterine)\r\n* HISTOLOGIC COHORT 3: Other (either malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor or synovial sarcoma); during the phase II portion of the study, enrollment will be limited to maximum of 25 patients in this cohort\r\n** Note that the phase I is limited to the histologic subtypes listed above; since patients will be enrolling onto dose cohorts during the phase I, they will not enroll onto specific histologic cohorts, although the histologic subtype informed will be collected during patient enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic documentation: Eligible patients must have histopathologically confirmed sarcoma of one of the subtypes listed, by central reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with pazopanib or any phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), mTOR, protein kinase B (AKT), or dual PI3K/mTOR complex (CREB regulated transcription coactivator [TORC]1/TORC2) inhibitors will be prohibitedXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (WNL); supplementation is acceptable to achieve a TSH WNL; in patients with abnormal TSH however if the Free T4 is normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94% if there is clinical indication or determination; pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xX>= 11 and < 25 years old at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFollowed for cancer or survivorship care at one of the following institutions: \r\n* Dana Farber/Harvard Cancer Center\r\n* Hospital for Sick Children\r\n* Children’s Hospital of Eastern Ontario\r\n* Oregon Health and Science University\r\n* Seattle Children’s Hospital\r\n* Yale UniversityXx_NEWLINE_xXHas experienced prior or ongoing hearing impairment due to chemotherapy or radiotherapy as defined by one of the following: \r\n* Society of Pediatric Oncology (SIOP) grade 1 hearing loss\r\n* Subjective (patient-reported) hearing difficulties\r\n* Subjective (patient-reported) tinnitusXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females who plan to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATION (STEP 0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has undergone total resection of the primary tumor with curative intent\r\n* NOTE: Patient is to be pre-registered to screening (Step 0) and tissue submitted to Foundation Medicine as soon as possible after surgery in order to meet the 8 week deadline to register the patient to Step 1 after surgery; full assay minimum turn-around time is 17-24 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent disease or multiple primaries are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZATION (STEP 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with synchronous bilateral invasive disease are eligible as long as all the lesions assessed for HER2 on both sides are negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXIn both the above cases, the lesion considered at highest risk for recurrence based on the investigator's discretion will be used for eligibility determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented germline mutation in BRCA1 or breast cancer 2, early onset (BRCA2) that is predicted to be deleterious or suspected deleterious (known or predicted to be detrimental/lead to loss of function); local germline (g)BRCA testing results, if available, will be used for establishing eligibility; if local gBRCA testing results are not available, central testing will be provided for those patients who otherwise appear to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not have deleterious or suspected deleterious gBRCA1 and/or 2 mutations but only have BRCA1 and/or BRCA2 mutations that are considered to be non-detrimental (e.g., “variants of uncertain clinical significance” or “variant of unknown significance” or “variant, favor polymorphism” or “benign polymorphism” etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious randomization in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen bankingXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of adrenal insufficiency or hypoaldosteronismXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to lie still for imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight =< 300 lbs (pounds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious pelvic irradiation, prostate brachytherapy, or bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious hormonal therapy, such as LHRH agonists (e.g., leuprolide, goserelin, buserelin, triptorelin) or LHRH antagonist (e.g. degarelix), anti-androgens (e.g., flutamide, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate), estrogens (e.g., diethylstilbestrol [DES]), or surgical castration (orchiectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the hormones involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the psychological ability and general health that permits completion of the study requirements and required follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (TSH < ULN allowed in euthyroid patients on thyroid replacement therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active co-morbidity defined as follows:\r\n* Current (within 28 days of cycle 1, day 1) signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction\r\n* Patients who require parental hydration and/or nutrition\r\n* Patients who require drainage gastrostomy tube\r\n* Evidence of bleeding diathesis or clinically significant coagulopathy\r\n* Serious, non-healing or dehiscing wound, active ulcer or untreated bone fracture\r\n* History of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with postoperative fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose circumstances do not permit completion of the study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal abnormalities requiring modification of radiation field (pelvic kidney, renal transplant, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXNegativity for the Philadelphia chromosome must be established by conventional cytogenetics, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or polymerase chain reaction (PCR); patients who are negative for the Philadelphia chromosome by conventional cytogenetics must have FISH or PCR performed for BCR/ABL to exclude occult translocationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have achieved a CR or CRiXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have achieved a CR or CRi must have maintained peripheral blood evidence of a CR or CRiXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have resolved any serious infectious complications related to inductionXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZATION TO BLINATUMOMAB OR NO BLINATUMOMAB-STEP 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered reliable enough to comply with the medication regimen and follow-up, and have social support necessary to allow this complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXCRITERIA FOR MAINTENANCE THERAPY-STEP 4: Patients must have maintained peripheral blood evidence of a remission and must have a CR or CRi, confirmed on restaging BM aspirate and biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBLE SITES:\r\n* Extremities: upper (including shoulder) and lower (including hip)\r\n* Trunk: body wallXx_NEWLINE_xXINELIGIBLE SITES: Head and neck, visceral organs (with the exception of embryonal sarcoma of the liver), retroperitoneum, peritoneum, pelvis within the confines of the bony pelvisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a resting pulse oximetry reading > 94% on room air if there is clinical indication for determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with grade 1 NRSTS tumors of any size are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCertain medications that are associated with a risk for QTc prolongation and/or Torsades de Pointes, although not prohibited, should be avoided or replaced with medications that do not carry these risks, if possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body surface area < 0.5 m^2 are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman immunodeficiency (HIV) positive (+) patients are eligible provided they meet the other eligibility criteria and:\r\n* Cluster of differentiation (CD)4+ cells are >= 250/mm^3\r\n* There is no history of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) defining conditions other than historically low CD4+ cell count\r\n* The following antiretroviral agents are not allowed: zidovudine, stavudine, protease inhibitors, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, combination pills with pharmacologic boosters\r\n* Recommended antiretroviral regimens to avoid pharmacokinetic (PK) interactions include strand integrase inhibitors with nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (for example, dolutegravir given with tenofovir and emtricitabine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide, pomalidomide, or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXWithin 90 days prior to registration: Complete dental exam; complete elimination of dental and periodontal pathology including crowns on teeth susceptible to fracture, extraction of non-restorable or periodontally uncorrectable teeth; creation of an oral environment that the patient can efficiently maintain in a high state of health; and oral hygiene instruction to maintain excellent oral healthXx_NEWLINE_xXFeasibility Phase: Patients must be < 21 years of age at the time of enrollment; please note: the feasibility phase is complete, effective with amendment #1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed RMS of any subtype, except adult-type pleomorphic, based upon institutional histopathologic classification, are eligible to enroll on the study based upon stage, group, and age, as belowXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled hyperglycemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled hyperlipidemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have blood and tissue specimens collected prior to registration and submitted for translational medicine; note that patients without adequate diagnostic specimens will not be eligible; with patient consent, residuals from the mandatory submission will be banked for future researchXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the following components of Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index (FLIPI) available from diagnosis, and collected again at time of registration:\r\n* Age\r\n* Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)\r\n* Number of nodal groups involved\r\n* Serum or plasma hemoglobin \r\n* Ann Arbor stage\r\nAdditionally, patients must have beta-2-microglobulin collected at time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXShortening fraction of >= 27% orXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose primary tumors arise in the intra-dural soft tissue (eg. brain and spinal cord) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ureteral obstruction must undergo stent or nephrostomy tube placement prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of disease outside of the pelvis, including presence of positive periaortic or inguino-femoral nodesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received previous vaginal, pelvic, or abdominal irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have circumstances that will not permit completion of this study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal abnormalities, such as pelvic kidney, horseshoe kidney, or renal transplantation, that would require modification of radiation fieldsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of active collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIf medically feasible, patients taking regular medication, with the exception of potent inducers of CYP3A4, should be maintained on it throughout the study period; patients taking concomitant medications whose disposition is dependent upon breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) and which have a narrow therapeutic index should be closely monitored for signs of changed tolerability as a result of increased exposure of the concomitant medication whilst receiving osimertinib\r\nNOTE: Use of St John’s wort is a contra-indication for osimertinib useXx_NEWLINE_xXIt is recommended that the starting and maintenance dose of rosuvastatin (due to BCRP inhibition by osimertinib) should be as low as possible and should be guided by the statin label; monitoring of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol levels is advised; if the subject experiences any potentially relevant adverse events suggestive of muscle toxicity including unexplained muscle pain, tenderness, or weakness, particularly if accompanied by malaise or fever, the statin should be stopped, creatine kinase (CK) levels should be checked, and any appropriate further management should be takenXx_NEWLINE_xXSupportive care and other medications that are considered necessary for the subject’s wellbeing may be given at the discretion of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXA guidance regarding potential interactions with concomitant medications is providedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients post-prostatectomy with baseline Gleason >= 7 (per prostatectomy pathology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline testosterone level obtained post prostatectomy prior to step 1 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically (histologically) proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate as confirmed at time of prostatectomy; prostatectomy must have been performed =< 365 days (1 year) prior to step 1 registration any type of radical prostatectomy is permitted, including retropubic, perineal, laparoscopic or robotically assisted; (please note: Prior ablative treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy or focal high-intensity focused ultrasound therapy [HIFU] prior to prostatectomy is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgical formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) specimen must be available for submission to GenomeDx for genomic analysis on DECIPHER GRID platform\r\n* Please note: If a patient already has a Decipher risk score and meets all of the other eligibility criteria, the patient is eligible to be registered; however, the Decipher risk report will need to be submitted to GenomeDx for validationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be enrolled on AALL08B1 or APEC14B1 (if available for ALL patients) prior to enrollment on AALL1131Xx_NEWLINE_xXOrgan function requirements for patients with Ph-like ALL and a predicted TKI-sensitive mutation: patients identified as Ph-like with a TKI-sensitive kinase mutation must have assessment of organ function performed within 3 days of study entry onto the dasatinib arm of AALL1131Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94% at sea level if there is clinical indication for determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with BCR-ABL1 fusion are not eligible for post-induction therapy on this study but may be eligible to enroll in a successor Children's Oncology Group (COG) Philadelphia positive (Ph+) ALL trial by day 15 InductionXx_NEWLINE_xXDS HR B-ALL patients with Induction failure or BCR-ABL1Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantXx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility criteria for the Longitudinal, Computerized Assessment of Neurocognitive Functioning study \r\n* Patients must be aged 6 to 13 years at time of B-ALL diagnosis, enrolled on AALL1131\r\n* Patients must be English-, French- or Spanish-speaking (languages in which the assessment is available)\r\n* Patients must have no known history of neurodevelopmental disorder prior to diagnosis of B-ALL (e.g., Down syndrome, Fragile X, William’s Syndrome, mental retardation)\r\n* Patients must have no significant visual impairment that would prevent computer use and recognition of the visual test stimuliXx_NEWLINE_xXEffective March 19, 2018, patients enrolled on AALL0932, without Down syndrome, meeting the following criteria will NOT be eligible to continue on AALL0932 or the HR B-ALL stratum of this study at the end of Induction: \r\n* Without favorable cytogenetics (no ETV6-RUNX1 or double trisomies 4+10), with day 8 peripheral blood (PB) minimal residual disease (MRD) >= 1% and day 29 BM MRD < 0.01%\r\n* With favorable cytogenetics (ETV6-RUNX1 or double trisomies 4+10), with any day 8 PB MRD and day 29 bone marrow (BM) MRD >= 0.01%\r\n* Both NCI standard risk (SR) and HR patients without Down syndrome and with testicular disease at diagnosis, who do not meet other VHR criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXEffective Amendment 6, patients enrolled on AALL0932, without Down syndrome, meeting the following criteria will NOT be eligible to continue on AALL0932 or the VHR stratum of AALL1131: \r\n* Intrachromosomal amplification of chromosome 21 (iAMP21)\r\n* Mixed-lineage leukemia (MLL) rearrangement\r\n* Hypodiploidy (n < 44 chromosomes and/or a deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] index < 0.81) \r\n* Induction failure (M3 BM at day 29)\r\n* Without favorable cytogenetics (no ETV6-RUNX1 or double trisomies 4+10), with day 29 BM MRD >= 0.01%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled on AALL0932, with Down syndrome, meeting the following criteria will NOT be eligible to continue on AALL0932 but WILL BE eligible to enroll on the DS HR B-ALL stratum of this study at the end of Induction: \r\n* Day 29 MRD >= 0.01%\r\n* MLL rearrangement\r\n* Hypodiploidy (n < 45 chromosomes and/or DNA index < 0.81)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDS HR B-ALL patients initially enrolled on AALL0932 or this study who have Induction failure (M3 BM day 29) or Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL1) will not be eligible for post-Induction therapy on either trial (AALL0932 or AALL1131)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and NCI requirements for human studies must be metXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor determined to be mismatch-repair deficient (dMMR) by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified immunohistochemical (IHC) assay with a panel of all four IHC markers, including MLH1, MSH2, PMS2, and MSH6; Note: microsatellite instability high (MSI-H) diagnosed by microsatellite instability (MSI) testing (either Bethesda markers or Pentaplex panel) or by next-generation sequencing (NGS) is not eligible unless dMMR is confirmed by CLIA-certified immunohistochemical (IHC) assay with a panel of all four IHC markers including MLH1, MSH2, PMS2 and MSH6Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown DPD (dihydro pyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment on ANBL00B1 or APEC14B1 is required for all newly diagnosed patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have newly diagnosed v-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene neuroblastoma derived homolog (MYCN) non-amplified neuroblastoma (International Classification of Diseases for Oncology [ICD-O] morphology 9500/3) or MYCN non-amplified ganglioneuroblastoma verified by histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must meet the specified criteria for one of the treatment groups defined below; genomic features include MYCN gene amplification, segmental chromosome aberrations (somatic copy number loss at 1p, 3p, 4p, or 11q or somatic copy number gain at 1q, 2p, or 17q) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) index\r\n* “Favorable” genomic features are defined by one or more whole-chromosome gains or hyperdiploid tumor (DNA index > 1) in the absence of segmental chromosome aberrations as defined above\r\n* “Unfavorable” genomic features are defined by the presence of any segmental chromosome aberration (somatic copy number loss at 1p, 3p, 4p, or 11q or somatic copy number gain at 1q, 2p, or 17q) or diploid tumor (DNA index = 1); this includes copy neutral loss of heterozygosity (LOH)\r\n* Only patients with MYCN non-amplified tumors are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup C: patients < 18 months (< 547 days) of age with newly diagnosed INRG stage Ms neuroblastoma/ganglioneuroblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MYCN amplified tumors are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be newly diagnosed with histologically confirmed intracranial ependymoma; patients with classic ependymoma (WHO II) or anaplastic ependymoma (WHO III) are eligible, as are various subtypes described as clear cell, papillary, cellular or a combination of the aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of metastatic disease will be excluded; any evidence of non-contiguous spread beyond the primary site as determined by pre or post-operative magnetic resonance (MR) imaging of brain, pre or post-operative MR imaging of the spine, and post-operative cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cytology obtained from the lumbar CSF space (the requirement for lumbar CSF examination may be waived if deemed to be medically contraindicated); CSF cytology from a ventriculostomy or permanent ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt that reveals the presence of tumor cells is indicative of metastatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of spinal cord ependymoma, myxopapillary ependymoma, subependymoma, ependymoblastoma, or mixed glioma are NOT eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females may not participate unless they have agreed not to breastfeed a child while on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed mantle cell lymphoma, with cyclin D1 by immunohistochemical stains and/or t(11;14) by cytogenetics or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and with proliferation rate determination, using Ki-67 or MIB-1 immunohistochemistry (=< 30% versus > 30% versus “indeterminate” Ki-67 index)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should be deemed to be potentially eligible and willing candidates for auto-HCT by the enrolling physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXInstitution has received results from Adaptive Biotechnologies as defined by one of the following criteria:\r\n* Patients are “MRD Indeterminate”: ClonoSEQ ID molecular marker assessment did not identify any unique clonal immunoglobulin DNA sequence OR\r\n* ClonoSEQ ID molecular marker assessment identified unique clonal immunoglobulin DNA sequence and MRD assessment is completedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have achieved a radiologic complete or partial remission as defined by the Lugano criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPreoperative biopsy for confirmation of renal cell carcinoma (RCC) must be performed within four (4) months prior to randomization\r\n* If biopsy was performed as part of patients standard care, and will not be performed during step 0 proceed directly to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed higher risk RCC of any histology including sarcomatoid or (if preoperative biopsy was uninformative) - “unknown” histology; RCC must have been confirmed by biopsy within 4 months prior to randomization; if the biopsy clearly demonstrated a benign condition or a different type of cancer, the patient is not eligible to be randomizedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no clinical or radiological evidence of distant metastases (M0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have no prior history of RCC that was resected with curative intent within the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo uncontrolled adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Philadelphia chromosome positive/breakpoint cluster region protein (BCR)-Abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 (ABL1)+ ALL are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females who plan to breastfeedXx_NEWLINE_xXIf the RQ-PCR results are known at the time of study enrollment, the patient must demonstrate the PML-RARalpha transcript by RQ-PCR to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with right bundle branch block plus left anterior hemiblock, bifascicular block are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have constitutional trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) or trisomy 21 mosaicism (by karyotype or fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPomalidomide naive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXFor children who are unable to cooperate for PFTs, the criteria are: no evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry reading of > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nodular lymphocyte-predominant HLXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females who plan to breastfeedXx_NEWLINE_xXUnited States (US) and Canadian sites:\r\n* This review is mandatory prior to registration to confirm eligibility; patients must be willing to submit tissue samples for mandatory central pathology review submission; it should be initiated as soon after surgery as possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to personally complete neurocognitive testing (without assistance) and willingness to complete the QOL testing, (either personally or with assistance)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant serious immunocompromised status (other than that related to concomitant steroids) that would compromise the safety of the patient on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have paraffin tissue from the diagnostic or relapse biopsy available to be submitted for central pathology review and integral molecular subtyping; this review is mandatory prior to registration to confirm eligibility and should be initiated as soon as possible; determination of cell-of-origin subtype will be performed using the lymphoma subtyping test (LST) assayXx_NEWLINE_xXDetermination of activated B-cell–like (ABC) subtype by pre-registration central reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of ibrutinib is allowed unless patient has had disease progression while receiving ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be newly diagnosed and have a confirmed molecular diagnosis of classical histologic type (non large cell/anaplastic [LC/A]) WNT medulloblastoma from rapid central pathology screening review on APEC14B1 (immunohistochemistry [IHC]/molecular screening [positive nuclear beta (B)-catenin by IHC and positive for catenin beta 1 [CTNNB1] mutation) and confirmation of =< 1.5 cm^2 maximal cross-sectional area of residual tumor from rapid central imaging reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the psychological ability and general health that permits completion of the study requirements and required follow up.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCutaneous metastasis of NSCLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases located within 3 cm of previously irradiated (< 3Gy per fraction) structures if not a candidate for surgery for these lesions and if:\r\n* Spinal cord previously irradiated to > 40 Gy\r\n* Brachial plexus previously irradiated to > 50 Gy\r\n* Small intestine, large intestine, or stomach previously irradiated to > 45 Gy\r\n* Brainstem previously irradiated to > 50 Gy\r\n* Lung previously irradiated with prior V20 Gy > 35%Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf a patient has progressed in previous areas of primary disease that received definitive doses of radiation, these patients would require re-irradiation in previous high dose anatomic areas and are not eligible for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or multifocal malignant gliomasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have specimens available and institutions must be planning to submit for centralized pathology review and for integrated translational medicine objectivesXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process, the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be eligible for a higher priority Gynecologic Oncology Group (GOG) protocol, if one exists; in general, this would refer to any active GOG Phase III protocol or Rare Tumor protocol for the same patient populationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with vulvar melanomas or sarcomasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with circumstances that will not permit completion of the study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed patients with histologically proven ALCL (International Classification of Diseases for Oncology [ICD-0] code: 9714/3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease must be cluster of differentiation (CD)30 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of pulmonary dysfunction must have no evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance due to pulmonary insufficiency, and a pulse oximetry > 92% while breathing room air unless current dysfunction is due to the lymphoma in which case the patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with disease limited to the skin are not eligible, regardless of how wide-spreadXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who weigh < 10 kg are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSites are required to complete Step 1 registration before submitting specimens for EBV DNA analysis\r\n* Patients must have detectable pretreatment plasma EBV DNA, determined by the central lab prior to Step 2 registration\r\n* For patients who have detectable plasma EBV DNA tested at one of the credentialed central labs within 28 days prior to Step 1 registration: that test result can be used for eligibility without the need for re-testing; to use this test result for eligibility, the central lab must enter the test result through the pathology portalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hearing loss assessed to be primarily sensorineural in nature, requiring a hearing aid, or intervention (i.e. interfering in a clinically significant way with activities of daily living); a conductive hearing loss from tumor-related otitis media is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drug(s) involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients enrolled on AALL08B1 or APEC14B1 (if open for ALL patients) prior to enrollment on AALL1631, the required diagnostic bone marrow sample has been fulfilled\r\n* For patients who have not previously enrolled on AALL08B1 or APEC14B1 (if open for ALL patients) prior to enrollment on AALL1631, a baseline diagnostic sample must be available to develop an MRD probe\r\n* In addition, laboratory reports detailing evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion must be submitted for rapid central review within 72 hours of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed de novo ALL (B-ALL or T-ALL) with definitive evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion by karyotype, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or reverse transcriptase (RT)-PCRXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with residual macroscopic disease after surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant pre-existing hearing loss, as defined by the patient or treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical stage IA2, IB or IIA squamous, adenosquamous, or adenocarcinoma of the cervix who have any/all of the following high-risk features after surgery:\r\n* Positive pelvic nodes\r\n* Positive parametrium\r\n* Positive para-aortic nodes- completely resected, PET/CT negative (PET only required if positive para-aortic nodes during surgery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients can not have any neuroendocrine histology in pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to carboplatin, paclitaxel, and/or cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXA patient cannot be considered eligible for this study unless ALL of the following conditions are met.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMaximum diameter of individual metastasis in any dimension =< 5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no restrictions on distance between the metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe primary tumor site must be controlled prior to registration\r\n* For those who present with synchronous primary and oligometastatic disease, primary must be controlled prior to registration\r\n* The definition of control is definitive surgery by excision or mastectomy (+/- radiotherapy) per institution preference\r\nFor those who present with local recurrence and oligometastatic disease, local recurrence must be controlled prior to registration\r\n* The definition of control is definitive surgery by excision or mastectomy (+/- radiotherapy) per institution preferenceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following conditions are NOT eligible for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases located within 3 cm of the previously irradiated structures:\r\n* Spinal cord previously irradiated to > 40 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Brachial plexus previously irradiated to > 50 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Small intestine, large intestine, or stomach previously irradiated to > 45 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Brainstem previously irradiated to > 50 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Whole lung previously irradiated with prior V20Gy > 30% (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Primary tumor irradiated with SBRT\r\n* Metastasis irradiated with SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXExudative, bloody, or cytological proven malignant effusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy; lactating females must cease expression of milk prior to signing consent to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXpN0 or pNxXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had cytology within 21 days prior to registration; cytology for patients with CIS component is not expected to be negative for malignant cells; if the cytology for patients with only Ta/T1 disease is positive for malignant cells, patient must have had a biopsy of the prostatic urethra within the previous six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be deemed unfit for radical cystectomy by the treating physician, or the patient must refuse radical cystectomy, which is considered standard of care for these patients; the reason for patients not to undergo cystectomy will be clearly documentedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be BCG-unresponsive; a patient is BCG-unresponsive if they meet one or more of the following criteria:\r\n* Patient has persistent or recurrent high-grade Ta/CIS urothelial carcinoma after completing therapy with at least induction BCG (>= 5 doses) and first round maintenance or second induction BCG (>= 2 doses)\r\n* Patient has high grade T1 urothelial carcinoma after induction BCG (>= 5 doses) only or after induction BCG (>= 5 doses) and first round maintenance or second induction BCG (>= 2 doses)\r\n* Patient is disease-free at 6 months after starting BCG (i.e., complete response) but then experiences a high-grade recurrence within 6 months after the last BCG doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be known to be allergic to Chinese hamster egg or ovariesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future studies, to include translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the oncology patient enrollment network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients’ disease must not have micropapillary componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no evidence of upper tract (renal pelvis or ureters) cancer confirmed by one of the following tests performed within 90 days prior to registration: CT urogram, intravenous pyelogram, magnetic resonance (MR) urogram, or retrograde pyelogramsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have received prior intravesical BCG or intradermal BCGXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be taking oral glucocorticoids at the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be PPD negative within 90 days prior to registration; PPD negativity is defined as < 10 mm diameter induration (palpable, raised hardened area) in the volar forearm at 48-72 hours following injection with standard tuberculin dose (5 units, 0.1 ml); for PPD readings done outside of 48-72 hour window, patients must have PPD test and reading repeated to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future studies to include translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1: NEOADJUVANTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have stage I-III malignant pleural mesothelioma that is deemed resectable and must be planning to undergo pleurectomy decortication (P/D) or extrapleural pneumonectomy (EPP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have epithelioid or biphasic histology (sarcomatoid histology is excluded); histologic diagnosis and typing of mesothelioma will require at least a core needle biopsy or surgical biopsy of the pleura via thoracoscopy and small thoracotomy; cytology only will not be regarded as sufficient for the diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must undergo video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery and diagnostic laparoscopy within 28 days prior to step 1 registration; patients must undergo the diagnostic laparoscopy to rule out peritoneal disease spreadXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be offered the opportunity to participate in tissue and blood banking for future studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process, the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 3: MAINTENANCEXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may have discontinued RT early due to toxicity or other reasonsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have BCR-ABL fusion transcript determined by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or real time-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) or t(9;22)(q34;q11) by cytogenetics are not eligible and should be considered for enrollment on studies that incorporate imatinib during induction; please note: patients must also be assessed for CD20 positivity and other markers; positivity for CD22 and CD20 is defined as baseline expression of the CD22 or CD20 antigen in more than 20% of leukemic cells using local multiparameter flow-cytometric immunophenotyping with the use of CD45 expression as a marker to gate the ALL blast population, according to recommendations from the European LeukemiaNetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with M2 marrow or better are eligible; patients with M3 or M4 marrow (greater than 25% lymphoblasts) will not be eligible to be randomized\r\n* Rating: M0, M1; Blast Cells (%): 0-5.0\r\n* Rating: M2; Blast Cells (%): 5.1-25.0\r\n* Rating: M3; Blast Cells (%): > 25-50\r\n* Rating: M4; Blast Cells (%): > 50.0\r\n* The term “blast cell” includes any cell that cannot be classified as a more mature normal element, and includes “leukemic cells,” pathologic lymphocytes, and stem cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXRegistration Step 1 – Induction/Re-Induction:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a new morphologic diagnosis of precursor B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) (non T cell) based on World Health Organization (WHO) criteria; patients with Burkitt's (L3) are excluded; patients with Ph-positive or Ph-like ALL with dasatinib-sensitive mutations or kinase fusions may have relapsed or refractory diagnoses\r\n* NOTE: Relapsed/refractory Ph-positive patients or Ph-like patients with dasatinib-sensitive mutations or kinase fusions who have previous exposure to either dasatinib or another 2nd or 3rd generation TKI will begin protocol therapy with Cohort 2: re-induction cycle 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort I, Ph-negative Patients OnlyXx_NEWLINE_xXIt is preferred, but not required, that corticosteroids and hydroxyurea should start only after all diagnostic samples have been obtained; however, if the patient was previously on corticosteroids and/or hydroxyurea, this is allowable provided that the patient still has measurable disease at time of the bone marrow aspirate\r\n* Corticosteroids and/or hydroxyurea, as well as any of the other therapies mentioned (with the exception of IV cyclophosphamide), may continue to be administered, at physician discretion, until 1 day prior to blinatumomab administration\r\n** IV cyclophosphamide must be discontinued at least 7 days prior to blinatumomab administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have specimens submitted for blinatumomab immunogenicity assessment; collection of pretreatment specimens must be completed within 28 days prior to registration to S1318; specimens must be submitted to LabConnectXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2, Ph-positive and Ph-like DSMKF Patients OnlyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to have specimens submitted for blinatumomab immunogenicity testing if subsequently moved to a blinatumomab containing treatment regimen on protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPretreatment cytogenetics must be performed on all patients; collection of pretreatment specimens must be completed within 28 days prior to registration to S1318; specimens must be submitted to the site’s preferred CLIA-approved cytogenetics laboratory; BCR-ABL status must be verified in Ph-positive patients by FISH, cytogenetics, and/or PCR prior to enrollment; if a patient is Ph-positive, PCR for both p190 and p210 must be sentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered participation in specimen submission for future research; with patient’s consent, specimens must be submitted as outlinedXx_NEWLINE_xXALL PATIENTS: As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 2 PH-POSITIVE AND PH-LIKE DSMKF PATIENTS ONLY: Newly diagnosed Ph+, newly-diagnosed Ph-like DSMKF, and relapsed/refractory Ph+ patients without prior dasatinib or other 2nd or 3rd generation TKI therapy, must have achieved CR or CRi within 1 cycle of induction with dasatinib/prednisone, or within 2 cycles of re-induction with blinatumomab; relapsed/refractory Ph+ or Ph-like DSMKF patients with prior dasatinib or other 2nd or 3rd generation TKI therapy must have achieved CR or CRi within 2 cycles of re-induction therapy with blinatumomab\r\n* NOTE: day 1 of post-remission = day 85 of the preceding induction cycle (+/- 3 days), or day 43 of the preceding re-induction cycle (+/- 3 days) as applicableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be registered to Step 2 within 28 days after count recovery; (Note: there is no maximum allotted time period for count recovery, providing patient remains in CR or CRi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a Gynecologic Oncology Group (GOG) performance grade of 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in the measureable disease cohort must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 30 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have a newly diagnosed unifocal intracranial meningioma, gross totally resected, and histologically confirmed as WHO grade II based upon pathology findings at the enrolling institution; WHO grade will be assigned according to WHO 2016 criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXFor step 1 registration the operating neurosurgeon must provide the modified Simpson gradeXx_NEWLINE_xXIf the patient is a primary English speaker, the patient must participate in the NCF and patient reported outcomes part of the study; if the patient is a primary French or Spanish speaker, the patient must participate in the patient reported outcomes part of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: Central pathology review must occur between steps 1 and 2 of registration; once appropriate pathology specimens are received, central pathology review will occur within 15 days, and must confirm WHO grade II meningioma before the patient can proceed to step 2 registration and randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXOptic nerve sheath meningioma, spinal or other extracranial meningioma, multiple meningiomas, hemangiopericytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious radiotherapy to the scalp, cranium, brain, or skull base and radiation-induced meningiomasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.35 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have recurrent or refractory disease, or newly diagnosed disease with no known curative therapy or therapy proven to prolong survival with an acceptable quality of life; patients must have had histologic verification of one of the malignancies listed below at original diagnosis or at relapse:\r\n* Ewing sarcoma \r\n* Rhabdomyosarcoma (RMS)\r\n* Non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcomas (STS) including microphthalmia transcription factor associated STS (alveolar soft part sarcoma [ASPS] and clear cell sarcoma [CCS])\r\n* Osteosarcoma\r\n* Wilms tumor \r\n* Rare tumors \r\n** Medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)\r\n** Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)\r\n** Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)\r\n** Hepatoblastoma \r\n** Adrenocortical carcinoma\r\n** Pediatric solid tumors (including central nervous system [CNS] tumors) with known molecular alterations in the targets of XL184 (i.e., MET amplification, overexpression, activating mutation, MET translocation, MET exon skipping mutations, activating RET mutations, RET rearrangement, overexpression or activation of AXL); documentation of the alteration from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory will be requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of active graft versus (vs.) host disease and >= 2 months must have elapsed since transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior WBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to Molecular Analysis for Therapy Choice (MATCH) to APEC1621H based on the presence of an actionable mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.65 m^2 at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to molecular analysis for therapy choice (MATCH) to APEC1621B based on the presence of an actionable mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.53 m^2 at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 94% on room air if there is clinical indication for determination (e.g. dyspnea at rest)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known significant ophthalmologic conditions (uncontrolled glaucoma, history of retinal vein occlusion or retinal detachment, excluding patients with longstanding findings secondary to existing conditions) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to Molecular Analysis for Therapy Choice (MATCH) to APEC1621G based on the presence of a BRAF V600 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.37 m^2 at enrollment while the 120 mg strength tablet supply is available; patients < 0.73 m^2 must follow the dosing nomogram; patients >= 0.73 m^2 at enrollment must follow the dosing nomogramXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled after the drug supply of the 120 mg strength has been exhausted must have a body surface area >= 0.73 m^2 at enrollment and follow the dosing nomogramXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known active cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (includes keratoacanthoma or mixed keratoacanthoma subtype) are not eligible; patients who have fully excised lesions with dermatologic confirmation of absence of disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have evidence of progressive or recurrent GCT (measurable or non-measurable) following one line of cisplatin-based chemotherapy, defined as meeting at least one of the following criteria:\r\n* Tumor biopsy of new or growing or unresectable lesions demonstrating viable non-teratomatous GCT (enrollment on this study for adjuvant treatment after macroscopically complete resection of viable GCT is not allowed); in the event of an incomplete gross resection where viable GCT is found, patients will be considered eligible for the study\r\n* Consecutive elevated serum tumor markers (HCG or AFP) that are increasing; increase of an elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) alone does not constitute progressive disease\r\n* Development of new or enlarging lesions in the setting of persistently elevated HCG or AFP, even if the HCG and AFP are not continuing to increaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have adequate recovery from prior surgery (e.g., healed scar, resumption of diet, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo late relapse with completely surgically resectable disease; patients with late relapses (defined as relapse >= 2 years from the date of completion of the last chemotherapy regimen) whose disease is completely surgically resectable are not eligible; patients with late relapses who have unresectable disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo secondary somatic malignancy arising from teratoma (e.g., teratoma with malignant transformation) when it is actively part of the disease recurrence or progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to Molecular Analysis for Therapy Choice (MATCH) to APEC1621F based on the presence of an actionable mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.5 m^2 at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-registration: Patients must have local diagnosis of papillary craniopharyngioma and have tissue slides available for submission to central pathology review; central pathology review will include immunohistochemistry (IHC) testing for BRAF V600E mutation (VE1 clone) and beta-catenin IHC (membranous, non-nuclear pattern) if needed to confirm diagnosis of papillary craniopharyngiomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven papillary craniopharyngioma as documented by central pathology review with positive BRAF V600E mutation by IHCXx_NEWLINE_xXAPEC1621SC: Patient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to molecular analysis for therapy choice (MATCH) to APEC1621A based on the presence of an actionable mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients accruing to dose level 1 must have a body surface area >= 0.52 m^2 at the time of study enrollment; patients accruing to dose level 2 must have a body surface area >= 0.37 m^2 at the time of study enrollment; patients accruing to dose level -1 must have a body surface area >= 0.75 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with subependymal giant cell astrocytomas (SEGAs) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have tumors determined to be easily accessible for biopsy and must be willing to have serial biopsies (with a third biopsy upon evidence of disease progression)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be newly diagnosed with histologically-proven primary pediatric hepatic malignancies including hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma, except as noted below; note that rapid central pathology review is required in some cases; please note: all patients with histology as assessed by the institutional pathologist consistent with pure small cell undifferentiated (SCU) HB will be required to have testing for INI1/SMARCB1 by immunohistochemistry (IHC) according to the practices at the institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with histology consistent with pure SCU must have positive INI1/SMARCB1 stainingXx_NEWLINE_xXShortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram (for patients on doxorubicin-containing regimens [Groups C, D, E, and F]), orXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of prescription proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) within 12 months prior to study entry\r\n* Dexlansoprazole (Dexilant)\r\n* Pantoprazole (Protonix)\r\n* Rabeprazole (AcipHex)\r\n* Esomeprazole (Nexium)\r\n* Lansoprazole (Prevacid)\r\n* Omeprazole (Prilosec, Zegerid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of over the counter (OTC) PPIs within 6 months prior to study entry\r\n* Esomeprazole (Nexium)\r\n* Lansoprazole (Prevacid)\r\n* Omeprazole (Prilosec, Zegerid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNursing mothers are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for CHOP regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to pralatrexate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCutaneous T cell lymphomas except transformed mycosis fungoides (MF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImpending need for palliative RT or surgery for pathological fractures and/or for medullary compression within four weeks prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have confirmed hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) by histopathology or imaging criteria according to AASLD guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease that is not amenable to potentially curative resection or ablative techniques or that has recurred following ablative techniques. In addition, disease must not be amenable to transhepatic arterial chemoembolization (TACE) or must have progressed on TACE. Patients must not be candidates for liver transplantation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after alisertib administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded from this study if they are found to harbor “favorable” risk cytogeneticsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome, or sleep apnea requiring supplemental oxygen, and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepinessXx_NEWLINE_xXA medical condition requiring use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs); or histamine 2 (H2) receptor antagonists; patients who intermittently use these medications, must meet the following criteria:\r\n* No use of PPIs within 5 days before the first dose of alisertib\r\n* No use of H2 antagonist or pancreatic enzymes within 24 hours before the first dose of alisertibXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with clinically significant enzyme-inducing drugs, including known P-glycoprotein inducers (including St. John’s Wort and rifampicin) should be used only if absolutely necessary and considered to be the best available choice for the patient; if possible, it is recommended that alternatives to known substrates, inhibitors or inducers of P-glycoprotein be considered; cases should be discussed with the principal investigator, and may be allowed as per his/her discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: Subjects must have a diagnosis of neuroblastoma or ganglioneuroblastoma (nodular or intermixed) verified by histology or demonstration of clumps of tumor cells in bone marrow with elevated urinary catecholamine metabolites. Subjects with the following disease stages at diagnosis are eligible, if they meet the other specified criteria: a) Subjects with newly diagnosed neuroblastoma with INSS Stage 4 are eligible with the following: i. Age > 18 months (> 547 days) regardless of biologic features or ii. Age 12-18 months (365-547 days) with any of the following 3 unfavorable biologic features (MYCN amplification, unfavorable pathology and/or DNA index = 1) or iii. MYCN amplification (> 4-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals), regardless of age or additional biologic features. b) Subjects with newly diagnosed neuroblastoma with INSS Stage 3 are eligible with the following: i. MYCN amplification (> 4-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals), regardless of age or additional biologic features or ii. Age > 18 months (> 547 days) with unfavorable pathology, regardless of MYCN status. c) Subjects with newly diagnosed neuroblastoma with INSS Stage 2A/2B with MYCN amplification (> 4-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals), regardless of age or additional biologic features.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpecimens will be obtained only in a non-significant risk manner and not solely for the purpose of investigational testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to tolerate PBSC collection: No known contraindication to PBSC collection. Examples of contraindications would include a weight or size less than that determined to be feasible at the collecting institution, or a physical condition that would limit the ability of the child to undergo apheresis catheter placement (if necessary) and/or the apheresis procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infants.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any prohibited concomitant medications: immunotherapy, 5 alpha reductase inhibitors, spironolactone, diethystilbestrol (DES), ketoconazole, newer medications targeting ARs; NOTE: the concurrent use of all other drugs, over-the-counter medications, or alternative therapies must be documented; the principal investigator should be alerted if the patient is taking any agent that interacts with CYP450 systemXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity to ribociclib or compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to ribociclib or other drugs formulated with polysorbate 80; or enzalutamide; all herbal, alternative and food supplements (i.e., prostate cancer [PC]-Spes, saw palmetto, St John wort, etc.); they must be discontinued prior to treatment start; patients may continue on a daily multi-vitamin, calcium and vitamin DXx_NEWLINE_xXHormonal-acting agents (including DES, aldosterone, and spironolactone but not including gonadotropin-releasing hormone [GnRH] agonists or antagonists) are forbidden during the trial and must be stopped prior to treatment start; no washout period will be required for any of these agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMargins of the resected specimen or re-excision specimen must be histologically free of invasive tumor and ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) as determined by the pathologist\r\n* Notes: Additional operative procedures may be performed to obtain clear margins; focally positive margins are acceptable based on technical feasibility of additional surgery and/or the potential for benefit with further surgery based on the extent and location of the positive margin (eg, focally positive deep margin at the pectoralis fascia); also, patients with margins positive for lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) are eligible without additional resectionXx_NEWLINE_xXRecovery from surgery with the incision completely healed and no signs of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical nodal staging of N2 or N3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic nodal staging of N2b, N2c, or N3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMicroscopic positive margins after definitive surgery\r\n* Note: Patients with microscopically focally positive margins following lumpectomy or mastectomy are not excluded if re-excision is not technically feasible and/or there is no benefit to further surgery based on the extent and location of the positive marginXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of ipsilateral or contralateral axillary surgery for any conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of lymphedema involving the ipsilateral or contralateral arm at present or at any time in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or with an active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have had external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) or loco-regional therapies such as radiofrequency (RF) ablation must show subsequent evidence of substantial size increase to be deemed a target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXa contraceptive implantXx_NEWLINE_xXhave a vasectomized partner with confirmed azoospermia. NOTES:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS must have been diagnosed as MDS by WHO (4th edition) or French-American-British (FAB) classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS must have failed to respond to, or progressed after, adequate treatment with a hypomethylating agent (HMA), or had documented intolerance of an HMA, and must have an International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score ? 1.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an extensively disseminated primary glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically proven diagnosis of any of the following malignancies:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHead and neck carcinoma (H&N). Salivary glands tumors are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary tract carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEwing's family of tumors (EFTs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or concurrent malignant disease unless in complete remission for more than five yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXRelevant diseases or clinical situations which may increase the patient's riskXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma or absolute requirement for chronic inhaled corticosteroid medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must obtain prior approval from insurance to reimburse for oral temozolomide for the duration of the study or agree to self-pay for oral temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not completed the appropriate washout period for the prohibited medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for taxane monotherapy (i.e., absence of rapid clinical progression, life-threatening visceral metastases, or the need for rapid symptom and/or disease control)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor NSCLC:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor HCC:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a viral load <100 international units/milliliter (IU/mL).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave major abnormalities documented by ECHO with Doppler:Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe heart valve function defect including moderate or severe valve stenosis or regurgitation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave septal aneurysm or other heart aneurysm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny aneurysm of the major vessels.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has malabsorption syndrome or other condition which may affect an enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ocular melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring any daily supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have previously untreated MDS or AML according to the WHO 2016 classification.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMDS patients must have Intermediate (>3 to 4.5 points), High Risk (>4.5 - 6) or Very High Risk (>6 points) disease according to the Revised International Prognostic Scoring System 2012.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed locally advanced gastric (primary endpoint includes proximal and mid-body stomach) or esophagogastric adenocarcinoma; distal gastric (antral) adenocarcinomas are eligible for enrollment but will not be included in the primary analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have diagnostic laparoscopy with diagnostic washings for cytology; both cytology positive and negative patients are eligible for enrollment, but only cytology negative patients will be included in the primary analyses; gross peritoneal disease is not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any polymorphism in UGT1A1 other than *1 or *28 (e.g., *6) will be allowed and treated as in the *28/*28 dosing groupXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients allergic to eggs are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking additional dietary/herbal supplements (excluding Senekot) outside of this protocol and refusing to stop are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed UC of the bladder, urethra, ureter or renal pelvis with positive retinoblastoma (Rb+)/CDKN2A- based on immunohistochemistry (IHC) of tissue blocks or unstained slides performed within a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory at University of North Carolina (UNC); if stage I of original cohort indicates futility, molecular requirement for eligibility will change to Rb+/CCND1 overexpression (also based on IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious, ongoing, non-malignant disease or infection that would compromise protocol objectivesXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within protocol-defined rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of melanoma will be required by previous biopsy or cytology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors to be injected lying close to an airway, major blood vessel or spinal cord that, in the opinion of the Investigator, could cause occlusion or compression in the case of tumor swelling or erosion into a major vessel in the case of necrosis. Patients with lesions in mucosal areas (vulvar, anus, oral cavity, etc.), are eligible, as long as the subject has at least one lesion suitable for injection; consult Medical Monitor for confirmation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active colitis or immune-mediated colitis that has not resolved to grade 1 or less.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with CVA21.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a KPS ? 60.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received bevacizumab (Avastin).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjecting has any condition, including compromised pulmonary function, that would preclude the use of lomustine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an active implantable or other electromagnetic device.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to undergo percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) placement, if necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXHematological and biochemical indices within acceptable ranges at Screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny number and type of prior anticancer therapies are allowed except BRAF or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are known to be experiencing an objective partial response to immunotherapy at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of malignancy with confirmed activating RAS mutation at any time; Note: prospective RAS testing is not required; however, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a previously documented retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received 4 or more cycles of one of the following prior systemic induction chemotherapy regimens:\r\n* Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride (hydroxydaunomycin), vincristine sulfate (Oncovin), prednisone (R-CHOP) (with or without cytarabine-containing cycles, including “Nordic” and European Mantle Cell Lymphoma Network [MCL-NET] protocols) with or without autologous (auto) stem cell transplant (SCT)\r\n* R-Hyper-cyclophosphamide, vincristine sulfate, doxorubicin hydrochloride (adriamycin), dexamethasone (CVAD) with or without auto SCT\r\n* Bendamustine + rituximab with or without auto SCT\r\n** Please note:\r\n*** Patients are allowed to receive combinations of the above regimens\r\n*** At the time of registration, patients must be at least 14 days out from last dose of cytotoxic chemotherapy, but no more than 120 days; if a patient underwent auto SCT, he/she must demonstrate engraftment (per treating investigator's discretion) and meet all other hematological requirements as outlined below\r\n*** Patients who progress during induction therapy are not eligible to enroll in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have achieved a response to induction chemotherapy (either CR or PR by Cheson 2007 criteria) and be without known progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known John Cunningham (JC) virus infection and/or progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is non-responsive to, refractory to, or intolerant of ESAs, or ESAs are contraindicated or unavailable, or a documented serum erythropoietin level of > 500 U/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with IPSS category of Int-2 or high-risk MDS.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II only: Patients with a deletion 5q cytogenetic abnormality.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has persistent toxicities from prior MDS therapies which are determined to be relevant by the Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOVCA pts excluded with any of the following: non-epithelial, including malignant mixed mullerian tumors, unresolved bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand and adhere to dietary and medication restrictions as recommended for the safe use of phenelzineXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of medications contra-indicated due to potential interactions with phenelzineXx_NEWLINE_xXRare Tumors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be age >12 months at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSpecimens will be obtained only in a non-significant risk manner and not solely for the purpose of investigational testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive history of diverticulitis; note that diverticulosis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant known vascular disease (e.g. aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary hemorrhage or gross hemoptysis (bright red blood of >= 1/2 teaspoon per episode) within 6 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an unresectable liver mass consistent with cholangiocarcinoma, for which treatment with gemcitabine plus cisplatin is intended.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory data as specified below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of another malignancy within 3 years of the baseline visit. (Patients with cutaneous carcinomas or in-situ carcinomas will be considered for study entry on a case-by-case basis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic diarrhea (excess of 2-3 stools/day above normal frequency).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastric or small bowel surgery involving any extent of gastric or small bowel resection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have exhibited allergic reactions to a similar structural compound or to a formulation component of CX-4945.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use either of warfarin and/or 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitors (statins).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients planning to undergo radiation therapy for primary or recurrent carcinomas of the lung or oligo-metastatic carcinoma to the lung; Note: this may be delivered by SBRT or standard fractionation, based on the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to hold their breath for > 20 seconds for 5 timesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are able to tolerate flexible bronchoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients able to have bronchoscopic placement of Calypso transponders as confirmed on a recent (within the past 8 weeks) CT scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with implants in the chest region that contain metal or conductive materials (e.g., metal implants, rods, or plates) which Varian Medical considers will interfere with the Calypso System's electromagnetic localizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active implanted devices, such as pacemakers, defibrillators, and drug infusion pumpsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with bronchiectasis in the region of the intended implantation sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose lung tumors are being monitored with magnetic resonance (MR) imaging (MR imaging of the anchored transponders is safe but yields an image artifact around the anchored transponders)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPosterior lesions that would be > 19 cm distance from Calypso detector plate; patients may be treated in the prone position in order to meet the required minimum distanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are deemed unable to safely undergo or tolerate flexible bronchoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to tolerate anesthesia or sedationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in any other clinical studies the investigator believes to be in conflict with this investigationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received at least two lines of HER2-directed therapy in the inoperable locally advanced and/or metastatic setting; prior therapy for inoperable locally advanced/metastatic disease should include trastuzumab plus pertuzumab as well as ado-trastuzumab; pertuzumab and ado-trastuzumab should have been previously used, unless for reasons that include, but are not limited, to the following: intolerance to pertuzumab and/or ado-trastuzumab, medical contraindication, regimen declined by patient, treating investigator discretion, or medical insurance coverage issues which prevented administration of pertuzumab or ado-trastuzumab; these reasons must be reviewed with the study chairs and documented in the medical record and care report form; patients who relapse within 12 months of completing neoadjuvant/adjuvant pertuzumab or ado-trastuzumab would be considered as having progressed on that regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen and men of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologic diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus, gastroesophageal junction (GEJ), or gastric cardia (GC) based on biopsy material or adequate cytologic exam; tumors of the GC are defined as originating within 5 cm of the GEJXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of clinical T4b (unresectable) or M1 (distant metastasis) according to the AJCC 2010 staging system will be ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDenosumab or zoledronic acid are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXIs willing and able to remain confined in the study unit for the entire duration of each treatment period and comply with restrictions related to food, drink and medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas history or current use of over-the-counter medications, dietary supplements, or drugs (including nicotine and alcohol) outside protocol-specified parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXthe analysis of resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of a serious allergic or anaphylactic reaction to humanized monoclonal antibodies are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPretreatment cytogenetics must be performed on all patients; collection of pretreatment specimens must be completed within 14 days prior to registration to S1312; specimens must be submitted to the site's preferred Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-approved cytogenetics laboratory; reports of the results must be submitted as described; note that cytogenetics are required at other time pointsXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Patients must have biopsiable disease and be amenable to having two research biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious treatment with regorafenib AND TAS-102 (this applies to phase II only; if patients have previously received either regorafenib OR TAS-102, they must be able to receive the alternate regimen if randomized to the standard of care arm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHospitalization for an acute medical issue within 4 weeks prior to screening visit that would otherwise not be managed in an infusion center or outpatient clinic setting (i.e., a patient admitted to complete a transfusion would not be ineligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic bowel obstruction within 6 months prior to screening visitXx_NEWLINE_xXTumours that are known to have genomic alterations in PTEN or PIK3CB by local test results may also be eligible. Part B - Tumour amenable to taking of paired biopsies in opinion of the investigator.Patients with TNBC or mCRPC: PTEN-deficient tumours Parts A,B or D1(mCRPC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProspectively determined eligible PTEN alteration determined by next generation sequencing, protein deficient determined by IHC or PIK3CB mutation/amplification. Part D2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSensitive or narrow therapeutic range substrates of CYP2D6Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere or moderate hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to sensitive or narrow therapeutic range substrates of the drug metabolising enzymes CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP2C19 or the drug transporters Pgp, BCRP, OATP1B1, OATP1B3, OCT1 and OCT2 within the appropriate wash-out period before the first dose of study treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal ECHO or MUGA at baseline <55%.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe pathology from the primary surgery must be reviewed and finalized at either Dana-Farber Cancer Institute/Brigham & Women's Hospital or the pathology department at any participating institutionsXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven, systemic DLBCL with a proliferation rate =< 90%, that has been confirmed by an acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) Malignancy Clinical Trial Consortium (AMC)-approved site pathologist using hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) and immunohistochemical stains; if a hard copy of the pathology report is unavailable at the time of enrollment into the screening segment, a verbal report by the pathologist confirming the diagnosis must be documented in the medical chart; a hardcopy of the pathology report must be available prior to randomization (enrollment into the Treatment Segment); Note: measurable disease is not an entry requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient deemed to be suitable candidate for myeloablative or reduced intensity conditioning allogeneic HSCT using PBSC or marrow as stem cell sourceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a rhabdomyosarcoma will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled hyperlipidemia (total cholesterol > 350 or triglycerides > 300) are NOT eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage are NOT eligible for participation\r\n* Lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels (contiguous tumor and vessels) are excluded; however, the presence of a tumor that is touching, but not infiltrating, the vessels is acceptable; CT with contrast is strongly recommended to evaluate such lesions\r\n* Large protruding endobronchial lesions in the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, endobronchial lesions in the segmented bronchi are allowed\r\n* Lesions extensively infiltrating the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, minor infiltrations in the wall of the bronchi are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any prohibited medication within the timeframesXx_NEWLINE_xXBased on surgeon's assessment, patient is recommended to undergo cytoreduction surgery via laparotomy with the operative goal of this procedure to achieve optimal cytoreduction to less than 1 cm of residual diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cerebrovascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRestrictive or obstructive pulmonary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to accept allogeneic or autologous blood transfusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan for exploratory laparoscopy prior to laparotomy for assessment of disease resectabilityXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgeon has high suspicion (> 50% chance) that cytoreduction surgery will be aborted due to inability to achieve optional cytoreduction to < 1 cm residual diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven intra-cranial or spinal ependymoma or anaplastic ependymoma; there must be pathologic or imaging confirmation of tumor progression or regrowth; the patient’s histologic diagnosis must be confirmed on central pathology review prior to registration step 2\r\n* If a patient has already had central pathology review at MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC) (for example, from a previous enrollment to protocol CERN08-02), the central pathology does not need to be repeated; previous pathology confirmation can be utilized for this study’s pathology eligibility testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive scleroderma or calcinosis cutis with features of Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia (CREST) syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any pulmonary infiltrate including those suspected to be of infectious origin; in particular, patients with resolution of clinical symptoms of pulmonary infection but with residual pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray are not eligible until pulmonary infiltrates have completely resolvedXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia defined as heart rate (HR) < 50 beats per minute (bpm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block + left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLumbar CSF must be assayed for cytology, alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCGbeta); a quantitative serum determination of AFP and HCGbeta should be performed at the time of the lumbar CSF assayXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with no elevations of serum and/or CSF HCGbeta and AFP must have histological diagnosis of malignant GCT or germinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate antibiotics, blood products, anti-emetics, fluids, electrolytes and general supportive care are to be used as necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of any enzyme inducing anticonvulsants is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll institutional and Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requirements for human studies must be metXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received gemcitabine, oxaliplatin and/or paclitaxel are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAges > 50 years with hematologic malignancies treatable by related or unrelated HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXAges =< 50 years of age with hematologic diseases treatable by allogeneic HCT who through pre-existing medical conditions or prior therapy are considered to be at high risk for regimen related toxicity associated with a high dose transplant (> 40% risk of transplant-related mortality [TRM]); this criterion can include patients with a HCT-comorbidity index (CI) score of >= 1; transplants should be approved for these inclusion criteria by the principal investigators at the collaborating centers and at Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center (FHCRC); all children < 12 years must be discussed with the FHCRC principal investigator (PI) prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAges =< 50 years of age with hematologic diseases treatable by allogeneic HCT who refuse a high-dose HCT; transplants must be approved for these inclusion criteria by the principal investigators at the collaborating centers and at FHCRCXx_NEWLINE_xXAggressive non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHL) and other histologies such as diffuse large B cell NHL: not eligible for autologous HCT, not eligible for high-dose allogeneic HCT, or after failed autologous HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXMantle cell NHL: may be treated in first complete remission (CR); (diagnostic lumbar puncture [LP] required pre-transplant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapidly progressive intermediate or high grade NHLXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of circulating leukemic blasts (in the peripheral blood) detected by standard pathology for patients with AML, ALL or CMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of >= 5% circulating leukemic blasts (in the peripheral blood) detected by standard pathology for patients with MDS/MPSXx_NEWLINE_xXThe FHCRC PI of the study must approve of enrollment of all patients with pulmonary nodulesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe addition of cytotoxic agents for “cytoreduction” with the exception of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (such as imatinib), cytokine therapy, hydroxyurea, low dose cytarabine, chlorambucil, or Rituxan will not be allowed within three weeks of the initiation of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXPARTICIPANTS FROM COLLABORATING SITES PARTICIPATING IN BIOLOGICAL OBJECTIVES ONLY: Informed consent must be obtained by local principal investigator (PI) or his/her designee according to International Conference on Harmonization of Technical Requirements for Registration of Pharmaceuticals for Human Use ICH/Good Clinical Practice and local guidelines before enrollment into studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 25% (may be reached by transfusion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCalculated Cr Cl >= 30 ml/min; eligible for reduced dose methotrexateXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with radiographic signs of excessive intra-cranial mass effect with associated rapid neurologic deterioration, and/or spinal block, are unsafe to undergo BBBD chemotherapy and are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCystoscopically and radiographically confirmed cT2-4a cN0 cM0 disease. Patients with cT4a disease invading into the prostatic stroma with no cystoscopic confirmation of muscle invasion are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY CRITERIA - PHASE I (ARMS A, B, C): Relapsed or refractory B-cell or T-cell ALL after multi-agent chemotherapy (>= 5% marrow lymphoblasts, assessed by morphology and flow cytometry; flow cytometry will be used to confirm immunophenotype and percentage of blasts will be assessed by morphology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFirst generation: AR antagonists (e.g., bicalutamide, nilutamide, flutamide), 5 alpha reductase inhibitors, ketoconazole, estrogens (including diethylstilbesterol [DES]), or progesteronesXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than NSCLC within 5 years prior to randomization, with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death treated expected curative outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-squamous NSCLC histology with activating ALK and EGFR mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to the protocol specified doses of anthracyclinesXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiological progression (confirmed at least 4 weeks after the initial scan showing PD); orXx_NEWLINE_xX(For progression based solely on worsening of non-target or new, non-measurable disease) confirmation by an additional scan at least 4 weeks after the initial scan unless it is accompanied by correlative symptoms. In addition, all the following must hold:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf BRAF mutation status is unknown, before randomization the subject must have BRAF testing performed using an approved assay method.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in Cohorts 1-5, Cohort A, Cohort B and Phase 2 Doublet must be refractory to all therapies known to confer clinical benefit to their disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInjected lesions (up to two) must be between 20 mm and 90 mm in diameter for IT injection; lesions must be accessible for baseline and on-treatment biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treated with prior interleukin-2 (IL-2).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been previously treated with a toll-like receptor (TLR) agonist (excluding topical agents) and patients who have received experimental cancer vaccines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of any retinal disorders (e.g., retinal detachment, diabetic retinopathy, retinal hemorrhage, macular degeneration).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-CD38 (eg, daratumumab) as part of a combination regimen or as a monotherapy Subjects who were not candidates to receive one or more of the above treatments (ie, contraindicated) are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire systemic immunosuppressive therapies (eg, calcineurin inhibitors, methotrexate, mycophenolate, rapamycin, thalidomide, immunosuppressive antibodies such as anti-IL-6 or anti-IL-6 receptor [IL-6R])Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of clinically relevant CNS pathology such as epilepsy, seizure, paresis, aphasia, stroke, severe brain injuries, dementia, Parkinson's disease, cerebellar disease, organic brain syndrome, or psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must harbor an alteration in ALK using a CLIA-certified laboratory, including, but not limited to, ALK^ATI, ALK fusions, or ALK mutations (for treatment phase)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 1, only subjects HER2 or HER3 molecular/genetic alterations will be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs able to take medications orally (e.g., no feeding tube).Xx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of locally-assessed, biopsy-proven EBV+ PTLD with a pathology sample available for central reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXMales and females of any ageXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade ? 2 graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) per the Center for International Blood and Marrow Transplant Research (CIBMTR) consensus grading system at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for vasopressor or ventilatory supportXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent brainstem tumors with an atypical presentation who have undergone biopsy are eligible provided there is histologic confirmation of malignant glioma WHO II-IV; these patients must undergo Rb1 screening; these patients must have radiographic evidence of progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with secondary malignant gliomas will be eligible for this study but should conform to all other eligibility requirements; patients with low-grade gliomas are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA)\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level -1 must have BSA >= 0.55m^2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level -0.5 must have BSA >= 0.75m^2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 0 must have BSA >= 0.55m^2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 1 must have BSA >= 0.75m^2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 2 and 3 must have BSA >= 0.45m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are candidates for enrollment for the phase I or surgical studies must sign a screening consent and provide pre-trial tumor material for Rb1 testing unless testing is not needed due to diagnosis or the availability of prior Rb1 IHC results; the screening consent is to be obtained according to institutional guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I (STRATUM 1): Patient has intact Rb1 protein confirmed either from previous results or screened tissue; all testing must be performed in a CLIA certified laboratory; DIPG patients with radiographically typical appearance will be waived from this requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXBSA\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level -1 must have BSA >= 0.55m2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level -0.5 must have BSA >= 0.75m2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 0 must have BSA >= 0.55m2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 1 must have BSA >= 0.75m2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 2 and 3 must have BSA >= 0.45m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic status\r\n* Patients with neurological deficits should have deficits that are stable for a minimum of 1 week prior to enrollment\r\n* Patients with seizure disorders may be enrolled if seizures are well controlled on an anti-epileptic drug that is not a strong inducer or inhibitor of CYP3A4/5 are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a known hypersensitivity to ribociclib or any of its excipients as described below: \r\n* The capsules contain only the drug substance without any excipients\r\n* The film-coated tablets consist of drug substance and compendial quality colloidal silicon dioxide, crospovidone, hydroxypropylcellulose, magnesium stearate and microcrystalline cellulose; the film-coating is a mix of compendial quality iron oxides, lecithin, polyvinyl alcohol, talc, titanium dioxide, and xanthan gum\r\n* The oral solution consists of ribociclib succinate in water with an orange flavoring agent and common excipients such as preservatives, sweetener and pH modifierXx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion Cohort #1 - Patients will have relapse of CD123+ BPDCN. Patients with prior CD123-targeting agents will be allowed as long as the blasts still have detectable CD123 expression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion Cohort #2 - Patients will have first relapse of CD123+ AML.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion Cohort #3 - Patients will have relapse of CD123+ ALL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion Cohort #4 - Patients will have relapse of CD123+ \other\ hematologic malignancies not included in the cohorts above (e.g., high-risk/very high-risk MDS, MPN, CMML, CML blast crisis). Other CD123+ malignancies may be considered upon discussion with the Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of Grade 3-4 capillary leak syndrome, or non-cardiac Grade edema are ineligible, e.g., related to SL-401 or other etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas pathologically documented unresectable, recurrent, or metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma (until sponsor's notification to the study sites, subject must be a RAS/BRAF wild-type cancer)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown fibrolamellar HCC, sarcomatoid HCC, or mixed cholangiocarcinoma and HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight ? 35 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior receipt of any investigational immunotherapy. Subjects may have received agents that have local health authority approval for the disease indicationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a history of ILD, drug-induced ILD, radiation pneumonitis that required steroid treatment, or any evidence of clinically active ILD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations/medications are not allowed throughout the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not receive any non-oncology vaccine therapy during the period of NEO PV-01 or pembrolizumab administration and until at least 8 weeks after the last dose of the booster vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines are allowed but may not be administered between the first dose of pembrolizumab and the last booster dose of NEO-PV-01Xx_NEWLINE_xXNursing women are excluded from this study because there is an unknown but potential risk of AEs in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with pembrolizumab, personalized neoantigen peptides, and adjuvant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAngioimmunoblastic T-cell lymphomas (AITL);Xx_NEWLINE_xXfailed to achieve at least a partial response after 2 or more cycles;Xx_NEWLINE_xXfailed to achieve a complete response after 6 or more cycles; and/orXx_NEWLINE_xXprogressed after an initial responseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas participated in Merck MK-3475 (pembrolizumab) clinical trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHomozygous for the UGT1A1*28 allele (UGT1A1 7/7 genotype) or heterozygotes for UGT1A1*28 (UGT1A11 7/6 genotype) only for the phase I partXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of positive dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for daily supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented germline mutation or somatic mutation (or homozygous deletion) in one of the DNA repair genes listed below that is deleterious or suspected to be deleterious; the mutation must be identified through a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-approved next generation sequencing (NGS) panel\r\n* Cohort 1: Germline mutation in one of the DNA repair genes listed below OR\r\n* Cohort 2: Somatic mutation or homozygous deletion in one of the DNA repair genes listed below or a somatic mutation of BRCA1 or BRCA2 (without germline BRCA 1 /2 mutation) \r\n* DNA Repair Gene List: ATM, ATR, BARD1, BRIP1 (FANCJ), CHEK2 , FANCA, FANCC, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCF, FANCM, MRE11A, NBN, PALB2, RAD50, RAD51C, RAD51D, plus other hormone receptor (HR)-related genes at the discretion of Dr. Tung with the key study collaborators \r\n** All deep (homozygous) deletions, frameshift mutations and truncating mutations in the genes listed above are eligible as well as missense variants in these genes that have previously been reported as pathogenic or likely pathogenicXx_NEWLINE_xXGermline BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive coronary artery diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCorneal defects, corneal ulcerations, keratitis, keratoconus, history of corneal transplant, or other known abnormalities of the cornea that may pose an increased risk of developing a corneal ulcerXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Individuals/or persons who are nursing\r\n* Individual/or persons who are pregnant\r\n* Individuals/or persons of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving any medications or substances with risk of Torsades de Pointes; Note: medications or substances on the list “Drugs with Risk of Torsades de Pointes” are prohibited; medications or substances on the list “Drugs with Possible or Conditional Risk of Torsades de Pointes” may be used while on study with extreme caution and careful monitoringXx_NEWLINE_xXGlucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency (i.e. below normal limits)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of calcium oxalate stonesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of iron overloadXx_NEWLINE_xXArchival tissue confirming the diagnosis must be reviewed by Brigham and Women's Hospital (BWH)/Dana-Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI)/Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline Fridericia's correction formula (QTcF) < grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose escalation and expansion cohort: HER2+ tumors documented by clinical pathology report:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAssessment of HER2 status in patients with gastric and gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma should follow the criteria published by Ruschoff et al. (38) as practicable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with breast and gastric/gastroesophageal junction cancers should have HER2 testing performed using a FDA approved test in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior cumulative doxorubicin dose must be ? 360 mg/m2; prior cumulative epirubicin dose must be ? 720 mg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infusion reactions to any component/excipient of PRS-343.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of trastuzumab or ado-trastuzumab emtansine within 4 weeks of scheduled C1D1 dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of clinically severe lung disease, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requiring emergency management and/or hospitalization in the last yearXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other conditions that preclude enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor all groups:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort A1: Non-squamous NSCLC, with no activating EGFR mutations, ALK or ROS1 translocations/rearrangements. If monotherapy pembrolizumab is available as a standard of care treatment option, patients must have a tumor proportion score (TPS) <50% for PD L1 (via the 22C3 pharmDx or the Ventana (SP263) PD L1 IHC assay).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort A2: Transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium including the bladder, urethra, renal pelvis, and ureter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior immunotherapy with any antibody or drug specifically targeting T cell co-stimulation or immune checkpoint pathways.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of immunosuppressive medication at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXTo qualify for Part 1, the participant must be t(11;14) positive as determined by an analytically validated Fluorescent In Situ Hybridization (FISH) assay per central laboratory testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed recurrent or metastatic advanced solid tumor, for which there is no curative-intent treatment option and confirmation of the presence of AKT1, AKT2, or AKT3 mutations detected by the Memorial Sloan-Kettering (MSK)-integrated mutation profiling of actionable cancer targets (IMPACT) assay platform or other Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-approved testXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known activating mutations in KRAS, NRAS, HRAS and BRAFXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1C) >= 8.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for insulin for routine diabetic management and controlXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for > 2 oral hypoglycemic medications for routine diabetic management and controlXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infectious disease considered by the Investigator to be incompatible with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen or women ?18 years who are candidates to receive IV decitabine, ie, subjects with MDS previously treated or untreated with de novo or secondary MDS, including all French-American-British subtypes (refractory anemia, refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts, refractory anemia with excess blasts, refractory anemia with excess blasts in transformation, and chronic myelomonocytic leukemia [CMML]), and subjects with MDS International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) int-1, -2, or high-risk MDS.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressive or highly proliferative disease (total white blood cell count of >15 × 10^9/L) or other criteria that render the subject at high risk of requiring intensive cytotoxic chemotherapy within the next 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing alcohol or drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B Safety Run-In (Ribociclib + PDR001 + Fulvestrant): Men are eligible, as long as on a GnRH agonist for at least 6 weeks prior to study entry; men MUST remain on the GnRH agonist for the duration of protocol treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXExpansion Cohort B (Ribociclib + PDR001 + Fulvestrant): Men are eligible, as long as on a GnRH agonist for at least 6 weeks prior to study entry; men MUST remain on the GnRH agonist for the duration of protocol treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAll CohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave BSA involvement corresponding to stages IA, IB or IIA CTCL with at least 3 distinct lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas inadequate venous access and/or contraindications to leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmation of NSCLC; a pathology report confirming the diagnosis of NSCLC must be obtained and reviewed by the treating physician prior to registration to studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to certain cumulative doses of anthracyclinesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven recurrent or residual intracranial or metastatic meningioma or meningioma with extracranial spreadXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic meningiomas (as defined by extracranial meningiomas) and meningioma with extra-cranial spread are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy (or recombinant antibody-related fusion proteins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of illicit drug or alcohol abuse within 12 months prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXParanasal sinus/nasal cavity malignancy is considered unresectable with negative margins surgery or resection would be considered excessively morbid; this could include lesions with:\r\n* Carotid involvement\r\n* Cavernous sinus invasion\r\n* Brain invasion\r\n* Orbital apex\r\n* Intraconal space\r\n* Pterygoid musculature involvement\r\n* Invasion of the clivusXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to return to Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) for frequent scheduled hydration sessions post-chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or radiologic suspicion of residual MCC at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressive disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of primary MDS classified as very low, low or intermediate risk with <5% blasts of >= 16 weeks durationXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG of 0-1 at screenXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of secondary MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXMDS associated with 5q(del) abnormalityXx_NEWLINE_xXScreen serum erythropoietin level > 400 mIU/mL,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed advanced (stage IIIB or IV) non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC)\r\n* ALK-rearranged NSCLC: ALK rearrangement as assessed by ALK fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), immunohistochemistry (IHC), or next-generation sequencing (NGS); for ALK FISH, rearrangements must be detected in > 15% of tumor cells\r\n* EGFR-mutant NSCLC: EGFR activating gene mutation (e.g., L858R, exon 19 deletion) as well as a T790M mutation per local testingXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1.5 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subjects should be in first or second CR (including CR and SCR) or PR (including PR and VGPR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFailed previous HSC collections or collection attempts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose apheresis product were to be further selected and purifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived >2 cycles of alkylating agent combinations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXO2 saturation < 92% (on room air). 19. History of unexplained syncope, syncope from an uncorrected cardiac etiology, or family history of sudden death.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesions suspected to be at higher-risk for bleeding such as bowel involvement with tumor that invades into the bowel wall or involves the intraluminal component of bowel by imaging or direct visualization or central pulmonary lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXUlcerated skin lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas proteinuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival >= 3 months after consentingXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who is eligible for HSCT at the time of study screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown Childs class B or C hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSodium >= LLNXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-manageable graft versus host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of targetable EGFR mutations or ALK re-arrangements\r\n* All patients with adenocarcinoma histology must be tested for EGFR and ALK status, unless a KRAS mutation is detected in which case EGFR/ALK testing is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor O(6)-methylguanine-DNA-methyltransferase (MGMT) methylation status must be available; results of routinely used methods for MGMT methylation testing (e.g. mutagenically separated polymerase chain reaction, MSPCR, or quantitative polymerase chain reaction [PCR]) are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED) are not eligible for treatment on this protocol; patients may be on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs or not be taking any anti-epileptic drugs; patients previously treated with EIAED may be enrolled if they have been off the EIAED for 10 days or more prior to the first dose of PT2385Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors involving spinal cord or heartXx_NEWLINE_xXVisceral crisis or lymphangitic spread\r\n* NOTE: Visceral crisis is not the mere presence of visceral metastases, but implies severe organ dysfunction as assessed by symptoms and signs, laboratory studies, and rapid progression of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of clinically significant dry eye (xerophthalmia) or other corneal abnormality, or if a contact lens wearer, does not agree to abstain from contact lens use from baseline through the last TVB-2640 doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of intolerance to trastuzumab (i.e. a grade 3 or 4 infusion reaction) are excluded; Note: patients with a history of mild infusion reaction to trastuzumab who have previously been successfully re-challenged after an infusion reaction with or without prophylactic medication are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: abstinent or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating sperm for at least 3 months after cobimetinib and atezolizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or evidence of ongoing serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusion (RVO) at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of metastases to brain stem, midbrain, pons, or medulla, or within 10 millimeter (mm) of the optic apparatus (optic nerves and chiasm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographic condition that may hamper compliance with the protocol and follow-up after treatment discontinuationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has voluntarily agreed to abide by all protocol required procedures including study related assessments, and management by the treating institution for the duration of the study and long-term follow-up.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have documented diagnosis of either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has confirmed sufficient expression of NY-ESO-1 and/or LAGE-1a by reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) as determined by a central laboratory contracted by the Sponsor (this determination will also be made under a pre-enrollment screening ICF).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is fit for leukapheresis and has adequate venous access for the cell collection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with endocrine AE of any grade are permitted to enroll if they are stably maintained on appropriate replacement therapy and are asymptomatic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have required the use of additional immunosuppression other than corticosteroids for the management of an AE related to checkpoint inhibitors, not have experienced recurrence of an AE related to checkpoint inhibitors if re challenged, and not currently require maintenance doses of corticosteroids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnticancer Vaccine -2 months NOTE: The subject should be excluded if the Investigator considers their disease is responding to an experimental vaccine given within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have previously participated in Merck pivotal trial NCT02576977: Study of Pomalidomide and Low Dose Dexamethasone With or Without Pembrolizumab (MK-3475) in Refractory or Relapsed and Refractory Multiple Myeloma (RRMM) (MK-3475-183/KEYNOTE-183).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with Grade 2 toxicities that are deemed stable or irreversible (e.g. peripheral neuropathy) can be enrolled on a case-by-case basis with prior consultation and agreement with the Sponsor Study Physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of myelodysplasia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take antithrombotic prophylaxis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have, or be willing to have an acceptable central catheter. (Port a cath, peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC-line], or central venous catheter) (Insertion only required if randomized to Arm A).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to pomalidomideXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to IMiDs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior hepatitis B vaccine are permitted (defined as HBsAg-, Anti-HBs+, Anti-HBc-).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-active hepatitis B (HBsAg-, Anti-HBs+, Anti-HBc+) may be enrolled at the discretion of the investigator after consideration of risk of reactivation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has prior exposure to any pyrrolobenzodiazopine-containing agentXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of major immunologic reaction to any Immunoglobulin G (IgG).Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of cholecystitis (subject with history of cholecystectomy will not be excluded), or has active gallbladder disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have histologically confirmed newly diagnosed glioblastoma or glioblastoma variant (example [ex.] gliosarcoma), including documentation of unmutated isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH) by immunohistochemistry or sequencingXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants receiving any medications or substances that are moderate and/or potent enzyme inducers or inhibitors which may have an effect on the metabolism of bavituximab; as part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal productXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of active graft versus host disease (GVHD) and >= 2 months must have elapsed since transplant or rescueXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXNo exercise intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be on therapeutic anti-coagulation; prophylactic anti-coagulation (i.e., intraluminal heparin) of venous or arterial access devices is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXUveal melanoma is excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a newly-diagnosed glioblastoma or gliosarcoma that has been confirmed pathologically by a board-certified neuropathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trial; subjects will be approximately representative of the demographics of the referral base for the participating institutionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with GBMs located in the following anatomical regions known to have magnetic susceptibility or poor signal will be excluded: mesial temporal lobe, orbitofrontal cortex, prefrontal cortex, medial frontal gyrus, brainstem, and cerebellumXx_NEWLINE_xXHas Merkel cell carcinoma, small cell lung carcinoma, or large cell NEC of lung \r\n* Intermediate grade neuroendocrine tumors are excluded\r\n* Well differentiated grade 3 neuroendocrine tumors are excluded\r\n* Metastatic high-grade prostate carcinoma with evidence of focal neuroendocrine differentiation on prostate biopsy (e.g., positive chromogranin staining by immunohistochemistry) without small cell or large cell NEC morphology are excluded, as are neuroendocrine prostate cancers with phenotype intermediate between adenocarcinoma and small cell\r\n* Atypical bronchial carcinoid and well differentiated G2 gastro-entero-pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (GEP-NET) are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or high suspicion of Gilbert’s disease (safety run-in, Part B only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown CD20-negative status at relapse or progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 3b FLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of transformation of indolent disease to DLBCL (expansion-phase only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to humanized or murine monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with symptomatic bradycardiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with protein-bound paclitaxel allowed if it has been six months since received or progressed on protein-bound paclitaxel and plan to continue to receive protein-bound paclitaxel with MinnelideTMcapsulesXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematologic status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation, or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for at least 2 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with graft versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have received drugs that directly or indirectly inhibit calcineurin or Nuclear Factor of activated T cells (NFAT) activity .Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with Frederica's (QTcF) formulas (QTcF) ?450 msec;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with angina not well-controlled by medication;Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors harboring known activating KRAS, NRAS, HRAS, BRAF or PTPN11 (SHP2) mutations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal cardiac rhythm not controlled with medication; Hx of stroke within 1 year; Hx of coronary events and/or heart failure within 1 year.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHx of drug-related anaphylactic reactions, severe allergic reactions related to drug; active diagnosis of uncontrolled airway hyperactivity, uncontrolled asthma, or asthma requiring oral corticosteroids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHx of drug-induced acute tubular necrosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic renal failure or current evidence of moderate to severe renal impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived systemic investigational drug within 6 weeks prior to AVB-620 administration or has received AVB-620 previously.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn ALK activating mutation;Xx_NEWLINE_xXALK amplification (> 10 signals of the ALK gene);Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any ALK fusion protein that arises from a chromosomal translocation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high risk neuroblastoma according to COG risk classification at the time of study registration. Patients who were initially considered low or intermediate risk, but then reclassified as high risk are also eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have been previously treated with lorlatinib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on hemodialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient declines participation in NANT 2004-05, the NANT Biology StudyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, RVO (retinal vein occlusion), or neovascular macular degeneration; the risk factors for RVO are listed below; patients should be excluded if they have the following current conditions: \r\n* Uncontrolled glaucoma with intra-ocular pressures > 21 mmHg \r\n* Serum cholesterol > grade 2 \r\n* Hypertriglyceridemia > grade 2 \r\n* Hyperglycemia (fasting) > grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking testosterone, methyltestosterone, oxandrolone (Oxandrin), oxymetholone, danazol, fluoxymesterone (Halotestin), or testosterone-like agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease (e.g. immobile node on physical exam, nodal disease that radiographically involves the carotid arteries, nerves)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGastric/gastroesophageal junction/esophageal carcinoma (G/GEJ/E)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSoft tissue sarcoma subtypes except GIST, desmoid tumors and pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of hematemesis, melena, hematochezia, ? grade 2 hemoptysis, or gross hematuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXAcetaminophen use within 24 hours before a dose of gedatolisib (PF-05212384)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of herbal preparations including saw palmettoXx_NEWLINE_xXProton pump inhibitor: the concomitant use of proton-pump inhibitors (including, but not limited to, dexlansoprazole, esomeprazole, lansoprazole, omeprazole, pantoprazole, rabeprazole) with palbociclib is prohibited; recommendations about the use of antacids or H2-receptor antagonists include, but not limited to: cimetidine, famotidine, nizatidine, and ranitidine; if needed, administer H2-receptor antagonists with a staggered dosing regimen (twice daily); the dosing of palbociclib should occur at least 10 hours after H2-receptor antagonist evening dose and 2 hours before the H2-receptor antagonist morning dose; local antacids: as acid lowering agents, local antacids may decrease palbociclib absorption and exposure; however, if needed, local antacids should be given at least 2 hours before or at least 2 hours after palbociclib administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXRecovery from ASCT toxicity as defined as outpatient status, able to drink, eat normally, and do not need intravenous hydration prior to day 1 of therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal carmustine (BCNU) dose of > 600 mg/m^2 with prior treatments including transplant conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancy of non-squamous histology that carries a BRAF, KRAS, NRAS or HRAS mutation(s).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancy of squamous histology. In cases of mixed histology, squamous must be the predominant histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematologic status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion, neurosensory retinal detachment, or neovascular macular degeneration. Evidence of visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for retinal vein thrombosis or neurosensory retinal detachment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has legal incapacity or limited legal capacity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXfluoropyrimidine (IV 5-FU capecitabine, or S-1),Xx_NEWLINE_xXirinotecan,Xx_NEWLINE_xXramucirumabXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than adenocarcinoma of the stomach or gastroesophageal junction (including hematologic malignancies) within 3 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of drug or alcohol abuse within past 5 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastrointestinal bleeding, gastric stress ulcerations, or peptic ulcer disease within the past 3 months prior to randomization that, in the investigator's opinion, may place the patient at risk of side effects from anti-angiogenesis products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with DLBCL, BCLu, HGBCL NOS, or HGBCL with translocations of MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6, must have had no prior chemotherapy for lymphoma. Steroids for palliation prior to enrollment are allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable disease (defined as at least 1.5 cm in diameter).Xx_NEWLINE_xXTotal abstinence from sexual intercourseXx_NEWLINE_xXA vasectomized partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXHormonal contraceptives (oral, parenteral, vaginal ring, or transdermal) that started at least 3 months prior to study drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXA partner who is surgically sterile or postmenopausal (for at least 1 year) or who is taking hormonal contraceptives (oral, parenteral, vaginal ring, or transdermal) for at least 3 months prior to study drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal abstinence from sexual intercourseXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic use of a P-gp inhibitor, or a P-gp substrate with a narrow therapeutic index. A washout period of 7 days is required prior to venetoclax dosing if a prohibited medication is discontinued.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant intercurrent illness that will limit the patient's ability to participate in the study or may result in their death over the next 18 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the dose de-escalation cohort: subjects must have evaluable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with leptomeningial disease or neoplasms in the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known metastases that are currently involving the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBCG-unresponsive disease as defined as: (a) Persistent or recurrent CIS (+/- recurrent Ta/T1 disease) within 12 months of receiving adequate BCG (at least five of six doses doses of an initial induction course plus either at least two of three doses of maintenance therapy or at least two of six doses of a second induction course); or (b) Recurrent high-grade Ta/T1 disease within 6 months of completion of adequate BCG (at least five of six doses of an initial induction course plus either at least two of three doses of maintenance therapy or at least two of six doses of a second induction course); or (c) T1 high-grade disease at the first evaluation following an induction BCG course alone (at least five of six doses of an initial induction course).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrence of BCG unresponsive Ta/T1 disease > 6 months after last BCG instillation or BCG unresponsive CIS > 12 months after last BCG instillation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent febrile illness, active urinary tract infection, active tuberculosis, a history of hypotension or anaphylactic reactionsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of anal or small bowel carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing or active gastritis or peptic ulcer disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTotal triiodothyronine (T3) or free T3 and free thyroxine (T4) are within normal limits. (control by thyroid replacement therapy is acceptable.) Participants with T3, free T3 or free T4 abnormalities at screening who are asymptomatic can be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to fast for 6 hours before and 2 hours after Oradoxel administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAn oral medication with a narrow therapeutic index known to be a P-gp substrate within 24 hours prior to start of dosing in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire therapeutic use of anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological DiagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKRAS Mutant CRC: Advanced KRAS mutant CRC who have progressed or are ineligible for both irinotecan and oxaliplatin based chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to cumulative doxorubicin dose ? 360 mg/meter squared. If another anthracycline or more than one anthracycline has been used, then the cumulative dose must not exceed the equivalent of 360 mg/meter squared of doxorubicinXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere dyspnea at rest, due to complications of advanced malignancy, or requiring supplementary oxygen therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not be taking metformin for a reason other than study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have been treated for another SCC of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx or larynx in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants receiving any medications or substances that are known to cause photosensitivity (e.g. tetracyclines, sulfonamides, phenothiazines, sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents, thiazide diuretics, griseofulvin, fluoroquinolones, St. Johns' wort, amiodarone) are ineligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHyperleukocytosis with ? 30,000 leukemic blasts/µL blood (hydroxyurea permitted up to 24 hours prior to beginning study drugs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWild-type TP53 statusXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation profileXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative neoplasmXx_NEWLINE_xXLeukemic blast counts of >25,000/µlXx_NEWLINE_xXDeletion of chromosome 17, or del(17p)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequired use of medications predominantly cleared by hepatobiliary transporters within 48 hours of study drug infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid pregnancy or fathering childrenXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive oral or IV hydrationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant therapy with allopurinol and other xanthine oxidase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known risks factors for bowel perforationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown deficiencies or suspected defect in the urea cycleXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC with EGFR or ALK mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXColorectal cancer (CRC) (not mismatch repair deficient by local assay including PCR and/or immunohistochemistry)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant disease, other than that being treated in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with TB. Note: Patient with latent TB may be eligible based on the investigator's benefit-risk assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive skin or soft tissue infection including cellulitis, erysipelas, impetigo, furuncle,carbuncle, abscess, or fasciitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of retinal vein oclusion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cardiomyopathy and/or LVEF < LLN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC patients with EGFR mutant tumors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been infected with HBV or HCV including those with inactive disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther malignant diseases than the ones being treated in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable blood workXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimitive peritoneal, pericardial and tunica vaginalis testis mesotheliomasXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of alteration in CDK pathway (amplifications in CDK4, CDK6, CCND1, CCND2, CCND3 or CCNE1 or loss of CDKN2A) using a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified assayXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with progressive extracranial disease will not be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled electrolyte disorders that can compound the effects of QTc-prolonging drug (e.g. hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated spinal cord metastases are eligible if lesions are asymptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated brainstem metastases are eligible if lesions are small and asymptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT IXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement of both the Chow et al. and type of cancer, ECOG performance status, age, prior palliative chemotherapy, prior hospitalizations, and hepatic metastases (TEACHH) models, indicating a median life expectancy of > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT IIXx_NEWLINE_xXLife expectancy of > 3 months as defined by agreement of both the Chow et al. and TEACHH modelsXx_NEWLINE_xXSBRT target size > 8 cm in maximum diameter (or > 100 cc in volume)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement of active receipt of systemic therapies concurrent with SBRT (concurrent hormonal therapies are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients lacking the capacity to describe their symptoms are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ allograft requiring immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants receiving any medications or substances that are moderate or strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A within 7 days of registration; proton pump inhibitors (PPI) may be taken while on study, however it is recommended that the PPI is taken 12 hours from the time of palbociclib administration; if needed, alternative antacid therapies may be used including H2-receptor antagonists and locally acting antacids; H2-receptor antagonists should be administered with a staggered dosing regimen (twice daily); the dosing of palbociclib should occur at least 10 hours after H2-receptor antagonist evening dose and 2 hours before the H2-receptor antagonist morning doseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is a female who is pregnant or breast-feeding, or intends to become pregnant during their participation in the study (including up to 6 months after the last dose of IMP) or is a male who intends to father a child during their participation in the study (including up to 6 months after the last dose of IMP);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with any prior Grade ? 3 irAE to other therapeutic proteins or immunotherapy, and the reaction could not be controlled or prevented on subsequent infusion with standard therapies such as antihistamines, 5-hydroxytryptamine antagonists, or corticosteroids;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has clinical evidence of Disseminated Intravascular CoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a known sensitivity to any of the components of the investigational product AGS62P1:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAGS62P1Xx_NEWLINE_xXL-Histidine baseXx_NEWLINE_xXL-Histidine HClXx_NEWLINE_xX?, ? -Trehalose DihydrateXx_NEWLINE_xXPolysorbate 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior ACT infusion within 6 months of study enrollment (cohorts include ACT with tumor infiltrating lymphocytes [TIL], human leukocyte antigen [HLA]-class I T cell receptor [TCR]-engineered lymphocytes, HLA-class II TCR-engineered lymphocytes, and chimeric antigen receptor [CAR]-engineered T cells)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease suitable for assessment by pre- and post-biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave biopsiable and evaluable disease. Note: biopsy is optional for patients known to harbor a BRCA1/2 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXHospitalization for bowel obstruction within 3 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMen and women of all ethnic groups are eligible for this trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSince the teratogenic potential of this combination is currently unknown, females who are pregnant or lactating are excluded. Males and females should perform abstinence or use barrier to prevent pregnancy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients known to be HIV(+), Hep BsAg(+), or Hep C(+) are excluded as the effect of the agent on immune system has not been assessedXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to abiraterone acetate, ketoconazole or other specific cytochrome (CYP)-17 inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to agents specifically targeting both mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) complexes (dual target of rapamycin complex 1 [TORC1] + target of rapamycin complex 2 [TORC2] inhibitors) and/or phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K)/ protein kinase B (AKT) pathwaysXx_NEWLINE_xXActive treatment with medications that lower the seizure threshold which cannot be held: \r\n* Aminophylline/theophylline\r\n* Atypical antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone)\r\n* Bupropion\r\n* Lithium\r\n* Pethidine\r\n* Phenothiazine antipsychotics (e.g., chlorpromazine, mesoridazine, thioridazine)\r\n* Tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline, desipramine, doxepin, imipramine, maprotiline, mirtazapine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1.5 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with any underlying medical condition that the treating physician considers might be aggravated by treatment or which is not controlled (e.g. elevated troponin or creatinine, uncontrolled diabetes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with an organ allograftXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpes simplex virus (HSV)-1 infection (such as herpetic keratitis, herpetic encephalitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of a therapeutic anticoagulantXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermittent or chronic use of oral or intravenous antiherpetic drug (such as acyclovir)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCommon variable immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown severe congenital or acquired cellular or humoral immunodeficient or immunocompromised patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient having out of range laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant disease, other than that being treated in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        • Patients aged 65 to < 75 years with at least one non severe comorbidity ie disease or\n        syndrome with mild to moderate clinical or diagnostic observations or lab abnormalities\n        which could increase the risk of toxicity and/or early death of intensive chemotherapy in\n        the opinion of the investigator and are not contra-indicated for non-intensive\n        chemotherapy.\n\n        or ? 75 years with or without any comorbidity at the time of the informed consent\n        signature;\n\n        • Newly diagnosed, untreated de novo or secondary AML according to WHO classification;\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Prior or current treatment with chemotherapy for any myeloid disorder (excluding\n             hydroxyurea) or radiotherapy for extramedullary involvement within 2 weeks of\n             randomization;\n\n          -  Prior treatment with decitabine, azacitidine, or cytarabine;\n\n          -  Prior malignancies for 5 years with exception of basal cell, squamous cell carcinoma\n             of the skin, or carcinoma \ in situ \ of the cervix or breast;\n\n          -  Chronic myelogenous or acute promyelocytic leukaemia;\n\n          -  Known CNS involvement;\n\n          -  Patient eligible to bone marrow or stem cell transplant;\n\n          -  WBC ? 30.000/mm3;\n\n          -  Impaired renal function with Creatinine clearance < 30 mL/min/1.73m² according to the\n             MDRD formula;\n\n          -  Serum bilirubin ? 2.5 x ULN and/or AST and/or ALT ? 2.5 x ULN (upper limit of normal\n             value);\n\n          -  Calcemia ? 2.65 mmol/L (106 mg/L) at screening assessment (corrected with\n             albuminemia);\n\n          -  History of diseases known to be associated with calcium disorders: ongoing\n             hyperparathyroidism, sarcoidosis….;\n\n          -  Presence or history of symptomatic kidney stones in the last 5 years;\n\n          -  Hypersensitivity to any of the excipients of decitabine (Potassium dihydrogen\n             phosphate (E340) ; Sodium hydroxide (E524) ; Hydrochloric acid (for pH adjustment) or\n             to the excipient of inecalcitol tablets (lactose);\n\n          -  Current use of drugs known to influence serum calcium (such as thiazide diuretics,\n             teriparatide, calcitonin and multivitamin supplements containing > 400 IU of vitamin D\n             or calcium);\n\n          -  Current use of digitalis;\n\n          -  Current use of drugs which could influence bioavailability of inecalcitol (such as\n             magnesium-containing antacids, bile-resin binders);\n\n          -  Use of any other experimental drug or therapy or vitamin D supplementation within 4\n             weeks of randomization;\n\n          -  Known HIV;\n\n          -  Patients who are eligible for intensive induction therapy with curative intent;\n\n          -  Refractory congestive heart failure;\n\n          -  Active infection resistant to anti-infective therapy;\n\n          -  Documented pulmonary disease with DLCO ? 65% or FEV1? 65%, or dyspnea at rest or\n             requiring oxygen, or any pleural neoplasm or uncontrolled lung neoplasm;\n\n          -  Liver cirrhosis Child B or C or acute viral hepatitis;\n\n          -  Current mental illness requiring psychiatric hospitalization, institutionalization or\n             intensive outpatient management, or current cognitive status that produces dependence\n             (as confirmed by the specialist) not controlled by the caregiver;\n\n          -  Uncontrolled neoplasia;Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven advanced stage mantle cell lymphoma with proliferation-related Ki-67 antigen (Ki-67) > 10% in first complete remission (timeline 8 months prior to enrollment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be on a multi-drug anti-HIV regimen (excluding zidovudine [AZT, ZDV, Retrovir], or agents containing zidovudine [e.g., Combivir and Trizivir], and efavirenz [Sustiva], or agents containing efavirenz [e.g., Atripla]), and have an HIV-1 viral load < 50 copies/mL by reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) within 6 months prior to study enrollment; for patients who have had negative viral loads in the past 6 months and no known HIV viral load (VL) > 500 copies/mL within the past 6 months, minor fluctuations of viral load (isolated escalations up to 500 copies/mL) are acceptable; the participant's history of negative viral loads may be documented with recent laboratory results and/or a record from the participant's HIV care provider; participants on zidovudine [AZT, ZDV, Retrovir; including Combivir and Trizivir] and efavirenz [Sustiva; including Atripla] must switch to an alternative regimen without anticipated drug-drug interactions or myelosuppressive properties based on known viral resistance patterns and/or ART history, such as raltegravir and Truvada (emtricitabine and tenofovir) at least two weeks prior to the transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXActive cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis, or other active CMV-related organ dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia within the past year before enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIntractable, severe diarrhea, defined as > 1.500 cc diarrheal fluid per day, or diarrhea causing persistent severe electrolyte abnormalities, or hypoalbuminemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXDementia of any kindXx_NEWLINE_xXSeizures within the past 12 months before enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXActive psychosocial condition that would hinder study compliance and follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving chronic antiplatelet therapy, including aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, including ibuprofen, naproxen, and others), dipyridamole or clopidogrel, or similar agents; once-daily aspirin use (maximum dose 325 mg/day) is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic cholelithiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXNot amenable to approved therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least one of the following indications for treatment: \r\n* Symptomatic or progressive splenomegaly\r\n* Symptomatic lymph nodes, nodal clusters, or progressive lymphadenopathy\r\n* Progressive anemia (hemoglobin =< 11 g/dL)\r\n* Progressive thrombocytopenia (platelets =< 100 x 10^9/L)\r\n* Weight loss > 10% body weight over the preceding 6 month period\r\n* Fatigue attributable to CLL\r\n* Fever or night sweats for > 2 weeks without evidence of infection\r\n* Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of > 50% over a 2-month period or an anticipated doubling time of less than 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be unresponsive or refractory to erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA), based on one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTransfusion-dependence in subjects previously treated with an ESA (requires a minimum ESA trial of > 40,000 U/week recombinant human erythropoietin (rHuEPO) x 8 weeks or equivalent dose of darbepoetin or other erythropoietin agent), orXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum erythropoietin level of > 500 mU/mL in subjects not previously treated with an ESA.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRisk category very low, low or intermediate (Revised International Prognostic Scoring System, IPSS-R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically significant anemia due to iron, B12, or folate deficiencies, or autoimmune or hereditary hemolytic anemia, or gastrointestinal bleeding. If marrow stain for iron is not available, the transferrin saturation (iron/total iron binding capacity Fe/TIBC) must be >20% or serum ferritin must be >100 ng/dL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has legal incapacity or limited legal capacity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who underwent neurosurgery (NSGY), whole brain radiation therapy (WBRT), or stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) to a brain lesion must have a new measurable lesion; previously surgically excised lesion/tumor bed, may be used as a measurable lesion if disease has progressed since surgery (NOTE: SRS may be done to a lesion that will not be used for response evaluation and should be done > 2 weeks prior to registration; any WBRT must have occurred > 60 days ago; any NSGY procedure must have been completed > 3 weeks prior to registration and baseline imaging)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBrain metastasis must not be impending herniation or other significant vasogenic edema requiring increasing steroid doses; lesions must not have frank hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically confirmed diagnosis of metastatic or unresectable uveal melanoma or non-uveal melanoma harboring a GNAQ or GNA11 mutation; Note: For subjects with a diagnosis of uveal melanoma, documentation of mutation status for uveal melanoma will not be required prospectively given the high rate of GNAQ/11 mutations (> 90%) in this populationXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere valvular heart diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled angina - Canadian Cardiovascular Society grade II-IV despite medical therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED) in the eye unaffected by uveal melanoma; intra-ocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg or uncontrolled glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking vitamin E supplements while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny number of prior recurrences are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted pacemaker, defibrillator, deep brain stimulator, or other implanted electronic devices in the brain or other documented clinically significant arrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body mass index (BMI) > 35, < 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are allergic to milkXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known inborn errors of metabolism of primary carnitine deficiency, carnitine palmitoyltransferase I or II deficiency, carnitine translocase deficiency, beta-oxidation defects, pyruvate carboxylase deficiency and porphyriaXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere sickle cell disease [Hemoglobin SS (Hb SS), Hemoglobin SC (Hb SC) or Hemoglobin SBeta thalassemia (Hb S?) genotype] with at least 1 of the following manifestations (a-e):Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of two or more episodes of acute chest syndrome (ACS) in the 2-year period preceding enrollment despite the institution of supportive care measures (i.e. asthma therapy);Xx_NEWLINE_xXThree or more pain crises per year in the 2-year period preceding enrollment (required intravenous pain management in the outpatient or inpatient hospital setting). Clinical documentation of pain management in the inpatient or outpatient setting is required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdministration of regular RBC transfusion therapy, defined as receiving 8 or more transfusion events per year (in the 12 months before enrollment) to prevent vaso-occlusive clinical complications (i.e. pain, stroke, and acute chest syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn echocardiographic finding of tricuspid valve regurgitant jet (TRJ) velocity ? 2.7 m/sec.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of clinical or radiologic evidence of a recent neurologic event (such as stroke or transient ischemic attack) by Cerebral MRI/MRA within 30 days prior to initiating transplant conditioning. Subjects with clinical or radiologic evidence of a recent neurologic event will be deferred for ? 6 months with repeat cerebral MRI/MRA to ensure stabilization of the neurologic event prior to proceeding to transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of participant's willingness to use approved contraception method until discontinuation of all immunosuppressive medications is to be documented in the medical record corresponding with the consent conference.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA history of substance abuse as defined by version IV of the Diagnostic & Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM IV).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated lack of compliance with prior medical care as determined by referring physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSAFETY RUN-IN: Patients known to be carriers of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV1/2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSAFETY RUN-IN: Patients known to be carriers of hepatitis virus B and CXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine ? specified maximum values based on age as described below:Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 13 years of age: serum creatinine ? 1mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously received TB-403Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on abiraterone and/or enzalutamide and not progressing; ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-abiraterone and pre-enzalutamide with demonstrated evidence of progressive disease. Defined as at least one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHalabi Nomogram score <1951Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical clearance to undergo a symptom-limited cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPET) and vigorous aerobic and resistance exercise training. o Appendix 8: Patients must answer 'No' to all questions. If patients answered 'Yes' to only Questions 8-11, they will be considered eligible upon physician clearanceXx_NEWLINE_xXSuccessfully pass the screening CPET by achieving: o Volitional exhaustion (RPE ? 9 using the 0-10 RPE scale) after 8 (or more) minutes, in the absence of any cardiorespiratory abnormalities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf cardiorespiratory abnormalities are identified, please refer the patient to his managing physician for further assessment and diagnosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: To assist practitioners with delivering valid CPET assessments, patients nearing exhaustion should achieve a respiratory exchange ratio (RER) of ?1.1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRER is not a criteria of the test. This objective measure should only be used to assist practitioners with patient management and decision-making.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is willing and able to use the technological aspects of the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is fluent in the language as designated by the institution at which he would be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen participating in vigorous aerobic exercise for more than 60 minutes per week or resistance exercise two or more days per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXExperiences shortness of breath, chest discomfort, or palpitations when performing activities of daily livingXx_NEWLINE_xXHas difficulty climbing a flight of stairs or walking eight blocks due to physical impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing restriction of physical activity with physician documentationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas chest pain brought on by physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXHas developed chest pain in the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXMen who do not complete the baseline lifestyle and quality-of-life questionnaires and 3-days of diet diaries or Food Frequency Questionnaire (FFQ) (TBD) will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIs a regular user as determined by investigator judgment (including \recreational use\) of any illicit drugs or has a recent history (within the last year) of substance abuse (including alcohol), at the time of signing informed consent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have an expected survival of at least three months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has had more than one recurrence or progression of their tumors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pure seminomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pure teratomaXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup B: Subjects with relapsed or refractory AML, Subjects with relapsed or refractory high-risk MDS, defined as revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) intermediate or greater disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any other medical, psychological, familial, sociological, or geographic condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol Subjects who are participating in any other therapeutic clinical study (observational or registry trials are allowed).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with documented hepatic metastases involving >50% of the hepatic parenchyma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis (T-score of less than -2.5 by DEXA scan)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBone metastases with prior history of pathologic fracture, lytic lesions requiring an orthopedic intervention, or not receiving bisphosphonates or denosumabXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following diagnoses are to be included:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKarnofsky >70% (an attempt to quantify cancer patients' general well-being and activities of daily life. The score ranges from 0 to 100 where 100 is \perfect\ health and 0 is death.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have normal or near normal organ function as defined by their treating institutions BMT program clinical practice guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of T cell depletion either ex vivo or in vivo (i.e. ATG, alemtuzumab) is prohibited.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for systemic immune suppressive medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have already started or received post-transplant maintenance or consolidation regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXDiarrhea > grade 1 in the absence of antidiarrhealsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s wort [hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsies:\r\n* Cohorts B and C: all patients with disease that is deemed by the treating investigator as safely accessible to biopsy are required to undergo research biopsies as outlined in this protocol\r\n* Cohort A: such biopsies are optionalXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors that are primarily localized within the brainstem or spinal cordXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA) >= 0.5 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of DIPG or high-grade glioma originating from the brain stemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits should have deficits that are stable for a minimum of 1 week prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have histologic confirmation of advanced, biopsy-accessible, measurable cancers of the following histologies:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-viral-associated head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC) or HPV-associated HNSCC after failure of prior therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma after failure of available therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXGU cancers with accessible metastases (e.g., bladder, renal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny solid tumors with masses that are accessible without imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresolved irAEs following prior biological therapy, except that stable and managed irAEs may be acceptable (e.g., hypothyroidism or hypopituitarism on appropriate replacement).Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 2 or higher peripheral ischemia [brief (< 24 hours) episode of ischemia managed non-surgically and without permanent deficit].Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and/or who require drainage gastrostomy tube and/or parenteral hydration or nutrition.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or any components of the study drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for immunological and clinical follow-up assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria: dipstick ?2+Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal thyroid and pituitary functionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXDependence on continuous supplemental oxygen useXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with unilateral pleural effusion (other than non-small cell lung cancer [NSCLC] indication) should fulfill the following criteria for pulmonary and cardiac functions: Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) classification 0 ? 1 level and New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification class 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere dyspnea at rest due to complications of advanced malignancy or requiring supplementary oxygen therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be without evidence of visceral or bone involvement with metastatic cancer on physical exam or any diagnostic study; extensive nodal involvement is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown CD20-negative status at relapse or progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXExtent of disease\r\n* UnresectableXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion size 8 mm - 3 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have lesions within 2 cm of central structures, will be eligible on a case-by-case basis \r\n* Tumor within or touching the zone of the proximal bronchial tree, defined as a volume 2 cm in all directions around the proximal bronchial tree (carina, right and left main bronchi, right and left upper lobe bronchi, intermedius bronchus, right middle lobe bronchus, lingular bronchus, right and left lower lobe bronchi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary metastases found at relapse (does not have to be first relapse); no more than 3 lesions per hemi-thorax will be treated but other lesions in the lung may be presentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior whole-lung or hemi-thorax irradiation of greater than 12 gray (Gy) received less than 6 months prior to consent (focal radiotherapy to the thorax is not an exclusion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesion larger than 3 cm in diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >1,000 µLXx_NEWLINE_xXOlaparib\r\n* Patients with solid tumors that harbor DNA damage repair gene mutations as exemplified below detected by next-generation sequencing (NGS) or real-time- polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) in assays performed at a CLIA-certified laboratory:\r\n** Examples of DNA damage repair deficiency “BRCA-ness” (somatic mutations in tumors), but not limited to, are: breast cancer 1, early onset (BRCA 1), breast cancer 2, early onset (BRCA2)/Fanconi anemia group D1 (FANCD1), partner and localizer of BRCA2 (PALB2 or FANCN), RAD51 recombinase (RAD51), RAD52 homolog, DNA repair protein (RAD52), BRCA1 interacting protein C-terminal helicase 1 gene (FANCJ), Fanconi anemia complementation group D2 (FANCD2), 26S proteasome complex subunit DSS1 (DSS1), MRE11 homolog A, double strand break repair nuclease (MRE11), RAD50 double strand break repair protein (RAD50), nibrin (NBS1), Bloom syndrome RecQ like helicase (BLM), ATM serine/threonine kinase (ATM), ATR serine/threonine kinase (ATR), checkpoint kinase 1 (CHK1), checkpoint kinase 2 (CHK2), Fanconi anemia complementation group (FANC) A,-B,-C, -E, -F, -G,-L, M, D2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAZD5363 plus olaparib\r\n* Patients with solid tumors with PIK3CA or AKT mutations or other molecular aberrations leading to dysregulation of the PI3K/AKT pathway detected by NGS or RT-PCR in assays performed at a CLIA-certified laboratory:\r\n** activating mutations in PIK3CA, AKT1, AKT2, AKT3, ARID1A\r\n** other molecular aberrations leading to dysregulation of the PI3K/AKT pathway, for example phosphoinositide-3-kinase regulatory subunit 1 (PIK3R1)\r\n** during the course of the study new information may emerge relating to molecular aberrations that dysregulate the PI3K/AKT pathway; patients whose tumors bear these aberrations can be included in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe AZD1775 plus olaparib and AZD2014 plus olaparib additional inclusion criteria will be added as addendums to the protocol and opened once the recommended phase II doses are availableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known germline BRCA mutations will be excluded from the study, however testing is not required for inclusion in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) =< 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse, except in subjects with optic pathway gliomas, or subjects with pineal tumors and elevations of serum or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of cannabis oil is prohibited during the first 2 cycles of this protocol; patients must be off of cannabis oil for 3 days prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 cutaneous or subcutaneous Injectable Lesion with longest diameter at least 5 mm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical Laboratories:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the products or components to be administered during dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere peripheral vascular disease (i.e., severe claudication [pain occurring after less than 200 meters of walking], rest pain, ischemic ulceration or gangrene) in subjects whose Injectable Lesions are located in an extremity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled thyroid disease or cystic fibrosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have diagnosis of head and neck squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx (tonsil, base of tongue, soft palate, or oropharyngeal walls), hypopharynx, or larynxXx_NEWLINE_xXANC < 1,500/µL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary disease (e.g. COPD, asthma, etc) that is not controlled (moderate to severe symptoms) with current medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubmission of original biopsy for review and verification by hematopathologist at local institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious allergic reaction to an immunomodulatory drug (IMiD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have had definitive external beam radiotherapy or locoregional therapies such as radiofrequency (RF) ablation or brachytherapy must show evidence of progressive disease to be deemed a target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior carboplatin allowed provided greater than 12 months (mos) have elapsed since last dose of carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing alcohol or drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXRetinoblastoma protein (RB) positivity as defined by RB expression (score of 0.5 or 1) with concurrent p16in4a loss (score of 0-2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have HCC limited to the liver; there must be no definitive clinical or radiographic evidence of extrahepatic HCC; portal lymphadenopathy is permitted as lymphadenopathy is commonly associated with cirrhosis unrelated to malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of occlusive main portal vein thrombus, branch venous thrombus is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to angiography or chemoembolization medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have appropriate wash out (> 6 half-lives) of androgen receptor antagonists, 5 alpha reductase inhibitors or ketoconazole prior to the start of cycle 1; if the agent is not in the table below, the washout should be 2 weeks\r\n* Bicalutamide; approximate half-life: 6 days; washout period required: 36 days\r\n* Flutamide; approximate half-life: 6 hours; washout period required: 36 hours\r\n* Nilutamide approximate half-life: 4 days; washout period required: 24 days\r\n* Finasteride; approximate half-life: 8 hours; washout period required: 48 hours\r\n* Aminoglutethimide; approximate half-life: 15 hours; washout period required: 4 days\r\n* Ketoconazole; approximate half-life: 8 hours; washout period required: 48 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have received enzalutamide or ARN-509 (another androgen receptor antagonist) in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have received cabazitaxel in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has clinical signs suggestive of high or imminent risks for pathological fracture, spinal cord compression and/or cauda equina syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may not be on other therapies that affect hormone levels, such as estrogens, testosterones, ketoconazole during this study; however, megestrol for hot flashes is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled electrolyte disorders.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDifficulty swallowing capsules or requirement for a feeding tube.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor escalation, subjects must have a pathologically confirmed diagnosis of PPV-MF, PET-MF, or PMF as per the European Hematology Association (EHA) or World Health Organization (WHO) diagnostic criteria (note that all diagnoses must include the presence of at least grade 1 marrow fibrosis according to the European Consensus on Grading of Bone Marrow Fibrosis as well as intermediate-1, intermediate-2, or high risk disease according to the International Working Group for Research and Treatment of Myelofibrosis (IWG-MRT) Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System; patients with PV may enter the trial if they meet the labeled indication for ruxolitinib (eg hydroxyurea resistant or refractory)\r\n* Escalation Stage 1: patients who have not achieved normalization of splenomegaly, who have ongoing disease related symptoms (as defined by Myeloproliferative Neoplasm Symptom Assessment Form Total Symptom Score [MPN-SAF TSS]), or blood counts with at least 8 weeks of therapy with a steady dose of ruxolitinib\r\n* Escalation Stage 2: patients who have not yet received therapy with any JAK-STAT inhibitory agents or patients on at least 8 weeks of a steady dose of ruxolitinib (patients with exposure to other JAK-STAT inhibitory agents are not eligible); after discussion with the study chair or designee, patients with suboptimal response on at least 8 weeks of a steady dose of ruxolitinib may be allowed to de-escalate ruxolitinib therapy in order to enter a safety cohort which is enrolling patients at a lower dose; patients must receive the lower dose of ruxolitinib for at least 7 consecutive days without event before adding TGR-1202; if the patient completed screening evaluation including bone marrow biopsy/aspirate prior to ruxolitinib de-escalation, it need not be repeated after de-escalation provided that all evaluation occurred within 28 days prior to the first dose of TGR-1202Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious therapy with GS-1101 (CAL-101), IPI-145 or any drug that specifically inhibits PI3K or mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) within last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAfter undergoing surgery, patients may be optimally or sub optimally debulkedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown brain/leptomengial involvement of the disease, active neurological disease, dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have any of the following:\r\n* Myc-overexpression (> 40%) by immunohistochemistry (IHC)\r\n* Myc-amplification (> 4 copies), as determined by fluorescent in-situ hybridization (FISH)\r\n* MYC-rearrangement, as determined by FISHXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following results must be available or pending at time of registration, though results will not affect enrollment/treatment:\r\n* B-cell lymphoma (BCL)-2 rearrangement by FISH\r\n* BCL-6 rearrangement by FISH\r\nNOTE: although not required, it is encouraged that MYC and BCL-2 be measured by immunohistochemistry (IHC) and clearly documentedXx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: exceptions can be granted from PI for instances of Gilbert’s disease, and/or primarily indirect bilirubinemia, if due to recent transfusion and/or hemolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any prior chemoimmunotherapy are not eligible; NOTE: the use of steroids to control the disease is permitted and does not have a washout periodXx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no limit on the number of prior relapses but the most recent relapse must be the first relapse on a bevacizumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants cannot take any herbal preparations/medications on study or within 7 days prior to first dose of study drug, including but not limited to: St. John‘s wort, kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, ginsengXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study treatment or a history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR mutation (L858R and /or ex19del)Xx_NEWLINE_xXcMET amplification by FISH (GCN ? 6),Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcquired resistance to EGFR TKI (1st or 2nd génération)Xx_NEWLINE_xXALCL, ALK negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXSubcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma For enrollment into the AITL expansion cohort, subjects must have he diagnosis of AITL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematologic statusXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas adequate hematological and physiological functions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignancies within 12 months with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive mucositisXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of salicylates, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, or sulfonamide medications within one week of start of methotrexateXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic staging of the chest/abdomen (abd), pelvis is required for study entry; body fluid will be assessed based on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for first-line treatment with erlotinib based on documented evidence of tumor harboring an activating EGFR mutation [exon 19 deletion or exon 21 (L858R) substitution mutation].Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown T790M EGFR mutation (not applicable for Part C Period 2).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gross hemoptysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiologically documented evidence of major blood vessel invasion or encasement by cancer.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of intratumor cavitation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any arterial thrombotic event within 6 months prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has any known significant ophthalmologic abnormalities of the surface of the eye.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to undergo all screening assessments outlined in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ? 2.5 x UNL but ? 5.0 x UNL in case of liver metastases; alkaline phosphatase (ALP) ? UNL but i) ? 2.5 x UNL in case of liver metastases and ii) ? 5 UNL in case of bone metastases; albumin ? 2.5 g/dl.Xx_NEWLINE_xXpaclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXibuprofen or to more than one non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXmedications belonging to the class of sulfonamides, with the exception of sulfanilamides (e.g., sulfamethoxazole).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have histologic demonstration of metastatic or surgically unresectable urothelial cancer. Minor components of variant histology such as glandular or squamous differentiation, or evolution to more aggressive phenotypes such as sarcomatoid or micropapillary change are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXNot responding or failed treatment on AZA or decitabine (note they are also eligible if additionally they have failed another ESA after at least 4 cycles)Xx_NEWLINE_xXResponders who cease respondingXx_NEWLINE_xXNever respondedXx_NEWLINE_xXIf sexually active male, patient must:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree not to donate sperm until 6 months after the last dose of OPN-305Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of anaphylaxis with this product typeXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take aspirin or other anticoagulation (ARM 3 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious psychiatric illness, active alcoholism, or drug addiction that may hinder or confuse follow-up evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny medical conditions that, in the Investigator’s opinion, would impose excessive risk to the patient; examples of such conditions include any pre-existing kidney disease (acute or chronic, unless renal insufficiency is felt to be secondary to MM), hypertension, active seizure disorder or pulmonary diseases that would impose excessive risk to the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has hypersensitivity to boron, mannitol sucrose, histidine (as base and hydrochloride salt) and polysorbate 80 or any of the components of study therapy including required prophylactic medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient having out of range laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulation: PT > 4 seconds more than ULN or INR > 1.7Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal surgery carried out with the goal of spinal cord decompression and spinal stabilization within 8 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multiple lesions will be eligible as long as there are no overlapping fields of radiation, including at various time framesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed solid malignancy (excluding lymphoma) that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective, and for which: a) there is reasonable expectation of response to the combination of carboplatin/paclitaxel OR b) breast cancer (BRCA) 1/2 germline mutation is present; results from Myriad will be acceptable; if testing for BRCA 1 and 2 germline mutations is done through another organization, a report from a genetics consult with a qualified medical professional confirming that the laboratory results show a recognized germline deleterious BRCA 1 or 2 mutation or rearrangement is required; if the latter cannot be obtained, principal investigator (PI) or study chair review of the lab results and confirmation of BRCA mutation or rearrangement will be required OR c) BRCA 1/2 somatic mutation previously identified using a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified assayXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior consent to have tumors used for unspecified future researchXx_NEWLINE_xXAll prior anti-cancer treatment-related toxicities (except alopecia and laboratory values) must be =< grade 1 according to the Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events version 4 (CTCAE version 4.0) at the time of randomization, subjects with endocrinopathies (e.g. hypopituitarism, hypothyroidism, hypoadrenalism) caused by immune therapies currently on adequate hormone replacement WILL be permitted, subjects with endocrinopathies (e.g. hypopituitarism, hypothyroidism, hypoadrenalism) caused by immune therapies currently on adequate hormone replacement WILL be permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXBRAFV600 mutation positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXNRAS codon 12, 13, or 61 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication as describedXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) including:\r\n* History of RVO or\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic examination that is considered a risk factor for RVO such as:\r\n** Evidence of new optic disc cupping\r\n** Evidence of new visual field defects\r\n** Intraocular pressure > 21 mmHg as measured by tonographyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave initiative and means to be compliant with protocol and within geographical proximity to make required study visits as judged by InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior total body or hemi-body irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values at the Screening Visit:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has experienced any of the following:\r\n* Clinically-significant GI bleeding within 6 months before the first dose of cabozantinib\r\n* Hemoptysis of >= 0.5 teaspoon (2.5 ml) of red blood within 3 months before the first dose of cabozantinib\r\n* Any other signs indicative of pulmonary hemorrhage within 3 months before the first dose of cabozantinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received any other histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors or immunomodulatory (IMID) agents for any reason are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed de novo DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXObjective, documented evidence of disease progression on study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be excluded on the basis of sex, racial or ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Donors must meet the selection criteria as defined by the Foundation for the Accreditation of Hematopoietic Cell Therapy (FAHCT) and will be screened per the American Association of Blood Banks (AABB) (AABB guidelines and the recipients will be informed of any deviations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: ABO compatibility (in order of priority)\r\n* Compatible or minor ABO incompatibility\r\n* Major ABO incompatibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine less than 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following because this study involves an investigational agent whose genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects on the developing fetus and newborn are unknown:Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically relevant retinal abnormalities as per the medical history or ophthalmologic findings in the pretreatment evaluation (e.g., retinitis pigmentosa or macular degeneration).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHER-2 positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXA list of prohibited medications on study are listedXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of lobular carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of luminal B pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXNottingham score of 3 (specially nuclear and mitotic score>2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUric acid if elevated, corrected to within laboratory range prior to dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with splenic MZL must have an additional measurable lesion, nodal or extranodal, as described in inclusion criterion #4;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma must be Helicobacter pylori (HP)-negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have acute GVHD of the lower gastrointestinal tract as defined by the clinical impression of the treating physician, requiring systemic treatment; minimum criteria for GI GVHD includes diarrhea of greater than 500 mL/day; biopsy of the GI tract is required for study entry and must confirm the diagnosis of acute GVHD; stool samples to rule out infectious causes of diarrhea, including norovirus, Clostridium difficile and other clinically indicated infections must also be negative; eligibility includes:\r\n* Acute GVHD developing after allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) using bone marrow, peripheral blood stem cells, or umbilical cord blood; recipients of non-myeloablative, reduced intensity and myeloablative transplants are eligible\r\n* Patients who develop acute GVHD after donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) are eligible\r\n* There is no specified time window after day 0 of transplant as acute GVHD is only defined by clinical manifestations\r\n* Patients must have experienced neutrophil engraftment after HSCT as defined by absolute neutrophil counts >= 500 /uL x 3 consecutive measurements\r\n* Platelets >= 10,000 / uL (platelet transfusions are allowed on the same day)\r\n* The presence of hepatic, upper GI and/or cutaneous acute GVHD is permitted\r\n* Steroids can be started up to 7 days prior to the administration of natalizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the entity of acute/chronic GVHD overlap syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring mechanical ventilationXx_NEWLINE_xXVasopressor requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent hepatic veno-occlusive disease (VOD) based on clinical examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of natalizumab for any reason is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXInlcusion criteria:\n\n        - Adult patients with histologically or cytologically confirmed cholangiocarcinoma at the\n        time of diagnosis.\n\n        Patients with cancers of the gallbladder or ampulla of Vater are not eligible.\n\n        - Patients must have received at least one prior regimen containing gemcitabine with or\n        without cisplatin for advanced/ metastatic disease. Patient should have evidence of\n        progressive disease following prior regimen, or if prior treatment discontinued due to\n        toxicity must have continued evidence of measurable or evaluable disease.\n\n        Exclusion criteria:\n\n          -  Prior or current treatment with a MEK or selective FGFR inhibitor\n\n          -  insufficient organ function\n\n               -  ANC < 1,000/mm3 [1.0 x 109/L]\n\n               -  Platelets < 75,000/mm3 [75 x 109/L]\n\n               -  Hemoglobin < 109.0 g/dL\n\n               -  Total bilirubin > 1.5x ULN\n\n               -  AST/SGOT and ALT/SGPT > 2.5x ULN (AST and ALT > 5x ULN in the presence of liver\n                  metastases)\n\n               -  Serum creatinine > 1.5x ULN and a calculated or measured creatinine clearance <\n                  45 mL/min\n\n               -  Inorganic phosphorus outside of normal limits\n\n               -  Total and ionized serum calcium outside of normal limits\n\n        Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with compounds targeting PD-1, PD-L1, BRAF, mitogen-activated protein kinase (MEK) or other molecules in the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior or current retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven MLS (including the reciprocal chromosomal translocation t(12;16)(q13;p11); A the primary sarcoma in case of non-metastatic disease for management is with curative intent (regimen to be chosen = 18 x 2 GY) B in case of oligometastatic patients, the metastasis may also be irradiated to a dose of 36 GY in order to postpone the time interval to next systemic chemotherapy. These patients are usually not operated upon and the total dose may also be reached in 12 times 3 Gy, for convenience purposes (see paragraph 10 for radiobiological considerations).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able (physically, mentally and socially) to complete a series of RT, followed by an observation period of 4-6 weeks and undergo surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnticoagulant medication of any kind; especially Ascal®(and derivates), coumarines (Sintrom® and Marcoumar®), all heparin and heparin-like formulations. (Note: this exclusion criterion only applies for patients consenting to the translational research part of the study; patients on anticoagulant medication as described above may take part in the dose reduction part of the study, but the repeat biopsies may not be taken.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and high risk for HCC recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason sum of 7, 8, 9, or 10 at the time of prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust use a condom if having sex with a pregnant womanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior immunotherapy including sipuleucel-TXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed, BRAF-mutant (V600E/K) melanoma (molecularly confirmed using validated, commercially available assay performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA]-approved laboratory) that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective\r\n* If test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved method, information about the assay must be provided; (FDA approved tests for BRAF V600 mutations in melanoma include: THxID BRAF Detection Kit and Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I SUBJECTS ONLY: Patients must not have received prior navitoclax, unless the patient received < 7 days of navitoclax lead-in on this or another study and had to stop for reasons other than toxicity or disease progression; in the phase II portion of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR):\r\n* History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or CSR such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mmHgXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for potentially radical, maximal effort cytoreductive surgery at the discretion and expertise of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgery achieves either no gross residual disease (R0) or optimal cytoreductive status defined as no single lesion measuring more than 5.0 mm in its greatest diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXStable from a cardiopulmonary standpoint to continue with prolonged surgery and anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose disease has progressed following at least 3 cycles of neoadjuvant chemotherapy as defined by at least one of the following:\r\n* Doubling of serum CA-125 level\r\n* At least a 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum longest diameter recorded since the treatment started or the appearance of one or more new lesions\r\n* Clinical deterioration (worsening ascites, carcinomatous ileus, malignant bowel obstruction, severe hypoalbuminemia, declining performance status)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiac or pulmonary conditions that preclude aggressive cytoreductive surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose circumstances do not permit completion of the study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXIntraoperative frozen section suggesting hepatobiliary, pancreatic, adrenal, or urinary tract cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients much have a negative purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test and a negative Quantiferon assay or a tuberculosis (TB) T-spot test; indeterminate results, due to lack of response to the mitogen control reflecting their immunocompromised state, will be permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of biologic antibody therapy for cGVHD with rituximab, alemtuzumab, or antithymocyte globulin (ATG) within 3 months of starting treatment with abataceptXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of extranodal NK/T lymphoma, per WHO classification, 4th ed., which must include EBV tumor positivity, measured either by EBV encoded RNA (EBER) or LMP1 immunostaining.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsparaginase refractory disease, defined by any one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated Ph negative precursor B-cell or T-cell ALL confirmed by conventional flow cytometry or immunohistochemical stain; patients who have untreated B-cell or T-cell ALL confirmed by conventional flow cytometry or immunohistochemical stain, but Ph status is unknown, may also enrollXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients known to have Philadelphia (Ph) positive (+) ALL are not eligible; leukemia cell samples will be obtained from all patients enrolled before starting protocol treatment and submitted for Philadelphia chromosome testing by either karyotyping, or breakpoint cluster region (bcr)/Abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 (abl1) translocation by fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) or by PCR; patients who are later found to have Ph+ ALL should have treatment on this trial discontinued and will not be considered in the evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXMature B-cell (Burkitt's) ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious or life-threatening conditions deemed unacceptable by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histological or cytological evidence of a solid neoplasmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active infection or with a fever > 38.50 C within 3 days of the first scheduled day of dosing;Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs willing to undergo tumor genotyping for TP53 mutation, insertion, or deletion at screening. Confirmation of TP53 nonmutant status is encouraged, but not required prior to DS-3032b dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs willing to provide additional archived samples for comprehensive genomic and/or proteomic analyses if the subject has a partial response/complete response to DS-3032b treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may not have a history of rectal surgery or lower gastrointestinal bleedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who has received prior pelvic irradiation or is scheduled for pelvic nodal irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received any steroids in the week prior to diagnosis except as stated in Section 4.1.4 of the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo congenital or acquired immune deficiency. These patients are excluded due to the expected intense immunosuppression, increased risk of opportunistic infections, and higher expected septic death rate in this subgroup of patients with this proposed therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous malignancies that have been treated with systemic chemotherapy with alkylator or anthracycline therapy. The latter group of patients are excluded due to an expected increase in late effects (eg. late cardiac toxicity, secondary malignancies, sterility, etc.).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known G6PD deficiency are NOT ELIGIBLE for Rasburicase therapy. Patients with G6PD deficiency should be treated with alkalinization, IV hydration and po and/or IV allopurinol during the reduction phase (COP).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of at least one of the features defining high risk; these include:\r\n* High risk chromosomal translocations by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH): t(4;14), t(14;16), t(14;20), deletion (del)(17p), del(1p), amplification 1q\r\n* Myeloma Prognostic Risk Signature (MyPRS) gene expression profiling (GEP)-70 high risk signature either from diagnosis or at time of registration for the study\r\n* Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 300 U/L at diagnosis\r\n* Relapse from prior therapy within 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown contraindication to phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors (e.g. currently on nitrates)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor organ system dysfunction including (but not limited to): New York Heart Association class III or IV, pulmonary disease requiring the use of inhaled steroids or bronchodilators, renal, hepatic, gastrointestinal, neurologic, or psychiatric dysfunction which would impair patient’s ability to participate in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening illness or organ system dysfunction compromising safety evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement not to donate blood or blood products during the study and for 24 months after discontinuation of vismodegibXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior vismodegib or other antagonists of the hedgehog (Hh) pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular confirmation of a RET translocation is required to begin protocol therapy; methods of acceptable molecular confirmation include RET fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) and next-generation sequencing performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) certified labXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study entry or history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking medications that are known to be associated with torsades de pointes; medications include but are not limited to:\r\n* Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n* Amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide\r\n* Erythromycins, clarithromycin\r\n* Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n* Ziprasidone, cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic\r\n* Chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine\r\n* Sparfloxacin, lidoflazine\r\n** Note: participants who have taken a medication associated with torsades de pointes will still be eligible for participation if the medication is discontinued at least 14 days before the initiation of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered to have an acceptable risk of early mortality with intensive chemotherapy as determined by the attending physician at the time of the initial visit; since the specific therapy within each arm will be determined after randomization, there is no threshold of organ dysfunction or performance status for inclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXIn cases of lymphoproliferative disease arising in patients who are pharmacologically immunosuppressed, reduction of immunosuppression (RI) must be attempted prior to or in conjunction with enrollment, with the exception of those for whom RI would pose excessive threat of clinically significant graft rejection (as judged by local investigator)\r\n* NOTE: Patients who are otherwise immunosuppressed (for reasons such as immune dysregulation related to autoimmune conditions, in the absence of pharmacological immunosuppression) may be eligible if, in the opinion of the treating investigator, the risk of immediate treatment with rituximab-cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone (R-CHOP) outweighs the benefit for these patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: patients who do not meet the above criteria because of disease involvement of the organ in question, or because of acute systemic illness due to lymphoma, may enroll with permission of the study principal investigator (PI) and approval from the Data Monitoring Committee; this flexibility be allowed due to the heterogeneity of the patient population, the wide range of complications seen in the initial presentation of EBV-related malignancy, and the frequent difficulty encountered in attempting to clearly document that organ dysfunction is the result of an underlying lymphoproliferative disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXIn addition, patients with abnormal renal function may be included if the abnormal function is due to allograft dysfunction resulting from diagnosis of PTLD, or from reduction/cessation of immunosuppression aimed at treatment of PTLDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have known John Cunningham (JC) virus infection and/or progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy or active nursing of an infant is not permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior history of documented pancreatitis are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (islet cell carcinoma) will be excluded from this study; all non functional and functional islet cell carcinomas such as insulinoma, glucagonoma, gastrinoma, vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)oma will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo symptomatic peripheral arterial diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo unhealed wounds, ulcers or bone fracturesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated outside of the University of Wisconsin (UW) must have their pathology slides sent to the UW for review and confirmation\r\n* NOTE: a copy of the pathology report is sufficient for registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be included if they have a National Comprehensive Cancer Network score for fatigue over 3 (NCCN > 3) as determined by the standard fatigue scale of 0-10 unless otherwise approved by the principle investigator or principal investigator's (PI’s) designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants will be excluded for medical conditions that are contraindications to XRT and/or might confound the relationship among fatigue, and inflammation, including pregnancy, unstable major psychiatric disorders, autoimmune (active within the past 6 months) or inflammatory disorders, chronic infectious diseases (e.g. human immunodeficiency virus [HIV], hepatitis B or C), neurologic disorders and uncontrolled cardiovascular, metabolic, pulmonary or renal disease (as determined by medical history, physical examination or laboratory testing) unless otherwise approved by the PI or PI’s designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients using over the counter supplements or other natural products within one week of treatment, excluding vitamins and calcium supplementation, or at the discretion of the enrolling physician, will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have evidence of infection as determined by history, physical exam or laboratory testing (complete blood count and urinalysis) at baseline will be excluded unless otherwise approved by the PI or PI’s designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with anemia (hemoglobin [HEM] < 10 g/dl) at baseline will be excluded unless otherwise approved by the PI or PI’s designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXIn addition, patients who develop evidence of infection (as determined by history, physical exam or laboratory testing) during the study will be discontinued from the study unless otherwise approved by the PI or PI’s designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be asked to refrain from having more than one alcoholic beverage per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXAdverse event requiring discontinuation of vemurafenib in the antecedent protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease during the antecedent protocol. If approval to treat beyond progression was already given in the antecedent protocol, the participant may roll over into the current protocol without sponsor approval. Under special circumstances, enrollment into this protocol and dosing beyond progression may be considered and will require approval of the sponsor Participants meeting any of the following exclusion criterion of the antecedent study at the time the participant is considered for the extension (rollover) study:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny other intercurrent medical/psychological problem deemed exclusionary by the treating physician or investigators/principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE AND MUTANT COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): Patients who were pre-registered to National Cancer Institute (NCI) 9170 trial (Phase II Trial of Neoadjuvant MK-2206 in Combination with either Anastrozole if Postmenopausal or Anastrozole and Goserelin if Premenopausal in Women with Clinical Stage 2 or 3 PIK3CA Mutant Estrogen Receptor Positive and HER2 Negative Invasive Breast Cancer), started anastrozole (or anastrozole plus goserelin if premenopausal) =< 6 weeks, and were found negative for PIK3CA hotspot mutations are eligible to be screened for the wild type cohort; in institutions without NCI 9170 open, or after completion of enrollment to NCI 9170 in institutions where it is open, patients will be pre-registered to this trial and those with PIK3CA mutations will be enrolled to the PIK3CA mutant cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXENDOCRINE RESISTANT COHORT: Pre-registration is not required for patients to be enrolled in the endocrine resistant cohort, as PIK3CA mutation status will not be assessedXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA MUTANT COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): In premenopausal women, serum estradiol level in postmenopausal range =< 7 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): tumor PIK3CA mutation present\r\n* Note that if a patient did not have sufficient research tissue for PIK3CA sequencing at pre-registration or if PIK3CA sequencing result is delayed, she could be registered and enrolled on the PD991 trial without assigning to a particular cohort at the time of enrollment; PIK3CA sequencing will be performed in the future on tumors collected at subsequent time points to assign the treatment cohort or when the PIK3CA sequencing data is availableXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): ECOG performance status of 0, 1 or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): Life expectancy > 4 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): If premenopausal, patient must be willing to comply with pregnancy requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): Leukocytes >= 3,000/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): Platelets >= 100,000/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): Creatinine =< upper normal institutional limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): In premenopausal women, serum estradiol level in postmenopausal range =< 7 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXENDOCRINE RESISTANT COHORT: Pre- or post-menopausal women are eligible; if premenopausal, patient must be willing to comply with pregnancy requirements and agrees with GnRH agonist therapy for ovarian suppression during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXADJUVANT COHORT: Derived benefit from PD 0332991 in the neoadjuvant setting in this trial; this includes the 26 patients who achieved complete cell cycle arrest only after the addition of PD 0332991 (C1D1 Ki67 > 2.7% and C1D15 Ki67 =< 2.7%) from the main study (PIK3CA WT, mutant, or unknown cohorts) as well as any patients who have a Ki67 =< 10% on C1D15 biopsy in the endocrine resistant cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXPIK3CA MUTANT AND WILD TYPE COHORT (closed 03/17/2016): Evidence of inflammatory cancer (clinical presentation of skin erythema involving more than one third of the breast or pathological evidence of dermal lymphatic involvement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with C-kit (CD117) positive tumour detected immuno-histochemicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with a BMI > 18 kg/m² and weighing at least 40 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXSyncope without known aetiology within 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient previously treated with a dose of imatinib > 400mgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient intolerant to imatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with measurable disease, patient must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and who require parenteral hydration and/or nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXMale subjects must agree not to donate semen or sperm while taking pomalidomide and/or carfilzomib until at least 28 days after the last pomalidomide/carfilzomib doseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in whom the required program of PO and IV fluid hydration is contraindicated, e.g., due to pre-existing pulmonary, cardiac, or renal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known or suspected amyloidosis of any organXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal bilirubin >= 1.5 mg/dL (> 26 mol/L, SI unit equivalent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected active drug or alcohol useXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline fasting triglycerides > 2.5 IULN or hypertriglyceridemia requiring medication; patients requiring medication for other dyslipidemias (i.e., elevated low-density lipoprotein [LDL] cholesterol) are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of the following drugs: antioxidants; herbal or other alternative therapy medications; vitamin supplements (especially vitamins A, C, and E) other than a standard dose multivitamin, acetaminophen, cyclosporine A or analogue; verapamil; tamoxifen or analogue, ketoconazole, chlorpromazine; RU486; indomethacin; or sulfinpyrazone, tetracycline, nalidixic acid, nitrofurantoin, phenytoin, sulfonamides, lithium, ceftriaxone, and amiodarone; if the patients discontinue usage of the above drugs, they can be eligible for enrollment into the study after a washout period of four half-livesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with esophageal cancer with unresected or recurrent primary tumors in the esophagus are only permitted after discussion of patient with study chairXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline (pre-treatment) electrocardiogram (EKG) with any of the following changes consistent with cardiac ischemia:\r\n*Significant ST depression (ST depression of >= 2 mm, measured from isoelectric line to the ST segment at a point 60 msec from the end of the QRS complex)\r\n* Significant ST elevation (> 1mm in limb lead or 2 mm in precordial lead measured at a point 0.04 sec [1 mm] after the J-point [the end of the QRS complex] and compared to baseline [line drawn from P start to T end])\r\n* Investigators are encouraged to consult with cardiologists locally and with the study chair should any questions ariseXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS of 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXUric acid must be within laboratory normal rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXAll pts must be counseled at a minimum of every 28 days about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPts with known sensitivity to any immunomodulatory drugs (IMiDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergies to carfilzomib or CaptisolXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenström's macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPts in whom the required program of oral and intravenous fluid hydration is contraindicated, e.g. due to pre-existing pulmonary, cardiac, or renal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPts with primary systemic amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to have an FDG-PET scan, either through insurance coverage, patient decision or other reason are not eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOligometastatic disease sites not eligible based on concern for toxicity: \r\n* Trachea involvement (direct invasion, tumors close to or abutting trachea are eligible)\r\n* Heart (direct invasion or involvement, pericardial lymph nodes can be treated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to have SRS/SBRT through insurance coverage or ability to pay for SRS/SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXOther \r\n* Lung cancer with pleural effusion (wet IIIB) are not eligible \r\n* Recurrent cancers are not eligible \r\n* Diffuse metastatic spread confined to one organ system is ineligible; examples of this include leptomeningeal spread in the CNS and peritoneal carcinomatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXOligometastatic disease sites not eligible: \r\n* Trachea involvement (direct invasion, tumors close to or abutting trachea are eligible)\r\n* Heart (direct invasion or involvement, pericardial lymph nodes can be treated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to have SRS/SBRT through insurance coverage or ability to pay for SRS/SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biopsy proven high-grade glioma (excluding glioblastoma multiforme [GBM]) and a gross total resection and patients with non-disseminated atypical teratoid rhabdoid (ATRT) patients may also be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic diagnosis must be based on pathology or pathology review by Department of Pathology at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) or another Dana-Farber/Harvard Cancer Center (DF/HCC) institution and must be finalized within two weeks of the radiation start dateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot participate in contributing to the neurocognitive outcomes due to severe neurologic impairment or language barrier will be enrolled at the discretion of the treating physician in consultation with the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients known to have germ-line adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) mutations or clinical manifestations of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis(FAP)/Gardner's syndrome can be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXthe newly diagnosed and/or previously unresected disease is judged to be at high risk for recurrence due to its size (>5 centimeters) or location at an anatomic site making it unlikely to be resected with negative margins (eg. adjacent to neurovascular structures)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medication restrictions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to consume oral medication in the form of tablets or solutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have normal laboratory values as defined below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medication restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be taking medicines known to influence sirolimus metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological evaluation of prostate biopsy with assignment of a Gleason score to the biopsy material;Gleason score must be in the range of 2-6. > 6 cores are strongly recommended.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages T1a-T2a N0 M0 (AJCC Criteria 7th Ed.). Staging must be done by treating investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all mandatory tests listed in section 4.0 within the specified time frames.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of proximal urethral stricture requiring dilatation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have at least two of the following diagnostic criteria for NF1, and/or a pathogenic NF1 gene mutation demonstrated in peripheral blood-derived DNA:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSix or more café-au-lait spots (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in postpubertal subjects)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFreckling in the axilla and/or inguinal regionXx_NEWLINE_xXPlexiform neurofibromaXx_NEWLINE_xXTwo or more Lisch nodulesXx_NEWLINE_xXA first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn optic pathway gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have radiographically progressive low-grade glioma (including NF1 related visual pathway gliomas) after failure of a carboplatin-containing regimen; patients do not require a biopsy to confirm the diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have failed a carboplatin-based regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with endocrine deficiencies are allowed to receive physiologic or stress doses of steroids if necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXAntibiotics: clarithromycin, erythromycin, troleandomycinXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-HIV agents: delavirdine, nelfinavir, amprenavir, ritonavir, indinavir, saquinavir, lopinavirXx_NEWLINE_xXAntifungals: itraconazole, ketoconazole, fluconazole (doses > 200 mg/day), voriconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXAntidepressants: nefazodone, fluvoxamineXx_NEWLINE_xXCalcium channel blockers: verapamil, diltiazemXx_NEWLINE_xXMiscellaneous: amiodaroneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not be taking enzyme–inducing anticonvulsants, and may not have received these medications within 1 week prior to study enrollment, as these patients may experience different drug disposition; these medications include: Carbamazepine (Tegretol), Felbamate (Felbtol), Phenobarbitol,  Phenytoin (Dilantin),  Primidone (Mysoline), Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSeverely impaired lung functionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of:\r\n* B-CLL monoclonal for Kappa light chain with one or more of the following criteria:\r\n** Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of, anemia and/or thrombocytopenia\r\n** Massive (i.e., at least 6 cm below the left costal margin) or progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly\r\n** Massive nodes (i.e., at least 10 cm in longest diameter) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy\r\n** Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of more than 50% over a 2-month period or lymphocyte doubling time (LDT) of less than 6 months\r\n** Constitutional symptoms, defined as any one or more of the following disease-related symptoms or signs:\r\n*** Unintentional weight loss of 10% or more within the previous 6 months;\r\n*** Significant fatigue (i.e., Eastern Cooperative Oncology Criteria [ECOG] performance status [PS] 2 or worse; inability to work or perform usual activities);\r\n*** Fevers higher than 100.5°F or 38.0°C for 2 or more weeks without other evidence of infection; or\r\n*** Night sweats for more than 1 month without evidence of infection\r\n*** Patients who have resistant disease after primary treatment\r\n*** Patients who have a short time to progression after the first treatment (< 2 years) OR\r\n* Indolent or aggressive B-cell lymphoma (or other B-cell neoplasm) monoclonal for Kappa-light chain with measurable disease after receiving at least one chemotherapy regimen that includes rituximab or an equivalent monoclonal antibody OR\r\n* Multiple myeloma monoclonal for Kappa-light chain with measurable disease after receiving at least one chemotherapy regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable autologous transduced peripheral blood T-cells with >= 15% expression of CAR-Kappa determined by flow-cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk of systemic progression defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of local recurrence or distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal coagulation profile (PT or INR, PTT) > 1.3x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious illness(es) involving the cardiac, respiratory, CNS, renal, hepatic or hematological organ systems which might preclude completion of this study or interfere with determination of causality of any adverse effects experienced in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAEs leading to single-agent trastuzumab emtansine or combination trastuzumab emtansine treatment discontinuation in the parent studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing SAEs from the parent studyXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease on single-agent trastuzumab emtansine or a trastuzumab emtansine-containing regimen during the parent study or before starting the extension study, with the exception of participants from study TDM4688g (NCT00943670) with early disease progression who went on to receive pertuzumab + trastuzumab emtansine treatment and have not experienced further disease progression on the combination regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere dyspnea at rest due to complications of advanced malignancy or current requirement for continuous oxygen therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity with previous trastuzumab emtansine or any agent used with trastuzumab emtansine in the parent study, precluding further dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy or expressed plans to become pregnant within 1 year of the procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated lack of compliance with prior medical careXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of myelodysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXStages II, III, or IV (Ann Arbor Staging)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving erythroid stimulating agents (erythropoietin [EPO]: Procrit, Aranesp)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with oxygen (O^2) saturations > 93% on room air (measured by pulse oximetry)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD) > grade II at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFanconi anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fungal pneumonia with radiological progression after receipt of amphotericin formulation or mold-active azoles for greater than 1 month will not be eligible for this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have serious medical risk factors involving any of the major organ systems, or serious psychiatric disorders, which could compromise the subject's safety or the study data integrity; these include, but are not limited to: history of interstitial lung disease, slowly progressive dyspnea and unproductive cough, sarcoidosis, silicosis, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary hypersensitivity pneumonitis or multiple allergiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom paclitaxel (or nab-paclitaxel) is being used in the curative setting, either adjuvant or neoadjuvant, and patients who would receive paclitaxel (or nab-paclitaxel) as first line therapy in a tumor type in which paclitaxel (or nab-paclitaxel) has a proven survival benefit for metastatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients cannot have distant metastases and have to be candidates for curative re-irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with salivary gland tumors are excluded (patients with nasopharynx CA or sinonasal cancers can participate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes > 1500/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with carotid artery involvement or encasement will be allowed provided they have no symptoms related to carotid involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior exposure to immunotherapy agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXRecursive partitioning analysis (RPA) class III patients (expected to be treated less than 2 years from first course of therapy and have a tracheostomy or percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy [PEG] tube at presentation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary salivary gland cancers are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma (excluding uveal melanoma);Xx_NEWLINE_xXMicrosatellite instability-high or mismatch repair deficient colorectal carcinoma or endometrial carcinoma;Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of an organ allograft.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously been enrolled in this study or any other study investigating SM-88 or who have previously received any component of SM-88 in a clinical trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any drug allergies or significant adverse reactions to any of the components of SM-88.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a variety of factors influencing oral drugs (such as unable to swallow, nausea, vomiting, chronic diarrhea and intestinal obstruction, etc.).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of psychiatric drug abuse that cannot be ended, or subjects with mental disorders that will prevent compliance or evaluation including uncontrolled schizophrenia, uncontrolled depression or other uncontrolled disorders.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of hypersensitivity to phenytoin, its inactive ingredients, or other hydantoins; or a history of prior acute hepatotoxicity attributable to phenytoin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects exhibiting idiosyncratic reactions to psoralen compounds.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of the light sensitive diseases for which methoxsalen would be contraindicated. Diseases associated with photosensitivity include lupus erythematosus, porphyria cutanea tarda, erythropoietic protoporphyria, variegate porphyria, xeroderma pigmentosum, and albinism.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects treated, or anticipated to be treated, with delavirdine (due to potential for loss of virologic response and possible resistance to delavirdine or to the class of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors caused by phenytoin).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with melanoma or with a history of melanoma, invasive squamous cell carcinomas, or aphakia (due to contraindication for use of methoxsalen).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with prior organ transplant or being treated, or anticipated to be treated, with cyclosporine (because long-term administration of the combination of cyclosporine and sirolimus is associated with deterioration of renal function).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe effects of prexasertib and LY3300054 on the developing human fetus are unknown. For this reason, pregnant women are excluded from this study. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with prexasertib and LY3300054, breastfeeding women are also excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular surface disease at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete first remission (CR1) at high risk for relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete first remission (CR1) at high risk for relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXOther acute leukemias that are of ambiguous lineage or of other typesXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative antiviral serology:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV)-1 and 2 antibodies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTwo appropriate CB units identified for the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe contrast-enhancing intraparenchymal brain metastases(s) must be well circumscribed and must have a maximum diameter of =< 3.0 cm in any direction on the enhanced scanXx_NEWLINE_xXFor enrollment to the phase I portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via Next Generation [NextGen] sequencing using the Dana Farber Cancer Institute [DFCI]/Brigham and Women's Hospital [BWH] OncoPanel or any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA]-certified method) that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effectiveXx_NEWLINE_xXFor enrollment to the phase II portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via NextGen sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or any CLIA-certified method) and have had progression of disease on prior BRAF and MEK inhibitor therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because MCS110, dabrafenib and trametinib are anti-cancer agents with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Pregnancy status will be verified at various points in the trial and a serum pregnancy test will be required. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with MCS110, dabrafenib or trametinib, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with MCS110, dabrafenib or trametinibXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy (CSCR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a degenerative retinal disease. Retinal diseases that require a subject's exclusion include: glaucoma, hereditary retinal diseases such as retinitis pigmentosa; retinal arterial occlusive disease; and retinal disease with advanced scarring, to include age-related macular degeneration and myopic degeneration with geographic atrophy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave received radioimmunotherapy (eg, 131I-tositumomab, 90Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan) less than 6 weeks before the first dose of AG-270.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire continued treatment with a medication that is a sensitive CYP2C9 substrate with a narrow therapeutic index.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre unable to take no food or liquids other than water for 2 hours before and 2 hours after each dose of AG-270.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for pancreaticoduodenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of documented anaphylaxis or contraindication to any of the study medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant cognitive impairment or documented psychologic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to epidural per Pain Service guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of a sustained release opioid medication such as long-acting morphine, fentanyl patches, methadone, and buprenorphine within the last 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPost randomization exclusion will occur if the patient is found to have unresectable disease at laparotomy and therefore will not have the potential for the same post-operative complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE IXx_NEWLINE_xXMutational status requires a pathology report, genomic sequencing, or immunohistochemical report of a mutation or activation of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Mutational status requires a pathology report, genomic sequencing, or immunohistochemical report of a mutation or activation of the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patients with measurable radiographically recurrent or radiographically progressive disease that is measurable in at least two dimensions on imaging after standard up-front therapy as defined in the following three strata below will be eligible\r\n* Stratum 1: patients with radiographically recurrent or radiographically progressive low-grade gliomas with a BRAF KIAA1549 (or similar) truncated fusion duplication not previously treated with a BRAF or MEK inhibitor\r\n* Stratum 2: patients with NF1 and radiographically recurrent or radiographically progressive LGG (NF1 may be defined clinically or genetically) not previously treated with a BRAF or MEK inhibitor\r\n* Stratum 3: patients with radiographically recurrent or radiographically progressive tumors thought to involve the RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK pathway but not included in Stratum 1 or 2; this includes any radiographically recurrent or radiographically progressive LGG not included in Stratum 1 or 2 (i.e., any LGG without a BRAF truncated fusion in a patient without NF1), any CNS tumor other than LGG in a patient with NF1, and any other CNS or solid tumor (regardless of grade) with a documented activating BRAF, NRAS, or KRAS mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXALL PHASES:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 measurable lesion that can be reproducibly measured in 2 dimensionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious immunotherapy/monoclonal antibody use must be completed at least 4 weeks or 4 half lives, whichever is longer prior to administration of TAK-580; in addition, radiation therapy to the target lesion must be completed at least 6 months prior to administration of TAK-580; all associated toxicity from previous therapies must be resolved to ? grade 1 or considered baseline prior to administration of TAK-580Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion of women, minorities, and other underrepresented populations: this protocol is open to males and females of all racesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical progression but without radiographically recurrent or radiographically progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history or current evidence of CSR (central serous retinopathy), RVO (rential vein occlusion), or ophthalmopathy present at baseline that would be considered a risk factor for CSR or RVOXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with known EGFR mutations or ALK rearrangements; all subjects must have been tested for EGFR mutation and ALK rearrangement prior to study entry, unless they are known to have a KRAS mutation\r\n* Note: molecular testing is not required for squamous NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of metastatic disease that would be amenable to the required biopsies; ideally pre and post biopsies should be from the same lesion and otherwise from lesions in the same organ; if not possible, then biopsy of the lesions in different organs will be permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with melanoma of cutaneous, mucosal or acral-lentiginous origin or of unknown primaryXx_NEWLINE_xXVisceral crisis or impending visceral crisis at time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to trastuzumab or pertuzumab or atezolizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 3: Are BRCA positive and have previously received a PARP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave known factors that may increase the risk of infection while on study drug treatment. These may include, but are not limited to, an indwelling peritoneal catheter or open wounds. Catheters for vascular access are permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDuring the study, and for 3 months after receiving the last dose of daratumumab, a woman must agree not to donate eggs (ova, oocytes) and men must agree not to donate sperm for the purposes of assisted reproductionXx_NEWLINE_xXExhibits clinical signs of meningeal involvement of MMXx_NEWLINE_xXEither of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe persistent asthma, or a history of asthma within the last 2 years, or currently has uncontrolled asthma of any classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXWBC ? 3.0 x 10e9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is capable of understanding and complying with protocol requirements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive colitis or previous immune-mediated colitis that has not resolved to grade 1 or less.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the products or components to be administered during dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors lying close to an airway, major blood vessel or spinal cord that, in the opinion of the investigator, could cause occlusion or compression in the case of swelling, or erosion into a major vessel in the case of necrosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas testing for a BRAF mutation prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion ? 5cm in sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXMandatory biopsy is required during screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not eligible to receive paclitaxel will be allowed to receive single agent DKN-01.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following pure histologies of endometrial or ovarian cancer are not eligible for enrollment: germ cell, sex cord stroma, carcinosarcoma, or sarcoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious nonmalignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown osteoblastic bony metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity reactions to paclitaxel or other drugs formulated in Cremophor® EL (polyoxyethylated castor oil). Patients who exhibit these hypersensitivities will be eligible to receive single agent DKN-01Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable (>10mm x 10mm) contrast enhancing disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmological conditions as follows:\r\n* Current or past history of retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED)/central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vein occlusion\r\n* Uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of intraocular pressure [IOP])Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have RAS mutation and microsatellite stability status results as part of medical historyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to isatuximab or participation in clinical studies with isatuximab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of other immune related disease /conditions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of vasculitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs receiving an monoamine oxidase-inhibitors (MAOI) or any drug which has significant MAOI activity (e.g., meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) within the 21 days before screening, or has a history of Serotonin Syndrome after receiving serotonergic drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of electrolyte imbalanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHLA A2+ by deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequence analysis (by history with documentation or as part of this study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMucinous or tubal histology or other good prognosis histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXDose Escalation (Segment 1): 0 - 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion (Segment 2): 0 - 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has active peptic ulcer disease or other hemorrhagic esophagitis/gastritis, enteritis, colitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has symptoms of gross hematuria or gross hemoptysisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with advanced solid tumors who are refractory to or intolerant of established therapy known to provide clinical benefit for their condition (i.e., subjects must not be candidates for regimens known to provide clinical benefit).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther locoregional therapy [e.g., radiofrequency ablation (RFA), TACE (transarterial chemoembolization), TARE (transarterial radioembolization), DEB-TACE (drug eluting bead transarterial chemoembolization)]: 6 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to avoid extensive sun exposure, phototherapy, and use of a tanning salon during trial participation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with history of osteoporosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any retinal abnormalities, including subjects with diabetic retinopathy, macular degeneration, or other known forms of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within the Protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils ?1,500 ?L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny human papillomavirus (HPV) status or smoking history is permitted; oropharyngeal cancer patients are required to undergo HPV testing with p16 immunohistochemistry and/or confirmatory HPV polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or in situ hybridization (ISH) testingXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable for a new tumour biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have at least 1 lesion, not previously irradiated, that can be accurately measured.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumour samples have targetable alterations in EGFR and/or ALK are excluded. In addition, patients whose tumour samples are known to have targetable alterations in ROS1, BRAF, MET or RET, are to be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a deleterious or suspected deleterious BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation (germline or somatic)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown evidence of distant metastasis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of MDS or AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory disease after at least 1 prior regimen, defined using the 2014 Lugano classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of nonsquamous NSCLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known oncogenic mutations for which there are approved therapies must have documented intolerance or disease progression for the approved therapies for their mutation. For Other IndicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor papillary thyroid carcinoma patients:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented local confirmation of renal cell carcinoma with a predominantly papillary growth pattern.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor salivary duct carcinoma patients, the following are required:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA histologic diagnosis of salivary duct carcinoma (other subtypes of salivary gland cancer are excluded).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre untreated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre progressive.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere dyspnea at rest due to complications of advanced malignancy, or requiring supplementary oxygen therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in the DES component of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTNBC is defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline pulse oximetry < 94% or requires oxygen supplementation of any kindXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any of the following solid malignancies:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-small cell lung cancer (subjects in Part B must either lack EGFR sensitizing mutation or ALK translocation per local test results, or must have progressed on approved standard of care treatment for EGFR or ALK positive NSCLC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHuman papillomavirus-negative HNSCCXx_NEWLINE_xXFor enrollment to arm 1: participants must have a confirmed CCND1, 2, or 3 high-level amplification, CCND1 mutation, or a CCND1 splice variant expected to lead to nuclear retention of cyclin D1 protein, via Dana-Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI)/Brigham and Women's Hospital (BWH) OncoPanel or any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified methodXx_NEWLINE_xXIs a regular user of any illicit drugs or had a recent history of substance abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a ROS1 translocationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave documentation of V600-activating BRAF mutation status or consent to BRAF V600 mutation testing during the screening period.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas Ocular MelanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have active, chronic, or on active treatment for Hep B or Hep C are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales with a histologically proven CAH/EIN or grade I endometrial carcinoma (EC) for which surgery is planned; the pathologic report from the referring facility will be used to determine pathologic eligibility; this report must be within 45 days of their baseline (pre-surgical) clinic visitXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with severe bone density issues/osteoporosis (defined as any medical treatment for osteoporosis, and/or a T-score of -2.5 or lower, and/or history of fracture of the hip or spine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe newly diagnosed and previously untreatedXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with APL-M3 or CBF-AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived >100 mg/m2 equivalents of daunorubicin (see Appendix G for conversion table)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave evidence of uncontrolled disseminated intravascular coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic encephalopathy within past 12 months or requirement for medication to prevent or control encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXAscites that your doctor will manage by increasing your medications or by performing non-invasive methods (eg, paracentesis) to control, within 6 months prior to the first scheduled dose.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors within 21 days of study enrollment (epacadostat increases serotonin levels, theoretically increasing the risk of serotonin syndrome, although this has not been reported in any ongoing clinical studies to date)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is considered an appropriate candidate (per Investigator assessment) for induction therapy with 6 cycles of R-CHOP-21 immunochemotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has poor-risk disease defined as International Prognostic Index (IPI) score ? 3 (high-intermediate or high-risk classification).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to ongoing pregnancy testing during the course of the study as outlined in the PPRMP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to not donate semen or sperm for at least 12 months following the last dose of rituximab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnderstand that CC-122 could have a potential teratogenic risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to abstain from donating blood while taking IP and for at least 28 days following discontinuation of IP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree not to share IP with another personXx_NEWLINE_xXBe counseled about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure and agree to requirements of the Pregnancy Prevention and Risk Management Plan (PPRMP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch or bifascicular block.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTroponin-T value > 0.4 ng/mL or B-type natriuretic protein (BNP) > 300 pg/mL by central laboratory assessment Subjects with baseline troponin-T > ULN or BNP > 100 pg/mL are eligible but must have a cardiologist evaluation prior to enrollment in the trial for baseline assessment and optimization of cardioprotective therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor histological specific cohorts, patients must have confirmed metastatic and/or locally advanced osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma/malignant fibrous histiocytoma/high grade myxofibrosarcoma, vascular sarcoma, alveolar soft part sarcoma (ASPS), small blue round cell, or leiomyosarcoma (LMS) by the enrolling institution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have consented to participate and, prior to beginning specific study procedures, must have signed and dated an appropriate IRB-approved consent form that conforms to federal and institutional guidelines for study treatment and for submission of tumor samples as required by NSABP B-59/GBG 96-GeparDouze for baseline correlative science studies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF assessment must be performed within 42 days prior to randomization. (LVEF assessment performed by echocardiogram is preferred; however, MUGA scan may be substituted based on institutional preferences.) The LVEF must be ? 55% regardless of the cardiac imaging facility's lower limit of normal.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExcisional biopsy or lumpectomy performed prior to study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus, or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis are excluded) are permitted provided all of following conditions are met: Rash must cover < 10% of body surface area; Disease is well controlled at baseline and requires only low-potency topical corticosteroids; No occurrence of acute exacerbations of the underlying condition requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation, methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors, or high-potency or oral corticosteroids within the previous 12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral ischemia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have locoregional staging determined by endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) if technically feasible; endoscopy reports or subsequent gastrointestinal (GI) clinic note should clearly state both the T and N stageXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with tumors involving the thoracic esophagus must undergo bronchoscopy to document the absence of a fistula no known contraindication to the use of taxanes or platinum compoundsXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed a suitable candidate for esophagectomy by the treating surgeon as documented in a pre-operative assessment visit per standard practice at each participating institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients have to agree to participate in the correlative study of sample collection for immune correlative assays in order to participate in the main study; however, if the sample cannot be obtained due to feasibility issues, the patient will be allowed to continue on treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAs there is potential for hepatic toxicity with nivolumab or nivolumab non-drugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant provides informed consent for prospective collection of relevant medical records for analysis of clinical outcome and treatment-planning techniquesXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC) categorized as microsatellite stable (MSS) by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) per local assay at any time prior to Screening or by the central laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRAS mutation per local assay at any time prior to Screening or by the central laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO).Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent neuromuscular disorder that is associated with the potential of elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing elective pancreatoduodenectomy (PD) for any diagnosis/indicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known and documented allergies to any of the penicillins, cephalosporins, or beta-lactamase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients highly unlikely to undergo PD according to the surgeon’s judgment, such as conditions amenable to pancreas enucleation, ampullectomy, etcXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating sperm during the treatment period and for at least 3 months after the last dose of cobimetinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor peripheral venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of serous retinopathy, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or evidence of ongoing serous retinopathy or RVO at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXMicrosatellite stable disease determined by IHC and/or polymerase chain reaction (PCR).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal coagulation profileXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative antiviral serologyXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to or prior severe (?Grade 3) allergic or anaphylactic reaction to infused antibodies or infused therapeutic proteins.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation status, as specified below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown clinically important respiratory impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAny Grade >1 (according to the NCI CTCAE 4.03) adverse reaction unresolved from previous treatments and not readily managed and controlled with supportive care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBMI 18 to 32 kg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease measurability:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1b:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to any component of the IMP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny CT imaging findings indicating radiation or drug-induced lung disorders at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-manageable electrolyte imbalances including hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, or hypomagnesemia (Grade 2 or greater based on NCI-CTCAE v 4.03).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented cardiomyopathy;Xx_NEWLINE_xXProton-pump inhibitors and histamine H2-receptor antagonists;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedications that have a narrow therapeutic window and are predominantly metabolized through CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP2C19, or CYP3A4;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations/medications. These herbal medications include, but are not limited to: St. John's wort, kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginseng.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol dependency within 6 months before study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn view of the principal investigator (PI) and the primary oncologist, there must be no available alternative curative therapies or subject has declined to pursue alternative therapy; and subjects must be either ineligible for allogeneic stem cell transplant (SCT), have refused SCT, recurred after SCT, or have disease activity that prohibits SCT at the time of enrollment\r\n* Chemotherapy refractory disease in subjects with B-ALL is defined as progression or stable disease after two lines of therapies\r\n* Recurrence of disease after achieving a complete response (CR)\r\n* Subjects with persistent or relapsed minimal residual disease (MRD) (by flow cytometry, polymerase chain reaction [PCR], fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH], or next generation sequencing) require verification of MRD positivity on two occasions at least 4 weeks apart\r\n* Subjects with Philadelphia chromosome positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Ph+ALL) subjects are eligible if they progressed, had stable disease or relapsed after two lines of therapy, including tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)\r\n* Subjects with recurrence of isolated central nervous system (CNS) relapse after achieving complete remission (CR); if relapsed with MRD, will require verification of MRD positivity on two occasions at least 4 weeks apartXx_NEWLINE_xXCD19 expression is required at any time since diagnosis; if patient has received anti-CD19 targeted therapy (i.e. blinatumomab), then CD19 expression must be subsequently demonstrated. CD19 expression must be detected on greater than 50% of the malignant cells by immunohistochemistry or >= 90% by flow cytometry; the choice of whether to use flow\r\ncytometry or immunohistochemistry will be determined by what is the most easily available tissue sample in each subject; in general, immunohistochemistry will be used for lymph node biopsies, flow cytometry will be used for peripheral blood and bone marrow samplesXx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: the first subject in the first dose cohort must be >= 18 years of age if an adult has not been treated at that dose cohort on the companion Stanford protocol “Phase 1 Dose Escalation Study of CD19/CD22 Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR) T Cells in Adults with Recurrent or Refractory B Cell Malignancies” and undergone safety evaluation at day 28 without evidence of dose limiting toxicity (DLT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or refractory ALL limited to isolated testicularXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperleukocytosis (>= 50,000 blasts/uL) or rapidly progressive disease that in the estimation of the investigator and sponsor would compromise ability to complete study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny stage HNSCC of the 1) oral cavity, 2) oropharynx, 3) larynx, 4) hypopharynx, 5) nasal cavity/paranasal sinuses, 6) unknown primary; patients with resectable or recurrent disease that is amenable to surgery are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma, salivary gland or skin primariesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any anginal chest pain; defined by a known diagnosis of angina; or defined by chest pressure, squeezing, radiating pain to arms, shoulders, or neck from the chest; with or without exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking nitratesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a secondary condition (sickle cell anemia) that cause priapismXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent mucositisXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors of the lips, sinuses, salivary glands, nasopharynx, hypopharynx, or larynxXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a diagnosis of biopsy-proven diagnosis of AL amyloidosis according to the following standard criteria:\r\n* Histochemical diagnosis of AL amyloidosis, as based on tissue specimens with Congo red staining with exhibition of an apple-green birefringence and immunohistochemistry\r\n* If clinical and laboratory parameters insufficient to establish AL amyloidosis or in cases of doubt, amyloid typing may be necessary\r\n* Measurable disease as defined by serum differential free light chain concentration (dFLC, difference between amyloid forming [involved] and non amyloid forming [uninvolved] free light chain [FLC]) ? 50 mg/L)\r\n* Systemic amyloid organ involvement including renal, cardiac, gastrointestinal (GI) and/or nervous system involvement as well as soft tissue diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated biopsy proven AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXN-terminal pro b-type natriuretic peptide (NT Pro-BNP) > 8500 pcg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXDialysis dependent renal failureXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent exposure to any commercially available agents known to be active against SMM and MMXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years or currently has uncontrolled asthma of any classification\r\n* Subjects who currently have controlled intermittent asthma or controlled mild persistent asthma are allowed in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinicopathological diagnosis of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia and meeting criteria for treatment using consensus panel criteria from the Second International Workshop on Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia (Kyle et al, 2003) or have high risk disease with an serum IgM level of 6,000 mg or higher (Gustine et al, 2016)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMYD88 and CXCR4 mutated disease (determined by Treon laboratory or molecular diagnostics laboratory)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to ibrutinib or ulocuplumabXx_NEWLINE_xXWith the exception of low-dose aspirin, subjects enrolled in this study should not take concomitant medications that durably inhibit platelet function including marine oil tablets; for such medications a wash-out period of >= 7 days is required prior to starting treatment; agents which inhibit platelet function transiently or inhibit coagulation by other mechanisms are restricted (e.g. use with caution); medications that directly and durably inhibit platelet function include aspirin containing combinations, clopidogrel, dipyridamole, tirofiban, epoprostenol, eptifibatide, cilostazol, abciximab, ticlopidine, cilostazolXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy women age 35 - 75 years with either heterogeneously dense (C) or extremely dense (D), breast tissue on 2D mammography, based on American College of Radiology (ACR) Breast Imaging-Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS©) fifth edition classification) in either breast within 3 months prior to randomization. Mammogram with BI-RADS final assessment category 1 or 2 (negative or benign findings).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because the effects of 4-OHT gel on the developing human fetus at the recommended dose and route are unknown.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who have had a prior mastectomy (unilateral or bilateral), segmental mastectomy, reduction mammoplasty or breast augmentation including implants.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with an abnormal mammogram (BI-RADS final assessment category 3-probably benign, 4-suspicious, or 5-malignant findings). Women with BI-RADS 0 assessment (needs additional imaging evaluation) that are subsequently found to have negative (BI-RADS 1) or benign findings (BI-RADS 2), are NOT excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with only synthetic 2D mammograms generated from 3D (tomosynthesis) are excluded as breast density measurements are not yet validated for synthetic mammograms. Women with combination 2D+3D mammograms are not excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute myeloid leukemia\r\n* MRD > 5% at day 22 induction 1\r\n* MRD > 0.1% after induction 2\r\n* FMS-like tyrosine kinase (FLT)/internal tandem duplication (ITD) with allelic ratio > 0.4 and MRD > 0.1% at day 29 induction 1\r\n* Translocation (6:9), (8:6), (16:21), monosomy7, monosomy 5, 5q.\r\n* M7 without translocation (1;22)\r\n* M7 with KMT2A rearrangements, inv(16)(p13.3q24.3) [CBFA2T3-GLIS2] or t(11;12)(p15;p13) [NUP98-KDM5A]\r\n* AML in 2nd or subsequent CR\r\n* Therapy related or secondary AML\r\n* Refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB) 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects 1 and 2 (in cohort 1) will be >= 12 years’ oldXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-cooperative behavior or non-compliance of the patient and/or of his/her familyXx_NEWLINE_xXStage at presentation: cT2-cT4, cN0-cN3, cM0Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiopulmonary dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to hepatic arteriography (e.g. hepatic artery dissection and/or thrombosis, uncorrectable coagulopathy, severe allergy to iodinated contrast, severe vascular disease precluding safe hepatic artery catheterization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets < 75x10^9/L (75x10^3/mm^3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled infection; infections controlled on concurrent anti-microbial agents are acceptable, and anti-microbial prophylaxis per institutional guidelines are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere coexisting or terminal systemic disease that may interfere with the conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHemosiderosis/hemochromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIron overload from any cause (not just hemosiderosis or hemochromatosis), even if secondary to frequent blood transfusions, severe chronic hemolysis, excess dietary or parenteral iron, or any other etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmation of predominant clear cell renal cell carcinoma (RCC) (original tissue diagnosis of RCC is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXa contraceptive implantXx_NEWLINE_xXdo not have a vasectomized partner with confirmed azoospermiaXx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT TO THE DOSE ESCALATION, EXPANSION AND PART II: Part I dose escalation: Concurrent use of proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) is prohibitedXx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT TO THE DOSE ESCALATION, EXPANSION AND PART II: History of neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CK (e.g. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT TO THE DOSE ESCALATION, EXPANSION AND PART II: Evidence of visible retinal pathology on screening ophthalmologic examination that places the participant at an unacceptable risk for retinal vein occlusion (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT TO THE DOSE ESCALATION, EXPANSION AND PART II: History of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT TO THE DOSE ESCALATION, EXPANSION AND PART II: Presence of neurosensory retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degeneration on screening ophthalmologic examXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANDED ACCESS COHORT: History of neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANDED ACCESS COHORT: Presence of neurosensory retinal detachment or retinal vein occlusion (RVO) on screening ophthalmologic examXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease status requirement:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects currently being treated with a CYP 2C9, CYP 2C8, CYP 2C19, CYP 2D6, and P-gp substrate with a narrow therapeutic index.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas significant, ongoing, co-morbid conditions which would preclude safe delivery of the study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uveal melanoma will not be eligible as these tumors show low expression of GD3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to be off prednisone and other immunosuppressive drugs for at least 3 days prior to the NK cell infusion (excluding preparative regimen pre-meds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or lactating as the treatments used in this study includes drugs that are FDA Pregnancy Category D.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias of ambiguous lineageXx_NEWLINE_xXAML that transformed from previously treated myelodysplastic syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXNew or progressive pulmonary infiltrates on screening chest x-ray or chest CT scan that has not been cleared by Pulmonary. Infiltrates attributed to infection must be stable/improving (with associated clinical improvement) after 1 week of appropriate therapy (4 weeks for presumed or documented fungal infections)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of surgery, frozen biopsy confirmation of high grade or malignant glioma by neuropathologist; biopsy confirmation of glioma or infiltrative glioma at time of surgery will be acceptable, provided that subject has prior pathology confirmation of high-grade glioma; if subject had previous diagnosis of low grade glioma, then the biopsy must show high grade glioma\r\n* To be confirmed at time of surgery, after registration in OnCoreXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have prior diagnosis of glioma (astrocytoma, malignant astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, mixed oligo-astrocytoma), exclusive of ependymoma, ganglioglioma, pylocytic/pylomyxoid astrocytoma as confirmed by a neuropathologist or by a previous local pathology reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of temozolomide chemotherapy provided concurrent to external beam radiotherapy and after as per current standard of care; however, temozolomide would not be required to have been provided concomitantly or after radiation if the patient had unmethylated MGMT promoter or if the patient initially was diagnosed with a low grade glioma; at least 8 weeks must have passed from the last dose of temozolomide and first dose of cyclophosphamide and/or rQNestin34.5v.2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any recurrence (first, second, third, etc recurrence) will be able to be enrolledXx_NEWLINE_xXUnacceptable anesthesia riskXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent glioma where injection in either arm A or B of the biologic agent would require access and/or considerable spillage into the ventricular systemXx_NEWLINE_xXActive oral or genital herpes lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistology and/or cytology confirmed HCC per the enrolling institution; subjects in Cohort 1 are permitted to enroll without confirmation of HCC as long as imaging Liver Imaging Reporting and Data System (LiRAD)s criteria are met and a biopsy is scheduled prior to or the day of the deb-TACE procedure; HCC confirmation must be completed prior to initiation of nivolumab for all cohorts; if a patient is found to not have confirmed HCC, they will be removed from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease not amenable to curative or transplant surgery ([Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer [BCLC] Stage B); disease must be reviewed by members of disease management team at the local enrolling institution and be amenable to deb-TACE to treat all sites of disease in one session; for the dose escalation, regional lymphadenopathy and sub-centimeter pulmonary nodules are allowed as well as segmental portal vein involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXSuppression of hepatitis B (HBV) (=< 100 IU/mL by HBV polymerase chain reaction [PCR]) with antivirals per the local standard of care if prior or current HBV exposure or infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXMain portal vein vascular invasion; for the dose escalation, segmental portal vein is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXExtrahepatic spread; for the dose escalation, regional lymphadenopathy and subcentimeter pulmonary nodules are allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior embolization and/or ablation; for the dose escalation, prior embolization and ablation is allowed as long as the patient has progressed with a new RECIST measurable lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to angiography/embolization procedure based on judgment of the treating investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have full activity or, if limited, must be able to walk and carry out light activities such as light house work or office workXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving chronic antiplatelet therapy, including aspirin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs, including ibuprofen, naproxen, and others), dipyridamole or clopidogrel, or similar agents; once-daily aspirin use (maximum dose 325 mg/day) is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS >= 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXpreviously treated with abiraterone, enzalutamide alone or in combination AND must have demonstrated evidence of objective progression as per PCWG3 criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXKPS of ? 70 or ECOG of 0 to 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to transcriptional kinase family CDK inhibitors, such as the CDK7 and CDK9 inhibitors alvocidib (Flavopiridol), dinaciclib, and seliciclib. Exception: previous exposure to cell cycle CDK inhibitors such as CDK4 and CDK6 (eg, palbociclib) is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2: Prior adverse reaction(s) to carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xX>= 1% of CD30-positivity by immunohistochemistry confirmed by hematopathology review at the participating institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNasopharyngeal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombocytopenia with complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a pathologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the biliary tract (intra-hepatic, extra-hepatic [hilar, distal] or gall bladder) that is not eligible for curative resection, transplantation, or ablative therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor enrollment to the phase I portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via next generation [NextGen] sequencing using the Dana-Farber Cancer Institute [DFCI]/Brigham and Women's Hospital [BWH] OncoPanel or any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA]-certified method) that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effectiveXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy (CSCR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatopulmonary shunting < 20% as documented via hepatic artery perfusion studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be considered poor prognosis by the following parameters: 1) right or left portal vein involvement (NOTE: subjects with main portal vein involvement are excluded), 2) multi-focal disease (more than 3 tumors regardless of size) AND/OR 3) diffuse disease considered amenable to liver directed therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with chronic infection by hepatitis C virus (HCV) who are untreated or who failed previous therapies for HCV are allowed on study; in addition, subjects with successful HCV treatment (defined as sustained virologic response [SVR] 12 or SVR 24) are allowed as long as 4 weeks have passed between completion of HCV therapy and start of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXAll disease must be amenable to embolization in one or two proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete portal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated active HBVXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have experienced a toxicity that led to permanent discontinuation of prior immunotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 95% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXWhole-brain RT may be used, without a pre-defined washout period, prior to commencement of study therapy if the lesion that has been radiated is not the sole measurable lesion, or the patient is eligible based on positive CSF cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a condition related to their cancer or leptomeningeal disease requiring urgent intervention that has not been clinically managed or stabilized prior to the time of consentXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnostic biopsy reveals perineural invasion (PNI) and/or lymphovascular invasion (LVI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTrismus or compromised airwayXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be on active anti-androgen therapy or 5-alpha reductase inhibitors; patients on stable dose of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors for benign prostatic hypertrophy for at least 12 months may continue; they must withdraw from the study if this is stopped while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients can continue taking what they are taking at the time they start on the study, but agree not to start any new (over the counter) herbal supplement on regular basis during study durationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on active surveillance for untreated localized disease may not participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma diagnosed by histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an ECOG PS of 0-1 at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must weigh ? 35 kg (due to possible size limitations with respect to percutaneous catheterization of the femoral artery and vein using the Delcath Hepatic Delivery System).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of orthotopic liver transplantation, hepatic vasculature incompatible with perfusion, hepatofugal flow in the portal vein or known unresolved venous shunting. Prior Whipple procedure is permitted provided the anatomy is still compatible for perfusion with the Melphalan/HDS system.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseases which, in the view of the investigator, makes it undesirable for the patient to participate in the trial (e.g. unstable or uncompensated respiratory, cardiac, hepatic or renal disease).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils < 1,500 cells/µL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown alcohol or drug abuse that would preclude compliance with study procedures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biliary stents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of external percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography catheter placement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with any intra-arterial regional hepatic therapy such as trans-arterial chemoembolization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe allergic reactions to iodine contrast which cannot be controlled by premedication with antihistamines and steroids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for follow up assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe investigator’s belief that the subject is medically unfit to receive pembrolizumab and or unsuitable for any other reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - PROCUREMENT: CD5-positive tumor (result can be pending at this time); > 50% CD5 + blasts by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry (tissue) assessed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified flow cytometry/pathology laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - TREATMENT: CD5-positive tumor (> 50%) CD5+ blasts by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry (tissue) assessed in a CLIA certified flow cytometry/pathology laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - TREATMENT: Available autologous activated peripheral blood T cell products with ? 20% expression of CD5.CAR.28 zeta and < 0.5% gene-modified malignant T blasts by flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION - PROCUREMENT: Clinically significant viral infection or uncontrolled viral reactivation of Epstein Barr virus (EBV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), adenovirus (Adv), BK-virus, or human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving or chewing capsulesXx_NEWLINE_xXAll herbal, alternative and food supplements (i.e. PC-Spes, saw palmetto, St. John's wort, etc.) must be discontinued before registration; subjects may continue on a daily multi-vitamin, calcium and vitamin DXx_NEWLINE_xXAll hormonal-acting agents (including diethylstilbestrol/DES, aldosterone, and spironolactone) must be discontinued before registration; no washout period will be required for any of these agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with bulky visceral disease defined as > 4 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic or cytologic diagnosis of a WDNET, Ki67 =< 30%, unresectable, of foregut origin (thymic, bronchopulmonary, gastric, duodenal, and pancreatic) confirmed by the enrolling institution\r\n* Note: If patients have a functional NET, they are permitted to continue on a somatostatin analog for hormonal symptom controlXx_NEWLINE_xXOsseous metastases felt in the opinion of the clinician to be high-risk for impending pathologic fracture or spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a minimum of one injectable lesion as determined by the investigator (for superficial tumors) or radiologist (deep tumors).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils ?1000/?L (?1 x 10^9/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional criteria for cohort D (anti-PD1 combo) will be supplied in an appendix at a later date.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional criteria for cohort D (anti-PD1 combo) will be supplied in an appendix at a later date.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate laboratory results including the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgression on a first generation EGFR TKI (T790M negative), or progression on a third generation TKI (if T790M positive at time of progression on a first or second generation TKI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0, 1, or 2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression unless good pain control attainedXx_NEWLINE_xXPredisposing characteristics for acute pancreatitis in the last month prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXknown P gp substrates with a narrow therapeutic indexXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiologic or clinical evidence of spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal Instability Neoplastic score >= 7 unless lesion reviewed by a neurosurgical service and considered stableXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate oral intake/nutritional status without the need for enteral or parenteral feeding during chemoradiation or preoperative periodXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of PR prolongation or atrioventricular (AV) block on baseline electrocardiogram (ECG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiation oncology consultation within 28 days to confirm that disease can be encompassed in the radiotherapy field and that normal tissue constraints can be metXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophagogastrectomies will be performed via a laparotomy and a right thoracotomy with en-bloc removal of perigastric, celiac, periesophageal and subcarinal lymph nodes; esophagogastric reconstruction will be performed above the level of the azygo-caval junction using an end-to-end (EEA) stapling deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophageal tumors that are located in the mid esophagus or higher i.e. not involving distal esophagus or gastroesophageal (GE) junctionXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors whose proximal end are higher that the level of the carinaXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors extend 5 cm or more into the stomachXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiac Function: Fridericia's correction formula (QTcF) < 480 milliseconds (Fridericia correction), and ejection fraction (EF) >= 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be strongly encouraged to participate in 10-C-0086; if a patient does not agree to enroll on 10-C-0086, germline genetic analysis will not be performedXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to remain abstinent from consuming alcohol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with the following medications are contraindicated with DSF: metronidazole, isoniazid, dronabinol, carbocisteine, lopinavir, paraldehyde, ritonavir, sertraline, tindazole, tizanidine, atazanavir.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Wilson's disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemochromatosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic proof of melanoma reviewed and confirmed by the treating institution; the melanoma must have a documented BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation by genotyping or immunohistochemistry (IHC) 12 performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory; at Memorial Sloan-Kettering (MSK), the diagnostic molecular pathology laboratory has developed and implemented a targeted capture-based next-generation deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequencing assay, MSK-integrated mutation profiling of actionable cancer targets (IMPACT), to profile all protein-coding exons and selected introns from 410 oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in formalin-fixed paraffin embedded tissues; MSK-IMPACT has been approved by the New York (NY) State Department of Health to be run as a clinical assay in the CLIA-compliant diagnostic molecular pathology laboratory; MSK-IMPACT is capable of detecting mutations, copy number alterations, and structural variations; BRAF exon15 was captured by the MSK-IMPACT panel and the c.1799T>A (p.V600E) mutation was fully validated as per New York State (NYS) requirements; detailed results of the validation of this mutation were included in the validation package submitted to NY State Department of HealthXx_NEWLINE_xXAt Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH), samples will be tested using a multiplex polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technology called anchored multiplex PCR (AMP) for single nucleotide variant (SNV) and insertion/deletion (indel) detection in genomic DNA using next generation sequencing (NGS); briefly, genomic DNA was isolated from a formalin-fixed paraffin embedded tumor specimen is sheared with the Covaris M220 instrument, followed by end-repair, adenylation, and ligation with an adapter; a sequencing library targeting hotspots and exons in 39 genes (including BRAF, exons 11 and 15) is generated using two hemi-nested PCR reactions; Illumina MiSeq 2 x 147 base paired-end sequencing results are aligned to the hg19 human genome reference using BWA-MEM; MuTect and a laboratory-developed insertion/deletion analysis algorithm are used for SNV and indel variant detection, respectively; this assay has been validated to detect SNV and indel variants at 5% allelic frequency or higher in target regions with sufficient read coverage; this test was developed, and its performance characteristics were determined by the MGH Center for integrated diagnosticsXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of renal failure (unless recovered for at least 6 months), lactic acidosis, recurrent or severe hypoglycemia, or significant chronic obstructive lung disease; patients will not be excluded for reversible episodes of elevated creatinine due to hypovolemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication while on dabrafenib/trametinibXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant may not have a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube or be receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMK-1454 (cut/subcut lesions) and MK-1454+pembro (cut/subcut lesions) Arms:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas ?1 distant, discrete non-injected lesion which is amenable to biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll Arms:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of vasculitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXdiagnosis of AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have full activity or, if limited, must be able to walk and carry out light activities such as light house work or office workXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA) ? 1.2 m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXCumulative volume of all tumors ? 15 ccXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to operate the NovoTTF-100M device independently or with the help of a caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with significant edema leading to risk of brain herniationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with midline shift > 10mmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with intractable seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere comorbidities:Xx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable electronic medical devices in the brainXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergies to medical adhesives or hydrogelXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients who have undergone mastectomy, any type of mastectomy and any type of reconstruction (including no reconstruction) are allowed; metallic components of some tissue expanders may complicate delivery of proton therapy; any concerns should be discussed with the Breast Committee Study Chairs prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXDermatomyositis with a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or with an active skin rash or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will be receiving the tablet formulation must have a body surface area (BSA) >= 0.84 m^2 (square meter) at baseline.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may have received bevacizumab, VEGF-Trap, or other VEGF blocking tyrosine kinase inhibitors, provided that they did not progress while receiving one of these agents. Subjects may not have previously received pazopanib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of active graft versus host disease and >=2 months must have elapsed since transplant or rescueXx_NEWLINE_xXPart B: Patients with recurrent or refractory osteosarcoma are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical indications such as evidence of dyspnea at rest, or exercise intolerance due to pulmonary insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXIf clinical indications, pulse oximetry > 94% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of VTE <= 30 days prior to study enrollment for which potential benefits of anticoagulation therapy to prevent recurrence of VTE are felt by the treating physician to exceed the potential harmsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny anticoagulation drug/strategy may be used to treat the index VTE; protocol treatment will begin <= 30days after the index VTE diagnosis dateXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing therapy with a P-gp inhibitor (e.g., nelfinavir, indinavir, or saquinavir-protease inhibitors for HIV) as these drugs interact with the factor Xa inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXTherapy with any azole antifungals (e.g., itraconazole, ketaconazole, voriconazole) at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with cervical esophageal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXDid not receive concurrent chemoradiotherapy prior to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PATIENTS ENROLLED IN THE EXPANSION COHORT: willingness to undergo mandatory biopsies (day -14, approximately 4 hours post end of irinotecan infusion and day 1, approximately 4 hours post end of irinotecan infusion [= 3 hours post end of VX-970]); patients enrolled to this cohort should have tumors deemed easily accessible for biopsies with low likelihood of complicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPart B: Patients with recurrent or refractory CNS tumors will be eligible and must have a histological verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with CNS-germ cell tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-HCGXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy within 6 months of study enrollment are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMDS classified as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRAEB-t per French-American-British (FAB) classification (20% to 30% BM blasts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgression (according to 2006 IWG criteria) at any time after initiation of AZA or DAC treatment or Failure to achieve complete or partial response or hematological improvement (HI) (according to 2006 IWG) after at least six 4-week cycles of AZA or either four 4-week or four 6-week cycles of DAC administered or Relapse after initial complete or partial response or HI (according to 2006 IWG criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOff all treatments for MDS (including AZA and DAC) for ? 4 weeks before randomization; growth factors (G-CSF, erythropoietin and thrombopoietin) and transfusions are allowed before and during the study as clinically indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXUncorrected hyponatremia (defined as serum sodium value of <130 mEq/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXestrogen-gestagen based contraceptives associated with inhibition of ovulation (oral, intravaginal, transdermal),Xx_NEWLINE_xXgestagen-only based contraceptives associated with inhibition of ovulation (oral, injectable, implantable),Xx_NEWLINE_xXintra-uterine devices (IUDs),Xx_NEWLINE_xXintra-uterine hormone-releasing systems (IUSs),Xx_NEWLINE_xXbilateral tubal occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXvasectomized partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXsexual abstinence in accordance with an individual's lifestyleXx_NEWLINE_xXFull recovery from cystectomy or nephroureterectomy within 14 weeks following surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular testing results from CLIA-certified laboratories (using tissue and/or blood) demonstrating EGFR-activating mutations Vemurafenib plus CobimetinibXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular testing results from CLIA-certified laboratories (using tissue and/or blood) demonstrating hedgehog pathway relevant mutation (activating mutation of smoothened [SMO] or loss-of-function mutation of protein patched homolog-1 [PTCH-1]) a) For participants screened using a blood assay: obtain tissue-based testing result confirming study eligibility (within first 4 weeks after enrollment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular testing results from CLIA-certified laboratories (using tissue and/or blood) demonstrating anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene rearrangements, ALK mutations, ALK copy number gain or (for melanoma only) increased ALK expression or presence of ALK-alternative transcription initiation transcript (ALKATI) a) For participants screened using a blood assay: obtain tissue-based testing result confirming study eligibility (within first 4 weeks after enrolment) AtezolizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular testing results from CLIA-certified laboratories (using tissue) demonstrating programmed death-ligand 1 (PD-L1) copy number gain/amplification, deficiency in mismatch repair enzymes (dMMR), high levels of microsatellite instability (MSI-H) or elevated tumor mutational burden (TMB >=10 mutations/ MB).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for another actively accruing Roche/Genentech-sponsored interventional clinical trial Study-Drug Specific Exclusion Criteria: Trastuzumab plus PertuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR amplifications in the absence of EGFR-activating mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXCancers with exon 20 mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXALK-positive NSCLC, neuroblastoma, and childhood tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed DIPGs, defined as tumors with a pontine epicenter and diffuse involvement of the pons, are eligible without histologic confirmation\r\n* Patients with brainstem tumors that do not meet these criteria or are not considered to be typical intrinsic pontine gliomas will only be eligible if the tumors are biopsied and proven to be an anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma, gliosarcoma, diffuse midline glioma with histone H3 K27M mutation, or anaplastic mixed glioma; patients with pilocytic astrocytoma, fibrillary astrocytoma, gangliogliomas, or other mixed gliomas without anaplasia are not eligible\r\n* Patients with disseminated disease are not eligible, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of spine must be performed if disseminated disease is suspected by the treating physician\r\n* Enrollment must be no later than 28 days after the date of radiographic diagnosis or surgery, whichever is the later dateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.35 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations are not allowed throughout the study; these herbal medications include but are not limited to: St. John's wort, kava, ephedra (ma hung), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto and ginseng; patients should stop using these herbal medications 7 days prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXDepending on the stage of the protocol, pathway activation based on p-S6 will need to be done in real time to assess if patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have normal pulmonary function testing for age based on pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary spinal cord tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute Leukemias in 2nd or subsequent CRXx_NEWLINE_xXEach unit must have a minimum of 1.5 x 10^7/kg pre-cryopreserved total nucleated cell dose. For non-red blood cell depleted units, the minimum pre-cryopreserved total nucleated cell dose of each unit must be at least 2.0 x10^7/kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate cGvHD: At least one organ (not lung) with a score of 2, 3 or more organs involved with a score of 1 in each organ, or lung score of 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cGvHD: at least 1 organ with a score of 3, or lung score of 2 or 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXIncrease to prednisolone dose to > 0.25 mg/kg/day after 2 unsuccessful attempts to taper the doseXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must accept to be treated with only one of the following BAT options on Cycle 1 Day 1 (additions and changes are allowed during the course of the study, but only with BAT from the following BAT options): extracorporeal photopheresis (ECP), low-dose methotrexate (MTX), mycophenolate mofetil (MMF), mTOR inhibitors (everolimus or sirolimus), infliximab, rituximab, pentostatin, imatinib, ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed, relapsed/refractory ALK+ ALCL (with ALK positivity defined by immunohistochemistry and/or fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH]/cytogenetics from any prior biopsy), MCL, or BCL6+ DLBCL (with BCL6 positivity defined by immunohistochemistry from any prior biopsy) and meet the following criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements\r\n* There will be no exclusion of patients with known visual impairment or symptoms, including by not limited to peripheral flashes (photopsia), blurred or double vision, floaters, color distortion and dimness, difficulties with light/dark accommodation, tunnel vision or other field defects, halos, apparent movement of stationary objects, and complex disturbances; patients will have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to serve as a point of comparison and further exams as needed should visual symptoms develop; no pretreatment eye exam findings or ocular symptoms have been associated with an increased risk of ocular toxicity seen with AT13387Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXGlial tumors (including patients with leptomeningeal disease)\r\n* Astrocytic tumors \r\n** Low-grade astrocytoma (variants: fibrillary, protoplasmic gemistocytic, mixed, not otherwise specified [NOS])\r\n** Pilocytic astrocytoma\r\n** Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytomas \r\n** Infantile desmoplastic astrocytoma \r\n** Pilomyxoid astrocytoma\r\n* Low-grade oligodendroglioma\r\n* Low-grade oligoastrocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuronal tumors \r\n* Ganglioglioma (excluding tumors with anaplastic astrocytic components) \r\n* Infantile desmoplastic gangliogliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXLow grade glioma NOSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with subependymal giant cell astrocytomas are excluded; patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors of the pons will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled inter-current illness are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe study is open to all participants regardless of gender or ethnicity; efforts will be made to extend the accrual to a representative population; if differences in outcome that correlate to gender, racial, or ethnic identity are noted, accrual may be expanded or additional studies may be performed to investigate those differences more fullyXx_NEWLINE_xXAll therapy should be dispensed at the primary institution; we encourage all imaging studies to be reviewed and reported by the primary institution; laboratory studies may be performed at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratory of the investigator’s choiceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high risk multiple myeloma in partial response (PR) or better at the time of enrollment with no prior progression and within 18 months from initiation of systemic anti-myeloma therapy, which may include single or planned tandem autologous HSCT. [High risk is defined by the presence of any one of the following: deletion of chromosome 13 by conventional cytogenetics, hypodiploidy, abnormality in chromosome 1(1q amplification or 1p deletion), t(4;14), t(14;16), t(14;20) or deletion of 17p by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or conventional karyotyping; high risk criteria based on commercially available gene expression profiling (GEP) ; and elevated beta-2 microglobulin (? 5.5 mg/L at diagnosis), detected at any time prior to enrollment]; orXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multi-organ involvement by amyloidosis or evidence of amyloidosis-related organ dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXRadioactive iodine (RAI)-refractory disease defined as 1 or more of the following:\r\n* Patients who have received greater than 600 mCi of radioactive iodine in their lifetime OR\r\n* RAI-avid metastatic lesion which remained stable in size or progressed despite RAI treatment within 9 months of RAI treatment OR\r\n* 10% or more increase in serum thyroglobulin (on thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH]-suppression) within 9 months of RAI treatment OR\r\n* Index metastatic lesion non-RAI avid on a diagnostic RAI scan OR\r\n* Presence of fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) avid metastatic lesions on positron emission tomography (PET)/CT scan (standardized uptake values [SUV]max > 5 of any single lesion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart B) Combination Arm: HER2-positive disease and received at least 2 prior cytotoxic regimens in the incurable, unresectable, LA/MBC setting (not enrolling new patients);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpecific body surface area (BSA) criteria depending on enrolling dose level: no restrictions for dose level 0, BSA >= 0.75 required for dose levels -1 and -2, BSA > 0.90 required for dose levels -3 and -4Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits should have deficits that are stable for a minimum of 1 week prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active lesions suspicious for keratoacanthomas/cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma (cSCC); patients who have excision of keratocanthomas/cSCC, with dermatologic confirmation of the absence of active disease may become eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with known diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 or other known retrovirus-associated deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequence (RAS)-opathies are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizures are not eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative result of BRAFV600E and BRAF Ins T screening testXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be ? 18 years of age. Due to increased risk of sepsis in patients >80 years old, candidate patients in this age group should be thoroughly evaluated prior to study randomization to ensure they are fit to receive chemotherapy. In addition to all of the inclusion/exclusion criteria listed, clinical judgment should be used regarding patients' susceptibility to infection (including but not limited to presence of ascites or diabetes mellitus increasing risk of infection). Furthermore, the expected stability of their performance status while receiving repeat weekly chemotherapy cycles should be given special attention. Patients in this age group should not be randomized on the study should there be any hesitation on any of these considerations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have adequate nutritional status with Body Mass Index (BMI) > 18 kg/m^2 and body weight of > 40 kg with serum albumin > 3 g/dL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring biliary stent placement must have biliary stent placed > 7 days prior to screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPain symptoms should be stable (of tolerable Grade 2 or less).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must consent to provision of a sample of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays (Correlative Studies) may be conducted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has experienced a decline in ECOG performance status between Baseline visit and within 72 hours prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a > 20% decrease in serum albumin level between Baseline visit and within 72 hours prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a > 10% decrease in weight between Baseline visit and within 72 hours prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection, symptomatic peripheral vascular disease including claudication, Leo Buerger's disease). Treated peripheral vascular disease that is stable for at least 6 months is allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of connective tissue disorders (eg, lupus, scleroderma, arteritis nodosa).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition (e.g. psychological, geographical, etc.) that does not permit compliance with the protocol, including patients with history of poor compliance or history of drug/alcohol abuse, or excessive alcohol beverage consumption that would interfere with the ability to comply with the study protocol. Patients planning to take a vacation for 14 or more consecutive days during the course of the study are ineligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC that is clinically T4 by virtue of mediastinal organ invasion or Stage IIIB by virtue of N3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the psychological ability and general health that permits completion of the study requirements and required follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unwilling to be transfused with blood componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary Adenocarcinoma (gallbladder or biliary tree (intrahepatic or extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma) except Ampulla of Vater cancers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroendocrine Tumors (well- and moderately-differentiated) of the lung, appendix, small intestine, colon, rectum, or pancreasXx_NEWLINE_xXEndometrial Carcinoma (sarcomas and mesenchymal tumors are excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSalivary Gland Carcinoma (sarcomas and mesenchymal tumors are excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXORXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known glioblastoma multiforme of the brainstemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be withdrawn from abiraterone for >= 2 weeks and have documented PSA increase after the 2 week withdrawal periodXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of disease in sites or extent that, in the opinion of the investigator, would put the patient at risk from therapy with testosterone (e.g. femoral metastases with concern over fracture risk, severe and extensive spinal metastases with concern over spinal cord compression, extensive liver metastases)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior history of a thromboembolic event within the last 12 months that is not being treated with systemic anticoagulation are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients allergic to sesame seed oil or cottonseed oil are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION (HER2 MUTATION IDENTIFIED BY WASH U GPS LABORATORY): Patients with known treated brain metastasis are eligible, but must have received radiation and be off steroids and stable (without evidence of disease progression by imaging or exam) for 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION (HER2 MUTATION IDENTIFIED BY WASH U GPS LABORATORY): To be eligible for the Part II fulvestrant-treated ER+ cohort, prior disease progression on fulvestrant is required; in addition, ER and/or PR positivity by institutional standard is required on pathology from the most recent tumor specimen unless the tissue source (for example, pleural effusion or ascites or bone biopsy) may yield false negative ER and/or PR result, in which case the pathology from an earlier time point could be used and a discussion with the study chair is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION (HER2 MUTATION IDENTIFIED AT AN OUTSIDE CLIA CERTIFIED LOCATION): Patients with known treated brain metastasis are eligible, but must have received radiation and be off steroids and stable (without evidence of disease progression by imaging or exam) for 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION (HER2 MUTATION IDENTIFIED AT AN OUTSIDE CLIA CERTIFIED LOCATION): To be eligible for the Part II fulvestrant-naive ER+ cohort, prior treatment with fulvestrant is not allowed; in addition, ER and/or PR positivity by institutional standard is required on pathology from the most recent tumor specimen if biopsy was done unless the tissue source (for example, pleural effusion or ascites or bone biopsy) may yield false negative ER and/or PR result, in which case the pathology from an earlier time point could be used and a discussion with the study chair is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION (HER2 MUTATION IDENTIFIED AT AN OUTSIDE CLIA CERTIFIED LOCATION): To be eligible for the Part II fulvestrant-treated ER+ cohort, prior disease progression on fulvestrant is required; in addition, ER and/or PR positivity by institutional standard is required on pathology from the most recent tumor specimen unless the tissue source (for example, pleural effusion or ascites or bone biopsy) may yield false negative ER and/or PR result, in which case the pathology from an earlier time point could be used and a discussion with the study chair is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 7th edition clinical stages T1c to T2cXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score, obtained at biopsy, =< 6, 3 + 4 = 7, or 4 + 3 = 7Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort A: Histologically confirmed locally advanced or metastatic solid tumor malignancy other than clear cell renal cell carcinoma with progression on at least one prior systemic therapy and presence of biallelic loss of SETD2 detected in tumor tissue detected using a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified next generation sequencing panel (e.g. UCSF500, FoundationOne); biallelic loss will be defined by one or more of the following:\r\n* Pathogenic or likely pathogenic loss-of-function SETD2 mutation with mutant allele frequency (MAF) > 50%\r\n* Pathogenic or likely pathogenic loss-of-function SETD2 mutation with MAF > 2 times the MAF of other oncogenic mutations detected in the tumor sample\r\n* Pathogenic or likely pathogenic loss-of-function SETD2 mutation with concomitant loss of chromosome 3p\r\n* Pathogenic or likely pathogenic loss-of-function SETD2 mutation with copy-neutral loss of heterozygosityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an inability to swallow oral medications; Note: patient may not have a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube or be receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPMF, PPV-MF, or PET-MF (as defined by Tefferi and Vardiman 2008)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDIPSS Intermediate-1, Intermediate -2, or High risk (Passamonti et al 2010)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment for ?3 months with inadequate efficacy response defined as <10% spleen volume reduction by MRI or <30% decrease from baseline in spleen length by physical examination or regrowth to these parameters following an initial response; and/orXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment for ?28 days complicated by either i. Development of a red blood cell transfusion requirement (at least 2 units/month for 2 months) ii. National Cancer Institute (NCI) CTCAE grade ?3 AEs of thrombocytopenia, anemia, hematoma, and/or hemorrhage while being treated with a dosage of <20 mg BIDXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegaly ?5 cm below the lower costal margin in the midclavicular line as assessed by physical examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXTSS of ?10 on the MPN-SAF TSS 2.0 or patients with a single symptom score of ?5 or two symptoms of ?3, including only the symptoms of left upper quadrant pain, bone pain, itching, or night sweatsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand and willing to complete symptom assessments using a patient reported outcomes instrumentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of splenectomy or planning to undergo splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenic irradiation within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated with pacritinibXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXA valid PTEN IHC result (testingcentral laboratory tested with results directly sent to IxRS) (e.g., participants with an \invalid\ or \failed\ PTEN IHC result are not permitted to enroll)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant disease, other than that being treated in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant consents to allow access to diagnostic BM aspirate or PB sample and/or the DNA derived from that sample, if available, that may be used to validate a companion diagnostic that is being developed in parallel with gilteritinib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has confirmed, morphologically documented AML in CR1. For the purposes of registration, CR1 will be defined as < 5% blasts in the BM with no morphologic characteristics of acute leukemia (e.g., Auer Rods) in the BM with no evidence of extramedullary disease such as central nervous system involvement or granulocytic sarcoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe maximum time allowed from establishment of CR1 to registration is 12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has presence of the FLT3/ITD activating mutation in the BM or PB as determined by the local institution at diagnosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXdocumented as surgically sterilized (at least 1 month prior to the screening visit)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor United Kingdom sites:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsistent and correct usage of established hormonal contraceptives that inhibit ovulationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor United Kingdom sites:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsistent and correct usage of established hormonal contraceptives that inhibit ovulationXx_NEWLINE_xXEstablished IUD or IUSXx_NEWLINE_xXMale is sterile due to a bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has achieved engraftment. Engraftment is defined as ANC ? 500 cells/?L and platelets ? 20000/?L on 3 consecutive measurements (each occurring at least 1 day apart). The participant must not have had a platelet transfusion within 7 days prior to the first measurement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 1 (5HT1R) or 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 2B (5HT2BR) or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the participant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressing infection is defined as hemodynamic instability attributable to sepsis or new symptoms, worsening physical signs or radiographic findings attributable to infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersisting fever without other signs or symptoms will not be interpreted as progressing infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5HT1R or 5HT2BR or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered by the investigator to be absolutely essential for the care of the participant and for which no acceptable alternative exists.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a need for supplemental oxygen with the exception of using previously existing non-invasive continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) at night.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has used experimental therapy for acute GVHD within 4 weeks of randomization. If unsure of the definition of \experimental\, discussion with one of the protocol chairs is recommended.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressing infection is defined as hemodynamic instability attributable to sepsis or new symptoms, worsening physical signs or radiographic findings attributable to infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersisting fever without other signs or symptoms will not be interpreted as progressing infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum A: Newly diagnosed children (3-21 years old) with DIPG who are positive for the H3.3K27M mutation (positive testing in Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] laboratory) that underwent standard radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXStratum B: Newly diagnosed children (3-21 years old) with diagnosis of glioma other than DIPG who are positive for the H3.3K27M mutation (positive testing in CLIA laboratory) including spinal cord gliomas that underwent standard radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a deleterious mutation in BRCA1/2 or ATM, or molecular evidence of other homologous recombination deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or chronic corneal disorder, including but not limited to the following: Sjogren's syndrome, Fuchs corneal dystrophy (requiring treatment), history of corneal transplantation, active herpetic keratitis, and also active ocular conditions requiring on-going treatment/monitoring such as wet age-related macular degeneration requiring intravitreal injections, active diabetic retinopathy with macular edema, presence of papilledema, and acquired monocular visionXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired used of folate-containing supplements (e.g. folate deficiency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject meets disease-specific requirements per protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXIHC 1+ or 0Xx_NEWLINE_xXSingle-probe average HER2 copy number < 4.0 signals/cellXx_NEWLINE_xXMale patients, even if surgically sterilized (i.e., status post-vasectomy), who:Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening clinical laboratory values as specified below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any of the following within the last 6 months before administration of the first dose of the study drugs:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlacement of a pacemaker for control of rhythmXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled asthma or O2 saturation < 90% by arterial blood gas analysis or pulse oximetry on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant valvular disease, severe regurgitation, or stenosis by imaging independent of symptom control with medical intervention or history of valve replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with hormonal therapy (tamoxifen, AI) or PI3K, AKT, dual PI3K/mTOR, TORC1/2, or mTORC1 inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmation diagnosis of NSCLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must fulfill one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation that the tumor harbors an EGFR mutation known to be associated with EGFR TKI sensitivity (including G719X, exon 19 deletion, L858R, L861Q) OR must have experienced clinical benefit from EGFR TKI, according to the Jackman criteria (followed by systemic objective progression (RECIST or World Health Organization [WHO]) while on continuous treatment with an EGFR TKI.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the dose expansion paired biopsy cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn EGFR TKI (e.g., erlotinib, gefitinib, or osimertinib) within 8 days or approximately 5 times the half-life of the specific drug, whichever is longer, of the first dose of study treatment. (If sufficient wash-out time has not occurred due to scheduling or PK properties, an alternative appropriate wash-out time based on known duration and time to reversibility of drug-related adverse events must be agreed upon by Hansoh and the Investigator).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity to any active or inactive ingredient of HS-10296 or to a drug with a similar chemical structure or class to HS-10296.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-leukocyte leukocyte-depleted whole blood transfusion within 120 days of the date of the genetic sample collection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStage 1: Histologically confirmed well-differentiated or de-differentiated liposarcoma; if stage 1 of the Simon II stage design fails to meet its endpoint for liposarcoma patients, an additional 16 patients will be enrolled, composed of 4 each of malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (MPNST), synovial sarcoma, alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma and alveolar soft part sarcoma (otherwise, an additional 16 patients with well-differentiated or de-differentiated liposarcoma would be enrolled); pathology review occurs at the center enrolling the patient on this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG Score of 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to operate the NovoTTF-100L device independently or with the help of a caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere comorbidities:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pericarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable electronic medical devices (e.g. pacemaker, defibrillator) in the upper torsoXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergies to medical adhesives or hydrogelXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted to an institution by administrative or court orderXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - INFUSION: Pulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing bowel perforation or presence of bowel fistula or abscess or history of small or large bowel obstruction within 3 months of registration, including subjects with palliative gastric drainage catheters. Subjects with palliative diverting ileostomy or colostomy are allowed if they have been symptom-free for more than 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or history of graft versus host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRichter’s transformation confirmed by biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition precluding enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXErythema multiforme, toxic epidermal necrolysis, or Stevens-Johnson syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of sensitizing EGFR mutations (deletion in exon 19, L858R in exon 21, G719X, and L861Q); patients with the T790M mutation will also be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of metformin, or strong antioxidants (extracts from grape seed, milk thistle; pine bark, green tea, saw palmetto; resveratrol; flavonoids; catechins; ellagic acid), large quantities of red grapes, white button mushrooms, red wineXx_NEWLINE_xXHSIL cytology with no invasive features identified on colposcopy or the baseline biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXCompliant on combined anti-retrovirals (cART) if HIV infectedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo risk factors for microinvasive disease (no colposcopic features of microinvasion, adequate colposcopy and negative endocervical curettage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with irregular cycles (more than once a month)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal coagulation panel.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative antiviral serology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFAZ053 in combination with PDR001: NSCLC/TNBC / Selected indication(s) in dose expansion group Q6W dosing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXMDS should be classified as:\r\n* Intermediate 3+ or higher risk according to the revised international prognostic scoring system (IPSS-R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received acute, low-dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications may be enrolledXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 5 lines of previous cytotoxic therapies. For patients of CTCL who failed romidepsin, more than 4 lines of previous therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be positive for HLA-A2 based on flow­cytometry or genotypingXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current status of immune system abnormalities such as hyperimmunity (e.g., autoimmune diseases) that needed to be treated by systemic therapy, such as immuno-suppressants and hypoimmunity (e.g., myelodysplatic disorders, marrow failures, acquired immune deficiency syndrome [AIDS], transplant immunosuppression)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny isolated laboratory abnormality suggestive of a serious autoimmune disease (e.g. hypothyroidism): antinuclear antibody, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), free thyroxine (FT4), rheumatoid factorXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that could potentially alter immune function (AIDS, multiple sclerosis, diabetes, renal failure)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any of the following concurrent treatment or medications:\r\n* Radiation therapy\r\n* Chemotherapy\r\n* Interferon (e.g. Intron­A)\r\n* Allergy desensitization injections\r\n* Growth factors (e.g. Procrit, Aranesp, Neulasta)\r\n* Interleukins (e.g. Proleukin)\r\n* Any investigational therapeutic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants enrolling into the NTRK cohort must have an NTRK1, 2, or 3 rearrangement as confirmed by targeted NextGen sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or another CLIA-certified methodXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for follow up assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe investigator’s belief that the subject is medically unfit to receive nivolumab, and/or ipilimumab or unsuitable for any other reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of SAA, either from initial diagnosis or follow-up assessments, defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTwo out of three of the following (in peripheral blood): Neutrophils < 0.5 x10^9/L, Platelets < 20 x10^9/L, or Reticulocyte count < 20 x10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXCord blood unit(s) must be matched at a minimum of 4/6 to the recipient at HLA-A and B at low resolution using DNA-based typing and HLA-DRB1 at high resolution using DNA-based typing. Based on a published report from Eurocord, for single unit transplantation, the single unit pre-cryopreserved total nucleated cell (TNC) dose must be a minimum of 4.0 x10^7/kg recipient weight. For double cord transplants, each unit must have a minimum of 1.5 x10^7/kg pre-cryopreserved TNC and a minimum total of 4.0 x10^7/kg (sum of unit 1 and unit 2). For non-red blood cell depleted units, the minimum pre-cryopreserved TNC dose is 2.0 x10^7/kg recipient weight. orXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the haplo cohort, the weight of the haplo donor must be ? 20 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClonal cytogenetic abnormalities consistent with pre-myelodysplastic syndrome (pre-MDS) or MDS on marrow examination (e.g. Monosomy 7).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown life-threatening reaction (i.e., anaphylaxis) to Thymoglobulin® that would prohibit use for the patient as this study requires use of the Thymoglobulin® preparation of ATG.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) is >= 18.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is willing and able to participate for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has taken any of the following medications within the past 3 months:\r\n* A thiazolidinedione (e.g. pioglitazone [Actos] or rosiglitazone [Avandia]),\r\n* A biguanide (e.g. metformin [Glucophage, Glumetza, Fortamet, Riomet] or proguanil [Paludrine])\r\n* A combination drug containing one of the agents above (brand names include: ACTOplus Met, Avandamet, Avandaryl, Duetact, Glucovance, Invokamet, Janumet, Jentadueto, Komboglyze, Metaglip, PrandiMet, Synjardy, Xigudo)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is currently taking an enzyme inducer of CYP2C8 (carbamazepine [Carbatrol, Epitol, Equetro, Tegretol] cortisol [Hydrocortisone]; dexamethasone [Decadron]; phenobarbital [Luminal Sodium]; phenytoin [Dilantin, Phenytek, Novaplus Phenytoin Sodium]; primidone [Mysoline]; rifampin [Rifadin, Rimactane]; rifapentine [Priftin]; secobarbital [Seconal])Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is currently taking topiramate (Topamax) commonly used in epilepsy or to prevent migraines or other carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. zonisamide [Zonegran]; acetazolamide [Diamox Sequels]; or dichlorphenamide [Keveyis, Daranide])Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is currently taking a cationic drug or multidrug and toxin extrusion [MATE] inhibitor (e.g. amiloride [Midamor]; cimetidine [Tagamet]; digoxin [Lanoxin, Digitek, Digox]; dolutegravir [Tivicay]; morphine [Roxanol, Duramorph, Kadian, MS Contin]; procainamide [Pronestyl, Procanbid]; quinidine [Quinidex, Cardioquin, Quin-G, Quinora]; quinine [Qualaquin, Quinamm, Quiphile]; ranitidine [Zantac, Deprizine, Gabitidine]; ranolazine [Ranexa]; triamterene [Dyrenium)] trimethoprim [Proloprim, Trimpex, Primsol]; vancomycin [Vancocin, Vancoled]; or vandetanib [Calpresa])Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a contraindication to biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of hypoglycemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is an active alcoholic or consumes excessive amounts of alcohol per the following definitions:\r\n* Female: More than 3 drinks on any day or a total of more than seven drinks in a week\r\n* Male: More than 4 drinks on any day or a total of more than 14 drinks in a week\r\n** 1 drink = \r\n*** Beer: 12 oz. (1 standard size can or bottle)\r\n*** Wine: 5 oz. (one standard glass)\r\n*** Spirits: 6 oz. (one mixed drink or one 1.5 fluid oz. shot)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of macular edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPROCUREMENT INCLUSION: Diagnosis of relapsed/refractory HL or NHLXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT INCLUSION: Age 16 to 75 for the first three patients on a dose level; thereafter, if no dose limiting toxicity (DLT), patients aged 12 to 75 can be treated on that dose levelXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT EXCLUSION: Bulky disease (defined as a 10 cm mass or mediastinal disease with a transverse diameter exceeding 33% of the transthoracic diameter)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown amyloid involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal blood resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXCoexisting ophthalmic disease likely to require slit-lamp examination within the next 90 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic medical or psychological illnesses that prevent endoscopy proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or intend to become pregnant, breastfeeding or intend to breastfeed during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived PDT during the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipates or intends to participate in another drug study (other than observational studies) during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMantle cell lymphoma Any histologies not specifically mentioned must be discussed with medical monitor.For subjects enrolled in the phase 3 portion of study, pathologic samples will be submitted for central confirmation of disease histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven confirmation of relapsed disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically measurable disease with a demarcated nodal lesion at least 1.5 cm in its largest dimension or a target extranodal lesion at least 1.0 cm in its largest dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters: Hematology:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior HDT with autologous HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to immunoglobulins or any of the components to be administered during dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas thyroid function laboratory values within normal rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, central serous chorioretinopathy, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degeneration Cardiac Exclusion Criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of metastases to brain stem, midbrain, pons, or medulla, or within 10 millimeter (mm) of the optic apparatus (optic nerves and chiasm); or leptomeningeal metastatic disease; or intracranial hemorrhage Additional Exclusion Criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATION (OPTIONAL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of human papillomavirus (HPV) positive (+) squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx; HPV positivity will be defined as positive staining for p16 on immunohistochemistry (IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of connective tissue disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, or Sjogren’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIf there are 3 or more attempts by the surgeon to clear margins, patient is not eligible for studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAnthracyclines within 90 days before first ZW25 dosing or lifetime load exceeding 300 mg/m² adriamycin or equivalentXx_NEWLINE_xXTrastuzumab, pertuzumab, lapatinib, or T?DM1 within 3 weeks before first ZW25 dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically-confirmed diagnoses of relapsed AML: patients with AML that have relapsed at least once or are primary induction failure will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIf using hydroxyurea, tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)/src inhibitors (including fms related tyrosine kinase 3 [FLT-3] inhibitors), other non-cytotoxics, or leukapheresis for blast count control, the patient must be off these therapies for >= 24 hours (hrs) before starting sertralineXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperleukocytosis with >= 30,000 blasts/uL; if using hydroxyurea, tyrosine kinase/src inhibitors (including FLT-3 inhibitors), other non-cytotoxics, or leukapheresis for blast count control, the patient must be off these therapies for >= 24 hours prior to beginning sertralineXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of other life-threatening illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring treatment with other anti-depressive medications including the selective and non-selective monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors (including linezolid), 5 hydroxytryptamine (HT) receptor agonists (triptans), tryptophan or antidopaminergic agents (anti-psychotics, metoclopramide, promethazine, haloperidol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring prolonged treatment with fluconazole, voriconazole, or posaconazole; use of isavuconazonium sulfate, liposomal amphotericin, are echinocandins are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking sertraline at the time of study entry will not be eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have aspirin sensitive asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are ineligible if they plan on regular use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) at any dose more than 2 times per week (on average) or aspirin at more than 325 mg at least three times per week, on average; low-dose aspirin not exceeding 100 mg/day is permitted; patients who agree to stop regular NSAIDs or higher dose aspirin are eligible and no wash out period is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXHave never used tamoxifen, raloxifene, or other antiestrogen compoundsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant taking medications that might interact with 9cUAB30Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant who has started or increased dosage of lipid-lowering agents in the last 30 days of enrollment; or are taking fibric acid (fenofibrate, gemfibrozil) lipid lowering agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant who is breastfeeding or planning to breastfeed for a month post last dose of study agentXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men, agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent use of therapeutic oral or parenteral anticoagulants or thrombolytic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria value > 1.0 g at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy, retinal vein occlusion, or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor French subjects only: Is either affiliated with or a beneficiary of a social security category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a male partner who is vasectomized.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe vasectomized, orXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known nodal (N1) or distant metastasis (M1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a hip prosthesisXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have one of the following (confirmed via targeted NextGen Sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or another Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA]-certified method):\r\n* For the replicative stress cohort: MYC amplification, CCNE1 amplification, Rb loss, FBXW7 mutation, or another genomic abnormality indicative of replicative stress as agreed upon with the principal investigator -OR-\r\n* For the HR deficiency cohort: genomic or somatic mutation in BRCA1, BRCA2, PALB2, RAD51C, RAD51D, ATR, ATM, CHK2, the Fanconi anemia pathway genes, or another genomic or somatic mutation in a known HR gene as agreed upon with the principal investigator.\r\n* For enrollment to the CCNE1 cohort: CCNE1 amplification of 6-fold or greater. Patients with borderline amplification levels may be considered following approval from the overall principal investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or breastfeeding females; the potential effects of prexasertib use during pregnancy and breastfeeding are not known and prexasertib has the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematologic status at ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXActive connective tissue disorders, such as lupus or scleroderma that in the opinion of the treating physician may put the patient at high risk for radiation toxicity;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSolitary bone or solitary extramedullary plasmacytoma as the only evidence of plasma cell dyscrasia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave acceptable coagulation parameters defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ocular, mucosal and unknown primary melanoma will also be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline labs as within standard of care (complete blood count [CBC], comprehensive metabolic panel [CMP], lactate dehydrogenase [LDH], erythrocyte sedimentation rate [ESR], etc) are required within 14 days of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPart B2: Have advanced/metastatic cancer carrying activating mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway alterationXx_NEWLINE_xXPart B3: Have metastatic melanoma carrying BRAF mutation, refractory/relapsed after treatment with Raf and/or MEK inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPart B4: Have metastatic melanoma carrying NRAS mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave history or findings of central or branch retinal artery or venous occlusion with significant vision loss or other retinal diseases that cause current visual impairment or would likely cause visual impairment over the time period of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of hepatic decompensation including esophageal or gastric variceal bleeding or hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXColor Doppler ultrasonography showing portal vein tumor thrombosis with complete main portal vein obstruction without cavernous transformation; or obstructive jaundiceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active implanted medical device, a skull defect (such as, missing bone with no replacement), a shunt or bullet fragments; examples of active electronic devices include deep brain stimulators, spinal cord stimulators, vagus nerve stimulators, pacemakers, defibrillators, and programmable shuntsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivity to conductive hydrogels like the gel used on electrocardiogram (ECG) stickers or transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) electrodesXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient capable of undergoing anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient selected to undergo Whipple procedure or distal pancreatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have close marginsXx_NEWLINE_xXGemcitabine + nb-paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXFOLFIRINOXXx_NEWLINE_xXNeoadjuvant Chemordiation was administered as IMRT or 3DCRT wPreoperative External beam dose (NCCN)Xx_NEWLINE_xX50.4 Gy (1.8 Gy per fraction) with concurrent gemcitabine, capecitabine, or infusional 5-fluorouracilXx_NEWLINE_xXAn IRE candidate (IRE is Percutaneous irreversible electroporation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or previously resected tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented History of Alcoholism and or drug abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) defined as disease requiring an inpatient stay for respiratory deterioration within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen dependence of > 2 L/min continuously throughout the day at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown underlying collagen vascular disease or intrinsic lung disease that could complicate expected sequelae of radiation (idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, Wegener’s granulomatosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave persistent active cGVHD manifestations, as defined by 2014 NIH Consensus Development Project on Criteria for Clinical trials in cGVHD, after at least 2 months of steroid therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelet count ? 50 × 109/L (without transfusion or thrombopoietin or thrombopoietin analogues within 2 weeks of study entry)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate safety laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA vasectomized partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular and excessive use of alcohol within the 6 months prior to study entry defined as alcohol intake > 14 drinks per week in a man or > 7 drinks per week in a woman. Approximately 10 g of alcohol equals one \drink\ unit. One unit equals 1 ounce of distilled spirits, one 12-ounce beer, or one 4-ounce glass of wine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking other immunosuppressant drugs for GVHD, including mTor inhibitors (Note: Only steroids, calcineurin inhibitors, and ECP are acceptable).Xx_NEWLINE_xXrecurrent glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cerebral/meningeal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly patients with v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B (BRAF) V600E or V600K mutated tumors will be enrolledXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with a BRAF and/or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) and/or extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has legal incapacity or limited legal capacity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUGT1A1*28 homozygote or heterozygoteXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI >35Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust meet criteria for high risk disease\r\n* Patients with International Neuroblastoma Staging System (INSS) stage 4 disease are eligible with the following\r\n** MYCN amplification (greater than four-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals), regardless of age or additional biologic features\r\n** Age >18 months (> 547 days) regardless of biologic features\r\n** Age 12-18 months (365-547 days) with any of the following unfavorable biologic features (unfavorable pathology and/or deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] index =1) or any biologic feature that is indeterminate/unsatisfactory/unknownXx_NEWLINE_xXMust meet criteria for high risk disease\r\n* Patients with INSS stage 3 disease are eligible with the following\r\n** MYCN amplification, regardless of age or additional biologic features\r\n** Age >18 months (> 547 days) with unfavorable pathology, regardless of MYCN statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received G-CSF since the time of diagnosis of the current diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have evidence of progressive disease with biochemical (i.e. rising CA-125) and/or radiologic progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory with an ECOG 0-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history of thyroiditisXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), UGT1A9 inhibitors, or melatonin supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXEdema or lymphedema in the lower limbs > grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire (s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete all mandatory testsXx_NEWLINE_xXRochester and Arizona patients: Willing to sign consent onto the Mayo Clinic Radiotherapy Patient Outcomes Registry and Biobanking study, IRB number 15-000136Xx_NEWLINE_xXRochester patients: Willing to sign consent onto Evaluation of cardiac function in patients undergoing proton beam or photon radiotherapy, IRB number 15-007443Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive systemic lupus or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive margins after definitive surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXBoosts to the chest wall after mastectomy; nodal boosts are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXDLBCL, regardless of cell of origin or underlying molecular geneticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPMBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXGr3b-FLXx_NEWLINE_xXTH-FLXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-confirmed CD20+ expression of the underlying malignancy by immunohistochemical staining or flow cytometry between the most recent dose of an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody (mAb) and study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXbiopsy-proven refractory disease after frontline chemo-immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with DLBCL, PMBCL, and Gr3b-FL: relapsed or refractory disease following at least 2 prior regimens or following an auto-HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with MCL (confirmed with cyclin D1 expression or evidence of t(11;14) by cytogenetics, fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) or PCR): relapsed or refractory disease after at least 1 prior regimen with chemo-immunotherapy (prior auto-HSCT is allowable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXalemtuzumab within 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXfludarabine, cladribine, or clofarabine within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHas non-squamous histology NSCLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known sensitivity to any component of carboplatin or paclitaxel or nab-paclitaxel.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas participated in any other pembrolizumab trial and has been treated with pembrolizumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs, at the time of signing informed consent, a regular user (including \recreational use\) of any illicit drugs or has a recent history (within the last year) of substance abuse (including alcohol).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered unresectable or inoperableXx_NEWLINE_xX> 10% unintentional weight loss within the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has pathologically confirmed SCCHN (oral cavity, oropharynx, larynx, hypopharynx) with evidence of local and/or locoregional recurrence; laryngeal tumors will only be included if there is evidence of extralaryngeal spread, or there is associated nodal disease; for all other sites, superficial tumors can only be included if there is associated nodal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has disease of nasopharyngeal carcinoma histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is refractory to carfilzomib or bortezomib; (refractory is defined as patients who never achieved a response and progressed while on carfilzomib or bortezomib or within 60 days of completing treatment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to immunomodulatory drugs (IMiDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously been treated with ixazomib, or participated in a study with ixazomib whether treated with ixazomib or notXx_NEWLINE_xXThe study will include three primary cohorts, with any of the following EBV+ diseases: Cohort A - DLBCL, 1) in first or subsequent relapse, not eligible for autologous transplantation following salvage therapy OR 2) relapse following autologous transplantation. Cohort B - HL, brentuximab vedotin (BV) treatment failure or unable to tolerate BV. Cohort C - PTLD, rituximab treatment failure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight ? 35 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary refractory HL or DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXBulky diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUp to 3 prior cytotoxic chemotherapeutics regimens or myelosuppressive therapies in the advanced setting.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) by one of the following: \r\n* Histopathology\r\n* One radiographic technique that confirms a lesion >= 1 cm with arterial hypervascularization with washout on delayed phaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of persistent, progressive, or recurrent disease in an area previously treated with TACE and determined from 3 months or more (no upper time limit) after initial TACE; this evaluation should be within 6 weeks of date of study eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXUnifocal liver tumors not to exceed 7.5 cm in greatest axial dimension; multifocal lesions will be restricted to lesions that can be treated within a single target volume within the same liver segment and to an aggregate of 10 cm as long as the dose constraints to normal tissue can be metXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radiofrequency ablation (RFA) to index lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXExtrahepatic metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival minimum of 12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate labsXx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable lab testing resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllow biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXMET exon 14 skipping alteration or MET amplification (MET:CEP7 ratio >= 1.8) by molecular testing (local testing is accepted for eligibility; all patients will have confirmation at Massachusetts General Hospital [MGH] but this result is not necessary for eligibility; local molecular pathology result will suffice); this testing can be from any archival or fresh sampleXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR and ALK status must be known in all patients with adenocarcinoma histology; patients with activating EGFR mutations or ALK translocations are excluded from this study, unless disease has progressed on all available, approved therapies targeting these alterationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in the Phase 1a dose escalation combination cohorts must have at least 1 tumour lesion amenable to biopsy and must be medically fit and willing to undergo a biopsy during screening and, unless clinically contraindicated, after 2 weeks on monotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales should be using adequate contraceptive measures from the time of screening until 3 months after study discontinuation, should not be breast feeding and must have negative pregnancy test prior to the start of dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease that is suitable for repeated measurement, eitherXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with mCRC must have measurable PSA above normal limits per local ranges.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA minimum of 10 patients with mCRPC, CRC and 'other' tumors will be required to have a site of disease that is safely accessible for biopsy (paired) upon enrollment. Accessible lesions are defined as those which are biopsiable (at screening) and amenable to repeat biopsy (after 2 weeks of monotherapy), unless clinically contraindicated. In the case that the second sample is not taken, the patient will remain in the study and there will be no penalty or loss of benefit to the patient and they will not be excluded from other aspects of the study. The tumor-specific cohorts will be closely monitored to ensure the desired number of biopsiable patients are enrolled. The requirement for biopsies must be made clear to each patient at the time of initial approach by the Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor post immunotherapy patients with NSCLC all of the following apply:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor other post immunotherapy patients all of the following must apply:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor immune checkpoint naïve CRPC patients all of the following must apply:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor immune checkpoint naïve patients all of the following must apply:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations/medications are not allowed throughout the study, including but not limited to St. John's Wort, kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone, yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginseng. Patients should stop using these herbal medications 7 days prior to the first dose of AZD4635.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAZD4635 in a different cohort in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing corticosteroid use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant mental illness in the 4-week period preceding drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with an open oral ulceration(s) should avoid dosing with AZD4635 oral suspension.Xx_NEWLINE_xXVitiligo or alopecia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypothyroidism (e.g., following Hashimoto's disease) stable on hormone replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity to AZD4635 or drugs with a similar chemical structure or class to AZD4635.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to either ipilimumab or combined checkpoint blockadeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uveal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin ?9 grams per deciliter or ?5.6 millimoles per literXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) OR free thyroxine (T4) within the normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXLactate dehydrogenase (LDH) =< 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHave baseline anti-vaccinia antibody titers < 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation < 90% measured by pulse oximetry at restXx_NEWLINE_xXBe receiving concurrent antiviral agent active against vaccinia virus (e.g., cidofovir, vaccinia immunoglobulin, imatinib, ST-246) during the course of studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing and able to undergo study required biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented MAPK pathway alterationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with malignant disease other than that being treated in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas acceptable, applicable laboratory parameters.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergies to any active or inactive ingredients of atezolizumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas an active infection requiring systemic antibiotic therapy at time of enrollment\r\n* Treatment with antibiotic prophylaxis for indwelling biliary stent(s) or peri-procedural antibiotics for uncomplicated biliary stent exchanges is allowed and not an exclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease (PTLD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant upper tract urothelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the case of recurrent radiographically gross disease, pathologic diagnosis may be from time of original biopsy and/or surgery; pathology should be reviewed and confirmed at the participating institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have neurofibromatosis type 1 or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason Score ? 7; and 2 or less positive lesions on prior MR US fusion guided prostate biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the standard biopsy cores are positive, they must be from the same location in the prostate as MR lesion was biopsied and proven to be cancerous. (Left / Right, Base, Mid Gland, Apex).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of an active bacterial infection or with a fever ? 38.5 ºC (101.3 ºF) within 3 days of the first scheduled day of dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of 3 or more MR Visible lesions positive on biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute urinary tract infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLower urinary tract symptoms defined by International Prostate symptom score (IPSS) > 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXAltered mental status preventing consent or answering questions during conduct of the trial will be excluded for safety purposes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther medical or surgical conditions, especially involving the cardiac, respiratory, renal or hepatic organ systems that would either be unsafe for the patient, would limit study participation, or that would impede the determination of causality of any adverse events experienced during the conduct of this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressing multi-focal metastatic melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive pulmonary disease requiring medication to include multiple inhalers (>2 inhalers and one containing steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved in other experimental protocols (except with permission of the other study PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh grade B-cell lymphoma (HGBL), with MYC and BCL2 and/or BCL6 rearrangements or DLBCL, NOS per the 2016 revision of the WHO classification of lymphoid neoplasms (Swerdlow et al, 2016).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown primary mediastinal, ocular, epidural, testicular or breast DLBCL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have biopsy-confirmed diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients excluded for laboratory abnormalities or performance score ONLY may be enrolled on the study with the approval of the PI or designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has an ECOG PS of 0-2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is oxygen-dependent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXprior IMiD exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXacceptable lab values prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXrefractory to bortezomibXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is receiving digoxin, digitoxin, lanatoside C or any type of digitalis alkaloids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA\n\n          1. Written informed consent obtained prior to any screening procedures and in accordance\n             with federal, local, and institutional guidelines.\n\n          2. Age ? 18 years.\n\n             Higher Risk Myelodysplastic Syndrome (Part F):\n\n          3. Documented diagnosis of MDS with 5-19% myeloblasts.\n\n          4. Patients should be intermediate-2 or high-risk MDS by International Prognostic Scoring\n             System (IPSS).\n\n          5. Patients believed to be IPSS high risk, without clearly meeting IPSS categories above\n             should be discussed with the medical monitor prior to enrolling.\n\n          6. HMA refractory patients including:\n\n               1. ? 2 cycles of azacitidine and/or decitabine or experimental agents (such as\n                  SGI-110 or ASTX727 or similar) with clear progressive disease (PD) (no count\n                  recovery with ?50% increase in bone marrow blasts)\n\n                  OR\n\n               2. ? 4 cycles of azacitidine and/or decitabine (or other hypomethylating therapy)\n                  with lack of improvement (no CR/CRi/PR/HI).\n\n          7. Patients receiving a stable dose of erythropoiesis-stimulating agent (ESA) for at\n             least 1 month at the time of study entry may continue to receive ESA.\n\n        EXCLUSION CRITERIA\n\n        Patients in All Parts of the Study:\n\n          1. Major surgery within 4 weeks before C1D1.\n\n          2. Impaired cardiac function or clinically significant cardiac diseases.\n\n          3. Uncontrolled active severe systemic infection requiring parenteral antibiotics,\n             antivirals, or antifungals within one week prior to C1D1.\n\n          4. Patients with known symptomatic brain metastasis.\n\n          5. Prior malignancies:\n\n               1. Patients in All Parts of the Study: Patients with adequately resected basal or\n                  squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, or adequately resected carcinoma in situ\n                  (i.e. cervix) may enroll irrespective of the time of diagnosis.\n\n               2. Patients with Higher Risk MDS only: Concomitant malignancies or previous\n                  malignancies with less than a 1-year disease free interval at the time of\n                  enrollment.\n\n             INDICATION-SPECIFIC EXCLUSION CRITERIA\n\n             Higher risk Myelodysplastic Syndrome (Part F):\n\n          6. IPSS low or intermediate-1 risk MDS.\n\n          7. Evidence of transformation to AML by World Health Organization (WHO) (?20% blasts in\n             bone marrow or peripheral blood).\n\n          8. Patients receiving granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) or granulocyte\n             macrophage-colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF) within the 3 weeks prior to C1D1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants may have underlying malignant or non-malignant hematologic disease, except for primary immunodeficiency, as the indication for their allogeneic HSCT; patients with immune dysregulation syndromes such as familial or secondary hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH) are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXGraft-versus-host disease (GVHD) prophylaxis with any of the following agents: calcineurin inhibitor, short-course methotrexate steroids, mycophenolate mofetil, and sirolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions attributed to oral vancomycin or oral polymyxin BXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of extra-capsular extension on scans.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate labsXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate staging imaging.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNasopharyngeal or sinonasal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman Papillomavirus (HPV)+ disease of the oropharynxXx_NEWLINE_xXANC < 1,500/µLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic proof or unequivocal cytologic proof (fine needle aspiration, biopsy or two positive sputa) of SCLC within 250 days prior to Step 1 registration;\r\n* High-grade neuroendocrine carcinoma or combined SCLC and non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following baseline neurocognitive assessments must be completed and uploaded within 10 calendar days after or at the time of Step 1 registration: HVLT-R (recall, delayed recall, and recognition), TMT (parts A and B), and COWA; the neurocognitive assessments will be uploaded into the National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project, Radiation Therapy Oncology Group, and Gynecologic Oncology Group (NRG) Oncology RAVE system for evaluation by Dr. Wefel; once the upload is complete, within 3 business days, a notification will be sent to the site to proceed to Step 2 registration; at minimum, the HVLT-R delayed recall must be able to be scored (i.e. completed without error) in order to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a baseline raw score greater than 2 on the HVLT-R delayed recall. as determined by central assessment by the Neurocognitive Co-Chair, Dr. WefelXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of hydrocephalus or other architectural distortion of the ventricular system, including placement of external ventricular drain or ventriculoperitoneal shuntXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I Dose Escalation:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to ixazomib; however, prior bortezomib exposure is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHave histologically confirmed diagnosis of RRP that involves the trachea, lungs, and/or larynx; if a subject is enrolled with laryngeal disease only, the subject must have undergone at least 3 or more surgeries/procedures in any one year to remove the lesions from their larynx; subjects must have evaluable disease either based on RECIST 1.1 and/or endoscopic parameters, as discussed aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXHave confirmed human papillomavirus-associated lesions based on in-situ hybridization testing and/or polymerase chain reaction which may be performed on a newly obtained biopsy or archived sampleXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: Histologic verification at either the time of original diagnosis or relapse of neuroblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary resistant/refractory disease detected at the conclusion of at least 4 cycles of aggressive multidrug induction chemotherapy on or according to a high-risk neuroblastoma protocols.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBSA (m2) of <0.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of depression, anxiety, or psychotic disorders (due to tolcapone adverse event profile).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects diagnosed with Ph+ CML-CP, Ph+ CML-AP, Ph+ CML-BP, or Ph+ ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown CD20-negative status at relapse or progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for chronic anticoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade >= 2 sensorineural hearing lossXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 25 at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may not have had therapy modulating testosterone levels (such as luteinizing hormone, releasing-hormone agonists/antagonists and antiandrogens) within 6 months prior to randomization; agents such as 5 alpha reductase inhibitors, ketoconazole, abiraterone, systemic steroids, or herbal supplements known to decrease PSA levels including any dose of megestrol acetate, finasteride (e.g., saw palmetto and prostate cancer [PC]-SPES, African pygeum extract, lycopene, alanine, glutamic acid and glycine, beta-sitosterol, lycopene, nettle root extract, quercetin, Belizian Man Vine extract, muira puama extract and epimedium extract campesterol, stigmasterol, sitostanol and brassicasterol) are not permitted at any time during the period that the PSA values are being collectedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who consume more than 3 alcoholic beverages per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects currently treated with metformin and/or bicalutamide or who have been treated with metformin and/or bicalutamide in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXGlioblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSoft-tissue sarcoma [excluding gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)].Xx_NEWLINE_xXMesothelioma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGastroenteropancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (GEPNET).Xx_NEWLINE_xXColorectal carcinoma (CRC).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine phosphokinase (CPK) ? 2.5 × ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant diseases/conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyopathy or any clinical situation that causes significant and persistent elevation of CPK (> 2.5 × ULN in two different determinations performed one week apart).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented MAPK alterationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled concomitant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPID deemed to be of sufficient past severity to warrant allo BMT, by meeting the two criteria below:\r\n* PID as defined by monogenetic mutation or, in the absence of a PID-associated genetic mutation, patients with an immune defect potentially amenable to allo BMT who meet the clinical history criteria below may be eligible upon discussion with the principal investigator (PI)\r\n** Mutations should be confirmed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratory, if such testing is available\r\n** Patients without a mutation must be deemed eligible and appropriate for allo BMT by the PI; some patients may meet the clinical history criteria listed below, but will not be eligible if it is thought that their clinical history is due to a condition apart from an immune defect; in addition, patients with a PID of mild severity, such as those with selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency, may meet at least two of the clinical history criteria, but may be deemed inappropriate for allo BMT by the PI if it is felt that the risks of the procedure outweigh the severity of the disease\r\n** All mutation testing will be performed on National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID) protocols (such as 07-I-0033 – Detection and Characterization of Infections and Infection Susceptibility; PI: Steve Holland, with genetic counseling and education through these established protocols)\r\n* Clinical history of at least two of the following:\r\n** Life-threatening, organ-threatening, or severely disfiguring infection\r\n** Protracted or recurrent infections requiring unusually long or repeated courses of antibiotics\r\n** Infection with an opportunistic organism\r\n** Chronic elevation in the blood (>= 2 documented elevations over a period of 6 months or longer) of a latent virus (EBV, CMV, human herpesvirus [HHV]6, HHV8, etc.)\r\n** Evidence of immune dysregulation, as manifested by autoimmune disease, atopy, hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis/macrophage activation syndrome, granulomas, splenomegaly, or lymphadenopathy\r\n*** Patients with hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis or macrophage activation syndrome related to an underlying lymphoma with no other clinical history suggestive of a primary immunodeficiency will not be eligible\r\n** Hypogammaglobulinemia, dysglobulinemia, or impaired response to vaccination\r\n** Hematologic malignancy or lymphoproliferative disorder\r\n*** Tissue diagnosis should be confirmed by National Cancer Institute (NCI) Department of Pathology, if prior biopsies are available\r\n** Virus-associated solid tumor malignancy or pre-cancerous lesion\r\n*** Tissue diagnosis should be confirmed by NCI Department of Pathology, if prior biopsies are availableXx_NEWLINE_xXConsensus among the PI, key assistant investigators (AIs), and consultants (as necessary) that correction of the patient’s immune system through BMT has the potential to improve the patient’s health, quality of life, and/or life expectancy, after taking into consideration the patient’s existing non-hematopoietic, potentially irreversible organ dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate central venous access potentialXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1 (dose escalation) subjects must have either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML that has failed to achieve complete remission or morphologic complete remission orXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 (expansion) subjects must have either MDS or relapsed/refractory AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic bradycardia or heart blockXx_NEWLINE_xXAny open woundXx_NEWLINE_xXARM 1 - APXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of disease at the oropharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx sub-sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary: no requirement for supplemental oxygen and no evidence of moderate-severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) by pulmonary function tests (PFTs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXARM 2 - A: Presence of disease at the oropharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx sub-sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXARM 2 - A: Pulmonary: patients with a requirement for supplemental oxygen or evidence of moderate-severe COPD by PFTs are permitted to enrollXx_NEWLINE_xXIf a patient fully meets criteria for Arm 1, but has profound hearing loss and the physician feels that the patient should not receive cisplatin, the patient will be eligible for Arm 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current status of immune system abnormalities such as hyperimmunity (e.g., autoimmune diseases) that needed to be treated by systemic therapy, such as immuno-suppressants and hypoimmunity (e.g., myelodysplastic disorders, marrow failures, acquired immune deficiency syndrome [AIDS], transplant immunosuppression)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or clinical suspicion of neurofibromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that could potentially alter immune function (AIDS, multiple sclerosis, diabetes, renal failure)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any of the following concurrent treatment or medications:\r\n* Radiation therapy\r\n* Chemotherapy\r\n* Interferon (e.g. Intron-A)\r\n* Allergy desensitization injections\r\n* Growth factors (e.g. Procrit, Aranesp, Neulasta)\r\n* Interleukins (e.g. Proleukin)\r\n* Any investigational therapeutic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORT: There should be a 2- to 4-week break between the patient’s last dose of standard chemotherapy to initiation of the first cycle of study drugs; longer than 4-week break may be permitted at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current diagnosis of Pulmonary Alveolar Proteinosis or HypoxemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have had prior bevacizumab, based on case reports of tracheoesophageal fistula in patients treated with bevacizumab and radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with radiographic or clinical findings of spinal cord compression or cauda equina syndrome with neurologic deficit thought to be due to malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXMeningeal carcinomatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular testing in a CLIA-certified laboratory must have demonstrated a deletion involving the CDKN2A locus or a mutation within the locus that can be deemed from best available evidence to be likely to cause inactivation of a gene within or protein encoded by CDKN2A; sequencing or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)/chromogenic in situ hybridization (CISH) methods are acceptable; the investigators will consider analyses performed according to similar standards as applied by Foundation Medicine (likely to be the most common source of molecular diagnostic data for patients in this trial)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any psychiatric or social condition that leads them to be unlikely to adhere to the study schedule and contribute to the primary objectivesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is taking any oral anticoagulantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with incurable malignancies, irrespective of 2-year mortality, who, in the opinion of the investigator have no treatment option expected to yield significant clinical benefitXx_NEWLINE_xXTwo oncologists disagree on prognosis or resectabilityXx_NEWLINE_xX18+ yrs (US), 21+ yrs (Singapore)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal urinalysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPts w/ osteopenia (T-score of -1 to -2.5 at L/R total hip, L/R femoral neck or lumbar spine [L1-L4]) eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or anti-cancer therapy w/in 4 wks pre-study or w/Grade ?1 side effects not resolved w/in 4 wks pre-studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis (T-score of <?2.5 at L/R total hip, L/R femoral neck, or lumbar spine [L1-L4] by DEXA scan)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic vertebral fragility fractures or fragility fracture of hip, pelvis, wrist, or other location (fragility fracture - any fracture w/out trauma or as a result of a fall from ?standing height)Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate (25%-40% decrease vertebral ht.) or severe (>40% decrease vertebral ht.) morphometric vertebral fracturesXx_NEWLINE_xX?-CTX serum level >1000 pg/mL (morning after ?10hrs fasting)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThiazolidinedione peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma agonist (e.g. Actos® [pioglitazone] and Avandia® [rosiglitazone]) w/in 4 wks prior to study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPO or IV glucocorticoid for ?4 wks at daily dose eq. to ?7.5 mg of PO prednisone w/in 12 wks prior to study drug dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperparathyroidism, Paget's disease or osteomalaciaXx_NEWLINE_xXGastric bypassXx_NEWLINE_xXLow- or high-grade non-nodular, previously untreated (\treatment naïve\) dysplastic BE, confirmed by histopathological analysis. If nodular BE or Intramuscosal Cancer (ImCA) is identified during patient screening, this may be treated with Endoscopic Mucosal Resection (EMR) ?6 weeks prior to treatment under this protocol. If previous EMR was performed, follow-up endoscopy must be negative for nodular BE. Patients with ImCA must be at low risk for recurrence, confirmed by EMR pathology results negative for positive margin, poorly differentiated carcinoma, and lymphovascular invasion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBE length ?6cm excluding visible BE islands, and Prague Classification C ?0 / M ?1Xx_NEWLINE_xXOperable per institution's standardsXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-dysplastic or indefinite for dysplasia BE, confirmed by histopathological analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophageal stenosis/stricture preventing advancement of a therapeutic endoscope (patients may have the stenosis/stricture dilated and then be treated with CryoBalloon ablation under this protocol at a subsequent procedure ?2 weeks later)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic untreated stricturesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of esophageal cancer more extensive than T1a or not meeting criteria for low risk of recurrence (confirmed by EMR pathology results negative for positive margin, poorly differentiated carcinoma, and lymphovascular invasion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of esophageal varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXLarge (>4cm) hiatal herniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior distal esophagectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny clinical or histological suspicion of esophageal adenocarcinoma invading into the submucosa by endoscopic mucosal resection (EMR), or confirmed T1a cancer with positive deep margin by EMRXx_NEWLINE_xXActive esophagitis grade B or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere medical comorbidities precluding endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXGeneral poor health, multiple co-morbidities placing the patient at risk or otherwise unsuitable for trial participationXx_NEWLINE_xXCentral venous access, such as a Portacath or Hickman LineXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject’s biopsy specimen reveals neuroendocrine or small cell featuresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has prior use of any hormones, including luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists, ketoconazole, antiandrogens (such as bicalutamide, flutamide, or nilutamide), or 5-alpha-reductase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has prior use of any anti-cancer treatment or product, such as PC-SPES (or any other PC-x product: PC-HOPE, PC-CARE, PC-PLUS, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive atopic dermatitis or skin condition that disrupts the epidermisXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject, or subject’s close household contacts (defined as those who share housing or have close physical contact) have any of the following conditions during the screening and/or treatment periods:\r\n* Active or a history of atopic dermatitis, eczema or other eczematoid skin disorders that disrupt the epidermis\r\n* Other acute, chronic or exfoliative skin conditions (e.g., burns, impetigo, varicella zoster, severe acne or other open rashes or wounds) until condition resolves\r\n* Pregnant or nursing\r\n* Immunodeficient or immunosuppressed (by disease or therapy), including human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject’s close household contacts include children less than the age of threeXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has participated in any previous study involving PROSTVAC, Sipuleucel-T or ipilimumab, regardless of whether the subject received PROSTVAC, Sipuleucel-T or ipilimumabXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women and members of all races and ethnic groups will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD) > grade IIXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be at least 12 kg or 24 pounds to be eligible for stem cell donationXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-Grade Neuroendocrine Carcinoma (HGNEC), any organ of origin, including a pathology of neuroendocrine features, in patients previously been treated with chemotherapy Although neuroendocrine tumors may be classified differently based on organ of origin, in the context of this protocol they are defined as high grade on the basis of eitherXx_NEWLINE_xXAggressive clinical behavior requiring previous treatment with chemotherapy even if histologic features such as the Ki67 index or mitotic rate corresponds with low or intermediate grade.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic features: (a) Neuroendocrine tumors of lung origin are considered high grade if in any part of the tumors, there are >10 mitoses/2mm2 or 10 high power field (HPF). Large zones of necrosis are usually present. This includes small cell lung carcinoma and large cell neuroendocrine lung carcinoma. [SCLC will not enroll in the HGNEC cohort.] (b)Neuroendocrine tumors of gastroenteropancreatic origin are considered high grade if in any part of the tumors there are either >20 mitoses/2mm2 or 10 high power field (HPF) OR Ki67.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological, molecular or cytological confirmation of: Part A:Xx_NEWLINE_xXhigh risk group MDS, according to IPSS Risk Stratification (Norway Only) Part B:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML (with the exception of AML M3):Xx_NEWLINE_xXMDS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXhigh/intermediate (int-2) risk group MDS, according to IPSS Risk Stratification (Norway Only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXpatients with previously treated MDS (with the exception of deletion 5q MDS) (US only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCongestive cardiac failure of >Grade 2 severity according to the NYHA defined as symptomatic at less than ordinary levels of activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to Astellas ASP2215.Xx_NEWLINE_xXmyelodysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMismatched related HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xX? Grade II acute GvHD or chronic extensive GvHD due to a previous allograft at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be at least 12 kg or 24 pounds to be eligible for stem cell donationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD) > grade IIXx_NEWLINE_xXSBRT or hypofractionated IMRT target size > 10 cm in maximum diameter (or greater than 100 cc in volume)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory requirements:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with phaeochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo- or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic or minimally symptomatic disease (no narcotic analgesic; other analgesics use is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior abiraterone and enzalutamide are permitted, but not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent osteoclast-inhibitory therapies (zoledronic acid, denosumab) are permitted if patients have been on a stable dose for at least 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic radiotherapy with strontium-89, samarium-153, rhenium-186 or rhenium-188 for the treatment of bony metastases within previous 24 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled fecal incontinenceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pathologically or cytologically proven transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) of the urotheliumXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s Wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor diseases other than Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia (WM), presence of radiographically measurable presence of ? 1 lesion that measures ? 2.0 cm in the longest dimension (LD) and ? 1.0 cm in the longest perpendicular dimension (LPD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to comply with protocol-specified Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to 5-AC (azacitidine) or decitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of antidepressants such as sertraline within 6 weeks OR use of paroxetine, fluoxetine, or citalopram within 3 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive cases (within the past 12 months) of depressive disorder, manic episodes, and/or anxiety requiring active treatment with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI); patients being treated with an SSRI for non-psychiatric indications (such as hot flashes) are allowed and should go through the appropriate washoutXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of splenomegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE IB: ECOG PS 0-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with NMIBC, failure or intolerance of prior BCG therapy; failure is defined as evidence of TCC on cystoscopic examination and biopsy or cystoscopic examination and urine cytology at least 6 weeks from completion of last BCG or intravesical treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with NMIBC must be suitable for and willing to undergo a radical cystectomy at the completion of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with primary TCC of the ureter, urethra, or renal pelvis without TCC of the bladder are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: HNSCC, with confirmed p53 mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: Ovarian or HNSCC, with confirmed p53 mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in the expansion phase must be willing to undergo pre and post-Cycle 1 biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAngina pectoris,Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of or imminent occurrence of airway obstruction, unless tracheostomy in place.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHPV-positive status ( In HNSCC patients only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease. Patients with resectable disease may be enrolled after having refused surgery after a documented consultation with a surgeon.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAIDS defined as a CD4 (cluster of differentiation 4) count less then 200 in the context of HIV sero-positivity or chronically is taking immunosuppressive medication such as steroids or transplant related medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of active immunotherapy in the previous month.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot tolerate pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) prophylaxis (i.e., known Bactrim and pentamidine allergies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales and females 12 years old or olderXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have select advanced cancers with specific genetic profilesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have positive genetic testing for NF1 in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory or a diagnosis of NF1 based on clinical National Institutes of Health (NIH) consensus criteria of at least one other diagnostic criterion in addition to the presence of a PN; NF1 mutation analysis will be performed on germline deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as described by Messiaen & Wimmer; histologic confirmation of tumor is not necessary in the presence of consistent clinical and imaging findings, but should be considered if malignant transformation of a PN is clinically suspected; additional criteria are as follows:\r\n* Six or more cafe-au-lait macules (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in post pubertal subjects)\r\n* Freckling in axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one measurable PN, defined as a lesion of at least 3 cm measured in one dimension; patients who underwent surgery for resection of a PN are eligible provided the PN was incompletely resected and is measurable as per criteria above; measurability and suitability for volumetric MRI analysis of the target PN must be confirmed with the National Cancer Institute (NCI) Pediatric Oncology Branch (POB) prior to enrolling a patient; the target PN will be defined as the clinically most relevant PN, which has to be amenable to volumetric MRI analysis; PN will be classified as “typical PN” or “nodular PN” versus \solitary nodular PN\ prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe PN must be inoperable, defined as a PN that cannot be surgically completely removed without risk for substantial morbidity due to: encasement of or close proximity to vital structures, invasiveness, or high vascularity of the PN; the PN either causes morbidity or it is growing and has the potential to cause morbidity such as (but not limited to): head and neck lesions that could compromise the airway or great vessels, paraspinal lesions that can cause myelopathy, brachial or lumbar plexus lesions that could cause nerve compression and loss of function, lesions that could result in major deformity (e.g., orbital lesions) or are significantly disfiguring, and lesions of the extremity that cause limb hypertrophy or loss of function or pain; PN growth will be defined as a >= 20% increase in PN volume within approximately 3 years prior to enrollment on this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 2 (patients who are wheelchair bound because of paralysis secondary to a plexiform neurofibroma should be considered ambulatory when they are up in their wheelchair; similarly, patients with limited mobility secondary to need for mechanical support (such as an airway PN requiring tracheostomy or continuous positive airway pressure [CPAP] will also be considered ambulatory for the purpose of the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid excessive sun exposure and use adequate sunscreen protection if sun exposure is anticipatedXx_NEWLINE_xXWhile not an exclusion criterion, unless clinically indicated, patients should avoid taking other additional non-study medications that may interfere with the study medications; in particular, patients should avoid medications that are known to either induce or inhibit the activity of hepatic microsomal isoenzymes CYP1A2, CYP2C19 and CYP3A4Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown ophthalmologic conditions, such as:\r\n* Current or past history of central serous retinopathy\r\n* Current or past history of retinal vein occlusion\r\n* Known intraocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg (or ULN adjusted by age) or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of IOP); patients with known glaucoma and increased IOP who do not have meaningful vision (light perception only or no light perception) and are not experiencing pain related to the glaucoma, may be eligible after discussion with the study chair\r\n* Subjects with any other significant abnormality on ophthalmic examination should be discussed with the study chair for potential eligibility\r\n* Ophthalmological findings secondary to long-standing optic pathway glioma (such as visual loss, optic nerve pallor or strabismus) or long-standing orbito-temporal PN (such as visual loss, strabismus) will NOT be considered a significant abnormality for the purposes of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects requiring vasopressor or mechanical ventilation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with chronic GVHD features (acute/chronic GVHD overlap syndrome or classical chronic GVHD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of personal psoriasis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has tested positive for the Clostridium difficile toxin within 7 days of study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUDED THERAPIES AND MEDICATIONS, PREVIOUS AND CONCOMITANTXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with invasive breast cancer sentinel node biopsy (SLNB) must be performed; if SLNB performed prior to BCS and precision breast IORT, pathology report must confirm no evidence of nodal disease; SLNC may also be performed concurrently with BCS; if this is the case the pathology will not be available prior to IORTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients known to have a BRCA gene mutation; genetic testing is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pathologically proven nodal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with breast implants (does not include patients having implants placed AFTER intra-operative radiotherapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of allergic reaction to chemotherapies usedXx_NEWLINE_xXMonocular vision or has media opacities or any other condition that precludes monitoring of the retina or the fundus, or has a history of ophthalmology exam with retina or cornea abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated with anti-pCAD biologic therapies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has out of range laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematological values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXdiagnosis of HGG, DIPG, low grade astrocytoma, medulloblastoma/PNET, ependymoma, neuroblastoma, RMS and tumours with ErbB deregulationXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide all biologic specimens as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXIf liposomal doxorubicin hydrochloride (DOXIL) is selected as the investigator’s choice chemotherapy:\r\n* Lifetime exposure to doxorubicin =< 240 mg/m^2 (or equivalent biologic dose if prior exposure to a different anthracycline)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have anti-measles immunity as demonstrated by serum immunoglobulin (Ig)G anti-measles antibody levels of >= 1.1 EU/ml as determined by BioPlex Measles IgG multiplex flow immunoassayXx_NEWLINE_xXEpithelial tumors of low malignant potential, stromal tumors, and germ cell tumors of the ovaryXx_NEWLINE_xXResistant to all of the following: DOXIL, gemcitabine hydrochloride (GEM), topotecan hydrochloride (TOPA), and weekly paclitaxel (TAXOL); (NOTE: resistance is defined as either 1) less than a complete response to any chemotherapy regimen containing the agent in question [consider weekly TAXOL as a separate agent from every-three-week TAXOL], 2) serum CA-125 >= 2 x ULN within 180 days of last dose of chemotherapy containing the agent in question, confirmed by a second CA-125 [the second CA-125 does not have to be within 180 days of chemotherapy], or 3) CT or PET/CT evidence of cancer recurrence/progression within 180 days of last dose of chemotherapy containing the agent in question; [for example, if a patient previously received carboplatin and GEM, had a complete response, and had initial evidence of relapse > 180 days after the last dose of GEM, that patient would not be considered resistant to GEM])Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of tuberculosis or history of purified protein derivative (PPD) positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXOn anticoagulation and unable to discontinue temporarilyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo alternative medications or nutraceuticals known to alter PSA (e.g. phytoestrogens and saw palmetto); Note: patients receiving medications for urinary symptoms such as Flomax or 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride and dutasteride) on a chronic stable dose for at least 3 months prior to study enrollment are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have the following staging requirements:Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive lymphocytosis with > 50% increase over a 2-month period, or anticipated doubling time < 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNHL (Part 1 and 2): Intermediate or high risk by Ann Arbor Staging with Cotswald Modifications that meets criteria for active disease requiring therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of at least one anti-CD20 antibody containing regimen that resulted in initial measurable response (partial or complete remission), followed by relapse/recurrence.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received all approved therapies known to provide clinical benefit for their disease subtype and for which they are eligible or must have refused these treatment options prior to consideration for enrolment. In the case of patients who have lymphomas for which high-dose chemotherapy and autologous stem cell transplantation (HD-ASCT) is considered a standard curative therapy, eligibility for this study requires that the patient's disease has relapsed after HD-ASCT, that the patient is not eligible for HD-ASCT, or that the patient has refused HD-ASCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXibritumomab tiuxetan (biologic half-life in NHL = 1.9 days [based upon measurement of radioactivity from administered [111In]-ibritumomab tiuxetan]; required washout = 10 days (1.5 weeks)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is undergoing one of the following elective procedures: Cardiac procedure (Epicardium); Cardiac procedure (Aortic Anastomosis or Aortotomy suture line); Liver resection; Total splenectomy; On-clamp partial nephrectomy; or Radical nephrectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with known sensitivity to starch or starch-derived materials;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with poor blood glucose control as per glycosylated hemoglobin > 9%.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject undergoing a cardiac procedure in which there is no aortic anastomosis or aortotomy suture line to evaluate using the bleeding severity scale (i.e., not for treatment at the distal coronary artery bypass graft anastomosis);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject in whom any major intraoperative bleeding incidences during the surgical procedure occurred (i.e., subject with assignment of an American College of Surgeons Advanced Trauma Life Support Hemorrhage Class of II, III, or IV Hemorrhage);Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must weigh > (25 kg) at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXActive viral infection requiring treatment with anti-viral medication (uncomplicated cytomegalovirus [CMV] viremia that is responding to antiviral medications is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum A, currently closed to enrollment: Patients must have a recurrent, progressive or refractory DIPG following radiation therapy with or without chemotherapy\r\n* Histologic diagnosis is not required for patients with typical imaging findings of DIPG (defined as patients with a diffuse expansile mass centered in and involving at least 2/3 of the pons); patients with brainstem tumors who have undergone biopsy with a diagnosis of high-grade glioma or diffuse infiltrating glioma are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnic groups are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits should have deficits that are completely stable for a minimum of 1 week (7 days) prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 93% on room air and no evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to use brief courses (at least 72 hours) of steroids as directed for potential inflammatory side effects of the therapy if recommended by their treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR STRATUM C: Diagnosis of hypermutated brain tumors\r\nPatients with brain tumors and increased tumor mutation burden as determined by\r\n* Confirmed diagnosis of CMMRD syndrome by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified germline gene sequencing OR\r\n* Confirmation of high mutation burden by whole genome/exome sequencing performed in a CLIA-certified laboratory and/or the use of Foundation One next generation sequence panel or another CLIA approved targeted sequencing lab with publicly available correlations between number of mutations found in the panel and mutations per megabase and/or genome; for protocol purposes a high mutation burden will be defined as at least 100 non-synonymous coding-region mutations by whole exome/genome sequencing (well above two standard deviations of the number of median similar mutations described in pediatric CNS cancers) AND/OR a high tumor mutation burden (TMB) or intermediate TMB based on the reporting parameters of the panel; TMB parameters provided for the Foundation One reports are high tumor mutation burden is >= 20 mutations per megabase or intermediate TMB is between 6 to 19 mutations per megabase\r\n* Confirmed diagnosis of Lynch syndrome by CLIA-certified germline gene sequencing; patients with Lynch syndrome will not be accounted for in primary objective unless their tumors are determined to have the minimum number of mutations described above but they will still be eligible for this study\r\n* Low-grade tumors in patients with CMMRD or Lynch syndrome do not have to reach the threshold of 100 mutations for study inclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR STRATUM C: Patients must be willing to use brief courses (at least 72 hours) of steroids as directed for potential inflammatory side effects of the therapy if recommended by their treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR STRATUM C: Patients with diffuse intrinsic pontine or other brainstem high-grade glioma and those with primary spinal cord tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR STRATUM C: Patients with uncontrolled seizures defined as seizures that require regular use of rescue medications or in the opinion of the investigator require increasing doses of antiepileptic medications or would compromise the ability to tolerate study therapy or interfere with protocol therapy or procedures; patients with seizures that are well controlled are eligible and may be on antiepileptic medications if on a stable doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high-grade cervical intraepithelial lesions (CIN2/3) confirmed by colposcopy and biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who weigh >= 50 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are HPV-positive by deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are immunocompetentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cytologic evidence of glandular dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking immunosuppressive medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with unilateral pleural effusion will be eligible for inclusion if they fulfill the Global Initiative for Obstructive Lung Disease classification of 0-1 level for pulmonary function and New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification class 1 for cardiac functionXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for >= 2 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion of participants with confirmed positive serology of at least one auto-antibody panel (anti-nuclear antibody, anti-double stranded DNA, cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody, and perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) at screening should be discussed between Sponsor and investigators, and if judged clinically relevant could be referred to a specialist (Rheumatologist) to exclude an underlying auto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline QTc interval > 470 milliseconds (ms), baseline resting bradycardia <45 beats per minute (bpm), or baseline resting tachycardia >100 bpmXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of metastatic NSCLC according to the 7th edition of the AJCC Cancer Staging Manual. In addition, the NSCLC must harbor an ALK rearrangement, as assessed using the FDA approved Vysis ALK Break Apart FISH Probe Kit (Abbott Molecular Inc.) test and scoring algorithm (including positivity criteria). If documentation of ALK rearrangement as described above is not locally available, a test to confirm ALK rearrangement must be performed by a Novartis designated central laboratory. Patients must wait for the central laboratory result of the ALK rearrangement status before initiating treatment with ceritinibXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of malignant melanoma, stages IIB-IV is radiologically confirmed complete clinical remission (cCR) without clinical evidence of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous access (for leukapheresis and blood draws)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects less than 18 years old are being excluded in this study as melanoma is extremely uncommon in this age group and insufficient data are available in adults using dendritic cell therapy to assess potential risk in subjects less than 18 years old. Participation of women and minorities is encouraged, although it is recognized that melanoma is much more common in the Caucasian populationXx_NEWLINE_xXStudy subjects with known chronic infection with HIV, hepatitis B or C, since these infections may interfere with the evaluation of vaccine-induced immune responses. Infectious disease testing will be performed whenever a study subject exhibits clinical signs of infection or to confirm a history of infection. Testing will also be performed for all study subjects undergoing leukapheresis, as required by the blood bank for autologous blood products (standard donor transmissible disease testing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStudy subjects previously treated with one of the peptides used in this trial, melanoma protein vaccine, melanoma whole cell vaccines, or with Montanide are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability of study subject for immunological and clinical follow up assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have failed or be unable to tolerate or refused other available Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved effective therapies; NOTE: patients should not have other treatment options considered curativeXx_NEWLINE_xXIs chronically taking a sensitive CYP3A substrate or a CYP3A substrate with a narrow therapeutic index and cannot be switched to an alternative agent at least 7 days prior to study initiation that in the opinion of investigator/treating physicians precludes utilization of idelalisibXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of chronic diarrhea, colitis, or intestinal perforation that in the opinion of the investigator precludes utilization of idelalisibXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to experimental treatment targeting rapidly accelerated fibrosarcoma (Raf), MAP kinase/ERK kinase (MEK), or the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy (CSCR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas insurance coverage or is willing to pay for protocol therapy (rituximab x 4 or Zevalin x 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFollicular grades IIIA or IIIB are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive, histologically or cytologically diagnosed low or intermediate grade, neuroendocrine tumors confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI) or a pathology laboratory at the enrolling institution; disease progression is defined according to Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) criteria for progression of disease or any new lesions seen on 68-Gallium DOTATATE within 18 months prior to enrollment (per principal investigator [PI] discretion and if 68-Gallium DOTATATE is performed at the enrolling institution)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a history of another primary malignancy from which the patient has been disease free for < 3 years at the time of enrollment, with the exceptions of: a patient with a familial cancer syndrome-associated NETs including MEN1, VHL, NF-1, and thymidylate synthetase (TS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 15 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperleukocytosis (>= 50,000 blasts/uL) or rapidly progressive disease that in the estimation of the investigator and sponsor would compromise ability to complete study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted 6 to 12 months (± 2 weeks) of initial therapy, during which the participant was treated to best response, defined as the best response maintained for 2 cycles after the M-protein nadir is reached.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented major response [partial response (PR), very good partial response (VGPR), complete response (CR)] according to the International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) uniform response criteria, version 2011, after this initial therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete documentation of the details of the initial therapy before randomization including cytogenetics and International Staging System (ISS) is available.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling and consent for the specific amounts that will be taken.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may receive hydroxyurea or leukopheresis as necessary; hydroxyurea can be continued through induction, as determined by the treating investigator; patients who require hydroxyurea after the 2 induction cycles will be off studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with >= grade 3 acute graft-versus-host disease are excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum as characterized by desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of brainstem lesions or lesions that are less than 5 mm from the hypophysis or cranial nervesXx_NEWLINE_xXMultifocal gliomas that are bilateral; patients with unilateral multifocal gliomas may be eligible if their multifocal disease can be treated effectively and safely in a single MLA procedure; also note that corpus callosal tumors are eligible even if they are bilateral as long as they satisfy the size and shape limits of MLA as determined by the performing neurosurgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires therapeutic doses of anticoagulants unless anticoagulation can be safely discontinued before surgery per standard practice (e.g. first deep vein thrombosis [DVT] for which anticoagulation has been at least 3 months and repeat imaging demonstrates resolution of DVT) or an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter can be used in place of anticoagulation; subjects are permitted to resume anticoagulation following surgery per discretion of treating physician and/or site standard operating procedures (SOPs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiverticulitis (either active or history of) within the past 2 years; Note that diverticulosis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic evidence of predominantly squamous cell NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with NHL must have objective, documented evidence of disease prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are 20% below their ideal body weightXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with markedly decreased visual acuityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with HPV-positive or p16-positive oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (SCCA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sinonasal SCCAsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG), Campath, or other immunosuppressive T cell monoclonal antibodies within 30 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be eligible to undergo a ketogenic or Atkins based diet according to baseline body mass index (BMI), comorbid medical conditions, and baseline laboratory assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of a metabolic disorder including documented defect in urea metabolism (including documented history of gout), carnitine deficiency (primary carnitine deficiency, carnitine palmitoyltransferase I or II deficiency, carnitine translocase deficiency), fatty acid metabolism, beta-oxidation defects, pyruvate carboxylase deficiency, mitochondrial function, porphyria, or treatment refractory nephrolithiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 20.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive bowel obstruction, ileus, or active or remote pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that may increase the risk of the diet or significantly reduce compliance (i.e. cognitive impairment, frank dementia, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther concurrent experimental therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrincipal Inclusion criteria:\n\n          -  Aged at least 18\n\n          -  The presence of a solid malignant tumour that is not considered appropriate for\n             further standard treatment\n\n          -  Module 1 and 2 Part B study expansions, and Module 3: patients must have a tumour at\n             least 1 cm in size that can be measured using a CT or MRI scan\n\n          -  Module 1 Part B Study expansion: second line lung adenocarcinoma with ATM deficient\n             tumours.\n\n          -  Module 2 Part B All - No previous treatment with PARP inhibitor.\n\n          -  Module 2 Part B1 Study expansion: advanced gastric adenocarcinoma (including GEJ)\n             patients with ATM deficient tumours\n\n          -  Module 2 Part B2 Study expansion: advanced gastric adenocarcinoma (including GEJ)\n             patients with ATM proficient tumours\n\n          -  Module2 Part B3 Study expansion: Second or thrid line HER2 negative breast cancer\n\n          -  Module 2 Part B4 Study expansion: Second or third line triple negative breast cancer\n             (TNBC) Module 3: advanced recurrent or metastatic non-small cell lung cancer, or head\n             and neck squamous cell carcinoma\n\n        Principal exclusion criteria\n\n          -  A diagnosis of ataxia telangiectasia\n\n          -  Prior exposure to an ATR inhibitor\n\n          -  Bad reaction to AZD6738\n\n          -  Module 1: Contra-indicated for treatment with carboplatin\n\n          -  Module 2: Contra-indicated for treatment with olaparib\n\n          -  Module 3: Contra-indicated for treatment with MEDI4736Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA):\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 1 (50 mg/m^2) must have BSA >= 1.20 m^2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 2 (75 mg/m^2) must have BSA >= 0.93 m^2\r\n* Patients enrolled on dose level 3 (95 mg/m^2) must have BSA >= 0.70 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits that are stable for a minimum of one week prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with low grade gliomas and Rb1 negative tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require enzyme inducing anti-convulsants to control seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cataracts on ophthalmologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are homozygous for the UGT1A1*28 alleleXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an ECOG PS of 0 to 1, with the exception of patients in Part 2 (Cohort 3, unfit bladder cancer patients) who may have an ECOG PS of 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave received prior cisplatin and gemcitabine concomitantly within the last 6 months or are refractory to cisplatin and gemcitabine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave evidence suggesting pulmonary fibrosis or interstitial pneumonia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of thrombocytopenia with complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in remission who are enrolled on another study where time to progression or disease free survival is a primary endpointXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with mature B-cell ALL will be removed from the protocol as soon as that diagnosis is made and should be treated on a B-cell leukemia (Burkitt’s) protocol; NOTE: patients with T-cell surface markers and a t(8;14)(q24;q11) remain eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical and phenotypic verification of B cell CLL and measurable disease; immunophenotyping of the leukemic cells (blood or marrow) must demonstrate a monoclonal (or light chain positive) with immunophenotype consistent with B cell population (e.g., co-expressing cluster of differentiation [CD]19 and CD5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot amenable to approved therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least one of the following indications for treatment: \r\n* Symptomatic or progressive splenomegaly\r\n* Symptomatic lymph nodes, nodal clusters, or progressive lymphadenopathy\r\n* Progressive anemia (hemoglobin =< 11 g/dL)\r\n* Progressive thrombocytopenia (platelets =< 100 x 109/L)\r\n* Weight loss > 10% body weight over the preceding 6 month period\r\n* Fatigue attributable to CLL\r\n* Fever or night sweats for > 2 weeks without evidence of infection\r\n* Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of > 50% over a 2-month period or an anticipated doubling time of less than 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated autoimmunity such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, or immune thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of more than 55% pro-lymphocytes in peripheral blood; patients with Richter's transformation are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients 0-49 years old will be enrolled in Arm A or C (high-intensity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients 50-60 years old will be enrolled in Arm B or D (lower intensity); patients eligible for Arms B or D also include those who have received previous allogeneic HCT, or who have co-morbid conditions rendering them unsuitable for high-dose conditioning, determined in consultation with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on other experimental protocols for prevention of acute GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient weight >= 100 kg; patients >= 70 kg with MUDs must be discussed with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXLiver function abnormality; patients who have liver function tests (LFTs) (including total bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase [AST] and alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) >= twice the upper limit of normal should be evaluated by a gastrointestinal (GI) physician; unless there is a clear precipitating factor (such as an azole, methotrexate, Bactrim or another drug); if the GI physician considers that HCT on the high-intensity arms of protocol is contraindicated for that patient the patient may be considered for treatment on the lower intensity arm of the protocol or excluded from the protocol; patients with Gilbert’s syndrome and no other known liver function abnormality and patients with reversible drug-related transaminitis do not necessarily require GI consultation and may be included on the high-intensity arms of the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXDonors who fail eligibility requirements for donation of cells or tissue for donation of a Human Cell and Tissue Products (HCT/P) will be excluded unless use of the cells complies urgent medical need or allogeneic use in a first-degree or second-degree relativeXx_NEWLINE_xXUnrelated donors donating outside of the United States of America (USA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histological verification of the diagnosis of Langerhans cell histiocytosis according to the criteria described in Section 6.1Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of Stratum I who have:Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease (AD worse) in non-risk organs after 6 weeks (Initial CourseXx_NEWLINE_xXAD intermediate or worse in non-risk organs or AD better in risk organs after 12 weeks (Initial Course 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IIIXx_NEWLINE_xXAD worse in risk organs after week 6 (after Initial Course 1), or AD worse or AD intermediate in risk organs after week 12 (after Initial Course 2).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of unequivocally severe organ dysfunction at the above mentioned evaluation points (hematological dysfunction, liver dysfunction, or both of them) asXx_NEWLINE_xXPLT <20 x109/L (20,000/?L) and/or transfusion dependency (both criteria have to be fulfilled) AND/ORXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal protein <55 g/L or substitution dependencyXx_NEWLINE_xXAlbumin <25 g/L or substitution dependency (at least one of the two criteria to be fulfilled)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IVXx_NEWLINE_xXAD worse in risk organs after week 6 (after Initial Course 1), or AD worse or AD intermediate in risk organs after week 12 (after Initial Course 2) of Stratum I ORXx_NEWLINE_xXAD worse after the 2nd and 3rd 2-CdA/Ara-C course, and those AD worse or AD intermediate after the 4th 2-CdA/Ara-C course of Stratum III ANDXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of unequivocally severe organ dysfunction at the above mentioned evaluation points (hematological dysfunction, liver dysfunction, or both of them) as defined in Table XI (see Section 10.3.1).Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum VXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with verified diagnosis of LCH and MRI findings consistent with ND-CNSLCH irrespective of previous treatments (also those not registered to other Strata ofLCH-IV).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with isolated tumorous CNS-LCH (including isolated DI with mass lesion in the hypothalamus-pituitary axis). In patients with already established diagnosis of LCH and radiologic finding of CNS lesions compatible with LCH, a biopsy of the lesion is not obligatory. In all other cases a biopsy of the lesion is needed for inclusion into the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXStratum VI -- Patients with newly diagnosed SS-LCH and localization other than \multifocal bone\,isolated tumorous CNS lesion, or isolated \CNS-risk\ lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum VII -- All patients registered in LCH IV (regardless of treatment) as long as consent for longterm follow-up has not been withheld.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IXx_NEWLINE_xXLCH-related permanent consequences (e.g. vertebra plana, sclerosing cholangitis, lung fibrosis, etc.) in the absence of active diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with progressive disease in risk organsXx_NEWLINE_xXPermanent consequences (e.g. sclerosing cholangitis, lung fibrosis, etc.) without evidence of active LCH in the same organ or in any other locationsXx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IIIXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated sclerosing cholangitis without evidence of active hepatic LCH as the only evidence of risk organ involvement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum IVXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary failure (requiring mechanical ventilation) not due to active LCH.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDecreased renal function with a GFR of less than 50ml/1.73m2/min.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStratum VIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with SS-LCH who have an isolated tumorous CNS lesion (they are eligible for Stratum V),Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary ocular or mucosal melanoma are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with underlying heart conditions who are deemed ineligible for surgery by cardiology consult; patients with reversible ischemic changes on cardiac stress testXx_NEWLINE_xXA documented deleterious gBRCA1/2m obtained in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory, including but not limited to Myriad Genetics, either by multi-gene panels or individual testing, for cohort 1 patients prior to study enrollment; variants of uncertain significance (VUS) of BRCA1/2 are not considered deleterious; patients with VUS or deleterious mutation in other genes without gBRCA1/2m can be considered for cohort 2 or 3 or 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients except cohort 6 must have at least one lesion deemed safe to biopsy and be willing to undergo a mandatory baseline biopsy; for cohort 5, the second biopsy at progression is mandatory for the responders (PR/CR/stable disease [SD]) >= 4 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of raloxifene, denosumab, or bisphosphonates for bone health is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be at least 1 week from the last dose of complementary or alternative medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic evidence of urothelial carcinoma of the bladderXx_NEWLINE_xXLow/intermediate-risk papillary urothelial carcinoma of the bladder, at initial occurrence or recurrent with > 6 months interval free of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multifocal tumors must have resectable lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN): 10-20 MG/DLXx_NEWLINE_xXGamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT): 0-45 U/LXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of urothelial carcinoma involving the prostatic urethra or upper urinary tractXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors or aromatase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients taking drugs that are known to have drug interactions with tamoxifen will not be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown family history of hereditary heart diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medication(s) that may cause QTc prolongation or induce Torsades de Pointes, with the exception of anti-microbials that are used as standard of care to prevent or treat infections and other such drugs that are considered by the Investigator to be essential for the care of the patient.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects being treated with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), or drug which has significant MAOI activity (e.g., meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) within 3 weeks prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A9 (UGT1A9) inhibitor including: diclofenac, imipramine, and ketoconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability of a patient for immunological and clinical follow-up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXElevated Troponin 1 levels at screening or known to have persistently elevated brain natriuretic peptide (BNP).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious arrhythmia,Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of aneurisms of the ascending aorta or aortic stress.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMajor abnormalities identified by ECG or echocardiogram (ECHO), at the Investigator's discretion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs which are exclusively or primarily eliminated by cytochrome P-450 isozyme 3A4 (CYP)3A4.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs which are exclusively or primarily eliminated by UDP glucuronyltransferase 1A1 (UGT)1A1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs which are substrates for the drug transporter multidrug resistance protein 1 (MDR1) have a narrow therapeutic window; or which are strong inhibitors of drug transporter MDR1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease limited to the hemithoraxXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects treated with pemetrexed (pemetrexed disodium) previously will be eligible only if 8 weeks have elapsed between the last dose of pemetrexed and the date of surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with porphyria or hypersensitivity to porphyrin or porphyrin-like compoundsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been treated with pemetrexed if the last dose of pemetrexed is < 8 weeks to the date of surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a newly-diagnosed glioblastoma or gliosarcoma that has been confirmed pathologicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measurable contrast-enhancing supratentorial tumor (>= 0.2 cc [current resolution of MRSI is 0.108 cc]) in a region amenable to MRSIXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 2 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women, and members of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trial; subjects will be approximately representative of the demographics of the referral base for the participating institutionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolism are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking any of the following category I drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes =< 7 days prior to registration (for cohort 2a and 2b [belinostat cohort] only)\r\n* Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n* Amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide\r\n* Erythromycin, clarithromycin\r\n* Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n* Cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking valproic acid =< 2 weeks prior to initiation of belinostat therapy (for cohort 2a and 2b [belinostat cohort] only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing need for pharmacological immunosuppression, including steroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXMeets clinical diagnostic criteria for NF2 or genetically conformed NF2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one volumetrically measurable and >= 1 cc NF2-related VS (histological confirmation not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny neurologic deficits must be stable for >= 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable or rapidly progressive disease, including patients who require glucocorticoids for symptomatic control of brain or spinal tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma may have p16(+) or p16(-) disease; in these patients, p16 status must be known prior to randomization; assessment of p16 status may occur locally or centrally; note: the definition of p16(+) disease is diffuse nuclear and cytoplasmic staining in >= 70% of tumor cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior severe infusion reaction to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with melanoma arising from uveal/ocular primary sites.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known or suspected allergies to any component of the vaccine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior melanoma vaccinations may be an exclusion criterion in the following circumstances:\r\n* Patients who have received, within the prior 5 years, melanoma vaccines or other vaccines containing an incomplete Freund’s adjuvant (IFA; such as montanide ISA-51).\r\n* Patients who have received any melanoma vaccine within the past 12 months.\r\n* Patients who have been vaccinated in the past with any of the melanoma peptides in the LPV7 vaccine included in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body weight < 110 pounds (lbs) (50 kilograms [kg]) because of the amount and frequency with which blood will be drawn, and because of the skin biopsies required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious treatment with an agent that blocks adrenal androgen synthesis (e.g. abiraterone acetate, TAK-700, TOK-001, ketoconazole) or second generation androgen receptor (AR) antagonists (e.g., BMS 641988, ARN-509,TOK-001)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStructurally unstable bone lesions suggesting impending fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of the following drugs within 4 weeks of study drug administration: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors (finasteride, dutasteride), estrogens, Cyproterone acetate, biologic, or other agents with anti-tumor activity against prostate cancer, and androgens (testosterone, dihydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with HD with 4th or greater CR, PR, and/or SD are ineligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapidly progressive disease (PD) unresponsive to reinduction chemo, radio, or immunotherapy are ineligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo monoclonal antibody within 3 months unless evidence of disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90%, no more than 2 liters per minute (LPM) oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with laboratory evidence of pancreatitis are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prognostic Index must be documented:\r\n* ECOG performance status >= 2 (1 point)\r\n* Age >= 60 (1 point)\r\n* >= 2 extranodal sites (1 point)\r\n* Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > upper limit of normal (1 point)\r\n* Ann Arbor stage III or IV (1 point)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are reported to be of direct Asian-Pacific (China, Japan, Taiwan, Singapore, Republic of Korea, and Thailand) ancestryXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have histologically or cytologically confirmed and identified resectable primary squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx that is HPV 16 positive or positive for any high risk HPV subtype (i.e., 18, 33, 35, etc.) as determined by PCR at the central laboratory. Patients must have p16+ status as determined by IHC performed or reviewed at the central laboratory. Both p16 and HPV status must be determined prior to post-surgical adjuvant treatment assignment. Tissue from the primary site must be available for biomarker studies after surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active alcohol addiction (as assessed by medical caregiver)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo active tobacco use (> 10 years tobacco free interval, < 20 pack/year [pk/yr.] history)Xx_NEWLINE_xXp16 or HPV negative oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC) as determined by immunohistochemistry (IHC) and polymerase chain reaction (PCR), respectivelyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically-proven recurrent squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (SCCHN), who has received prior radiotherapy with or without chemotherapy; new primary is allowed if location is in a previously irradiated field; biopsy is recommended for each recurrence but is not mandated per study; this will be at the discretion of the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior surgery for recurrent or new SCCHN is allowed in previously irradiated patients; a minimum of 4 weeks should elapse between any surgery and treatment on study; however, high-risk pathologic features should be present, such as positive margins, positive lymphadenopathy, perineural or angiolymphatic invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient regardless of sex or age with CD19+ B-ALL undergoing allogeneic HSCT (Group A) OR any patient regardless of sex or age with CD19+ B-CLL or NHL undergoing allogeneic HSCT (Group B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable allogeneic activated peripheral blood T cell products with ? 15% expression of CD19.CAR-CD28zeta determined by flow cytometry (cell dose is based on total cell numbers and not individual anti-leukemic cell numbers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD) > grade IIXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to be treated with a muscle blockade agent (e.g. pancuronium bromide, atricurium, cisatricurium, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave implanted electronic devices or implants with metal parts in the immediate vicinity of a lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave Q-T intervals greater than 550 ms unless treated with an Accysync model 72 synchronization system controlling the NanoKnife system’s output pulsesXx_NEWLINE_xXReceive non-conventional fractionation schedules, such as stereotactic radiation (5 fractions or less) or received higher than 54 gray (Gy) delivered conventionallyXx_NEWLINE_xXMixed histology including clear cell, serous, undifferentiated or sarcomatous elementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or current use of metformin within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic (daily use for > 1 month) use of cimetidine (significant increase in metformin concentration and risk of lactic acidosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIodinated contrast agents used in prior 48 hours (significant increase in metformin concentration and risk of lactic acidosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be >= 10 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: If post allogeneic HCT: Confirmed CD19+ leukemia recurrence defined as >= 0.01% disease by Seattle Children’s Hospital (SCH) or University of Washington (UW) Pathology Department following allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Confirmed CD19+ leukemia recurrence defined as >= 0.01% disease in the marrow or isolated extramedullary disease following allogeneic HCT ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patients with CNS involvement are eligible provided that they are asymptomatic and in the opinion of the study PI have a reasonable expectation that disease burden can be controlled in the interval between enrollment and T cell infusion; patients that have a significant neurologic deterioration will be not be eligible for T cell infusion until alternate therapies result in neurological stabilization ANDXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: For those subjects with marrow involvement, the first 15 subjects enrolled after the 03.28.2017 amendment must have detectable disease at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: For the post allo-HCT cohort, chimerism analysis must demonstrate > 95% either donor or recipient in peripheral blood CD3 cells, must be done within 1 month of enrollment (no mixed chimerism are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate respiratory function defined as not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation; oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to tolerate apheresis procedure, including placement of temporary apheresis line if requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must NOT have an active severe infection defined as:\r\n* A positive blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment\r\n* A fever above 38.2 celsius (C) AND clinical signs of infection within 48 hours of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T-CELLS INCLUSION CRITERIA: Subject has tolerated prior dose of modified \r\nT cell infusion without experiencing a dose limiting toxicity OR if patient did have a dose limiting toxicity (DLT), they have fully recovered back to baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T-CELLS INCLUSION CRITERIA: Subject has evidence of persistence of leukemic cells OR has CD19+ B cell recovery detected within 1 year of initial T cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T-CELLS EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Patients has an active severe infection defined as:\r\n* A positive blood culture within 48 hours of scheduled T cell infusion OR\r\n* A fever above 38.2 C AND clinical signs of infection within 48 hours of T cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXFor phase 1, patients with multifocal low-grade Ta histology will be eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor phase 2, individuals with Ta disease only must have documentation of high-grade histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of vesicoureteral reflux or an indwelling urinary stentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious immunization against CT7, MAGE-A3, other cancer-testis antigens, or WT1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to vaccines or unknown allergensXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn addition to having AR+ tumors, patients must fit into 1 of the 2 following categories:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of a prohibited concomitant medication that cannot be safely discontinued or substituted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received prior temozolomide or an alkylating agent (ex. lomustine [CCNU]/carmustine [BCNU])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed GBM (including all histologic variants) at first diagnosis with radiographic evidence of recurrent disease after treatment with radiotherapy and temozolomide;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMarkedly decreased visual acuity if attributed to other causes than GBM.Xx_NEWLINE_xXArms C and D only: body surface area < 1.2 m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of an extracranial germ cell tumor that is not a pure teratoma (mature or immature), pure germinoma, or pure seminomaXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - PROCUREMENT: Either previously infected with varicella zoster virus (VZV; chicken pox) or previously vaccinated with VZV vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - TREATMENT: Available autologous transduced cytotoxic T lymphocytes with ? 20% expression of GD2 CAR and killing of GD2-positive targets ? 20% in cytotoxicity assayXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to pralatrexate or romidepsinXx_NEWLINE_xXthere are no signs or symptoms of graft versus host disease, other than Grade 1 skin involvement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be stable enough to be expected to complete dosing through the DLT observation period as assessed by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication or requires any of these medications during treatment with the investigational drugs. This includes excluding current medications known or suspected to be associated QT prolongation. In addition, any subject who is expected to require a QT prolonging medication while on trial should not be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD), e.g., angina Canadian class II-IV; in any patient in whom there is doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXAn ECG recorded at screening showing evidence of cardiac ischemia (ST depression of >= 2 mm, measured from isoelectric line to the ST segment); if in any doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with up to two prior recurrences are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted pacemaker, defibrillator or deep brain stimulator, other implanted electronic devices in the brain or documented clinically significant arrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to conductive hydrogelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I ONLY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT B: biopsy proven light chain amyloidosis with organ involvement requiring therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreatedXx_NEWLINE_xXMonoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) or smoldering myeloma onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXActivating mutation in EGFRXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be potentially resectable or unresectableXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II only: patients with colorectal cancer with known microsatellite instability (MSI)-high disease who have previously been treated with immunotherapy or who have refused treatment with immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER BLOOD DONORSXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of bleeding problems; not taking aspirin or any medication that may affect erythrocyte biochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must either have a CA 19-9 value > the institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) on two separate checks at least 2 weeks apart OR have had an R1 resection margin OR N1 nodal disease regardless of CA 19-9 levelXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient of a myeloablative or non-myeloablative allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT):\r\n* Conditioning regimen to be prescribed at investigator’s discretion, but will be prospectively defined as myeloablative or non-myeloablativeXx_NEWLINE_xXFor non-myeloablative transplants, >= 50% cluster of differentiation (CD)3 donor chimerism at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade III/IV acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: must have adequate peripheral venous access for leukapheresis or must agree to placement of a temporary central venous catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients’ tumors will need to tested for the RAS mutation status; only those patients with wild-type or unmutated RAS oncogene are eligible to participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of severe reactions to fluorouracil (5-FU), irinotecan hydrochloride (irinotecan), or a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXV-Ki-ras2 Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) or neuroblastoma (N) RAS mutant tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is more than 6 months since the last dose of FOLFIRIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have required toxicity related dose reductions of greater than 50% of the original dose of infusional 5-FU and/or irinotecan during the administration of FOLFIRI/bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to panitumumab in any settingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior unanticipated severe reaction to fluoropyrimidine therapy, or known sensitivity to 5-fluorouracil, leucovorin (leucovorin calcium), irinotecan, or panitumumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) categories of low- or intermediate-1-risk diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have documented iron deficiency; all patients must have documented marrow iron stores; if marrow iron stain is not available, the transferrin saturation must be >= 20% or a serum ferritin >= 100 ng/100 mL or soluble transferring receptor < 5 mg/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with splenomegaly with a spleen size > 16 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must complete all required tests in section 4.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPost exploratory thoracotomy must be done > 3 weeks prior to study registration or patient did not have post exploratory thoracotomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastasis (M1) involvement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score =< 6 (neither architectural pattern =< 3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of sarcoidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXVitamin D3 supplementation at > 2,000 IU dailyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary hyperparathyroidism (serum calcium [Ca] > 10.5 mg/dL and parathyroid hormone (PTH) > 72 pg/ml)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLithium medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight over 410 pounds.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBreast size exceeding the technical limitation of daily set-up reproducibility. This may be center-specific and will be assessed at the discretion of the treating center.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCollagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a CPK level above normal or with an active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosis, or scleroderma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility of subjects receiving any medications or substances with the potential to affect the activity or pharmacokinetics of AZD1775 will be determined following review by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of either an FGFR3 mutation or FGFR3 over-expression within bladder tumor tissue. FGFR3 mutations in exons 7, 10, and 15 will be assessed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-single strand conformation polymorphism (PCR-SSCP) sequencing analysis utilizing the CertNDx® molecular grading assay performed in the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified Predictive Biosciences™ laboratories; FGFR3 over-expression will be assessed by standard immunohistochemistry (IHC) analysis performed within the Indiana University Simon Cancer Center Immunohistochemistry (IHC) Core LabXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically unfit to undergo cystectomy or electively choosing to forego cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received targeted prior VEGFR or FGFR-targeted agents (i.e. sunitinib, pazopanib, sorafenib, bevacizumab, axitinib, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART I: Naive to trastuzumab (Herceptin), pertuzumab (Perjeta) and lapatinib (Tykerb), ado-trastuzumab emtansine (Kadcyla) or other HER2-directed therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPART I: Negative serology for hepatitis B and C unless the result is consistent with prior vaccination or prior infection with full recoveryXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: Recurrent or progressive metastatic disease after standard of care HER2-targeted therapies i.e. trastuzumab (Herceptin), pertuzumab (Perjeta), lapatinib (Tykerb), ado-trastuzumab emtansine (TDM1) (Kadcyla) or other HER2-directed therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: ECOG 0-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: Baseline LVEF by 2D echocardiogram >= 55%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: ALC >= 500 cells/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: Negative serology for hepatitis B and C unless the result is consistent with prior vaccination or prior infection with full recoveryXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because AdHER DC vaccine may have the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with AdHER DC vaccine, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with AdHER DC vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with inadequate bilateral peripheral venous or central venous catheter access for the required apheresis to allow generation of the autologous AdHER2 DC vaccine productXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic neurologic disease compromising instrumental activities of daily living or requiring medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have serum antibodies directed to human T-cell lymphotropic virus (HTLV)-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measurable or evaluable disease; patients with > 10% of the peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) having the characteristic abnormal (i.e., cluster of differentiation [CD]3dim, CD4+ CD25+ expressing) fluorescence-activated cell sorting (FACS) profile for circulating ATL cells will be considered to have evaluable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic leukemic meningitis, bony or gastrointestinal (GI) tract involvement, serum calcium or lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 1.5 X the upper limit of normal will be excluded; however, patients that have both ATL and another HTLV-1 associated disease such as tropical spastic paraparesis (HTLV-I-associated myelopathy [HAM]/tropical spastic paraparesis [TSP]) will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXLeukemia participants aged 1 to 5 years with induction failure and favorable cytogenetics (i.e., ETV6-RUNX1 or hyperdiploidy defined as deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] index >= 1.16 or modal chromosome number >= 51)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to discontinue the use of prohibited medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have any active infection or concurrent illness obscuring toxicity or dangerously altering drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXQTcF (Fridericia Correction Formula) > 480 on 2 out of 3 EKG’s (if first EKG is =< 480, no need to repeat, if first electrocardiogram [EKG] is > 480 repeat twice for a total of 3 EKG’s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT B, GROUP 6: HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA: Patients with hepatocellular carcinoma do not need to have histologic confirmation of disease as long as they meet the radiologic criteria for diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) (evidence of arterial phase enhancement with corresponding venous or delayed phase wash out)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT B, GROUP 6: HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA: Patients must have advanced disease that is not amenable for resection or transplantation, and that is not treatable with liver directed modalities such as radiofrequency ablation or transarterial chemoembolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT B, GROUP 6: HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA: Patients are not required to have failed sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT B, GROUP 6: HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA: Any episode of hepatic encephalopathy within the previous 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMethylation CHFR gene promoter in archival tissue biopsy\r\n* A patient will be considered to have CHFR methylation if he/she has a methylation specific band on methylation-specific PCR (MSP) for the CHFR gene or lack of expression by IHCs; MSP primers are publicly reported and developed at Oncomethylome in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) laboratory; patients who test positive for MSI at any of the 5 loci will be considered MSI+ as per standard convention or who have absent expression of mutL homolog 1 (MLH1), mutS homolog 2 (MSH2), mutS homolog 6 (MSH6), or PMS2 postmeiotic segregation increased 2 (PMS2) by IHC\r\n* Results from another institution’s CLIA-certified MSI/IHC will be considered for eligibility\r\n* Patients with microsatellite instability and a family history supportive for a possible diagnosis of hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer will be referred to a genetics counselor for further evaluation and recommendationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients’ melanoma must be positive for both tyrosinase and human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-A2 per Loyola University Medical Center pathologic review from fine needle aspiration (FNA)/core/excisional biopsy of lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXSpecial classes of subjects such as fetuses, pregnant women, children, prisoners, institutionalized individuals, or others who are likely to be vulnerableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking steroids for disease control or pain managementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have undergone Tyrosinase immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic or unresectable measurable cancers that express mesothelin; as in other protocols conducted by Dr. Hassan in the National Cancer Institute (NCI), epithelial mesotheliomas and pancreatic cancers do not need to be assessed for mesothelin expression since all of these tumors have been shown to express mesothelin; other metastatic or unresectable cancers must be shown to expresses mesothelin as assessed by reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) or immunohistochemistry on tumor tissue; bi-phasic mesotheliomas must express mesothelin on greater than 50% of the cells in the epithelial component; diagnosis will be confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology, NCIXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject’s must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sarcomatoid mesothelioma as mesothelin is not expressed in this type of mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diabetic retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% by pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have body Temperature <= 38.0 degrees C.Xx_NEWLINE_xXunstable angina (anginal symptoms at rest) or new onset angina (i.e., began within the last 3 months).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn artificial implant that cannot be easily removed (e.g., heart valves, prosthetic hips or knees, or other devices), which could allow a nidus of infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with indwelling catheters (other than Portacath, Hickman or PICC lines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cardiac valvular disease (e.g. bicuspid aortic valve) or arterial aneurysm(s) that may allow a nidus of infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following cardiovascular conditions: patent foramen ovale, prior history of bacterial endocarditis, any existing thrombus (either arterial or venous) as well as known history of DVT, permanent pacemakers, AICDs, LVADs, or other intravascular cardiac device, known AV malformations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with baseline respiratory insufficiency severe enough to require supplemental oxygen.Xx_NEWLINE_xX5-FCXx_NEWLINE_xX5-FUXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient's medical history does not contraindicate treatment with at least one of the following antibiotics: ampicillin, clindamycin and erythromycin/clarithromycin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate contraception in both gendersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with known history of glucose 6 phosphate deficiency are excluded from the trial (possible issue with HCQ tolerance)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy are excluded from the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other intercurrent medical/psychological problem deemed exclusionary by the treating physician or investigators/principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes ? 1,500/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known G6PD deficiency, severe psoriasis, porphyria, macular degeneration or severe diabetic retinopathy are ineligible because of the potential for greater HCQ toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages T1-T2c N0 M0 as staged by the treating investigator. (AJCC Criteria 7th Ed.- appendix III).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological evaluation of prostate biopsy with assignment of a Gleason score to the biopsy material; Gleason score must be in the range of 2-7. > 6 cores are strongly recommended.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all required pre-entry tests listed in section 4.0 within the specified time frames.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor brachytherapy, an IPSS ? 21, or ? 17 if patient is on medications to improve urination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of proximal urethral stricture requiring dilatation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to give blood sampleXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to fill out a pill diary to ensure complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to undergo RPFNAXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to RPFNA including breast implant(s), bilateral radiation, anticoagulation (excluding those on 81 mg aspirin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypokalemia or hypomagnesemia if it cannot be correctedXx_NEWLINE_xXIs considered medically unfit for the study by the investigator as a result of the medical interview, physical exam, or screening investigationsXx_NEWLINE_xXLimited primary non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) (T1aN0M0, T1bN0M0, T2aN0M0, T2bN0M0, or T3N0M0) or metastatic lung tumors with no evidence of uncontrolled extrathoracic metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXUp to 4 lesions may be included; for a single lesion the sum of three orthogonal diameters can be no more than 20 cm; for multiple lesions, no lesion can have a sum of orthogonal diameters greater than 15 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth peripheral and central tumors are accepted for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women and members of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of uncontrolled extrathoracic metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORTS ONLYXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received recombinant (r)IL-12Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll conditions associated with significant necrosis of nontumor-bearing tissues: esophageal or gastroduodenal ulcers < 6 months prior to enrollment, organ infarction < 6 months prior to enrollment, or active ischemic bowel diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCD19 and/or CD22 must be expressed on at least 50% of the lymphoblastsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) more than grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHuman anti-mouse antibody (HAMA) levels of > 100 ug/ml or human ricin antibodies (HARA) > 100 ug/ml HARA after cycle 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to have an Ommaya reservoir placed and a candidate for an Ommaya reservoir placementXx_NEWLINE_xXCannot be on systemic agents (chemotherapy) that have central nervous system (CNS) penetration (temozolomide, carmustine [BCNU], lomustine [CCNU], etoposide, Xeloda, carboplatin, Navelbine, bevacizumab, CPT-11 and topotecan; note: please check with study principal investigator [PI] [Dr. Raizer] to clarify other agents not listed) unless they develop or have progressive or persistent leptomeningeal metastases while on these agent(s) and have controlled systemic disease\r\n* NOTE: may continue on intravenous (IV) trastuzumab, pertuzumab, TDM-1, lapatinib or hormonal agents if controlling systemic disease and developed LM while on therapy \r\n* NOTE: patients requiring systemic agents (such as those listed above) are eligible but will not be able to start treatment until after the first assessment by imaging and cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent external beam radiation is not allowed with the exception of palliative radiotherapy to a localized region for pain control (i.e. vertebral disease, pelvis, etc) which IS allowed while on the study protocol \r\n* NOTE: patients may need a CSF flow study at the discretion of the treating principal investigator; if a spinal block is seen by CSF flow study or MRI, it will need local RT prior to treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors of all regions of the CNS, with appropriate histology are eligible for study; however patients with SEGA or tumors intrinsic to the optic nerve and involvement of the optic nerve that cannot be biopsied/resected are eligible without histological confirmationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXNo exercise intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry >= 94% if there is clinical indication for determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic (stage IV) gastric, gastroesophageal, pancreatic, hepatocellular carcinoma, cholangiocarcinoma, gallbladder, colorectal, urothelial, breast, ovarian/endometrial carcinoma, or glioblastoma  with at least one lesion that is resectable for TIL generation with minimal morbidity preferentially using minimal invasive laparoscopic or thoracoscopic surgery for removal of superficial tumor deposit, plus one other lesion that can be measured by Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors (RECIST) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of advanced RCC associated with HLRCC (cohort 1) or sporadic/non-HLRCC papillary RCC (cohort 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant therapy with potent inhibitors of CYP450 3A4 (e.g. ketoconazole, verapamil etc) or with potent CYP450 1A2 inhibitors (fluoroquinolone antibiotics including ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, and norfloxacin; ticlopidine, cimetidine, amiodarone, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have relapsed after at least one prior purine analogue-containing regimen (fludarabine, cladribine or pentostatin), OR at least two non-purine analogue containing regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously untreated or relapsed/refractory disease will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking folic acid are eligible if the folic acid is discontinued prior to pyrimethamine administration and not taken for the duration of time enrolled on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurotropism is identified pathologically by the presence of melanoma cells around nerve sheaths (perineural invasion) or within nerves (intraneural invasion).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOccasionally, the tumour itself may form neuroid structures (termed 'neural transformation'; this is also regarded as neurotropism)Xx_NEWLINE_xX\normal\-looking nerves that appear to be \entrapped\ within the tumour should not be regarded as neurotropismXx_NEWLINE_xXTumour located above the clavicle and below the jaw or occiput (neck primary) or above the jaw/occiput (head primary)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable for follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXAlbinismXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed malignancy for which high-dose rate brachytherapy is appropriate as a component of their therapeutic regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient or tumor/anatomical factors that may prevent brachytherapy apparatus from being properly and safely inserted and positioned and from radiation therapy being administered per American Brachytherapy Society (ABS) guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of HCL by flow cytometry, reviewed by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI), including positivity for CD19, CD22, CD20, and CD11cXx_NEWLINE_xXBMBx consistent with HCL, reviewed by Laboratory of Pathology, NCI; BMBx may be negative in HCLv in patients with increasing peripheral blood HCLv cells and spleen sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic splenomegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have eligible blood counts within 4 weeks from enrollment will not be considered ineligible if subsequent blood counts prior to enrollment fluctuate and become ineligible up until the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior rituximab unless HCLv patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with documented history of no response to cladribine, and without 50% improvement in platelets, hemoglobin or granulocytes; this exclusion does not apply to HCLv; these patients are eligible regardless of prior response to cladribine (CDA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a nonmalignant disease treatable by allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known nonmalignant disease that is not clearly defined will need to be discussed with the protocol principal investigator (PI) (Dr. Lauri Burroughs) and potentially the nonmalignant board to determine if they are eligible for HCT on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with idiopathic aplastic anemia and Fanconi anemia; (patients with aplastic anemia associated with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria [PNH] or inherited marrow failure syndromes, except Fanconi anemia, will be allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of synthetic dysfunction or severe cirrhosis requiring deferral of conditioning as recommended by a gastroenterology specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an active infectious disease requiring deferral of conditioning; as recommended by an infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: HLA-matched sibling cord blood exclusions: Any cord blood units without full maternal testing and negative results for hepatitis A, B, C, HIV, and HTLV-1 viruses; any additional available virology results on the unit itself will be reviewed but are not mandated, complete or always available; cord blood units are presumed to be cytomegalovirus (CMV) negative regardless of serologic testing due to passive transmission of maternal CMV antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Unrelated Umbilical Cord Blood: Any cord blood units without full maternal testing and negative results for hepatitis A, B, C, HIV, and HTLV-1 viruses; any additional available virology results on the unit itself will be reviewed but are not mandated, complete or always available; cord blood units are presumed to be CMV negative regardless of serologic testing due to passive transmission of maternal CMV antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXLarge cell NHL > CR2/> second partial response (PR2):\r\n* Patients in CR2/PR2 with initial short remission (< 6 months) are eligible\r\n* These patients must be presented at PCC prior to enrollment, given potential competing eligibility on autotransplant protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent (prior 6 month) invasive fungal infection without interdisciplinary (ID) consult and approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 100K/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo presence of left bundle branch blocks (LBBB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo currently active diarrhea that may affect the ability to absorb ZD6474Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo other active cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biopsy proven newly diagnosed rhabdomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be treated with a standard accepted chemotherapy regimen for rhabdomyosarcoma (for example, according to Intergroup Rhabdomyosarcoma Study [IRS]-IV, IRS-V, or future IRS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with co-morbidities that would make the use of radiation too toxic to deliver safely, such as serious local injury or collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIf tissue diagnosis is not feasible for any reason, such as undue risk to the patient to acquire tissue diagnosis, the following will be accepted as confirmed AR-PCNSL diagnosis:\r\n* Positive brain fludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG)-positron emission tomography (PET) and\r\n* EBV detected in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) using polymerase chain reaction (PCR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent symptom of keratitis or retinopathy at >= grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPerformed within 10 business days of treatment initiation with the exception of beta- HCG (72 hours), if applicable: Albumin > 2.5 mg/dL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healing wounds on any part of the body.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric disorders or other conditions rendering the subject incapable of complying with the requirements of the protocols.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions: patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations. Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA). Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, flucinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, aclometasone dipropionate 0.05%). No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic nodal disease (i.e., scrotal, penile, or leg edema)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas received any of the following in the 4 weeks prior to randomization: 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors, herbal medications, natural hormonally active foods (e.g., phytoestrogens) or other food supplements known to alter PSA in humansXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT WITH SJCAR19: Available SJCAR19 product with >= 15% expression of the CD19-chimeric antigen receptor (CAR), and killing of CD19+ targets >= 20% in an in vitro cytotoxicity assayXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic stages T2-T3b, N0-Nx-N1, M0-1 as staged by the pathology report (American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] criteria 8th edition [Ed.])Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more high risk features including: seminal vesicle invasion, extracapsular extension, positive margins, or a PSA post surgery between 0.2 and < 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all required pre-entry tests within the specified time framesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of proximal urethral stricture requiring dilatationXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients from outside of the United States may participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) =< 1 x ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine kinase (CPK) =< 1.5 x ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRe-enrollment of a subject that has discontinued the study as a pre-treatment screen failure (i.e. a consented patient who did not receive study drugs) is permitted. If re-enrolled, the subject must be re-consented. Only the screening procedures performed outside of protocol-specified timing must be repeated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled asthma (defined as having 3 or more of the following features of partially controlled asthma within 28 days prior to starting study treatment: Daytime symptoms more than twice per week, any limitation of activities, any nocturnal symptoms/awaking, need for reliever/rescue inhaler more than twice per week, or known lung function [peak expiratory flow (PEF) or forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)] without administration of a bronchodilator that is < 80% predicted or personal best [if known]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarcerated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown risk factors for ocular toxicity, consisting of any of the following:\r\n* presence of serous retinopathy within 6 months of protocol enrollment\r\n* presence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) within 6 months of protocol enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated symptomatic hydrocephalus determined by treating physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of intra-tumoral hemorrhage > 5 mm maximal diameter. These subjects should be discussed with the study chair.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements; however, they must still undergo pregnancy testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with carcinomatosis meningitis or a history of ocular/uveal melanoma are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or patients who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that potentially hamper compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule; those conditions should be discussed with the patient before registration in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown prior development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior history of pulmonary toxicity due to medications (Ex: history of carmustine [BCNU] toxicity).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown contraindication for topotecan or temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received prior taxanes, including weekly taxanes are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a known history of uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or chronic corneal disorder, including but not limited to the following: Sjogren’s syndrome, Fuchs corneal dystrophy (requiring treatment), history of corneal transplantation, active herpetic keratitis, and also active ocular conditions requiring on-going treatment/monitoring such as wet age-related macular degeneration requiring intravitreal injections, active diabetic retinopathy with macular edema, presence of papilledema, acquired monocular vision, and any preexisting active conjunctival diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired used of folate-containing supplements (e.g. folate deficiency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLow risk T1 tumors that fulfill all of the following - size < 4 cm, lack of lymphovascular invasion and well differentiated histology, are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk T3 tumors that fulfill any of the following – circumferential tumor, extension into mesorectal fascia > 5 mm, prediction of positive circumferential resection margin, are also excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate hematologic parameters unless clearly due to the disease under studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnicities are eligible and no upper limit of age is specifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on baseline ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic gastrointestinal epithelial cancer with at least one lesion that is resectable for TIL generation, plus one other lesion that can be measured.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood sample submitted for additional testing within 7 days of TIL harvest per national blood banking standards (e.g., anti-human T-cell lymphotropic [HTLV]-I/II virus, anti-T. cruzi, West Nile virus nucleic acid testing [NAT], anti-cytomegalovirus [CMV], rapid plasma reagin [RPR]), for purposes of proper handling and storage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorney.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled on protocol 03-C-0277 (Cell Harvest and Preparation for Surgery Branch Adoptive Cell Therapy Protocols).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressive disease at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patients are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been treated with prior secondary hormonal manipulations with proposed investigational rationale for having efficacy against AR-V7 splice variants. This includes but is not limited to EPI-002 and AZD5312. (Note: patients previously treated with abiraterone, orteronel [TAK-700], apalutamide [ARN-509], galeterone, or VT-464 will be eligible for this study. Patients who have received prior chemotherapy will also be eligible for this study).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of any herbal products that may lower PSA levels (e.g. saw palmetto).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBM with increased fibrosis (reticulin stain > 1/3).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSeropositivity for HTLV-1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with baseline weight =< 40 kg (88 pounds [lbs]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort D: unresectable or metastatic urothelial carcinoma (urethra, bladder, ureters, or renal pelvis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 Cohort: ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXExperienced an immune-related adverse event (irAE) that led to permanent discontinuation of prior immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAn actual body weight > 40kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a target lesion/s deemed suitable by the treating physicians for stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) with the intent of palliation or prevention of symptoms; this lesion must be: a) 1-3 non overlapping sites in the H&N region OR  b) metastatic lesions outside the head and neck (H&N) region in the lung or bone (a minimum of 1 and a maximum 5 lesions will be irradiated), provided there is no significant overlap between the lesions; patients should have RECIST 1.1 criteria measurable disease in addition to the lesion/s treated with SBRT; if the site/s of SBRT were previously radiated to > 50Gy, there should be > 6 month time interval between the last dose of radiation and the start of SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXHave the ability to tolerate required SBRT-related procedures (eg: lie flat and hold position for treatment) as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a body weight ? 40kg at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a target lesion/s for SBRT that demonstrate any of the following:\r\n* located within 2 cm of the proximal bronchial tree\r\n* > 5 cm (> 50 cc) in greatest dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a target lesion/s in a region that previously received high dose radiation therapy (RT) (>50 Gy) demonstrating any of the following: \r\n* carotid artery encasement (> 180 degrees) \r\n* unprotected carotid artery (i.e. skin is directly over the carotid without intervening soft tissue, especially after prior neck dissection without a vascularized free flap) (a&b due to risk of carotid blow out)\r\n* skin infiltration by tumor (due to risk of fistula)\r\n* located in the larynx/hypopharynx primaries (due airway threat) treated with high dose radiation therapy (>50Gy) within 6 months or less of trial enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing thyroid abnormality with thyroid function that cannot be maintained in the normal range with medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)+ ALL or blast crisis of CML must be refractory (not intolerant) to at least 2 second/third generation ABL kinase inhibitors (TKI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS who transform to AML while on hypomethylator agents or patients with AML who progress on hypomethylator agents could be considered for arm A of this trial if \r\n* They choose not to be treated on or are ineligible for our competing trial of sEPHB4-HSA + hypomethylator (9L-16-6) \r\n* They are appropriate for high dose cytarabine treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPeripheral blood blast count =< 30,000 at time of eligibility assessment (within 7 days of start of therapy); blast counts that increase beyond 30,000 after a patient is deemed eligible will not disqualify the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease or other demyelinating diseases are excluded from the liposomal vincristine containing armXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically demonstrated BCG-unresponsive, high-risk non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer (NMIBC) defined as CIS with or without papillary component, any T1, or Ta high-grade lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPredominant histologic component (> 50%) must be urothelial (transitional cell) carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUrothelial cancer (UC) in the upper genitourinary tract (kidneys, renal collecting systems, ureters) within 24 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate-2 or high-risk disease per IPSSXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed diagnosis of IDH2-mutant acute myeloid leukemia (AML), myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)\r\n* IDH2 mutations will include any IDH2 R140 or R172 alterations\r\n* Eligibility and enrollment will be based on local IDH2 mutational testing performed at any center. The presence of an IDH2 mutation at the time of initial diagnosis or any other time thereafter is necessary and sufficient. The presence of an IDH2 mutation at time of enrollment is not necessary for the purposes of eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant receipt of the following sensitive CYP substrate medications that have a narrow therapeutic range (unless the participant can be transferred to other medications at least 5 half-lives prior to the start of study treatment): paclitaxel and docetaxel (CYP2C8), phenytoin (CYP2C9), S-mephenytoin (CYP2C19), thioridazine (CYP2D6), theophylline, and tizanidine (CYP1A2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94%Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of acute pulmonary infiltrates on chest radiographXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate peripheral nervous system (PNS) function defined as:\r\n* PNS toxicity < grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtramedullary disease status: patients with isolated CNS disease or isolated testicular disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received palbociclib or other CDK4/6 inhibitors are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCumulative anthracyclines must not exceed 450 mg/m^2 doxorubicin equivalents following completion of treatment on protocol; therefore for patients receiving one course on protocol cumulative anthracyclines must be less than or equal to 400 mg/m^2 doxorubicin equivalents at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXARM I: Patients must have histologically proven unmethylated MGMT supratentorial high-grade glioma (anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, anaplastic mixed astro oligodendroglioma or glioblastoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXARM II: Patients must have histologically proven supratentorial methylated MGMT high-grade glioma (anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, anaplastic mixed astro oligodendroglioma or glioblastoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are pregnant or breast-feeding. The anti-proliferative activity of this experimental drug and temozolomide may be harmful to the developing fetus or nursing infantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has previously taken ruxolitinib or is allergic to components of the study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic mCSPC patients with > 75% PSA decline after 12 weeks of run in period with ADT, abiraterone plus prednisoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatments with TAK-700/Orteronel, abiraterone, ketoconazole, or enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with delayed healing of wounds, ulcers, and/or bone fracturesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has the following laboratory values at Screening:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has 1 first-degree relative (FDR; defined as parents, offspring or siblings) with T1D AND A1C value > 6.5% orXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has 2+FDR with T1DXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known or suspected history of retinitis pigmentosa or known or suspected familial history of retinitis pigmentosa.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject had surgery (excluding line insertions) within 1 month of the first dose of study drug or has lingering wound complications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) to the lesions which will be treated on protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNY-ESO-1 positive by immunohistochemistry (IHC) utilizing commercially available NY-ESO-1 antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to accept at least three leukapheresis proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to undergo three research PET scansXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B or C seropositivity with evidence of ongoing liver damage, which would increase the likelihood of hepatic toxicities from the chemotherapy conditioning regimen and supportive treatments; if there is a positive result in the infectious disease testing that was not previously known, the patient will be referred to their primary physician and/or infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection or cytomegalovirus (CMV) based on symptoms with positive swab culture and/or positive Immunoglobulin M (IgM) screening, which would complicate the post-conditioning periodXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have relapsed or refractory disease after treatments including three therapies: proteasome inhibitors, immunomodulatory imide drugs (IMiDs), and anti-CD38 antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than UCa within 3 years prior to Day 0, with the exception of those with negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcome;Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 1 hospital admission for infection in prior 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of acute or chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) unless limited to skin involvement and managed with topical steroid therapy aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of < 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known amyloidosis (AL) subtype amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= 12 years and < 55 years are also included if they are not candidates for myeloablative conditioning regimens due to comorbiditiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal products that may decrease PSA levels (e.g. saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTARGET POPULATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXParkinson’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPHYSICAL AND LABORATORY TEST FINDINGSXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin < 8 g/dL. Qualifying laboratory value must occur at most recent measurement before enrollment and must be no more than 14 days before enrollment. No transfusions are allowed within 72 hours before qualifying laboratory valueXx_NEWLINE_xXKyphoplasty or vertebroplasty within 1 week of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), intravenous (IV) contrast, aminoglycosides, or other potentially nephrotoxic drugs within 2 weeks of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXALLERGIES AND ADVERSE DRUG REACTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of cervical esophageal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, or sociological condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic malignancies other than lymphomas.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas biopsy-proven invasion of tracheobronchial tree or tracheo-esophageal fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXInoperable on the basis of co-existent medical problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to operate the NovoTTF-200A device independently or with caregiver aidXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with significant edema leading to risk of brain herniationXx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable electronic device in the brainXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted pacemaker, programmable shunts, defibrillator, deep brain stimulator, other implanted electronic devices in the brain, or documented clinically significant arrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of increased intracranial pressure (midline shift > 5mm, clinically significant papilledema, vomiting and nausea, or reduced level of consciousness)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergies to medical adhesives or hydrogelXx_NEWLINE_xXInsufficient recovery from all active toxicities of prior therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed, previously untreated B-lineage ALL, or having achieved complete remission (CR) with one course of induction chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with extramedullary disease only are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome (Ph)-positive ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on one systemic immunosuppressive agent for chronic GVHD with a plan to withdraw all systemic IST; hydrocortisone continued for treatment of adrenal insufficiency is not considered a systemic ISTXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to be evaluated at the transplant center or by local provider every 3 months for 12 months after randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement to be contacted by phone or e-mail for health status evaluation for up to 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXOne previously unirradiated lesion amenable to 8 Gy x 3 radiotherapy based on dosimetric organ tolerance AND another unirradiated measurable lesion (per irRECIST) outside of the radiation field.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunotherapy-naive.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressed on, be intolerant of, or refused sorafenib (for hepatocellular carcinoma [HCC]), second line treatment and beyond for cholangiocarcinoma or gemcitabine-based chemotherapy for biliary tract cancer.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight >= 30 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown fibrolamellar HCC, sarcomatoid HCC, or mixed cholangiocarcinoma and HCC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent enrollment in another study unless it is an observational (e.g. non-interventional) study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with acute or chronic skin disorders that will interfere with injection into the skin of the extremities or subsequent assessment of potential skin reactions will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal products that may decrease PSA levels (e.g. saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have, or be willing to have an acceptable central catheter. (Port a cath, peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC] line, or central venous catheter)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-secretory MM or known amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXInfratentorial disease (defined as glioblastoma [GBM] derived from cerebellum or brainstem)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA skull defect (such as, missing bone with no replacement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hypersensitivity to conductive hydrogels like the gel used on electrocardiogram (ECG) stickers or transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) electrodesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious liver-directed treatments including chemoembolization, radiosphere, hepatic arterial perfusion, or drug-eluting beadsXx_NEWLINE_xXOcclusion of the main portal vein, or inadequate collateral flow around an occluded portal vein as determined by angiographyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any other medical complication that implies survival of less than six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary obstruction, biliary stent or prior biliary surgery except cholecystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant arteriovenous shunt identified on angiography of the hepatic arteryXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or previous known pulmonary fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologic evidence of relapsed or refractory B-cell ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily smoker using 10 or more cigarettes per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a smoking cessation medication (e.g. nicotine replacement, varenicline, bupropion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of tobacco product other than cigarettes (e.g. e-cigarettes, smokeless tobacco)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnswer > 0 on suicidality question of Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) Depression ScaleXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of illicit drugs in the last month (marijuana, cocaine, opiates, benzodiazepines, methamphetamine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere symptomatic depression and or anxiety (study physician discretion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic medical illness including diabetes with the use of insulin, hemoglobin A1c > 7 (study physician discretion), heart disease diagnosed by angiogram, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) diagnosed by pulmonary function testing and requiring an oxygen supplyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal finding on physical exam (study physician discretion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpired breath carbon monoxide < 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal electrocardiogram (EKG) (study physician discretion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal complete blood count, comprehensive metabolic panel, urine, hemoglobin (Hgb) A1c (study physician discretion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive urine toxicology-5 screen (methamphetamine, cocaine, opiates, benzodiazepines, tetrahydrocannabinol [THC])Xx_NEWLINE_xXIDH1-R132 mutated disease status as assessed by local laboratory. 2HG-producing IDH1 variants outside of R132 (i.e. R100) may be eligible after discussion with the principal investigator (PI).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received either AG120 or venetoclax.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTolerate a 15 g ascorbate infusion (screening dose)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with metastatic bone sarcomas who have failed all available therapies that have demonstrated clinical benefit. Available therapies include but not limited to methotrexate, adriamycin and cisplatin for osteosarcoma and vincristine, adriamycin and cytoxan, ifosfamide, etoposide (VAC/IE) for Ewing’s sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to gemcitabine will only be allowed if there is no residual toxicity from previous treatments. Toxicity must be graded as 0 or 1 prior to studyXx_NEWLINE_xXG6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXActively receiving insulin or requiring fingerstick glucose monitoring at time of ascorbate infusion (unless an exception is granted by the investigational new drug [IND] sponsor, medical monitor, and the principal investigator [PI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamide. High dose ascorbic acid may affect urine acidification and, as a result, may affect clearance rates of these drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of more than one symptomatic oxalate stoneXx_NEWLINE_xXRichter's transformation confirmed by biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrocardiogram (EKG) showing ischemic changes or abnormal rhythm and/or an echocardiogram or MUGA scan showing abnormal wall motion or ejection fraction < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other active malignancies are ineligible for this study, other than localized malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a malabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXOutpatients with MPE undergoing IPC placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing pleurodesis for benign disease (e.g., spontaneous pneumothorax)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive loculations or hydropneumothorax or other contraindication to pleurodesisXx_NEWLINE_xXChylous effusions associated with malignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant proteinuria at baseline (> 500 mg/ 24 h, or > 2+ on spot analysis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown human papillomavirus (HPV) statusXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving monoamine oxidase (MAO)-inhibitors (MAOI) or drug which has significant MAOI activity (meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) within the 21 days before screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any UGT1A9 inhibitor from screening through follow-up period, including the following: diclofenac, imipramine, ketoconazole, mefenamic acid, and probenecidXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - ENROLLMENT: Her-2 3+ or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) ratio of 2.2 or higher, background gene expression with normal copy numberXx_NEWLINE_xXAny conditioning regimen (non-myeloablative, myeloablative, or reduced intensity) is acceptable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of serotherapy to prevent GVHD (e.g., antithymocyte globulin) prior to day 3 post-HCT is permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who develop acute GVHD prior to start of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients at very high risk for relapse post HCT as defined by very high disease risk index.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring ventilator support or oxygen supplementation exceeding 40% fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) within 14 days of enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to alpha-1-antitrypsin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly controlled depressive symptoms, defined as a baseline score of 10 or higher on the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ)-9 screening toolXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any of the following medications: boceprevir, carbamazepine, ciprofloxacin, cobicistat, conivaptan, enzalutamide, fluvoxamine, itraconazole, ketoconazole, mitotane, phenytoin, posaconazole, rifampin, ritonavir, St. John’s Wort, telaprevir, voriconazole, or zafirlukastXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) including efavirenz, rilpivirine, etravirine, delavirdine, nevirapine, and lersivirineXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate deemed resectable by surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed to have unresectable disease by surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXM1c disease (solid organ metastasis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to undergo mandatory whole blood sample collections at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent systemic therapy (other than a gonadotrophin releasing hormone [GnRH] agonist/antagonist) for CRPC including:\r\n* CYP-17 inhibitors (e.g. ketoconazole, abiraterone)\r\n* Antiandrogens (e.g. bicalutamide, nilutamide)\r\n* Second generation antiandrogens (e.g. enzalutamide, ARN-509, Galeterone)\r\n* Immunotherapy (e.g. sipuleucel-T, ipilimumab)\r\n* Chemotherapy (e.g. docetaxel, cabazitaxel)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g. radium-223, strontium-89, samarium-153, etc.) within the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has previously been enrolled in the study or received ESK981Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertriglyceridemia or hypercholesterolemia and currently on medication(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of statins or fibrates for any time during the 3 months prior to the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine kinase measurement (CPK) 250 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXMitral and/or tricuspid valvopathy or valvular prosthesis; angina; severe arterial hypertension; chronic and/or paroxysmal atrial fibrillation; previous myocardial infarctionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive disease meeting at least 1 of the IWCLL 2008 criteria for requiring treatment:\r\n* A minimum of any one of the following constitutional symptoms:\r\n** Unintentional weight loss >10% within the previous 6 months prior to screening\r\n** Extreme fatigue (unable to work or perform usual activities)\r\n** Fevers of greater than 100.5 Fahrenheit for ? 2 weeks without evidence of infection\r\n** Night sweats without evidence of infection\r\n* Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of anemia or thrombocytopenia\r\n* Massive (i.e., > 6 cm below the left costal margin), progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly\r\n* Massive nodes or clusters (i.e., > 10 cm in longest diameter) or progressive lymphadenopathy\r\n* Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of > 50% over a 2-month period, or an anticipated doubling time of less than 6 months\r\n* Autoimmune anemia or thrombocytopenia that is poorly responsive to corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled immune hemolysis or thrombocytopenia (positive direct antiglobulin test in absence of hemolysis or history of immune-mediated cytopenias are not exclusions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically confirmed, well-­differentiated metastatic NETsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving stable-­dose somatostatin analog (long-­acting release [LAR], depot) for > 3 months before enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to lie within the PET scanner for at least 70 minutes while undergoing scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible and consent signed for imaging with AMT PET under protocol 2011-­053Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients experiencing more than 12 watery bowel movements per day associated with volume contraction, dehydration, or hypotension, or showing evidence of enteric infection are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements. However WOCBP subjects must still undergo pregnancy testing as described in these sections.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than two recurrences of GBM.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis, hypertensive encephalopathy, reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy syndrome (RPLS).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pulmonary hemorrhage/hemoptysis >= grade 2 (defined as >= 2.5 mL bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent treatment with non-permitted drugs including herbal remedies with immunostimulating properties (for example, mistletoe extract) or known to potentially interfere with major organ function (for example, hypericin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known contrast allergies requiring pre-medication with steroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum uric acid =< 8 mg/dL (with or without medication control)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects aged 16-70 may be enrolled into the osteosarcoma cohort.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects 40 years of age and older must also have a negative stress cardiac test (i.e. EKG stress test, stress thallium, dobutamine echocardiogram or other stress test that will rule out cardiac ischemia). Stress test may be required of subjects less than 40 years of age if warranted by family history or risk factors by the treating investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of prior adoptive cell therapies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSomatic alteration in one of the following DDR genes as determined by genomic sequencing performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) laboratory. Somatic alterations will include nonsense, frameshift, splice-site or missense mutations or homozygous deletions. Subjects with alterations in DDR genes not included in the list below will be considered on a case by case basis after discussion with the Principal Investigator(s). Subjects with germline alterations in DDR genes will be considered on a case by case basis and will be reviewed by the principal investigator(s). At least 6 subjects will have BRCA or ATM alterations.\r\n* Nucleotide excision repair: ERCC2, ERCC3, ERCC4, ERCC5, ERCC6\r\n* Homologous recombination: BRCA1, BRCA2, RAD50, RAD51, RAD51B, RAD51C, RAD52, RAD54L, NBN, MRE11A, RAD51D, CTIP\r\n* DNA Sensor: ATM, ATR, MDC1, ATRX, CHEK1, CHEK2\r\n* Fanconi anemia pathway: PALB2, BRIP1, FANCA, FANCB, FANCC, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCF, FANCG, BLM\r\n* Base excision repair: XRCC2, XRCC3, XRCC4, XRCC5, XRCC6\r\n* Other: MUTYH, RECQL4, POLQ, POLE, WRNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a B cell ALL (inclusive of chronic myeloid leukemia [CML] with ALL transformation) or lymphoma and must have relapsed or refractory disease after at least one standard chemotherapy regimen and one salvage regimen; in view of the principal investigator (PI) and the primary oncologist, there must be no available alternative curative therapies and subjects must be either ineligible for allogeneic stem cell transplant (SCT), have refused SCT, recurred after SCT, or have disease activity that prohibits SCT at the time of enrollment; patients who have undergone autologous SCT will be eligible, and patients that have undergone allogeneic SCT will be eligible if, in addition to meeting other eligibility criteria, they have no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD) and have been without immunosuppressive agents for at least 30 days; patients with Philadelphia chromosome + ALL must have failed prior tyrosine kinase inhibitor; patients must have measurable or evaluable disease at the time of enrollment, which may include any evidence of disease including minimal residual disease detected by flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXCD19 expression must be detected on greater than 15% of the malignant cells by immunohistochemistry or greater than 90% by flow cytometry; the choice of whether to use flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry will be determined by what is the most easily available tissue sample in each patient; in general, immunohistochemistry will be used for lymph node biopsies, flow cytometry will be used for peripheral blood and bone marrow samples; CD22+ B cell malignancy is required and CD22 expression levels will be documented when available, but a specific level of expression is not an eligibility requirement; it may be documented as positive or negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperleukocytosis (? 50,000 blasts/uL) or rapidly progressive disease that in the estimation of the investigator and sponsor would compromise ability to complete study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent treatment with medications that are well known to prolong the Q-wave/T-wave (QT) intervalXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires therapy for symptomatic CLL in the opinion of the treating physician as defined by:\r\n* Evidence of marrow failure as manifested by the development or worsening of anemia or thrombocytopenia (not attributable to autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia)\r\n* Massive (>= 6 cm below the costal margin), progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly\r\n* Massive nodes (>= 10 cm) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy\r\n* Constitutional symptoms, which include any of the following:\r\n** Unintentional weight loss of 10% or more within 6 months\r\n** Significant fatigue limiting activity\r\n** Fevers >= 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit (F) for 2 weeks or more without evidence of infection\r\n** Night sweats > 1 month without evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive Richter’s transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must fulfill one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have experienced clinical benefit from EGFR TKI, according to the Jackman criteria followed by systemic objective progression while on continuous treatment with EGFR TKIXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion that is technically feasible to irradiation and accessible for direct intratumoral injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a histological diagnosis of lymphomas and/or leukemiasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a target lesion located in a previously irradiated fieldXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of previous enrollment in Studies NCT02993523 or NCT03069352.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with B-lineage ALL in hematologic complete remission (CR) with molecular failure (ie, had never achieved an MRD-negativity status before inotuzumab ozogamicin) or had a molecular relapse (i.e., became MRD positive after having been MRD negative) starting at any time point after 3 months of frontline therapy. Molecular disease or minimal residual disease is defined by a value of at least of 10^-4 by multicolor flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia-positive (Ph+) ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight over 40 kilograms (kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort #2: histologic confirmation of relapsed or relapsed/refractory MCL confirmed by presence of cyclin D1 by immunohistochemistry (IHC) or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive GVHD or on immunosuppressive medication for GVHD (applies to cohort #2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf clinical or histologic diagnosis of cirrhosis and/or clinical or radiographic evidence esophageal or gastric varices, must have had esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) surveillance and adequate endoscopic therapy according to institutional standardsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown fibrolamellar or mixed HCC-cholangiocarcinoma histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for diuretics, paracentesis, or other medications or procedures to control ascites or hepatic encephalopathy within 6 months before enrollment\r\n* Diuretics or medications such as lactulose used for other indications (e.g. edema, constipation) are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXImperative indication for nephron sparing surgery \r\n* Baseline chronic kidney disease (CKD) (stage 3, glomerular filtration rate [GFR]  < 60 ml/min/1.73m^2), or anatomically or functional solitary kidney (defined by renal scintigraphy of contralateral renal unit with < 15% function) or bilateral synchronous disease); and \r\n* Radius Exophytic/endophytic properties, Nearness of the tumor to the collecting system or sinus, Anterior/posterior, and Location relative to polar lines (RENAL) score >= 10 or proximity to renal hilum (defined as  < 2 mm away from at least 2 renal hilar vessels-the main artery/vein or first order branches); and\r\n* Radical nephrectomy would lead to severe CKD (stage 4, GFR < 45 ml/min/1.73m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXElective indication for nephron sparing surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-clear cell histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXSimple or intermediate renal mass on imaging (R.E.N.A.L score =< 9)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHTN with need for 2 or more anti-hypertensives to control it at baseline (because there isn’t room to\tadd more antihypertensives if axitinib causes increased blood pressure [BP])Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline abnormal thyroid function testsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with arterial thrombotic events in the prior 12 months (axitinib has never been studied in this population)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have had venous thrombotic events in the prior 6 months (axitinib has never been studied in this population)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCapable of understanding and complying with protocol requirements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLDH < 2 times ULN for each institution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires continuous anti-coagulation or anti-platelet therapy that cannot be safely interrupted to allow for IT injection and/or history of coagulopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving systemic corticosteroids greater than 2-weeks in duration within 6 months of study entry must have evidence of adequate adrenal function based upon morning plasma cortisol concentration or ACTH (cosyntropin) stimulation testXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B: Patients must have progressed during treatment with enzalutamide or second-generation AR-blocking therapies. Patients progressing on enzalutamide immediately prior to enrolling in this study must be on stable doses of enzalutamide 160 mg once daily (QD). These patients will continue enzalutamide without interruption during the screening period (no wash-out period required).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Escalation Phase and Expansion Phases will exclude patients for the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Escalation Phase and Expansion Phase Cohort A:Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpansion Phase Cohort B: Require urgent disease response or stabilizationXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication or precaution for enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have an ambulatory oxygen saturation of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior pneumonectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXTaken drugs known to interact with Rapamune such as cyclosporine, diltiazem, erythromycin, ketoconazole (and other antifungals), nicardipine (and other calcium channel blockers), rifampin, verapamil within 14 days prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B2\r\n* Rising PSA after RP with:\r\n** Extrapelvic metastases as documented by choline, fluciclovine F18 (FACBC) or prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA) PET which are:\r\n*** Amenable to treatment with a maximum of 3 radiation isocenters*\r\nAnd/Or\r\n*** Retroperitoneal nodes up to the level of the renal hilum with/without pelvic nodal metastasis\r\n** No evidence of local recurrence on MRI scan of the prostate bed\r\n** Prior salvage radiotherapy is permitted\r\n*Multiple lesions within one isocenter may be permitted upon review by the sponsor’s radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose of abiraterone acetate is taken. (Note: apalutamide does not have to be taken on an empty stomach)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor cohorts B1 and B2 only, biopsy confirmation of metastases (if safe and feasible at treating center)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 2 months of prior ADT with gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) antagonist/agonist at time of consent. Bicalutamide given for =< 2 months at the time of registration as flare prevention is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to ketoconazole (systemic), abiraterone acetate, enzalutamide or other agents targeting the androgen receptor (AR) signaling pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort A and C only: Intolerance or serious adverse immune related adverse events (irAEs) that were symptomatic or required or continues to require ongoing immunosuppression to previous immune checkpoint therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of clinically relevant CNS pathology such as epilepsy, seizure disorders, paresis, aphasia, uncontrolled cerebrovascular disease, severe brain injuries, dementia and Parkinson’s disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDIAGNOSIS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther acute leukemias: leukemias of ambiguous lineage or of other types e.g. blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm with less than 5% blasts. Persistent/relapsed disease with cytogenetic, flow cytometric or molecular aberrations in >= 5% of cells are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)/myeloproliferative disorders (MPD) other than myelofibrosis: \r\n* International prognostic scoring system (IPSS) risk score of INT-2 or high risk at the time of diagnosis.\r\n* Any IPSS risk category if life-threatening cytopenia(s) exists.\r\n* Any IPSS risk category with karyotype or genomic changes that indicate high risk for progression to acute myelogenous leukemia.\r\n* MDS/ myeloproliferative disorder overlap syndromes without myelofibrosis.\r\n* MDS/MPD patients must have less than 10% bone marrow myeloblasts and ANC > 0.2 (growth factor supported if necessary) at transplant work-up.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin < 1.5 mg/dL (unless benign congenital hyperbilirubinemia).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior checkpoint inhibitors/blockade in the last 12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSeropositivity for human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1).Xx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR mutations as performed on a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory demonstrating EGFR exon 18 G719X, exon 20 S768I, or exon 21 L861Q. Patients with compound (also referred to as multiple mutations) will be eligible provided the non-small cell lung cancer [NSCLC] demonstrates one of these mutations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDetection of concurrent EGFR mutation with exon 20 T790M, exon 19 deletion, exon 21 L858R mutation or exon 20 insertion. Patients with compound (also referred to as multiple mutations) will be excluded if the molecular testing includes one of these mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade >= 2 blurred vision, conjunctivitis, corneal ulcer, dry eye, or keratitisXx_NEWLINE_xXMen who intend to father children during the study or within 4 months afterward are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSTRATUM A: Participant must be able to swallow medication; it is acceptable to administer medication via a gastrostomy tube (g-tube) if participant has a g-tube; it is not acceptable to place a g-tube for the purpose of delivering study medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXSTRATUM B: Must meet the following weight and body surface area (BSA) restrictions:\r\n* For enrollment on dose level 0A, must have a weight  >= 16kg and < 32kg\r\n* For enrollment on dose level 0B must have a weight >= 32kg and BSA >= 0.55m^2\r\n* For enrollment on dose level 1, must have a weight >= 16kg and BSA >= 0.55m^2\r\n* For enrollment on dose level 2, must have a weight >= 16kg and BSA >= 0.63m^2\r\n* For enrollment on dose levels 3 or 4A, must have a weight >= 16kg \r\n* For enrollment on dose levels 4B or 5, must have a weight >= 20kg and =< 106kgXx_NEWLINE_xXSTRATUM B: Participant must be able to swallow medication; it is acceptable to administer medication via a g-tube if participant has a g-tube; it is not acceptable to place a g-tube for the purpose of delivering study medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXSTRATUM C: Participant must be able to swallow medication; it is acceptable to administer medication via a g-tube if participant has a g-tube; it is not acceptable to place a g-tube for the purpose of delivering study medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed myelodysplastic syndrome with positive TET2 mutations (we will test all MDS patients for TET2 mutations using next generation sequencing and only patients with TET2 mutations will be included in our study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of G6PD deficiency, hereditary spherocytosis or hemochromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hyponatremia, syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalemia, hyperkalemia, hypomagnesemia or hypermagnesemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of confirmed, corneal ulcerationXx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigators shall counsel WOCBP, and male participants who are sexually active with WOCBP, on the importance of pregnancy prevention and the implications of an unexpected pregnancy; investigators shall advise on the use of highly effective methods of contraception, which have a failure rate of < 1% when used consistently and correctlyXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) < 7.0%.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCarboplatin or paclitaxel exposure within past 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status 1, 2, or 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo chest surgery using either minimally invasive (VATS or robotic-assisted surgery) or open techniques (posterolateral, lateral, or anterior thoracotomy or requiring insertion of an inter-rib spreader/retractor) for a primary thoracic non-infectious indication under general anesthesia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior ipsilateral thoracotomy (the likely presence of adhesions will limit ability to perform a precise block guided by thoracoscopy). Note: previous VATS or robotic surgery is permissible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRedo ipsilateral thoracotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived bupivacaine or any other local anesthetic within 7 days of screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight < 50 kilograms (110 pounds) or a body mass index ? 35 kg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious participation in a liposome bupivacaine study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of, suspected, or known addiction to or abuse of illicit drug(s), prescription medicine(s), or alcohol within the past 2 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of coronary or vascular stent placed within the past 3 months (may be extended to 1 year if medically indicated per physician discretion).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a diagnosis of a tumor with evidence of genomic instability on Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified genomic testing, inclusive of mutations in POLE, POLD1 for arm 1 and in BRCA1 and BRCA2 for arm 2; in arm 2, enrollment of breast and ovarian histologies will be limited to a total of 10 patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors harboring non-hotspot POLE or POLD1 mutations that show clear evidence of microsatellite instability (MSI) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown microsatellite stable (MSS) status by either immunohistochemistry (IHC) or polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Known or evaluable BRAF and KRAS status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT I ONLY: Patients are candidates for enrollment in cohort 1 if they have an indication for ruxolitinib based on splenomegaly or symptoms and are either on ruxolitinib already or going to start therapy with ruxolitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT I ONLY: Patients that are on ruxolitinib may enroll in study as long as they are willing to remain on ruxolitinib during the study and have not lost response to ruxolitinib defined as an increase in > 5 cm in spleen size from nadir. There is no minimum or maximum time requirement for time on ruxolitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT I ONLY: Participants must have splenomegaly (defined by ultrasound or computed tomography [CT] scan of the abdomen) or symptoms (demonstrated by the presence of 1 symptom score > 5 or 2 symptom scores > 3) related to myelofibrosis as measured by the myeloproliferative neoplasm symptom assessment form MPN-SAF and platelets > 25/uL and hemoglobin > 7/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with vulvar cancer originating from differentiated vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia (d-VIN), as opposed to vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia of usual type, are excluded; vulvar squamous cell carcinoma originating from differentiated VIN (d-VIN) is HPV negative; however, rare cases of HPV positive d-VIN can occur; patients are not excluded if their tumor has tested positive for HPV or there is no documentation of prior VIN typeXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of primary or secondary myelofibrosis with transplant indication by Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS)-plus (> intermediate -1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= age 50 must have an comorbidity score (hematopoietic cell transplant-comorbidity index [HCT-CI]) =< 4 (Sorror). The principal investigator is the final arbiter for comorbidity;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance status >= 70% (Karnofsky); patients > 50 years should have adequate cognitive function; any concerns regarding cognitive function should be addressed by a geriatrician/neurologist;Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 5X UNL;Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of portal hypertension with varices, ascites, or hepatic encephalopathy;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNoncompliance - inability or unwillingness to comply with medical recommendations regarding therapy or follow-up, including smoking tobacco. Smoking cessation is a standard teaching practice prior to admission for all patients undergoing stem cell transplant. Any patient who refuses to stop smoking prior to transplant will not be eligible for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXResting baseline oxygen (O2) saturation by pulse oximetry of ? 92% at restXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to discontinue medications known to be associated with risk of Torsades de Pointes such as quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide, amiodarone, erythromycin, clarithromycin, chlorpromazine and haloperidolXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate coagulation profile.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing Grade >1 proliferative or nonproliferative retinopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patients with any hematological malignancies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic adenovirus viremia defined as no symptoms of adenovirus disease and EITHER two positive and quantifiable quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) tests taken one week apart or one single measurement with >= 1000 copies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with criteria of probable or definitive adenoviral diseases.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute graft versus host disease (GVHD) grade >= 2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have non-target lesion accessible for sequential biopsy (core needle biopsy or excision preferred, fine needle aspiration not eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of active ethanol abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are imprisoned or under legal guardianshipXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to undergo general, spinal or local anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or relapsed/refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown amyloidosis (MM patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed HNSCC from any primary site; basaloid, poorly differentiated, and undifferentiated carcinoma histologies will be accepted; nasopharyngeal carcinoma, World Health Organization (WHO) type I and II (keratinizing, non-Epstein-Barr virus [EBV] positive), will be included; paranasal sinus, lip and external auditory canal sites will be included; squamous cell carcinoma of unknown primary, clearly related to the head and neck, will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have prior exposure to an anti-PD1 or anti-PDL1 mAb, if eligible for immunotherapy in the judgment of the local investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior severe infusion reaction to cetuximab or a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant electrolyte imbalance prior to enrollment (note that patients may be supplemented to achieve acceptable electrolyte values):\r\n* Hypomagnesemia < 1.2 mg/dL or 0.5 mmol/L\r\n* Hypocalcemia < 8.0 mg/dL or 2.0 mmol/L\r\n* Hypokalemia < 3.0 mmol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Richter’s or prolymphocytic transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) or idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerologic status and/or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing reflecting active hepatitis B or C infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a contra-indication for using a CPAP device.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is uncooperative.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has reduced consciousness.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has sustained trauma or burns to the face.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has undergone any facial, esophageal, gastric or sinus surgery within the last 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients post hysterectomy and free from residual diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXStages of endometrial carcinoma other than describedXx_NEWLINE_xXA response of at least 4 on a 10 point scale (with 0 = not tired at all and 10 = extremely tired) to the question “how tired did you feel in the past week?”Xx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary activity pattern (< 90 minutes per week of moderate-to-vigorous intensity sports activity) within the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically able to exercise and physician consent to start an exercise programXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular access to a computer with internet serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or pathologic stage T2 –T4 disease including T4a and 4b if feasible to treat with radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXObstructive renal failure that is not relieved with stents or nephrostomy tube/sXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hematuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is a candidate for radical cystectomy as a potentially curative optionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with inherited syndromes associated with hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation (e.g., ataxia-telangiectasia, Nijmegen breakage syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrolment in the present study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part B and Part C, patients with tumors bearing genetic abnormalities for which health authority-approved targeted therapies exist will not be enrolled; e.g, patients with mutations including but not limited to ROS rearrangements, BRAF V600E, EGFR mutations or ALK translocation patients will not be considered eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPort-a-cath placement: no waiting is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin <90 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent medical need for therapy due to disease-related symptoms, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, extranodal organ involvement, or progressive disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate coagulation profile:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative viral serology:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown histological transformation to an aggressive lymphoma (ie, Richter transformation). Note: Biopsy documentation of the absence or presence of transformation is not required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of another cancer with disease manifestations or therapy that could adversely affect subject safety or longevity, create the potential for drug-drug interactions, or compromise the interpetation of study results.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least 1 resectable lesion to generate TILXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reaction to antibiotics of the aminoglycoside group (ie, streptomycin, gentamicin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNecrotic tumors or tumors close to large blood vessels that may impose an increased bleeding risk when treated with anti-VEGF agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical signs of or documented leptomeningeal carcinomatosis. Features such as headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia may indicate meningeal involvement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent thrombolic eventsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient body weight must be above the minimum necessary for the patient to receive the ONC201 dose indicated for the currently enrolling dose level. The minimum body weight ranges from 10 to 35kg depending on the dose level.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluable disease by RANO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSGPT (ALT) ? 110 U/L andXx_NEWLINE_xXActive illicit drug use or diagnosis of alcoholism.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) or drug which has significant MAOI activity (meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) within the 21 days before screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any UGT1A9 inhibitor from screening through follow-up period, including the following: diclofenac, imipramine, ketoconazole, mefenamic acid, and probenecidXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic or minimally symptomatic disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressive symptoms of mCRPC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated with enzalutamide or experimental therapies directed against androgen receptor (ie, apalutamide).Xx_NEWLINE_xXArrhythmias requiring class Ia and III antiarrhythmics and/or grade >= 2 bradycardiaXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically significant patient history which in the judgment of the principal investigator (PI) would compromise the patients’ ability to tolerate high-dose aldesleukin; (Note: At the discretion of the PI, patients enrolled in cohort 3 may receive low-dose aldesleukin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient and urologist must agree that patient is suitable for prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of pituitary and/or adrenal disease (or dysfunction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not appropriate surgical candidates for radical prostatectomy based on the evaluation of co-existent medical diseases and competing potential causes of death (such as but not limited to, unstable angina, myocardial infarction within the previous 6 months, or use of ongoing maintenance therapy for life-threatening ventricular arrhythmia, uncontrolled hypertension)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior elotuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelet (PLT) =< 100KXx_NEWLINE_xXInvasive malignancy that require active systemic chemotherapy or biologics that may cause significant drug-drug interaction with either vemurafenib or obinutuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with HCL variant (as defined by absence of expression of CD25)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have one of the following: \r\n* NSCLC which harbors EGFR exon 19 deletion or L858R mutation. This subset of patients must be TKI naive; OR\r\n* NSCLC which harbors an EGFR T790M mutation that was acquired following progression on erlotinib, gefitinib or afatinib. This subset of patients must have not received prior third generation TKI\r\n* NOTE: EGFR mutation must be documented by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified testXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take pills by mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncharacterized eye disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who had solid organ transplants are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPresent or history of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to humanized monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 1: Must have newly diagnosed, pathologically confirmed cHL at Stages IA, IB and IIA without bulky disease. Group 2: Must have newly diagnosed, pathologically confirmed cHL at Stages IIEB, IIIEA,IIIEB, IIIB, IVA and IVBXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have completely resected (as per standard of care) melanoma of cutaneous origin in order to be eligible for this study; patients must be classified as stage IIB or IIC cutaneous melanoma using the American Joint Committee on Cancer eighth edition; patients with melanoma of mucosal or other non-cutaneous origin are not eligible; patients with melanoma of ocular origin are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have been as fully resected as possible per the physician's judgment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be deemed unfit for RC due to comorbid conditions with a risk of mortality.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to undergo a cystoscopy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to undergo a biopsy for assessment of clinical response.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther active malignancies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any bladder or urethral anatomic feature that in the opinion of the Investigator may prevent the safe placement, indwelling use, or removal of TAR-200.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPyeloureteral tube externalized to the skin (ureteral stent or unilateral nephrostomy tube is allowed).Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of bladder perforation during diagnostic cystoscopy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBladder post-void residual volume (PVR) of >750 mL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDifficulty providing blood samples.Xx_NEWLINE_xXElderly (> 60 year old) patients with newly diagnosed AML not eligible for intensive chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic metastases present which are amenable to biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 27%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are ineligible if they plan on regular use of NSAIDs at any dose more than 2 times per week (on average) or aspirin at more than 325 mg at least three times per week, on average; low-dose aspirin not exceeding 100 mg/day is permitted; patients who agree to stop regular NSAIDs or higher dose aspirin are eligible and no wash out period is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known serious mood disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a diagnosis of von Hippel Lindau disease, based on a germline VHL alterationXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 lesion accessible for biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of a complete response after receiving ibrutinib for > 1 year OR presence of known ibrutinib resistance mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor known primary, disease-specific graded prognostic assessment (ds-GPA) estimated median survival no less than 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor unknown primary, graded prognostic assessment (GPA) estimated median survival no less than 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion to be resected is more than 5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a known primary and have an estimated median survival less than 6 months per ds-GPAXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have an unknown primary and have an estimated median survival less than 6 months per GPAXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pathologically confirmed MF with cutaneous involvement.\r\n* Patients must have clinically measurable disease of at least 1 lesion on physical (skin) exam.\r\n* If a patient has a prior pathological diagnosis of MF and is clinically diagnosed with a new lesion, the new lesion is eligible for enrollment without additionally biopsy confirmation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesions of any surface span as long as =< 1 cm in maximal height measured from the skin surface for which local control is desired are eligible; a single patient may have multiple eligible lesions that are individually enrolled for the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active lupus or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions with a height > 1 cm measured from the skin surface are not eligible for this protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a confirmed heterozygous TET2 mutations identified by next generation targeted deep sequencingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with leukemic/blast phase transformation MPNXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed patients who are ineligible or declined to receive intensive chemotherapy after discussion of risks and benefits of that approach or patients with primary refractory/relapsed AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must discontinue any and all use of multivitamin and/or vitamin c medication 24 hours before first dose of ascorbic acidXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with APL, AML-M3Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to either azacitidine or ascorbic acidXx_NEWLINE_xXHave locally confirmed MSS or pMMR CRC; MSS is defined as 0-1 allelic shifts among 3-5 tumor microsatellite loci using a PCR-based assay; pMMR is defined as presence of protein expression of 4 MMR enzymes (MLH1, MSH2, MSH6 and PMS2) by immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXHave stable disease or progression on a prior regimen containing infusional 5-FU or capecitabine according to the interpretation of the treating providerXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of arterial thromboembolism within 12 months of start of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphocytes* ? 500/mm³ (? 0.5 x 10^9/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may not have genomic aberrations such as ALK, EGFR, or BRAF for which there are FDA-approved targeted therapies available. Subjects may not have ROS1 aberration in accordance with the pembrolizumab label.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY ENTRY: Confirmation of diagnosis (by surgical excisional/incisional biopsy or imaging-guided core biopsy), and patients for whom the plan of management will include NACT followed by ICS. The decision to proceed with NACT will be at the treating physician’s discretion and include patients with advanced stage disease considered at low likelihood for optimal cytoreduction with primary debulking surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGENERAL: Mucinous, low-grade histology, clear cell carcinoma, or carcinosarcoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHx or condition related to thrombosis, embolism or vascular occlusion/ischemia, including but not limited to: TIA, stroke, MI, stent placement, valve replacement and/or repairXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of tranexamic acid or other antifibrinolytics within 48 hrs prior to infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 1: HORMONE RECEPTOR POSITIVE BREAST CANCER: Patients must be able to swallow oral medications (capsules) without chewing, breaking, crushing, opening or otherwise altering the product formulationXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 2: TRIPLE NEGATIVE BREAST CANCER: Patients must be able to swallow oral medications (capsules) without chewing, breaking, crushing, opening or otherwise altering the product formulationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor lung adenocarcinoma patients, patients must be wild-type for EGFR and ALK. For patients with histologies other than adenocarcinoma, EGFR and ALK status is not required. Adenocarcinoma patients may be consented prior to the EGFR and ALK status being known, but EGFR and ALK status must be determined prior to initiating therapy. EGFR and ALK status may be determined using either tumor- or plasma-based, Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified assays. For patients with non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), not otherwise specified (NOS), EGFR/ALK testing is not required, as the frequency of alterations is exceedingly rare in this histology. Also, note that patients with ROS1/RET alterations can be enrolled, as tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)/crizotinib aren’t established as first line therapy for patients with these alterations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may receive radiotherapy for symptomatic metastases prior to enrollment provided that there is at least one other non-irradiated lesion amenable to LCT at the time of enrollment. When feasible, stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) or other hypofractionated techniques are strongly encouraged.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic immunotherapy for metastatic NSCLC. Immunotherapy agents include, but are not limited to, agents targeting the PD1/PD-L1 axis (e.g. nivolumab, pembrolizumab, atezolizumab, durvalumab) or CTLA-4 (ipilimumab, tremelimumab) pathways.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs there is potential for hepatic toxicity with nivolumab or nivolumab/ipilimumab combinations, drugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarcerated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic demonstration of transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium. Minor components ( less than [<] 50 percent [%] overall) of variant histology such as glandular or squamous differentiation, or evolution to more aggressive phenotypes such as sarcomatoid or micropapillary change are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXCorneal or retinal abnormality likely to increase the risk of eye toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired wound healing capacity defined as skin/decubitus ulcers, chronic leg ulcers, known gastric ulcers, or unhealed incisionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with any of the agents or same class of agents they are scheduled to receive will be excluded. For example, a patient previously treated with a PD1 or PDL1-based therapy will not be eligible for avelumab+4-1BB or avelumab+OX40 arms. A patient previously treated with an OX40 based therapy will not be eligible for any of the OX40 single-agent or combination arms.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLarynx squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), hypopharynx SCC, or oral cavity SCC; HPV-unrelated oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC) (defined as p16^INK4a negative by immunohistochemistry [IHC] [staining in < 70% of cells] or HPV high risk [type 16 or 18] negative by in situ hybridization [ISH]); P16^INK4a positive larynx SCC, hypopharynx SCC, and oral cavity SCC are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of cutaneous, paranasal sinus, salivary, or nasopharynx SCC, or diagnosis of neck nodes with unknown primaryXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of P16/HPV-ISH positive OPSCCXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant requires supplemental oxygen to keep saturation greater than 95% and the situation is not expected to resolve within 2 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant requires dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of research participant to understand the basic elements of the protocol and/or the risks/benefits of participating in this phase I study; a legal guardian may substitute for the research participantXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY TO PROCEED WITH PERIPHERAL BLOOD MONONUCLEAR CELL (PBMC) COLLECTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant must have appropriate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant has a released cryopreserved CAR T cell productXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant does not require supplemental oxygen to keep saturation greater than 95% and/or does not have presence of any radiographic abnormalities on chest x-ray that are progressiveXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant does not have a fever exceeding 38.5 degrees Celsius (C); there is an absence of positive blood cultures for bacteria, fungus, or virus within 48-hours prior to T cell infusion and/or there aren’t any indications of meningitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma or absolute requirement for chronic inhaled corticosteroid medications (subjects with a history of mild asthma that are on or can be switched to noncorticosteroid bronchodilator regimens are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically indicated use of known radiosensitizing drugs (such as protease inhibitors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of primary myelofibrosis or post-polycythemia vera / essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosis classified as high risk, intermediate-2 risk, or intermediate 1 risk by International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 6 months from the completion of last trastuzumab infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown current or a history of hepatitis B or C virus, including chronic and dormant states, unless disease has been treated and confirmed clearedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunction; patients can be on thyroid hormone replacement medication; asymptomatic patients with elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) with normal T4/T3 are allowed to enroll, and recommended to follow with routine thyroid function test especially if they are randomized to cediranib/olaparib armXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing and able to check and record daily blood pressure readings when randomized to cediranib containing armXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of natural herbal products or other “folk remedies”; if using previously, patients must stop using natural herbal products while participating in this study; multivitamin, calcium (Ca)/vitamin D (Vit D) and other vitamin complex supplements are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy within 3 years of the randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically significant peripheral vascular disease or known abdominal aortic aneurysm ( > 5 cm in diameter) or history of aortic dissection; patients with known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) with >= 4 cm in diameter, a repeat ultrasound (US) within the last 6 months prior to randomization will be required to document that it is =< 5 cm, and patient must be asymptomatic from the aneurysm, and the blood pressure must be well controlled as required in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of bowel obstruction within 1 month prior to starting study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis within the last 1 month prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent dependency on intravenous (IV) hydration or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy taken from one or more tumors located above the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) showing LG urothelial carcinoma. Diagnosed not more than 2 months prior to the screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWash urine cytology sampled from the pyelocalyceal system documenting the absence of HG urothelial cancer, diagnosed not more than 2 months prior to the screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCarcinoma in situ (CIS) in the past in the urinary tract.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of high grade papillary urothelial carcinoma in the urinary tract during the past 2 (Two) years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area (BSA) of >= 1.17 m^2 at time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring concurrent administration of valproic acid are not eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a BSA ? 1.17 m^2 at time of study enrollment are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of allergy to medications that have a benzamide structure (e.g., metoclopramide, procarbazine, domperidone, cisapride etc.) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to a pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD)-based drug, prior participation in a rovalpituzumab tesirine clinical trial, or known hypersensitivity to rovalpituzumab tesirine or excipient contained in the drug formulation, unless undergoing retreatment with rovalpituzumab tesirine in the context of this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior olaratumab therapy must have included at least 2 full cycles of olaratumab/doxorubicin (that is, a minimum of 4 doses of olaratumab).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo recent (=< 3 months) of partial or complete bowel obstruction unless surgically correctedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a minimum of three (3) evaluable, discrete lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to refrain from sunbathing for the duration of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of sun hypersensitivity and photosensitive dermatoses including porphyria, systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjögren's syndrome, xeroderma pigmentosum, polymorphous light eruptions or radiation therapy within 30 days of enrolling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnhealed sunburn.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC Expansion Cohort: Histologic or cytologic diagnosis of NSCLC (squamous or non-squamous or NSCLC-not specified)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the ingredients of the investigational product enfortumab vedotin (ASG-22CE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas ocular conditions such as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMonocularityXx_NEWLINE_xXContact lens dependent (if using contact lens, must be able to switch to glasses during the entire study duration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled glaucoma (topical medications allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled or evolving retinopathy, wet macular degeneration, uveitis, papilledema, or optic disc disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients: Patients of any age and either genderXx_NEWLINE_xXCord blood product manufactured by the NCBP (at least one, if the graft contains more than one units)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are receiving cord blood products that will be \manipulated\ post-thaw (e.g., ex vivo expansion, incubation in vitro, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures (e.g. condom), and agreement to refrain from donating sperm, for at least 3 months after the last dose of cobimetinibXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability of patients to report selected study outcomes (e.g., GHS and HRQoL) using an electronic device or paper backup questionnaires.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown risk factors for ocular toxicity Exclusions Related to Autoimmune Conditions and Immunomodulatory DrugsXx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria >3.5 gm/24 hrXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate-high risk RCC: pT2, Grade 4 or sarcomatoid, N0, M0; pT3, Any Grade, N0, M0Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk RCC: pT4, Any Grade N0, M0; pT, Any stage, Any Grade, N+, M0Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas residual thrombus post nephrectomy in the vena renalis or vena cava.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with High-Risk Multiple Myeloma. High-risk is defined by the presence of any one of the following: deletion of chromosome 13 by conventional cytogenetics, hypodiploidy, abnormality in chromosome 1(1q amplification or 1p deletion), t(4;14), t(14;16), t(14;20) or deletion of 17p by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or conventional karyotyping; high-risk criteria based on commercially available gene expression profiling (GEP) detected at any time prior to enrollment;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary disease (e.g. COPD, asthma, etc) that is not controlled (moderate to severe symptoms) with current medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS score of 0 to 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate hepatic function as evidenced by: serum total bilirubin ?1.5 × ULN unless considered due to Gilbert's disease, a gene mutation in UGT1A1 (only for patients who will be receiving AG-221), or leukemic involvement following approval by the study Sponsor; aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) ?3.0 × ULN, unless considered due to leukemic involvement following approval by the study SponsorXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking medications with narrow therapeutic windows, unless they can be transferred to other medications prior to enrolling or unless the medications can be properly monitored during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking P-glycoprotein (P-gp) or breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) or OATP1B1/1B3 transporter-sensitive substrate medications unless they can be transferred to alternative medications within ?5 half-lives prior to administration of AG-221, or unless the medications can be adequately monitored during the study. There are no restrictions regarding the co-administration of such medications with AG-120.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmediate life-threatening, severe complications of leukemia such as uncontrolled bleeding, pneumonia with hypoxia or shock, and/or disseminated intravascular coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory B-precursor ALL defined as one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst relapse if first remission ? 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any indwelling line or drain (e.g., percutaneous nephrostomy tube, indwelling Foley catheter, biliary drain, or pleural/peritoneal/pericardial catheter). Ommaya reservoirs and dedicated central venous access catheters such as a Port-a-Cath or Hickman catheter are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute GVHD grade II-IV by Glucksberg criteria or severity B-D by IBMTR index; acute or chronic GVHD requiring systemic treatment within 4 weeks prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active hepatitis, type B or C; patients on suppressive therapy with a negative viral load and no evidence of hepatic damage are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCombo C :Existing periorbital edema.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic encephalopathy within past 12 months or requirement for medications to prevent or control encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXAscites requiring non-pharmacologic intervention or escalation in pharmacologic intervention to maintain symptom control, within 6 months prior to the first scheduled doseXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of active disease (histological confirmation of reactivation or progression is not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with known renal toxicity (e.g. vancomycin, amphotericin B, acyclovir, cyclosporin, methotrexate, tacrolimus) should be avoided to the extent possible during the 5 days of clofarabine treatment in each cycle or, if required, administered cautiously and with close monitoringXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of alternative medications (e.g., herbal or botanical that could interfere with clofarabine) is not permitted during the entire study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to MATCH to APEC1621I based on the presence of an actionable mutation\r\n* Positive Rb expression by immunohistochemistry is required for study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.87 m^2 at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent participation in another research or observational study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has history of myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) including myelofibrosis, essential thrombocythemia, polycythemia vera, chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) with or without BCR-ABL1 translocation and AML with BCR-ABL1 translocation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a malabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of other malignancies within 2 years prior to study entry, with the exception of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious malignancy confined and surgically resected (or treated with other modalities) with curative intent; requires discussion with TA MD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNew onset moderate or severe cGVHD as defined by the 2014 NIH Consensus Development Project CriteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive underlying malignant disease or any post-transplant lymphoproliferative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic or acute GI disorders resulting in diarrhea of any severity grade.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCirrhosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDaily use of oxygen supplementation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiomarker-positive for deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-repair anomaliesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown symptomatic or impending cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXHas not achieved disease-free status after completion of CCRT administered with curative intent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas implanted medical device(s) that pose a high risk for colonization and/or cannot be easily removed (e.g., prosthetic joints, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s), bone graft(s), or other exogenous implant(s)).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas undergone a previous hysterectomy defined as removal of the entire uterus or will have a hysterectomy as part of their initial cervical cancer therapy. NOTE: Women who have had a partial/subtotal hysterectomy are eligible to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXLetrozole combination cohort (L): metastatic breast cancer (MBC) with progression who are candidates for a letrozole-containing regimen, with palbociclib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFulvestrant combination cohort (F): MBC with progression who are candidates for a fulvestrant containing regimen, with palbociclib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced/metastatic disease who have symptomatic visceral spread, and who have life threatening complications needing immediate therapy, such as massive uncontrolled effusions [pleural, pericardial, peritoneal], pulmonary lymphangitis, and over 50% liver replacement with tumor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine is based on age/genderXx_NEWLINE_xXBiologic (anti-neoplastic agent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or secondary GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor O-6-methylguanine-deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) methyltransferase (MGMT) methylation status must be available; results of routinely used methods for MGMT methylation testing (e.g. mutagenically separated polymerase chain reaction [MSPCR] or quantitative polymerase chain reaction [PCR]) are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXINTRATUMORAL STUDIES PATIENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no evidence of significant mass effect, no midline shift, and no uncontrolled clinical signs of mass effectXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or secondary GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a clinical diagnosis of Glioblastoma (GBM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMultifocal, recurrent or metastatic Glioblastoma (GBM) or gliomatosis cerebri (For the sub-study, the subject can have multifocal GBM and gliomatosis cerebri but can't have recurrent or metastatic GBM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of complete or partial bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring IV hydration or parenteral nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immune-mediated pneumonitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior genotyping positive for an EGFR activating mutation (L858R, exon 19 deletion, G719X, L861Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the dose expansion portion only, patient must: 1) have a tumor which is EGFR-T790M positive and 2) be treatment naive to T790M-directed EGFR TKI (e.g. AZD9291, rociletinib, etc); T790M testing may be done locally or centrally on study, but if done locally, tissue must be available for central confirmationXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have received prior trastuzumab, pertuzumab, and T-DM1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrolled seizures within 6 months of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that would be a contraindication to receiving trastuzumab as described in the approved local label or a condition that would prevent treatment with the physician's choice of chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) < 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known other active cancers; skin cancers (basal or squamous) are exemptedXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no prohibitions of specific medications on the basis of anticipated drug-drug interactionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or predisposing factors to RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a neuromuscular disorder that is associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHSIL comprising 2 or more lesions, or anal HSIL in at least 2 octants, or anal HSIL that has recurred or is persistent after prior ablative treatment\r\nNote: HSIL should be in the anal canal at either the squamocolumnar junction or distal anus on HRA at screening or randomization; the extent of HSIL should be based on available biopsy results and visual appearanceXx_NEWLINE_xXAnal HSIL lesions are visible at randomization and no lesions are suspicious for invasive cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXFor females, documentation that the participant is being followed with cervical cytology and/or HPV testing per current “Guidelines for the Prevention and Treatment of Opportunistic Infections in HIV-Infected Adults and Adolescents” and American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) guidelines; cervical cytology must be performed prior to randomization for women who are overdue for screening per the guidelines; women should also have confirmation of absence of cancer or suspected cancer upon visual examination of the vulva, vagina, and cervix within 12 months prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXCondyloma occupying more than 50% of the circumference of the anal canal or that obscures a satisfactory examXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of advanced solid tumor malignancy. Patients may be ALK TKI-naive or may have received prior crizotinib and/or second generation ALK TKIs. In addition, patients with a known ALK 1198 mutation will be allowed. -For the expanded cohort portion of the study, patients must have NSCLC with ALK genomic alterations; however, patients will be allowed to enroll based on local FDA-approved ALK results.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have one of the following: \r\n* For stratum 5: non NF-1 associated low grade glioma (LGG) (other than pilocytic astrocytoma or optic pathway glioma) \r\n* For stratum 1 or 2: non NF-1, non-optic pathway pilocytic astrocytoma; note: all patients with non NF-1 associated optic pathway glioma with or without tissue must be enrolled on stratum 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with histologically diagnosed progressive, recurrent or refractory non NF-1 associated LGG (other than pilocytic astrocytoma or optic pathway glioma); these patients must have BRAF aberrations as documented by the Lindeman and Ligon Labs at Brigham and Women’s Hospital using the same proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiation: patients must have:\r\n* Had their last fraction of local irradiation to primary tumor >= 12 months prior to registration; investigators are reminded to review potentially eligible cases to avoid confusion with pseudo-progression\r\n* Had their last fraction of craniospinal irradiation (> 24 Gy) > 3 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area (BSA) >= 0.55 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits should have deficits that are stable for a minimum of 1 week prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have bi-dimensionally measureable disease defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least two planesXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo core biopsy of the primary breast lesion to assess baseline biomarkersXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical or imaging evidence of distant metastases by PA and Lateral CXR, Radionuclide Bone scan, and LFTs including total bilirubin, ALT, AST, and alkaline phosphataseXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to the use of beta-blockers, like, uncontrolled depression, unstable angina pectoris, uncontrolled heart failure (grade III or IV), hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 100 mmHg), severe asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), uncontrolled type I or type II diabetes mellitus (glycosylated hemoglobin [HbA1C] > 8.5 or fasting plasma glucose > 160 mg/dl at screening), symptomatic peripheral arterial disease or Raynaud’s syndrome, untreated pheochromocytoma, current use or past use in the last two years of beta-blockers or calcium channel blockersXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have an IDH2 gene mutation (IDH2-R140 or R172) as determined by local laboratory resultXx_NEWLINE_xX(Arm A only): Subjects with high-risk MDS (i.e. International Prostate Symptom Score [IPSS] intermediate-2 or high-risk; or revised [R]-IPSS high or very-high risk). Patients with intermediate-1 risk by IPSS or intermediate risk by R-IPSS with high-risk molecular features including TP53, ASXL1, EZH2, and/or RUNX1 mutations are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed unresectable or metastatic hepatocellular carcinoma; confirmation either by histologic confirmation or accepted radiographic criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a minimum level of pulmonary reserve defined as ? grade 1 dyspnea and pulse oximetry of ? 88% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cardiopulmonary disease precluding the use of the minimally invasive technique as deemed by Internal Medicine Preoperative Assessment, Consultant and Treatment (IMPACT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere hip disease precluding the use of dorsolithotomy positionXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically large pelvic masses reaching above the umbilicusXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of a documented partial response (PR) or complete response (CR) according to RECIST 1.1 or CA 125 response by Gynecologic Cancer Intergroup (GCIG) criteria to neoadjuvant chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant weight loss (> 20% of body weight) within past 6 months prior to inclusion into the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPhosphorus WNLXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) WNL\r\n* Supplementation is acceptable to achieve a TSH WNL; in patients with abnormal TSH, if free T4 is normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor venous access for study drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXMen must agree to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agree to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation, or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for > 2 weeks prior to randomisationXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic or rapid visceral progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled tumour-related painXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than TNBC within 5 years prior to randomisation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an abnormal ECGXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiency or history of severe and unexpected reactions to fluoropyrimidine therapy in patients selected to receive capecitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC) based on either: i). Weiss Score of >= 3 in patients who had earlier surgical resection OR ii). biopsy results compatible with ACC in the context of clinical setting highly suggestive of ACC (adrenal mass > 4 cm invading surrounding organs or associated with distant metastases).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor mitotane treated patients, mitotane should have been stopped at least 28 days prior to study enrollment AND to have mitotane serum level of < 2 mg/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary nasopharynx or salivary gland cancers are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXInfratentorial tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXIntracranial hemorrhage grade > 1 not attributable to recent neurosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed NSCLC, not previously treated, with a plan to undergo surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR or ALK activating alterationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who discontinued prior trastuzumab or T-DM1 due to progressive or refractory disease are eligible for enrollment; patients who discontinued prior trastuzumab or T-DM1 due to intolerance however are not eligible for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has known sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of neuroblastoma as defined per International Neuroblastoma Response CriteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of neuroblastoma outside osteomedullary sites (any neuroblastoma outside osteomedullary sites must have been removed prior to trial entry)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUp to 4 metastatic lesions: \r\n* Must have at least 1 bone lesion AND each non-visceral lesion should be less than 5 cm\r\n* Visceral lesions will be limited to one lung lesion (< 2 cm); no liver lesions allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXTwo lesions can be in close proximity (i.e. within 5 cm of each other) if they meet radiation SBRT normal tissue toxicity requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radium Ra 223 dichlorideXx_NEWLINE_xXOrchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases that in the judgment of investigator-radiologist are not amenable to SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor specimen obtained prior to treatment initiation by interventional radiology guided biopsy will be interrogated per immunohistochemistry (IHC) and features should be as follows for a patient to be eligible \r\n* Overexpression of androgen receptor (AR)-C terminal and AR-N terminal and PTEN with lack of ARV7 expression along with and ki67 =<10%\r\n* No RB loss or p53 mutation and \r\n* No expression of neuroendocrine markers CD56 and chromogranin (all markers assessed by standardized IHC protocols)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStructurally unstable bone lesions suggesting impending fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXHave used or plan to use from 30 days prior to enrollment (day 1 visit) through the end of the study the following medications known to lower the seizure threshold: \r\n* Aminophylline/theophylline\r\n* Atypical antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone)\r\n* Bupropion\r\n* Insulin\r\n* Lithium\r\n* Pethidine\r\n* Phenothiazine antipsychotics (e.g., prochlorperazine [compazine], chlorpromazine, mesoridazine, thioridazine)\r\n* Tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline, desipramine, doxepin, imipramine, maprotiline, mirtazapine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of ketoconazloe, enzalutamide, abiraterone or apalutamide or participation in a previous clinical trial of ketoconazloe,enzalutamide, abiraterone or apalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXAvoid co-administration of abiraterone acetate with CYP2D6 substrates that have a narrow therapeutic index. If an alternative treatment cannot be used, exercise caution and consider a dose reduction of the concomitant CYP2D6 substrateXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-amenable residual disease in the breast measuring >= 1 cm in at least one dimension on ultrasound cm in at least one dimension on ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists physical status (ASA) 1-3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled surgery: open elective CRS-HIPEC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete the quality of recovery (QoR) 15 questionnaire.Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic opioid use defined as daily opioid use for more than one month prior the scheduled date of surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTroponin-I =< ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine kinase (CK)-MB =< ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXBrain natriuretic peptide (BNP) =< ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior treatment with a hypomethylating agent, or previous exposure to DEC-205/NY-ESO-1 fusion protein CDX-1401 (CDX-1401)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML associated with inv(16); t(16;16); t(8;21) or t(15;17)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have hypersensitivity to decitabine, CDX-1401, poly-ICLC or nivolumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of auto-immune disease (e.g., thyroiditis, lupus), except vitiligoXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known psychological or sociological conditions, addictive disorders or family problems, which would preclude compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal supplements that have been shown to modulate testosterone or androgen signaling (e.g. Saw Palmetto) are not allowed while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed oligodendroglioma (oligo) (low grade oligo, low grade mixed oligoastrocytoma, anaplastic oligo, anaplastic mixed oligo) by histology and or molecular classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistorical pathological tissue evidence of high risk oligo (low grade oligo, low grade mixed oligoastrocytoma, anaplastic oligo, anaplastic mixed oligo) by histology and or molecular classificationXx_NEWLINE_xX1p and 19q deletion status knownXx_NEWLINE_xXIDH 1 & 2 mutations status knownXx_NEWLINE_xXMGMT status knownXx_NEWLINE_xXHas implanted pacemaker, programmable shunts, defibrillator, deep brain stimulator, other implanted electronic devices in the brainXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE IXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AND IIXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete or partial response to salvage chemotherapy by International Working Group (IWG) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have failed bendamustine-based regimen previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTRATUM A: Histological confirmation of a newly diagnosed high-grade glioma or DIPGXx_NEWLINE_xXSTRATUM B: Histological confirmation (at diagnosis or relapse) of a recurrent or progressive grade II-IV glioma (including DIPG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of leptomeningeal disease on MRI or in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for arm 1; ocular or mucosal disease specifically for patients with melanoma in arm 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known allergic or hypersensitivity reactions to parenteral iron, parenteral dextran, parenteral iron-dextran, or parenteral iron-polysaccharide preparations (Ferumoxytol Investigator’s Drug Brochure, 2009); subjects with significant drug or other allergies or autoimmune diseases may be enrolled at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known iron overload (genetic hemochromatosis); in subjects with a family history of hemochromatosis, hemochromatosis must be ruled out prior to study entry with normal values of the following blood tests: transferrin saturation (TS) test and serum ferritin (SF) test; all associated costs will be paid by the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with three or more drug allergies from separate drug classesXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of primary cold agglutinin disease (CAgD) based on the following criteria: a) Chronic hemolysis, b) Polyspecific direct antiglobulin test (DAT) positive, c) Monospecific DAT strongly positive for C3d, d) Cold agglutinin titer >= 64 at 4 degree Celsius, and e) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) DAT less than or equal to (<=) 1+, and, f) No overt malignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically relevant infection of any kind within the month preceding enrollment (example, active hepatitis C, pneumonia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); or other autoimmune disorders with anti-nuclear antibodies at ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative inked histologic margins from lumpectomy, with the exception of a focus of positive margin at the pectoralis fasciaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen vascular diseases, such as: systemic lupus erythematous, scleroderma, or dermatomyositisXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant post lumpectomy complications requiring an unplanned re-operation or admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics; re-operation for margins evaluation or nodal evaluation is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroendocrine carcinoma or sarcoma histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must have FGFR amplifications as determined by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory assay; patients with FGFR amplifications co-occurring with 11q amplification (CCND1, FGF3,4, 19 amplifications) are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXGamma-glutamyltransferase =< 2.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPhosphate =< 1.1 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity to any of the excipients in the Debio 1347 formulation (lactose hydrate, microcrystalline cellulose, croscarmellose sodium, hydroxypropyl cellulose, sodium lauryl sulfate, and magnesium stearate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or current evidence of endocrine alteration of calcium-phosphate homeostasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and or current evidence of ectopic mineralization/calcification including but not limited to the soft tissue, kidneys, intestine, myocardium and lung with the exception of calcified lymph nodes and asymptomatic coronary calcificationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of high dose systemic steroids and other drugs such as calcitonin preparations, active vitamin D3 preparations, estrogen preparations, selective estrogen receptor modulators, vitamin K2 preparations, parathyroid hormones, phosphorus absorbers; Note, inhaled, topical steroids and low tapering doses of steroid especially in patients treated recently for brain metastases will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXCorneal disease, such as bullous or band keratopathy, corneal desquamation, keratitis, corneal ulcer, or keratoconjunctivitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or lactating woman (any woman of childbearing potential who has menstruated within the year prior to enrolment will undergo pregnancy testing within 72 hours prior to receiving the first dose of study medication)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of a drug targeting FGF or FGFR; patients previously treated with medications that affect FGFR signaling as a secondary target (e.g., multi-tyrosine kinase inhibitors that primarily inhibit VEGF, but to a lesser extent also affect FGFR signaling) can be considered after discussion with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPartial thromboplastin time (PTT) WNL+/- 15 % unless on active anticoagulation (suggested to be drawn peripherally to prevent port drawn elevation due to routine heparin flush of ports) obtained ? 14 days prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic evidence of gastric outlet obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus, or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis are excluded) are eligible for the study provided all of following conditions are met:\r\n* Rash must cover < 10% of body surface area\r\n* Disease is well controlled at baseline and requires only low-potency topical corticosteroids\r\n* No occurrence of acute exacerbations of the underlying condition requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation, methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors, or high-potency or oral corticosteroids within the previous 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic anaphylactic reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring the use of enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic medication that includes but not limited to: phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, primidone or oxcarbazepine are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed SCCHN, not previously treated, with a plan to undergo surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with oropharyngeal SCCHN must be tested for HPV (by p16 and/or HPV in situ hybridization [ISH] or polymerase chain reaction [PCR])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be evaluated by a head and neck surgeon and be deemed surgically resectable at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary nasopharyngeal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or breastfeeding women are excluded from this study because chemotherapy involved with reduced intensity conditioning (RIC) have the significant potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effectsXx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to receive FMT administered endoscopically (colonoscopically) and undergo necessary bowel preparation pre-procedure\r\n* Understand infectious risks associated with FMT administration; although FMT infusate has been screened for bacteria, viruses, fungi and parasites there is a risk of transmission of known and unknown infectious organisms contained in the donor stool; post-FMT bacteremia (e.g. E. coli), sepsis and fatal events may rarely occur\r\n* Understand non-infectious risks associated with FMT administration\r\n** Possible allergy and/or anaphylaxis to antigens in donor stool\r\n** Theoretical risk of developing disease possibly related to donor gut microbiota including but not limited to: obesity, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, autoimmune conditions, allergic/atopic disorders, neurologic disorders, psychiatric conditions and malignancy\r\n* Understand risks associated with colonoscopy including risk of infection transmission, colonic perforation, aspiration pneumonia, and death\r\n* Understand that data regarding the long-term safety risk of FMT are lackingXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of absolute contra-indications to FMT administration\r\n* Toxic megacolon\r\n* Severe dietary allergies (e.g. shellfish, nuts, seafood)\r\n* Inflammatory bowel disease\r\n* Anatomic contra-indications to colonoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXHighly symptomatic patients (e.g., declining ECOG performance status; rapidly worsening symptoms; rapid progression of disease; progression of tumor at critical anatomical sites [e.g., spinal cord compression] requiring urgent alternative medical intervention) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLocally advanced, unresectable pancreatic cancer as determined by a pancreaticobiliary surgeon as part of a multidisciplinary discussion at MDACC, including triphasic CT demonstrating tumor abutment of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) or celiac axis, superior mesenteric vein (SMV) or portal vein (PV) involvement which is not resectable without vascular reconstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of at least 3 months, but no more than 7 months of standard induction chemotherapy for LAPC, which should consist of either FOLFIRINOX or gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel, preferably with a washout period no longer than 8 weeks.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have metal stent in place if duodenal stent is required. If patient has plastic stent, this must be replaced prior to radiation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand and follow the breathing instructions involved in the respiratory gating procedure or to tolerate compression sufficient to reduce fiducial motion to <= 5mm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for concurrent treatment with nitrates or other drugs that may, in the judgment of the treating investigator, create a risk for a precipitous decrease in blood pressure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical history that includes any condition, or requires the use of concomitant medications which, in the investigator's judgment, are associated with or create a risk of increased carotid sinus sensitivity, symptomatic bradycardia, or syncopal episodes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMicrosatellite stable disease as determined by IHC and/or PCR, or mismatch repair proficient disease as determined by IHC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degeneration. Patients should be excluded if they have the following risk factors for RVO:\r\n* History of serous retinopathy.\r\n* History of retinal vein occlusion (RVO).\r\n* Evidence of ongoing serous retinopathy or RVO at baseline.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient's indication is commercially available and reimbursed in the local country.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has participated in a combination trial where dabrafenib and/or trametinib was dispensed in combination with another study medication.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient currently has unresolved toxicities for which dabrafenib and/or trametinib dosing has been interrupted in the parent study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical or radiographic evidence of malignant regional adenopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with either diffuse (> 1 quadrant or > 5 cm) suspicious microcalcifications on mammogram or diffuse non-mass-like enhancement on MRIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pacemaker or defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst detectable AdV DNA plasma viremia since the qualifying transplant occurred within 21 days prior to Day 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdV DNA plasma viremia of ? 1,000 copies/mL and rising, defined as two consecutive results ? 1,000 copies/mL from the designated central virology laboratory, with the second result being greater than the first.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny CTCAE Grade 4 diarrhea (i.e., life-threatening consequences with urgent intervention indicated) within 7 days prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNIH Stage 4 acute GVHD of the skin (i.e., generalized erythroderma with bullous formation) within 7 days prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNIH Stage 2 or higher acute GVHD of the liver (i.e., bilirubin > 3 mg/dL [SI: > 51 ?mol/L]) within 7 days prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be ?1 year and <75 years of age at screening and undergoing allogeneic HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must receive the following medical regimen as part of standard of care immunoprophylaxis for GvHD in either study arm at doses and regimen determined by local institutional guidelines, physician preference, and patient need: MTX or MMF + calcineurin inhibitor (CSA or TAC) +/- ATG (ATG use is limited to 30% of patients).Xx_NEWLINE_xXGraft must be a CD3+ T-cell replete PBSC graft or non-manipulated BM graft.Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 1 hospital admission for infection in prior 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of acute or chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) unless limited to skin involvement and managed with topical steroid therapy aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of < 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known AL subtype amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an intermediate- or high-grade soft tissue sarcoma according to French Federation of Cancer Centers (FNCLCC) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXHas one of the following sarcoma subtypes where neoadjuvant chemotherapy is established as practice at our institution: extra-skeletal Ewing’s sarcoma, embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma (pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma is allowed, bone sarcomas including osteosarcoma, Ewings sarcoma and chondrosarcoma are not allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with Acute Hepatic Porphyria (Acute Intermittent Porphyria, Hereditary Corproporhyria, Variegate Porphyria, ALA dehydratase deficient porphyria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXElevated urinary or plasma PBG or ALA values within the past year,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave active disease, with at least 2 documented porphyria attacks within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to discontinue or not initiate the use of prophylactic hemin throughout the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of multiple drug allergies or intolerance to subcutaneous injectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of recurrent pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 3 lesions may be treated; the maximum sum of the diameter(s) of the lesion(s) must be =< 6 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating sperm, as outlined for each specific treatment armXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of the OPN-305-106 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWithdrawal from the OPN-305-106 study prior to the final EOT visitXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to be included into another interventional investigational study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of complementary or alternative medicines that would confound the interpretation of toxicities and antitumor activity of the study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindication to thromboprophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease response noted (i.e. CR, non-CR, or not applicable): assessed as per disease specific criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to pass radiation evaluation (i.e.: able to receive 200 cGy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn irradiated lesion is considered evaluable only if it has shown enlargement since the completion of last radiationXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of head and neck lymphedema.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe head and neck garments must fit appropriately. For patients with a tracheostomy, the fit will be assessed to ensure that the garments do not interfere with their tracheostomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have experienced at least one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of available therapist/clinic,Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of insurance coverage or funding to support cost of care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hyperthyroidism or parathyroidism (for which endocrinologist recommends against neck compression).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic bradycardia in the absence of a pacemaker.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIncreased intracranial pressure or other contraindications to internal or external jugular venous compression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFacial or head and neck dermal metastasis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute facial infection (e.g., facial or parotid gland abscess).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition in which increased venous and lymphatic return is undesirable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 months from study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIf post allogeneic HCT: Confirmed CD19+CD22+ leukemia recurrence defined as >= 0.01% disease following allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute blood lymphocyte (ALC) >= 100 cells/ul\r\n* If subject has an apheresis product or T cells available for manufacturing of T cell product, there is no minimum ALC requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate respiratory function defined as not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation; oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be able to tolerate apheresis procedure, including placement of temporary apheresis line if requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must NOT have an active severe infection defined as:\r\n* A positive blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment\r\n* A fever above 38.2 Celsius (C) AND clinical signs of infection within 48 hours of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant or parent/legal guardian must agree to participate in long-term follow-up for up to 15 years, if they are enrolled in the study and receive T-cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a known hypersensitivity to protocol systemic chemotherapy that was life-threatening, required hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, or resulted in persistent or significant disability or incapacity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe symptomatic metastatic disease; subjects who meet either of the following criteria must be excluded:\r\n* A requirement for treatment with opioid analgesics for any reason within 28 days prior to registration\r\n* Average weekly pain score of 4 or more as reported on the 10-point Visual Analog Scale (VAS) on the Registration Pain LogXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of non-steroidal antiandrogens (e.g., flutamide, nilutamide, or bicalutamide) within 6 weeks of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny infection requiring parenteral antibiotic therapy or causing fever (temperature > 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F] or 38.1 degrees Celsius [C]) within 1 week prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood counts are not required to be normal prior to enrollment on trialXx_NEWLINE_xXThe hepatic requirements may be waived for patients with grade 1 or 2 elevations of hepatic transaminases clearly due to leukemic infiltration after consultation with a study co-chairXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 94% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest and no exercise intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis\r\n* Patients with CNS3 disease\r\n* Patients with isolated extra-medullary relapse involving only sanctuary sites (eg. testicular relapse) but patients with extramedullary disease involving nodal or other non-sanctuary sites are eligible\r\n* Patients with isolated testicular relapse \r\n* Patients with Philadelphia chromosome positive (Ph+) T-ALL/T-LLy\r\n* Patients with Down syndrome \r\n* Patients with pre-existing grade 2 (or higher) peripheral motor or sensory neurotoxicity per CTCAE 4.03 \r\n* Patients with a history of prior veno-occlusive disease (VOD)/sinusoidal obstruction syndrome (SOS) or findings consistent with a diagnosis of VOD/SOS, defined as: conjugated serum bilirubin > 1.4 mg/dL AND unexplained weight gain greater than 10% of baseline weight or ascites AND hepatomegaly or right upper quadrant pain without another explanation, OR reversal of portal vein flow on ultrasound, OR pathological confirmation of VOD on liver biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin condition\r\n* Patients with pre-existing grade 1 or higher ulcerations, fistulas, mucosal lesions, or skin barrier breakdownXx_NEWLINE_xXIf surgically debulked, must be healed from surgery and at least 3 weeks have elapsed since general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave expected survival of at least 4 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of clinical hypersensitivity to the designated combination immunotherapy, GM-CSF, Interferon-alpha-2b (Merck), yeast, beef, or to any components used in the preparation of the experimental vaccine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBUN >30 in conjunction with a creatinine >2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria >1+ on urinalysis or >1 gm/24hr.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of colitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInitially only patients who are >= 16 years old will receive HA-1 TCR T cell infusions on the protocol; younger patients may be screened, enrolled in the protocol and monitored for relapse but will not be eligible for infusion until at least one patient >= 16 years old has been treated and discussed with the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must express HLA-A*0201Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the HA-1(H) genotype (RS_1801284: A/G, A/A)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to participate in long-term follow-up for up to 15 years if they are enrolled in the study and receive T cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXA specific performance status score is not required for enrolling on the protocol; a delay in infusion of the HA-1 TCR T cells may be required for patients with low performance statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who develop grade IV acute GVHD or severe chronic GVHD prior to enrollment on the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of organ toxicities will not necessarily exclude patients from enrolling on the protocol at the discretion of the PI; however, a delay in the infusion of HA-1 TCR T cells may be requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic confirmation of eligible histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindications to intravenous (IV) contrast administration are still eligible for this study if the tumor can be delineated clearly without IV contrast (at the discretion of the treating radiation oncologist) but will not participate in the functional imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women; if patients are not status post bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy then pregnancy testing is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active collagen vascular disease (CVD), specifically systemic lupus erythematosus or scleroderma; patients with a history of CVD without evidence of active disease are eligible for enrollment at the discretion of the study PIXx_NEWLINE_xXHas any evidence of progressive systemic disease (by RECIST 1.1); those with stable systemic lesion may be considered for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known allergic or hypersensitivity reactions to parenteral iron, parenteral dextran, parenteral iron-dextran, or parenteral iron-polysaccharide preparations; subjects with significant drug or other allergies or autoimmune diseases may be enrolled at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known iron overload (genetic hemochromatosis); in subjects with a family history of hemochromatosis, hemochromatosis must be ruled out prior to study entry with normal values of the following blood tests: transferrin saturation (TS) test and serum ferritin (SF) test; all associated costs will be paid by the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with three or more drug allergies from separate drug classesXx_NEWLINE_xXMinimum of 3 radiographically apparent lesions such that there is:\r\n* Minimum of one lesion in areas that have not been previously irradiated that is considered measurable by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 criteria AND\r\n* Minimum of two lesions in areas that have not been previously irradiated that are determined by interventional radiology to be of a size and in a location that a single probe could ablate at least 75% of the lesion; Note: Hepatic lesions measuring =< 3 cm may be treated, as determined by interventional radiology; Note: Brain metastases are not acceptable as lesions defining measurable disease, nor are they candidate lesions for cryoablationXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous access for apheresis as assessed by apheresis team; NOTE: If a central venous catheter is required for apheresis, the patient is not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Pregnant persons\r\n* Nursing personsXx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulopathy, including the use of therapeutic anticoagulants that cannot be discontinued for the cryoablation procedure; NOTE: Heparin for line patency without detectable lab abnormalities for coagulation will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a candidate treatment lesion (subcutaneous, nodal, or visceral) accessible and safe for radiotherapy and serial intralesional injections as specified by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) or drug which has significant MAOI activity (meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) from 21 days prior to day 1 through 2 weeks after the final dose of epacadostat has been administeredXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown contraindications to radiotherapy including but not limited to radiation sensitivity syndromes such as xeroderma pigmentosum and ataxia telangiectasia mutatedXx_NEWLINE_xXT1 to T2a tumors OR T3 tumors smaller than 7 cm invading the mediastinal or pericardial pleura are also eligible for this protocol as long as normal tissue dose constraints can be metXx_NEWLINE_xXN0 M0 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo previous HIPECXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a planned complete macroscopic cytoreduction (visual) (CC0) cytoreduction – NOTE: registration occurs during surgery and not before; if, during surgery, the principal investigator (PI)/sub-investigator (SubI) discerns that all disease cannot be removed surgically, the participant will be considered a “screen failure”, HIPEC will not be performed, and the participant will be removed from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has history of or currently has non-peritoneal surface macroscopic metastatic disease in addition to peritoneal surface malignancy such as macroscopic pulmonary disease or other macroscopic disease outside of the peritoneal cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere asthma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSolid tumors with one or more of the following DNA repair defects:\r\n* BRCA1, BRCA2, ATM, BARD1, BRIP1, CDK12, CHEK2, FANCA, NBN, PALB2, RAD51, RAD51B, RAD51C, RAD51D, RAD54L (validated from archival tumor tissue or germ line testing from any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] approved lab); this testing should occur prior to study consent or enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMandatory biopsy on study entry, if the lesion can be biopsied with acceptable clinical risk (as judged by the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPARPi naive or prior exposure to PARPi therapy (varies depending on Arm 1 and Arm 2)\r\n* Patients in Arm 1 (single agent rucaparib followed by combination upon progression) must be PARPi naive; prior irinotecan is allowed\r\n* Patients in Arm 2 (combination) must have been treated with and progressed on a PARPi previously; prior irinotecan is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic reaction to single-agent rucaparib or irinotecanXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic features on peripheral blood smearXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction or known intolerance to irinotecanXx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute graft versus (vs.) host disease >= grade 2 or active extensive chronic graft versus host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have undergone stem cell mobilization with the combination of G-CSF and plerixafor as per TJUH BMT SOP guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXCollection of an adequate number of CD34+ stem cells, i.e. >= 4-6 x 10^6/kg from apheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to the NIH for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXSAFETY LEAD-IN COHORTXx_NEWLINE_xXBIOCHEMICAL RECURRENCE COHORTXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised status due to:\r\n* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positivity\r\n* Active autoimmune diseases such as Addison's disease, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjogren syndrome, scleroderma, myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture syndrome or active Grave's disease\r\n** Patients with a history of autoimmunity that has not required systemic immunosuppressive therapy or does not threaten vital organ function including central nervous system (CNS), heart, lungs, kidneys, skin, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be allowed\r\n** Patients with diabetes type I, vitiligo, or alopecia are allowed\r\n* Other immunodeficiency diseases\r\n* SplenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medications used for urinary symptoms including 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride and dutasteride) and alternative medications known to alter PSA (e.g. phytoestrogens and saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior immunotherapy within the last 3 years (immunotherapy allowed for lead-in cohort in castration resistant disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious serious adverse reactions to smallpox vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of atopic dermatitis or active skin condition (acute, chronic, exfoliative) that disrupts the epidermisXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczemoid skin disorders, or (d) immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIVXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate volume ?25 mL and ?70 mL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition or history of illness or surgery that might pose an additional risk to men undergoing the VTP procedure;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in custody and or residing in a nursing home or rehabilitation facility;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions that preclude the use of general anesthesia;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHormonal manipulation (excluding 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors) that alters androgen production within the previous 6 months;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of urethral stricture disease;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute urinary retention within 6 months of study entry;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCondition requiring medication with potential photosensitizing effects (tetracyclines, quinolones, sulphonamides, phenothiazines, sulfonylurea hypoglycaemic agents, thiazide diuretics, griseofulvin, and amiodarone) if these treatments could not be stopped at least 10 days before and for 3 days after the VTP procedure or replaced by treatments without photosensitizing properties;Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical symptoms (e.g., dyspnea or cough) consistent with BOS of ? 2 months durationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of chronic graft versus host disease (cGVHD) in an organ other than lungXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of BOS by one of the following criteria\r\n* Transbronchial or surgical lung biopsy demonstrating the obliterative bronchiolitis lesion\r\n* Volumetric computed tomography (CT) scan with lung density analysis with ? 28% air trapping\r\n* National Institutes of Health (NIH)-based PFT criteria for the diagnosis of BOS: FEV1/FVC < 0.7 and FEV1 < 75% \r\n* Evidence of clinical improvement after treatment for BOS initiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo features supporting an alternative diagnosis by transbronchial biopsy, bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL), surgical lung biopsy, culture and non-culture based data, if performedXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple immune suppressive medications are routinely used in patients after HCT with cGVHD and will be allowed to continue while participating in this study; these concomitant medications include but are not limited to: tacrolimus, sirolimus, ibrutinib, corticosteroids, mycophenolate mofetil, ruxolitinib, vismodegib, cyclosporine, montelukast, azithromycin, corticosteroids inhalers including those with a long acting beta-agonist (e.g., salmeterol); additional medications and therapies (e.g., extracorporeal photophoresis) for the intentional treatment of BOS will be permitted at the discretion of the provider; prophylactic antimicrobials including trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, azole class of antifungals, and acyclovir will also be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no gender or race-ethnicity-based restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 17.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no specific restrictions for therapies to treat cGVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following medications may significantly increase the level of pirfenidone and should not be taken concurrently including: fluvoxamine, ciprofloxacin > 500 mg twice daily, systemically administered aminolevulinic acid, vemurafenib and enoxacin, any other strong inhibitors of P450 isozymes CYP1A2, CYP2C9, 2C19, 2D6, and 2E1 should be avoidedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate laboratory results including the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior anthracycline cumulative dose below 550 mg/m2 or the daunorubicin equivalent which is the recommended non-cardiotoxic level.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least 3 million x 10e6 CD34+ cells/kg to be infusedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to agents targeting IL-6 or the IL-6 receptorXx_NEWLINE_xXA woman who is pregnant or breast-feeding, or a woman who is planning to become pregnant or a man who plans to father a child while enrolled in this study or within 3 months after the last dose of study agentXx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for immune checkpoint inhibitors based on package insert of the chosen immune checkpoint inhibitor (e.g., uncontrolled immunologic disorders, active hepatitis, active colitis, active pneumonitis, uncontrolled/active hormone gland problems - including thyroid, pituitary, adrenal glands and pancreas)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason sum of 7 (with pT3 disease), 8, 9, or 10 based on the radical prostatectomy specimenXx_NEWLINE_xXMust use a condom if having sex with a pregnant womanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior immunotherapy including sipuleucel-TXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic malignancies other than lymphomas.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a baseline glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) ? 6.4Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least one bi-dimensionally measurable lesion; one of the measurements must be >= 1.5 cm in one dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult subjects with treatment naie primary or locally recurrent dedifferentiated liposarcoma (DDLPS) of the retroperitoneum or undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (UPS) of the trunk or extremity will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if all of the following criteria apply.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be evaluated by the anesthesia team prior to surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther terms for undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma (UPS) may include, but are not limited to: pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma, unclassified spindle cell sarcoma, spindle cell sarcoma not otherwise specified, pleomorphic spindle cell sarcoma, pleomorphic fibroblastic sarcoma, undifferentiated high-grade pleomorphic sarcoma, pleomorphic sarcoma with prominent inflammation, pleomorphic sarcoma with giant cells, malignant fibrous histiocytoma (including storiform-pleomorphic and inflammatory subtypes), fibrosarcoma, and myxofibrosarcoma (at least intermediate grade; located deep to the fascia in muscle).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarcerated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms of urogenital atrophy including dyspareunia or vaginal drynessXx_NEWLINE_xXVaginal stenosis which would not allow vaginal probe to be placed (based on physician exam)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive genital infection at the time of enrollment (if present initially, can be treated and then patient can be re-evaluated for eligibility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior reconstructive pelvic surgery involving mesh for prolapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to be randomly assigned to either intervention or control groupXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed ineligible for surgery by the enrolling physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormalities on screening physical exam judged by study physicians or supervising physical therapist to contraindicate participation in exercise program complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol or drug abuse as judged by study physiciansXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant mental or emotional problems that would interfere with study participation (as assessed by the National Comprehensive Cancer Network [NCCN] Distress Thermometer); any value higher than 7 will trigger further intervention, but ultimately enrollment into the clinical trial will be determined by the enrolling physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXMen with > 5 bony metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXMen with new or progressing lymphadenopathy clearly consistent with prostate metastasis on imaging or proven by pathologic biopsy at any time three months or later following their initial definitive therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived systemic therapy with radionuclides (e.g., strontium-89, samarium-153, rhenium-186, or rhenium-188, or radium Ra 223 dichloride) for the treatment of bony metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXImminent spinal cord compression based on clinical findings and/or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI); spinal cord compression will be defined as 360 degree circumferential obliteration of T2 cerebrospinal fluid signal around the spinal cord; treatment should be completed for spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXFecal incontinenceXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic melanoma or epithelial cancer with at least one lesion that is resectable or in selected cases, available peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled on protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with talimogene laherparepvec, any other oncolytic virus or pelvic radiation are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (e.g., herpetic keratitis or encephalitis) are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who is unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for herpes simplex virus (HSV)-1 induced complications such as immunosuppressed individuals, individuals known to have HIV infection, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year, during talimogene laherparepvec treatment and through 30 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvec are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiency are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to get MRIs due to any reason including pacemakers or automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD) are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFibrolamellar carcinoma or mixed HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically proven previous diagnosis of medulloblastoma or grade III or IV gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be CMV seropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior chemoradiotherapy is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection requiring treatment or an unexplained febrile (> 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F]) illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who need definitive radiotherapy for treatment of recurrent MB or recurrent grade III or IV gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must weigh > 25 kg at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have undergone puberty at the time of study entry to allow pre-transplant fertility preservation to occur, if desired; puberty will be defined as Tanner III or more in male patients (typically age >= 13 years) and menarche in female patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have severe SCD defined as 1 or more of the following:\r\n* Clinically significant neurologic event (stroke) or any neurological deficit lasting > 24 hours\r\n* History of >= 2 episodes of acute chest syndrome (ACS) in the 2-year period preceding enrollment despite the institution of supportive care measures (i.e. asthma therapy and/or hydroxyurea)\r\n* History of >= 3 severe pain crises per year in the 2-year period preceding enrollment despite the institution of supportive care measures (i.e. a pain management plan and/or treatment with hydroxyurea)\r\n* Administration of regular red blood cell (RBC) transfusion therapy, defined as receiving >= 8 transfusions per year for >= 1 year to prevent vaso-occlusive clinical complications (i.e. pain, stroke, and acute chest syndrome)\r\n* An echocardiographic finding of tricuspid valve regurgitant jet (TRJ) velocity >= 2.7 m/sec in adult patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hyperbilirubinemia as a consequence of hyperhemolysis or who experience a sudden, profound change in the serum hemoglobin after a RBC transfusion are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere pulmonary disease (despite above oxygen saturation and DLCO) including severe and uncontrolled asthma (per 2007 National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute [NHLBI] Guidelines for the Diagnosis and Treatment of Asthma Expert Panel Report 3), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and/or pulmonary hypertension (PH); a diagnosis of PH will be made by finding of mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) < 25 mm Hg on right heart catherization; in patients unable and/or unwilling to undergo cardiac catheterization, patients will be excluded with the following constellation of findings based upon presumptive diagnosis of PH (positive predictive value [PPV] of 62%): TRJ velocity > 2.5 m/sec AND either N-terminal pro-brain natriuretic peptide (NT-pro-BNP) >= 160 pg/ml OR 6-minute walk distance < 333 mXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated lack of compliance with prior medical careXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to take medications orally (i.e. no feeding tube)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete questionnaires by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1b:Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive illicit drug use or diagnosis of alcoholismXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with known IDH1 (isocitrate dehydrogenase 1) or known IDH2 mutations as determined by immunohistochemistry for the IDH1 R132H variant or by direct sequencingXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable thymoma or thymic carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of N2-3 or M1 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXActive tuberculosis or bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted but patients with psoriasis require a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations; rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA) and must be well controlled at baseline and only requiring topical steroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinary N-telopeptide level above 40 nM bone collagen equivalent (BCE)/mM creatinine measured at ARUPXx_NEWLINE_xXAny atrophic macular condition including intermediate or advanced age-related macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of diseases with influence on bone metabolism, such as Paget’s disease, osteogenesis imperfecta, active primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism, and primary or secondary hyperthyroidism within 12 months prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of osteonecrosis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXUse within 28 days of registration of calcitonin, recombinant parathyroid hormone-related peptides, mithramycin, radium, strontium ranelate, or gallium nitrateXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients who require monitored anesthesia for PET scanning due to claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must receive insurance approval for or be willing to pay for commercial gefitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees to have 10 week follow-up visit at a participating Johns Hopkins facilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees to allow access to or provide clinical, imaging, and laboratory follow-up information for until time of death or data analysis, whether or not obtained from Johns Hopkins providersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not plan to receive any other approved or investigational agents to treat their glioblastoma besides temozolomide prior to the evaluation visit 10 weeks after the initiation of radiotherapy and temozolomide; Note: Exceptions may be made for non-therapeutic intervention at the discretion of the principal investigator; the recently Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved NovoTTF electric field therapy begins after the study period and is therefore permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have disease that can be safely biopsied (for RP2D biopsy expansion cohort only), and agree to undergo a pretreatment and on-treatment biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who enroll in the triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC) dose expansion cohort should adhere to the American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines for the definition of TNBC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who previously received IACS-010759 or oxidative phosphorylation (OXPHOS) inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are breast-feeding or pregnant as evidenced by positive serum or urine pregnancy test performed within 72 hours of first dosing. (Pregnant women are excluded from this study because it is not known whether IACS-010759 has the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with IACS-010759 breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with IACS-010759.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactic acid levels > 2 mmol/L and/or serum pH < 7.35 at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any concomitant disease or condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBi-lineage or bi-phenotypic leukemiasXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of clofarabine or fludarabineXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh microsatellite instability (MSI-H) colorectal cancer patients must have received an approved PD-1 targeted agent prior to enrolling in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with intolerance to or who have had a severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to antibodies or infused therapeutic proteins, or patients who have had a severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to any of the substances included in the study drug (including excipients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be followed at the Cleveland clinic for ASXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to have prostate biopsies nine months after enrollment into the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects not followed by the Cleveland clinic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects unable to adhere to the dietary modification outlined in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following concomitant diseases/conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of current angina;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMorphological or cytological features of myelodysplasia and/or post-chemotherapy aplasia on BM assessment;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyopathy > grade 2 or any clinical situation that causes significant and persistent elevation of CPK (>2.5 x ULN in two different determinations performed one week apart);Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior irradiation to > 30% of BM reserves (including total body irradiation), regardless of the washout period;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have received one additional non-cytotoxic regimen for management of recurrent or persistent disease according to the following definition: non-cytotoxic (biologic or cytostatic) agents include (but are not limited to) hormones, monoclonal antibodies, cytokines, and small molecule inhibitors of signal transductionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have consented to surgery with an MSK gynecology (Gyn) surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) =< 7.9 %Xx_NEWLINE_xXBMI >= 25 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to consent to the companion genomic profiling study MSK IRB 12-245Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to travel to the CTSC at WCMC weeklyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of goutXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of nephrolithiasis or nephrolithiasis including that incidentally discovered during computed tomography (CT) screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown selenium deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in a diet (Atkins, Weight Watchers, Best Life, Nutrisystem, South Beach, Jenny Craig, Paleo Diet, Zone etc) or weight loss plan within 28 days prior to day 1 of treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere constipation or condition where exacerbation of constipation is not advisable (e.g. small bowel obstruction history)Xx_NEWLINE_xXVegetarian or vegan eating habitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of muscle cramps or restless legsXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated or poorly controlled gastro-esophageal reflux diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXGum chewing habitXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically overt myeloma a.) Lytic bone lesions or biopsy proven plasmacytoma b.) Hypercalcemia (corrected for albumin) > 11 mg/dL unexplained by other causesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously been treated with daratumumab or ixazomib, or participated in a study with ixazomib whether treated with ixazomib or notXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a histological diagnosis of advanced STS (by local pathology review), for which treatment with doxorubicin, ifosfamide and mesna is deemed appropriate by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously completed or withdrawn from any study investigating olaratumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave known urinary outflow obstruction, or inflammation of the urinary bladder (cystitis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a resting heart rate of >100 beats per minute (bpm).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBevacizumab naiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known potentially anaphylactic allergic reactions to gadolinium-diethylenetriamine penta-acetic acid (DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCo-medication that may interfere with study results; e.g. immuno-suppressive agents other than corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an active infection requiring intravenous treatment or having an unexplained febrile illness (time to maximum concentration [Tmax] > 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F], 37.5 degrees Celsius [C])Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of mycosis fungoides as confirmed by the Mayo Clinic Arizona Dermatopathology DepartmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPhotosensitivity disorder, including but not limited to porphyria, or concomitant photosensitizing drugs that place the patient at an elevated risk of developing severe side effects to PDT or RTXx_NEWLINE_xXAny underlying condition which prevents the patient from being able to undergo the required number of sessions of PDT or RT and required follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is suitable for prostatectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose of abiraterone acetate is taken.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had > 1 LHRH agonist or antagonist depot injection or received depot injection > 30 days before study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvoid co-administration of abiraterone acetate with CYP2D6 substrates that have a narrow therapeutic index. If an alternative treatment cannot be used, exercise caution and consider a dose reduction of the concomitant CYP2D6 substrate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving medications known to lower the seizure threshold are ineligible unless discontinued or substituted at least 4 weeks prior to study entry. These include: 1) aminophylline/theophylline; 2) atypical antipsychotics (e.g., clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone); 3) bupropion; 4) lithium; 5) pethidine; 6) phenothiazine antipsychotics (e.g., prochlorperazine (compazine), chlorpromazine, mesoridazine, thioridazine); 7) tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline, desipramine, doxepin, imipramine, maprotiline, mirtazapine).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of pituitary or adrenal dysfunction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies, hypersensitivity, or intolerance to prednisone, LHRH analog or excipients of prednisone LHRH analog, abiraterone acetate and apalutamide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious investigational antiandrogens (e.g., apalutamide, enzalutamide, BMS-641988).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to tolerate transrectal ultrasound.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-androgens (steroidal or non-steroidal) such as cyproterone acetate, flutamide, nilutamide, bicalutamide, etc. other than assigned study drug unless given for =< 4 weeks.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEstrogens, progestational agents such as megestrol, medroxyprogesterone, diethylstilbestrol (DES), cyproterone, spironolactone > 50 mg/kg, etc. unless discontinued at least two weeks prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or other medical condition that would make prednisone/prednisolone (corticosteroid) use contraindicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Pregnant persons\r\n* Nursing persons\r\n* Persons of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraception for at least 3 months after the last dose of the study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of any gender, race or ethnicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active acute or chronic graft versus host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA:\n\n        SONICS STUDY COMPLETERS:\n\n        Completed the final SONICS visit (M12) and have demonstrated maintenance of clinical\n        response on a stable Therapeutic Dose of levoketoconazole for at least 12 weeks prior to\n        study entry.\n\n        ALL OTHERS:\n\n          -  Confirmed newly diagnosed, persistent or recurrent endogenous Cushing's syndrome of\n             any etiology, except secondary to malignancy (including pituitary or adrenal\n             carcinoma).\n\n          -  Elevated mean 24-hour UFC levels at least 1.5X upper limit of the normative range of\n             the study's central laboratory assay and from a minimum of three measurements from\n             adequately collected urine.\n\n          -  Presence of abnormal values from at least one of these two diagnostic tests:\n\n               -  Abnormal Dexamethasone Suppression Test (DST) OR\n\n               -  Elevated late night salivary cortisol concentrations (at least two measurements)\n                  each greater than the upper limit of the study's central laboratory normative\n                  range\n\n          -  Non-candidates for CS-specific surgery, refuse surgery or surgery will be delayed\n             until after study completion and agree to complete this study prior to surgery.\n\n          -  If post-surgical for CS-specific surgery, then no significant post-operative sequelae\n             remain and the risk of such sequelae is considered negligible.\n\n        EXCLUSION CRITERIA:\n\n        Subjects will be excluded from the study if ANY of the following criteria are met (NOTE:\n        exclusion criteria apply to and must be assessed in both cohorts):\n\n          -  Enrolled in SONICS but have not completed SONICS through Visit M12.\n\n          -  Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome based on assessment of the Investigator.\n\n          -  Cyclic Cushing's syndrome with multi-week periods of apparent spontaneous CS\n             remission.\n\n          -  Non-endogenous source of hypercortisolism, including pharmacological corticosteroids\n             or ACTH.\n\n          -  Radiotherapy of any modality directed against the source of hypercortisolism within\n             the last 5 years.\n\n          -  Treatment with mitotane within 6 months of enrollment.\n\n          -  History of malignancy, including adrenal or pituitary carcinomas (other than low-risk,\n             well-differentiated carcinomas of thyroid, breast or prostate that are very unlikely\n             to require further treatment in the opinion of the treating physician, or squamous\n             cell or basal cell carcinoma of the skin).\n\n          -  Clinical or radiological signs of compression of the optic chiasm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically proven diagnosis of glioblastoma or gliosarcoma prior to registration by pathology reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have < 1.0 cm midline shift pre-operativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have tumors for which the Gd-enhancing mass appears to be covered =< 90% using 2 catheters and assuming a 3.0 cm diameter based on pre-operative planning are unlikely to have adequate LITT and thus ineligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived daratumumab or other anti-CD38 therapies previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have tumors that lack sensitizing EGFR mutation (e.g. exon 19 deletion or exon 21 L858R) or ALK rearrangement; if a patient has squamous histology, then EGFR and ALK testing is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known targetable EGFR mutation or ALK rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXThere must be evidence of progression on or after last treatment regimen received. NOTE: If subject is unable to walk due to paralysis, but is mobile in a wheelchair, subject is considered to be ambulatory for the purpose of assessing their performance status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to MD Anderson companion laboratory protocol 2014-0938.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements. However WOCBP must still undergo pregnancy testing as described in these sections.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have organ allografts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be scheduled to receive another experimental drug while on this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients who cannot be compliant with the appointments required in this protocol must not be enrolled in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA pathologically confirmed (histology or cytology) malignant neoplasm with at least one target lesion that is confirmed by conventional imaging and is determined to express somatostatin receptors by 68Ga-DOTATOC (TATE) PET within 6 months prior to treatment with 90Y-DOTATOCXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of Norfolk Quality of Life QuestionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior PRRT with 90Y-DOTATOC (TATE) or 177Lu-DOTATOC (TATE) or 131I-MIBG therapy for this malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny subject for whom, in the opinion of their physician, a 12-hour discontinuation of somatostatin analogue therapy represents a health risk; also subjects who have received sandostatin long-acting release (LAR) in the past 28 days or long-acting lanreotide within the past 8 weeks are excluded; subjects may be maintained on short acting octreotide during the time from last injection of long-acting somatostatin analogue until 12 hours (hrs) prior to injection of study drug; known antibodies to octreotide, lanreotide, or DOTATOC or history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to 90Y-DOTATOCXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject weighs more than 450 poundsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose-Escalation Phase: Patients must have histologically confirmed, BRAF-mutant (V600E/K) malignancy molecularly confirmed using Cobas assay or a comparable Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved assay (for exceptions, see below*) that is metastatic or unresectable, have received and tolerated prior BRAF or BRAF and MEK inhibitor (BRAF targeted) therapy or not previously received BRAF targeted therapy, and for which standard curative or palliative measures do not exist or are no longer effective.\r\n* If test at Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified lab used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be provided to the overall principal investigator (PI) for approval. (FDA approved tests for BRAF V600 mutations in melanoma include: THxID BRAF detection kit and Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 mutation test).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose-Expansion Phase: Patients must have histologically confirmed, BRAF-mutant (V600E/K) melanoma (molecularly confirmed using Cobas assay or a comparable FDA-approved assay (for exceptions, see below*) that is metastatic or unresectable, have received and tolerated prior BRAF or BRAF and MEK inhibitor (BRAF targeted) therapy at full dose or not previously received BRAF targeted therapy.\r\n* If test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be provided to the overall principal investigator (PI) for approval. (FDA approved tests for BRAF V600 mutations in melanoma include: THxID BRAF detection kit and Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 mutation test).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of RAS mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study. Prospective RAS testing is not required. However, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibility.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED):\r\n* History of RVO or RPED, or predisposing factors to RVO or RPED (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes).\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mm Hg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ? 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAlpha 1,3 galactose IgE (“alpha gal”) < 0.35 IU/ml or “negative” within 10 days prior to “on study” statusXx_NEWLINE_xXHas MDS or CMML and must also have one of the following Prognostic Risk Categories, based on the Revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R):Xx_NEWLINE_xXVery high (>6 points).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh (>4.5-6 points).Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with AML (20%-30% blasts) must have a treatment-related mortality (TRM) score >=4 for intensive, induction chemotherapy as calculated using the simplified model described by Walter and coworkers. Calculation of TRM score:Xx_NEWLINE_xX+ 0 for (PS=0), +2 for (PS=1), +4 for (PS >1).Xx_NEWLINE_xXComorbidities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe reason a participant is not eligible should be documented in the electronic case report form (eCRF).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas known hepatic cirrhosis or severe preexisting hepatic impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xX>= 1 osseous and/or extra-osseous lesion that can be radiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXSolitary plasmacytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo distant metastasis as verified by one of the study investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of contraindications to systemic immunotherapy (see list of exclusions below)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersons who are incarcerated or otherwise under compulsory detention by an authority are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated GFR >30mL/min/1.73m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled thromboembolic events or recent severe hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXAny mAb or other protein therapeutic containing Fc-domains within 4 weeks of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior BCMA-directed investigational agents at any timeXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of sickle cell disease by hemoglobin electrophoresis or high-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) [performed locally]. All sickle cell disease genotypes are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExperienced at least 1 VOC within the preceding 12 months prior to Screening, as determined by medical history.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing hospitalization prior to ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived a monoclonal antibody or immunoglobulin -based agent within 1 year of Screening, or has documented immunogenicity to a prior biologic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of biopsy-proven peripheral T-cell leukemia/lymphoma consistent with ATLL\r\n* Included subtypes will be: acute, lymphomatous, and chronic unfavorable; chronic unfavorable is defined as the chronic variant with at least one of the following: lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > upper limit of normal (ULN), blood urea nitrogen (BUN) > ULN, albumin < lower limit of normal (LLN)\r\n* Positive HTLV-1 antibody testing with confirmatory testing via western blot, enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), or molecular testing (polymerase chain reaction [PCR])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment: Previously untreated or has received a maximum of one cycle of any combination chemotherapy (e.g. cyclophosphamide/hydroxydaunorubicin/oncovin/prednisone [CHOP], cyclophosphamide/hydroxydaunorubicin/oncovin/etoposide/prednisone, [CHOEP], dose-adjusted etoposide/vincristine/doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide/prednisone [DA-EPOCH], cyclophosphamide/oncovin/doxorubicin/methotrexate-ifosfamide/VePesid/AraC [CODOX-M/IVAC], hyper cyclophosphamide/dexamethasone/doxorubicin/vincristine [CVAD]) within 4 weeks of study entry; additionally, a patient may have taken antiretroviral therapy (e.g. zidovudine [AZT] and/or interferon [IFN]) at any time prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic response to BV-CHEP or its components or to any of the required prophylactic medications or reasonable alternativesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving prohibited medications; prohibited medications or those to be used with caution (i.e., ketoconazole, itraconazole, ritonavir, macrolide antibiotics, erythromycin phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazapine, and valproic acid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment or randomization in the present study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarcerated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of one of the following: a): Patients >= 60 years of age with previously untreated Ph-positive ALL [either t(9;22) and/or BCR-ABL positive] (includes patients initiated on first course of therapy before cytogenetics known): This patient could have received one or two courses of chemotherapy with or without other tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) and still eligible; b) If they achieved CR, they are assessable only for event-free and overall survival; or c) If they failed to achieve CR, they are assessable for CR, event-free, and overall survival; d) Patients >= 18 years of age with relapsed/refractory Ph-positive ALL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study or history of chronic pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes (unless these can be changed to acceptable alternatives).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose escalation only: known grade 4 toxicity probably or definitely attributed to past irinotecan treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria (All questions must be answered \YES\ in order for the subject to be\n        considered for the study):\n\n          1. Is the subject a male or female between18 and 75 years of age inclusive who is able to\n             provide informed consent?\n\n          2. Does the subject have histologically-confirmed diagnosis of CD20-positive DLBCL based\n             on the WHO classification? The diagnosis must be confirmed at the enrolling site.\n             Subjects with history of indolent lymphoma or follicular Grade 3 lymphoma are not\n             eligible.\n\n          3. Does the subject have an ECOG score of 0, 1 or 2?\n\n          4. Does the subject have an IPI score of at least 3?\n\n          5. Does the subject have an estimated life expectancy of at least 12 weeks?\n\n          6. Does the subject have adequate organ function as follows:\n\n               1. Hepatic: total bilirubin ?1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN); alanine\n                  transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) ?1.5 times ULN (<5 times ULN\n                  if liver involvement)\n\n               2. Renal: estimated GFR of >50 ml/min by Cockcroft- Gault equation\n\n               3. Bone marrow: platelets ?75 x 109/L, absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ?1.5 x 109/L,\n                  hemoglobin ?10 g/dL, unless there is bone marrow involvement\n\n          7. If the subject is a male or female with reproductive potential, is he/she willing to\n             use an approved contraceptive method (for example, intrauterine device [IUD], birth\n             control pills, or barrier device) during and for 3 months after discontinuation of\n             study treatment? Women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy\n             test within 7 days prior to start of treatment.\n\n          8. Does the subject have a left ventricular ejection fraction ?50% by echocardiography or\n             nuclear medicine multi-gated scan?\n\n          9. Is the subject able to swallow tablets?\n\n         10. Does the subject have adequate transportation to allow for required follow-up visits?\n\n         11. Does the subject agree to have blood stored for possible future biomarker analysis?\n\n        Exclusion Criteria (All must be answered \NO\ in order for the subject to be considered for\n        the study):\n\n          1. Has the subject received treatment with an investigational drug within the last 30\n             days?\n\n          2. Is the subject receiving, or has the subject received, any other radiation or systemic\n             anticancer treatment for lymphoma?\n\n          3. Is the subject pregnant or breastfeeding?\n\n          4. Does the subject have known central nervous system (CNS) involvement?\n\n          5. Does the subject have any significant concomitant disorder, including active\n             bacterial, fungal, or viral infection, incompatible with participation in the study?\n\n          6. Does the subject have a second primary malignancy (except adequately treated\n             non-melanoma skin cancer)? Patients who have had another malignancy in the past, but\n             have been disease-free for more than 5 years, are eligible.\n\n          7. Is the subject unable to discontinue use of a concomitant medication that is a strong\n             inducer or inhibitor of CYP3A4? (See Appendix A).\n\n          8. Does the subject have a family history of long QT syndrome, or a QTc interval >450\n             (males) or 470 (females) at screening, a history of arrhythmias or a history of\n             unexplained syncope?\n\n          9. Must the subject take any medication that can prolong the QT/QTc interval? (See\n             Appendix C)\n\n         10. Does the subject have a history of severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to\n             monoclonal antibody therapy?\n\n         11. Does the subject have a confirmed diagnosis of progressive multifocal\n             leukoencephalopathy?\n\n         12. Does the subject have a history of grade 2 or higher peripheral neuropathy?\n\n         13. Does the subject have any of the following cardiac disorders: uncontrolled\n             hypertension, unstable angina, myocardial infarction within 8 weeks of Day1, NYHA\n             Grade 2 or higher congestive heart failure, ventricular arrhythmia requiring\n             medication within 1 year of Day 1, NYHA Grade 2 or higher peripheral vascular disease?\n\n         14. Has the subject received a live vaccine within 28 days of study Day 1?\n\n         15. Is the subject HIV positive?\n\n         16. Does the subject have evidence of chronic hepatitis C infection as indicated by\n             antibody to HCV with positive HCV-RNA?\n\n         17. Does the subject have evidence of chronic hepatitis B infection as indicated by\n             either:\n\n               1. HBsAg+ or\n\n               2. HBcAb+ with HBV-DNA+Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or previous use of a prohibited medication as listed in the protocol;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of keratitis;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, uncontrolled systemic disease at screening;Xx_NEWLINE_xXTolerated previous transrectal ultrasound guided biopsy procedure under local anesthetic\r\n* Uncomplicated previous transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) biopsy procedure (i.e., no prior hospitalization due to sepsis, prostatic abscess or severe hemorrhage following TRUS prostate biopsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo characteristics suggesting a potential higher risk of infection with intraprostatic injections:\r\n* Recurrent urinary tract infections or history of prostatitis within 3 months prior to enrollment into the study\r\n* Urine analysis positive for nitrites and leucocyte esterase; such patients could be considered for the study after treatment and resolution of the infection\r\n* Active proctitis\r\n* History of prostatic abscess\r\n* Taking immunosuppressive medication including systemic corticosteroids\r\n* Active hematologic malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients between ages 18 and 80Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG score 2 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have major medical problems such as severe cardiac, pulmonary (COPD requiring constant oxygen), or non-healing ulceration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any clinical evidence of hypoxia with O2 saturation less than 92% on room air.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of significant arterial insufficiency or microangiopathy in any organ due to any reason, which could lead to distal extremity hypoxia, as evidenced by any gangrenous change in distal limbs or requiring resection for this reason.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of hepatocellular carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXArterial anatomy which would preclude selective transarterial chemoembolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with extrahepatic metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with portal vein invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be a candidate for intralesional therapy\r\n* At least 1 injectable cutaneous, subcutaneous, or nodal melanoma lesion >= 10 mm in longest diameter OR\r\n* Multiple injectable melanoma lesions which in aggregate have a longest diameter of >= 10 mm\r\n* Must have no known bleeding diathesis or coagulopathy that would make intratumoral injection unsafeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose primary diagnosis was ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have an active herpetic skin lesion(s) or prior complications of HSV-1 infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed by National Cancer Institute (NCI) Laboratory of Pathology as high grade non-muscle invasive urothelial (transitional cell carcinoma) of the bladder as follows:\r\n* Carcinoma-in-situ (CIS) with or without papillary tumors\r\n* High-grade Ta or T1 disease based on a biopsy/Transurethral Resection of Bladder Tumor (TURBT) performed within 12 weeks of the initial dose of study treatment; if multiple bladder biopsies/TURBTs are required to confirm eligibility, the timing of the last bladder biopsy to the initial dose of study treatment must be within 12 weeks\r\n* Patients with persistent T1 high grade disease on TURBT following a single induction course of BCG (at least 5 of 6 doses) may also be eligible for this trial provided that the patient is surgically unfit for cystectomy as deemed by the investigator or the patient declines cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with BCG unresponsive disease as defined by the Society of Urologic Oncology and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA): Subjects must have received at least two courses of intravesical BCG (at least 5 of 6 induction doses of BCG and at least 2 of 3 maintenance doses of BCG under a maintenance regimen or at least 2 doses of a repeat induction course); please note exception above for persistent T1 disease; there is no upper limit on the amount of prior BCG a subject may have receivedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received last BCG dose within a year of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with hydronephrosis, except for those subjects where hydronephrosis has been longstanding (i.e., predates the diagnosis of the CIS, Ta, or T1 by more than 2 years) and diagnostic evaluation at screening shows no evidence of tumor causing the hydronephrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have histologically or cytologically confirmed EBV-positive LPD or an EBV-positive NHL confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI)\r\n* Cohort 1: EBV-positive B-cell LPD; subjects may be previously untreated or relapsed from prior therapy\r\n** Lymphomatoid granulomatosis (LYG), grades I-II\r\n** Chronic active EBV disease (CAEBV)\r\n** EBV-positive post-transplantation lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD); NOTE: PTLD after solid organ transplantation is excluded; patients who, at the discretion of the investigator, need urgent therapy with standard agents will not be eligible\r\n* Cohort 2: EBV-positive B-cell NHL subjects must have relapsed from previous treatment with an anthracycline and rituximab-based regimen or be considered not eligible for the same\r\n** Lymphomatoid granulomatosis (LYG), grade III\r\n** EBV-positive immunodeficiency-associated diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)\r\n** EBV-positive DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with active graft-vs-host disease (GVHD) requiring steroids or other immunosuppressive agents; history of >= grade II acute GVHD or extensive chronic GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of MDS according to the French-American-British (FAB) criteria. Subjects with MDS must have intermediate, high, or very high risk IPSS-R scores and cytopenia of at least one lineage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with histologically- or cytologically-documented incurable human papillomavirus (HPV)-positive OPSCC. HPV-16 serotype will be assessed by Cervista assay.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject entering the study will need to consent for mandatory biopsy at study entrance and as an optional procedure prior to C3 for biomarker evaluation. Biopsy should be excisional, incisional or core needle. Fine needle aspiration is insufficient.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarcerated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXA pulse oximetry ? 93%Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales of Childbearing Potential (FCBP) and male subjects who have reached puberty (and when applicable, with parental/legal representative) must agree to undergo physician-approved reproductive education and discuss the side effects of the study therapy on reproduction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale subjects must, as appropriate to age and the discretion of the study physician:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has first degree family member with a known hereditary coagulopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has previously received (presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from enrollment):Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has any prior history of malignancies, other than high-grade glioma, medulloblastoma, ependymoma or DIPG (Note: radiation-associated gliomas are excluded from enrollment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects willing to participate in the study for at least 8 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening visceral disease or other severe concurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas acquired resistance to EGFR TKI according to the Jackman criteria (PMID: 19949011):Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistorical confirmation that the tumor harbors an EGFR mutation known to be associated with EGFR TKI sensitivity (including G719X, exon 19 deletion, L858R, L861Q).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrates absence of EGFR T790M.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas previously documented evidence of ALK fusion, ROS1 fusion, BRAF V600E mutation, RET rearrangement, HER2 mutation, MET amplification, or MET exon 14 skipping mutation. No new testing for these genomic alterations is required for Screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuperficial bladder tumors (Ta, Tis, T1) ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of retinal disease in the eye that is not due to neovascular age-related macular degeneration (nAMD; eg, significant diabetic retinopathy, glaucomatous retinal atrophy, retinal detachment).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with DLBCL who best fit the criteria of EBV+ DLBCL, NOS are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXActive lupus or active sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe claustrophobia that is unresponsive to oral anxiolyticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 350 lbs. (weight limit for scanner table), or unable to fit within the imaging gantryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking medications with a narrow therapeutic index including warfarin, digoxin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, and cyclosporine are not excluded but should be monitored carefully.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not be taking Rifampin or St John`s wort.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven histochemical diagnosis of amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis based on tissue specimens with Congo red staining or other histologic stain; thioflavin T or S, or crystal violet; tandem mass spec or immunohistochemistry (IHC) confirmation of immunoglobulin-derived amyloidosis is encouraged; cases in which histochemical confirmation is lacking need to be discussed with one of the Multiple Myeloma Research Foundation (MMRF) protocol chair/co-chairsXx_NEWLINE_xXObjective measurable (cardiac, renal or liver) organ amyloid involvement defined as follows (amyloid involvement of at least 1 required):\r\n* Mean wall thickness > 12 mm on echocardiogram, with no other cardiac cause or an elevated N-terminal pro b-type natriuretic peptide (NT-ProBNP) (> 332 ng/L) in the absence of renal failure or atrial fibrillation\r\n* Renal involvement is defined as proteinuria (predominantly albumin) > 0.5 g/day in a 24-hour urine collection\r\n* Total liver span > 15 cm in the absence of heart failure or alkaline phosphatase > 1.5 times institutional upper limit of normal (ULN)\r\n* NOTE: Amyloid involvement of other organ systems is allowed, but not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosis due to mutations of the transthyretin gene or presence of other non-AL amyloidosis; exception: patients with amyloid heavy (AH) or mixed AL/AH type amyloidosis are potentially eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiac stage 2 or 3 with N-terminal prohormone (NT-pro)-B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) > 8500 ng/LXx_NEWLINE_xXCerebrovascular accident (CVA) with persistent neurologic deficits occurring within 6 months prior to enrollment; persisting neurologic deficits from a CVA occurring over 6 months prior to enrollment are not necessarily grounds for exclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to steroid therapy (defined as being unable to tolerate at least 20 mg dex/week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of active acromegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXBiochemically controlledXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking injections of long-acting SRLs not as indicated in the labelXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who previously participated in CH-ACM-01 or OOC-ACM-302Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic cholelithiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 lesion accessible for biopsy in addition to the target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated survival >= 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-morbidities that would influence wound healing including diabetes (insulin dependent) or smoking (current ongoing use)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for OsteoCool RF ablation per the labeled indication applicable in their respective country/regionXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic lesions targeted for treatment must be located in the thoracic and/or lumbar vertebral body(ies), periacetabulum, iliac crest, and/or sacrum OR benign bone tumors (Europe and Canada only) - no restrictions on location of lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted with heart pacemaker or other implanted electronic deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of OsteoCool in vertebral body levels C1-C7Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in concurrent studies can only be enrolled with permission from Medtronic. Please contact Medtronic's study manager to determine if the subject can be enrolled in both studies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf group 1 is not filled, patients may proceed onto treatment without the completion of tests for DNA repair status; once group 1 is filled, patients cannot be enrolled onto the study or start treatment until DNA damage repair status is successfully determined for study group placement\r\n* Patients will be replaced if:\r\n** They have tissues that are not evaluable for mutations or the expression signatures\r\n** They do not have mutations associated with DNA repair and their expression signature is not evaluableXx_NEWLINE_xXAs there is potential for hepatic toxicity with nivolumab or nivolumab/ipilimumab combinations, drugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAges > 50 years with hematologic malignancies treatable by unrelated hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAges =< 50 years of age with hematologic diseases treatable by allogeneic HCT who through pre-existing medical conditions or prior therapy are considered to be at high risk for regimen related toxicity associated with a high dose transplant (> 40% risk of transplant related mortality [TRM]); this criterion can include patients with a hematopoietic cell transplant-comorbidity index (HCT-CI) score of > 3; transplants should be approved for these inclusion criteria by the principal investigators at the collaborating centers and at Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center (FHCRC); all children < 12 years must be discussed with the FHCRC principal investigator (PI) prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAges =< 50 years with hematologic diseases treatable by allogeneic HCT who refuse a high-dose HCT; transplants must be approved for these inclusion criteria by the principal investigators at the collaborating centers and at FHCRCXx_NEWLINE_xXAggressive nonHodgkin lymphomas (NHL) and other histologies such as diffuse large B cell NHL– not eligible for autologous HCT, not eligible for high-dose allogeneic HCT, or after failed autologous HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXMantle cell NHL-may be treated in first complete remission (CR); (diagnostic lumbar puncture [LP] required pre-transplant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapidly progressive intermediate or high grade NHLXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of >= 5% circulating leukemic blasts (in the blood) detected by standard pathology for patients with MDS/MPS/CMMLXx_NEWLINE_xXThe addition of cytotoxic agents for “cytoreduction” with the exception of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (such as imatinib), cytokine therapy, hydroxyurea, low dose cytarabine, chlorambucil, or Rituxan will not be allowed within three weeks of the initiation of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXHave either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigator determined assessment of current stable disease following completion of at least 4 cycles but no more than 8 cycles, of pembrolizumab monotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHad previous exposure to Betafectin® or Imprime PGGXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with carcinosarcoma, mucinous, low grade endometrioid, or low grade serous histology evident on pretreatment biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unwilling to be transfused with blood componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXA contraceptive implantXx_NEWLINE_xXDo not have a vasectomized partner with confirmed azoospermia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant Medications:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf post allogeneic HCT: confirmed CD22+ leukemia recurrence defined as >= 0.01% disease by following allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be free from active GVHD and off immunosuppressive GVHD therapy for 4 weeks prior to enrollment. GVHD status will be determined in conjunction with an evaluation by an oncologist specialized in GVHD diagnosis and management through Seattle Children’s Blood and Cancer Disorders CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute blood lymphocyte (ALC) >= 100 cells/ul\r\n* If subject has an apheresis product or T cells available for manufacturing of T cell product, there is no minimum ALC requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate respiratory function defined as not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation; oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be able to tolerate apheresis procedure, including placement of temporary apheresis line if requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must NOT have an active severe infection defined as:\r\n* A positive blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment\r\n* A fever above 38.2 Celsius (C) AND clinical signs of infection within 48 hours of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to undergo an 18F-DOPA-PET scan (e.g., Parkinson’s disease, taking anti dopaminergic, or dopamine agonist medication or less than 6 half-lives from discontinuance of dopamine agonists)\r\n* Note: Other potentially interfering drugs: amoxapine, amphetamine, benztropine, buproprion, buspirone, cocaine, mazindol, methamphetamine, methylphenidate, norephedrine, phentermine, phenylpropanolamine, selegiline, paroxetine, citalopram, and sertraline); if a patient is on any of these drugs, list which ones on the On-Study formXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has sufficient venous access to permit administration of study drug (for the IV cohorts), collection of pharmacokinetic samples and monitoring of safety laboratories.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe of non-childbearing potential: Clearly premenarchal or documented surgically sterileXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has evidence of hepatic dysfunction defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject previously dosed with isavuconazonium sulfate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNY-ESO-1 positive malignancy by immunohistochemistry (IHC) utilizing commercially available NY-ESO-1 antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to accept at least three leukapheresis proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to undergo three research PET scansXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to purify >= 2.5 x 10^6 CD34-enriched cells/kg of patient weight from the pooled G-CSF mobilized leukapheresis productsXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B or C seropositivity with evidence of ongoing liver damage, which would increase the likelihood of hepatic toxicities from the chemotherapy conditioning regimen and supportive treatments; if there is a positive result in the infectious disease testing that was not previously known, the patient will be referred to their primary physician and/or infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection or cytomegalovirus (CMV) based on symptoms with positive swab culture and/or positive IgM screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytologically proven urothelial carcinoma; mixed urothelial/non-urothelial cell histologies are allowed but pure non-urothelial cell carcinoma is NOT allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of severe hypersensitivity reaction (e.g., generalized rash/erythema, hypotension, bronchospasm, angioedema or anaphylaxis) to nab-paclitaxel or anti-PD1/PDL1 or human albuminXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biliary obstruction or biliary stent are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSodium >= 130 mEq/LXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any of the prohibited drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny corneal or retinal abnormality likely to increase the risk of eye toxicity, such as:\r\n* Current corneal pathology such as keratitis, keratoconjunctivitis, keratopathy, corneal abrasion, inflammation or ulceration\r\n* Uncontrolled glaucoma despite standard of care therapy\r\n* Diabetic retinopathy with macular edema\r\n* Known active wet, age-related macular degeneration (AMD)\r\n* Known central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vascular occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBreast implant on the side of the body that will receive HIFU applicationXx_NEWLINE_xXMen and women, aged 18 years or older (except in South Korea, aged 19 or older).Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) procedure within the last 1 year or cataract surgery within the last 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of medical condition resulting in nephrotic range proteinuria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor B-ALL\r\n* Chemotherapy refractory disease in subjects with B-ALL is defined as progression or stable disease after two lines of lines of therapies\r\n* Recurrence of disease after achieving complete remission (CR)\r\n* Subjects with persistent or relapsed minimal residual disease (MRD) (by flow cytometry, polymerase chain reaction [PCR], fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH], or next generation sequencing) require verification of MRD positivity on two occasions at least 4 weeks apart\r\n* Subjects with Philadelphia chromosome positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Ph+ALL) subjects are eligible if they progressed, had stable disease or relapsed after two lines of therapy, including tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)\r\n* Subjects with recurrence of isolated central nervous system (CNS) relapse after achieving complete remission (CR); if relapsed with MRD, will require verification of MRD positivity on two occasions at least 4 weeks apartXx_NEWLINE_xXCD19 expression is required at any time since diagnosis; if patient has received anti-CD19 targeted therapy (i.e. blinatumomab or CD19-CAR T cells), then CD19 expression must be subsequently demonstrated; CD19 expression must be detected on greater than 50% of the malignant cells by immunohistochemistry or >= 90% by flow cytometry; the choice of whether to use flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry will be determined by what is the most easily available tissue sample in each subject; in general, immunohistochemistry will be used for lymph node biopsies, flow cytometry will be used for peripheral blood and bone marrow samplesXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in Cohort 1 (dose escalation) may have any level of expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease that can be safely accessed via bronchoscopic, thoracoscopic or percutaneous biopsy, and willingness to undergo biopsy before and after treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with laboratory evidence of autoimmune disease (e.g. positive antinuclear antibody [ANA] or lupus anticoagulant) without associated symptoms; vitiligo, or mild autoimmunity not impacting the function of organs, such as Hashimoto or psoriasis may be eligible for studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known ALK-rearrangement must have progressed or been intolerant to treatment with at least one ALK TKI: crizotinib, ceritinib, alectinib, brigatinib, or loralatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with PDL1 level of >= 50%, who do not have an ALK-rearrangement or EGFR-mutation, must have progressed or been intolerant to treatment with anti-PD1/PDL1 therapy (pembrolizumab, nivolumab, or atezolizumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo research biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown mutation in KRAS at position G12, G13, or Q61Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have average worst pain score within specific range on the NPRS from assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and capable of understanding and cooperating with the requirements of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to discriminate intensity of thermal stimuli using QST.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects able to complete the study duration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of brain pathology or increase intracranial pressure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an IT shunt.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas evidence or a coagulopathy or hemostasis problem.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have not completely recovered from any toxicities from previous treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to decitabine or azacitidine will be an exclusion criterion for the use of decitabine or azacitidine aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients, who require urgent initiation of chemotherapy (other than debulking agent such as hydroxyurea or cyclophosphamide) due to leukemia-related emergencies such as leukostasis, or disseminated intravascular coagulopathy; patients will not be excluded solely based on prior use of debulking agent; prior or current use of leukapheresis will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale subjects will be considered to be of non-reproductive potential if they have azoospermia (whether due to having had a vasectomy or due to an underlying medical condition)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a candidate treatment lesion (subcutaneous or nodal lesions are preferable but visceral lesions will be considered) accessible and safe for radiotherapy and serial intralesional injectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSystolic >= 80Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled concomitant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXContra indication or intolerance to required supportive care medications (aspirin and acyclovir)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a clinical diagnosis of low- to intermediate-risk non-muscle invasive bladder cancer according to the 2016 American Urological Association (AUA) Guidelines, except for strongly-suspected PUNLMP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has ever had confirmed extravesical urothelial disease (upper tract and urethral including prostatic urethral)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-Risk NMIBC as classified per the 2016 AUA GuidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx (tonsil, base of tongue, soft palate, or oropharyngeal walls). Clinical evidence should be documented, and may consist of imaging, endoscopic evaluation, palpation, and should be sufficient to estimate the size of the primary for purposes of T staging.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLifetime pack-year history of < 10 years, currently non-smoking for at least 5 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo retropharyngeal nor level IV (or lower) lymphadenopathy (i.e. nodes in level I-III only).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious radiation treatment for head and neck mucosal primary cancers within the past 5 years (i.e. oropharynx, nasopharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, and oral cavity).Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to MR imaging (e.g. implanted metallic prostheses, defibrillators, stimulators, pacemakers, or neurotransmitters) per institutional policy on management of patients with internal and external medical devices.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of claustrophobia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMini-mental status exam (MMSE) >= 24Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior WBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXMMSE < 24Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors known to harbor an exon 19 deletion or exon 21 L858R EGFR mutation must have progressed on or had intolerance to an EGFR TKI; patients whose tumors are known to harbor an ALK translocation must have progressed on or had intolerance to an ALK inhibitorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with histologically confirmed HCC (documentation of original biopsy for diagnosis is acceptable if tumor tissue is unavailable) or clinical diagnosis by American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) criteria in cirrhotic subjects is required (presence of arterial hypervascularity with venous washout). For subjects without cirrhosis, histological confirmation is mandatory. The determination of resectability status will ultimately lie in the clinical judgment of the surgical oncologist and medical oncologist involved in the care of the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements. However, WOCBP must still undergo pregnancy testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be scheduled to receive another experimental drug while on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not require total parenteral nutrition with lipidsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who cannot be compliant with the appointments required in this protocol must not be enrolled in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable disease by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version (v)1.1 that will not undergo SRT and that is amenable to monitoring\r\n* Note: All brain metastases will receive SRT; therefore, a patient with brain metastases that will be treated with SRT must also have extracranial disease that will not undergo SRT and that is amenable to monitoringXx_NEWLINE_xXPHARMACODYNAMIC EXPANSION COHORT: Consent to allow mandatory paired (pre- and on- treatment) fresh tissue biopsies if deemed safe to do so for quantitation of Akt pathway signaling proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known concurrent RAF or PIK3CA mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXIs ineligible for an operation based on medical or oncologic contraindications to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical =< 2.0 cm unifocal lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical or pathologic evidence of nodal involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have had a diagnostic mammogram performed within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAmenable to regular follow-up (according to research policies) for at least 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWithin 7 days (+ 3 day window) of enrollment: Serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x the institutional ULN, or =< 3 x ULN if confirmed Gilbert’s syndrome (persistent or recurrent hyperbilirubinemia that is predominantly unconjugated in the absence of hemolysis or hepatic pathology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapidly progressing tumors, as judged by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a significant history of pulmonary disease that necessitates the use of supplemental oxygen, and patients with resting pulse oximetry < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXRAPID EXPANSION PROTOCOL (REP) ELIGIBILITY: Clinical performance status equivalent to ECOG 0-1 at the last calendar clinical visitXx_NEWLINE_xXCHEMOTHERAPY/CELL INFUSION ELIGIBILITY: Patients must have adequate TIL available as per Moffitt Cell Therapies current standard operating procedures (SOP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFiber optic exam with laryngopharyngoscopy (mirror and/or fiber optic and/or direct procedure) within 8 weeks prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must provide their personal smoking history prior to registration; patients cannot have a cumulative personal smoking history that exceeds 10 pack-years\r\n* Number of pack-years = (frequency of smoking [number of cigarettes per day] x duration of cigarette smoking [years]) / 20\r\n* Note: Twenty cigarettes is considered equivalent to one pack; cigar and pipe tobacco consumption is not included in calculating lifetime pack-yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXCancers considered to be from an oral cavity site (oral tongue, floor of mouth, alveolar ridge, buccal or lip), or the nasopharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx, even if p16 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastasis or adenopathy below the claviclesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrical implants such as cardiac pacemakers or perfusion pumpsXx_NEWLINE_xXFerromagnetic implants such as aneurysm clips, surgical clips, prostheses, artificial heart, valves with steel parts, metal fragments, shrapnel, bullets, tattoos near the eye, or steel implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXFerromagnetic objects such as jewelry or metal clips in clothingXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one RAI-avid lesion identified on the most recent radioiodine scan (a diagnostic, post-therapy, or post-ablation scan) prior to study registration; (both RAI-sensitive and RAI-refractory patients are eligible if at least one tumor with RAI avidity of any degree can be identified within these parameters)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to follow a low iodine diet or requiring medication with high content in iodide (amiodarone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients older than 65 who are deemed fit to receive intensive chemotherapy by the treating physician will be eligible after discussion with the principal investigator (PI).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgrees to the placement of an intraperitoneal port before the start of chemotherapy and remains in place through day 28 or longerXx_NEWLINE_xXMyocardial infraction (MI) within the previous 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNew or progressive pulmonary infiltrates on screening chest X-ray or chest CT scan unless cleared for study by pulmonary; infiltrates attributed to infection must be stable/improving (with associated clinical improvement) after 1 week of appropriate therapy (4 weeks for presumed or documented fungal infections)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease outside of the peritoneal cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be CTC positive (defined as CTCs >= 5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOverweight or obeseXx_NEWLINE_xXPriority for members of a minority groupXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have internet access at their home via Wi-Fi and carry any kind of smart phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXIn good physical condition to perform low-intensity daily steps (walking)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals reporting < 3 days/week of mild or moderate activityXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to use Fitbit band to monitor physical activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to provide an email address to register their Amazon Echo speaker at their homeXx_NEWLINE_xXAlready doing moderate to high physical activities in their daily life (rapid screener)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlready using physical activity tracker or part of a physical activity programXx_NEWLINE_xXMental condition that prevents patient from performing the study activities and requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that will put the patient at undue risk or discomfort as a result of adherence to study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one non-contiguous lesions that is distinct from the radiation candidate lesion that is able to be evaluated radiographically or clinicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have resistant/refractory or recurrent neuroblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiation therapy (XRT) >= 2 weeks for local palliative XRT; >= 6 months must have elapsed after XRT involving > 50% of the craniospinal axis or > 50% of the pelvisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible >= 6 weeks after therapeutic 131I-MIBG or stem cell infusion to support 131I-MIBG, whichever is laterXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, andXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 94% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior history of ventilator support related to lung injury such as pneumonia, hemorrhagic pneumonitis, capillary leakage are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of ventilator support related to lung injury (e.g., pneumonia, hemorrhagic pneumonitis, capillary leakage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny other ongoing serious medical problem unrelated to cancer or its treatment that is not covered by the detailed exclusion criteria and which is expected to interfere with the anti-tumor effect of infused EA-NK cells or the action of hu14.18-IL2 or to significantly increase the severity of the toxicities experienced from this immunotherapy regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment in any other treatment studies that would interfere with the endpoints of this study from screening up to 28 days after the last immunotherapy (EA-NK cells or last infusion of hu14.18-IL2) in the opinion of the PI or PI designee is not permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Testing for communicable disease will be performed according to the University of Washington (UW) Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplant Program guidelines set forth in the most current standard operating policies and procedures (UW Foundation for the Accreditation of Cellular Therapy [FACT]-accredited Clinical Hematopoietic Cell Processing Laboratory [CHCPL] standard of procedure [SOP]) for hematopoietic cell donor evaluation and selectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients PRE-identified as having either a germline deleterious mutation or tumor expression of a deleterious mutation) as determined by next-generation DNA sequencing only, in at least one gene involved in DNA damage repair through homologous recombination including but not limited to: ARID1A, ATM, ATRX, MRE11A, NBN, PTEN, RAD50/51/51B, BARD1, BLM, BRCA1, BRCA2, BRIP1, FANCA/C/D2/E/F/G/L, PALB2, WRN, CHEK2, CHEK1, BAP1, FAM175A, SLX4, MLL2 or XRCC\r\n* Patients with somatic mutations will be PRE-identified as having a homologous recombination mutation based on next-generation sequencing (NGS) done in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified, College of American Pathologists (CAP) tested and bioinformatics-validated testing lab PRIOR to enrollment in this current protocol; the testing may have been done at any time prior to enrollment; HOWEVER, if any patient has had NGS testing more than 3 months prior to enrollment, or if there has been intervening therapy, then a repeat NGS test must be done and the deleterious somatic mutation must be re-identified for inclusion\r\n** The determination of a deleterious mutation must be supported in the documentation included in the testing, and should include clinical, or pre-clinical literature to support the finding that a specific mutation results in impaired function of the gene, and thus impaired DNA repair through homologous recombination; variants of unknown significance will not be eligible\r\n* Patients with germline deleterious mutations may have been identified at any time point prior to inclusion in the protocol and do NOT need to have this genetic testing repeated regardless of time frame and intervening therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of swallowing pills wholeXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of myeloablative conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute GvHD prophylaxis with methotrexate and tacrolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXActive grade III-IV classic acute GvHD; subjects with prior resolved acute GvHD on stable doses of immunosuppression at time of enrollment will be permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of classic chronic GvHD or overlap chronic GvHD at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who participated in a clinical trial of acute GvHD prophylaxis in which chronic GvHD was a secondary end pointXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of serious suicide risk including any history of suicidal behavior in the last 6 months and/or any suicidal ideation in the last 2 months and/or poses a significant suicide risk in the judgment of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXRichter transformation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on, been intolerant of or refused prior oxaliplatin- and irinotecan-containing, fluorouracil-based, chemotherapeutic regimen and have disease that is not amenable to potentially curative resection; patients who have a known KRAS wild type tumor must have progressed, been intolerant of or refused cetuximab or panitumumab-based chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients tumors must be documented to be microsatellite-stable (MSS) either by genetic analysis or immunohistochemistry OR microsatellite-high with documented disease progression following anti-PD1/PDL1 therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one focus of metastatic disease that is amenable to pre- and on-treatment biopsy and be willing to undergo this; ideally the biopsied lesion should not be one of the target measurable lesions, although this can be up to the discretion of the investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 35 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious investigational product (IP) assignment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to suspend treatment with anti-hypertensive medication (including but not limited to: diuretics, beta-blockers, angiotensin converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors, aldosterone antagonists, etc) for 48 hours pre and post each Pexa-Vec administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with grade >= 2 neuropathy will be evaluated on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions, per the investigator’s judgment, that predispose the patient to untoward medical risk in the event of volume loading (e.g. intravenous [IV] fluid bolus infusion), tachycardia, or hypotension during or following treatment with Pexa-VecXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who experienced a severe systemic reaction or side-effect as a result of a previous vaccination with vacciniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry oxygen (O2) saturation < 90% at rest on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically-proven (preferably confirmed by National Institute of Health [NIH] pathology review if initial pathology was done outside of NIH, but not mandatory), surgically inoperable, PHEO/PGL patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease by RECIST 1.1 with or without symptoms within the last 12 months; NOTE: untreated patients with existing histologic diagnoses are eligible if progression can be demonstratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPHEO/PGL that is associated with the SDHx mutations or is not associated with any known susceptibility genetic mutations for PHEO/PGL (a.k.a. “apparent sporadic”), based on documented genetic testing results obtained prior to study enrollment; PHEO/PGL that is associated with non-SDHx mutations such as VHL, NF1, and RET will not be eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is or will be enrolled on protocol 00-CH-0093, Diagnosis, Pathophysiology, and Molecular Biology of Pheochromocytoma and ParagangliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have presence of SSTR+ disease as documented by positive Ga-68-DOTATATE PET scan within 26 weeks of anticipated treatment\r\n* NOTE:\r\n** Positivity of Ga-68-DOTATATE PET scan defined as having at least one lesion that is >= 10 mm in diameter with uptake that is higher than or equal to liver and is qualitatively higher and distinguishable from background activity\r\n** Measurable disease as defined by RECIST 1.1Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility and willingness to obtain all required scans per study scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have outside endocrinologist/medical oncologist who can follow the patient after receiving peptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PRRT) at the NIHXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient weight > 400 pounds (lbs) (table limit for PET scanner)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to MD Anderson laboratory protocol PA13-0291 and LAB02-152.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAfebrile (<38°C per CTCAE v4.03);Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of rituximab and other anti-cluster of differentiation antigen 20 (CD20) antibodies known to have the same epitope as rituximab or anti-cluster of differentiation antigen 20 (CD20) for which the epitope is unknown within 3 months prior to enrollment;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma (including fibrolamellar variants and biphenotypic tumors with a hepatocellular carcinoma [HCC] component)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with extrahepatic disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have at least one intrahepatic lesion amenable to SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) or radiofrequency ablation (RFA) allowed, however, patient must have separate intrahepatic lesion amenable to SBRT and biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of seizure prophylaxis is allowed as long as patients are taking non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs (non-EIAED); if patients were previously on EIAEDs and these have been discontinued, they must have been discontinued for at least 2 weeks prior to treatment start; if patients require an anti-epileptic medication, then a CYP3A4 non-EIAED can be used such as levetiracetam, valproic acid, gabapentin, topiramate or lacosamideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring steroids must be at a stable or decreasing dose for at least 1 week prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with uncontrolled tumor-related pain\r\n* Symptomatic lesions amenable to palliative radiotherapy (e.g., bone metastases or metastases causing nerve impingement) should be treated prior to enrollment\r\n* Asymptomatic metastatic lesions whose further growth would likely cause functional deficits or intractable pain (e.g., epidural metastases that are not currently associated with spinal cord compression) should be considered for loco-regional therapy if appropriate prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity to alectinib or any of its excipients; in addition, subjects who are unable to tolerate the 600 mg twice daily BID dose of alectinib will not be permitted to enroll unless doses of alectinib below the entry level are being investigated (e.g. dose level -1 and -2) and they have previously tolerated alectinib monotherapy at the dose being investigatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent diagnosis of symptomatic bradycardiaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of other tyrosine kinase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated ASCT naive MM patients, currently with relapsed or refractory disease who are being considered for single ASCT for relapsed disease; patients must be eligible to undergo a stem cell transplant as per institutional criteria for selection at the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Pregnant persons\r\n* Nursing persons\r\n* Persons of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously been treated with ixazomib, or participated in a study with ixazomib whether treated with ixazomib or notXx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one metastatic lesion amendable for biopsy (core, punch, or fine needle aspiration [FNA])Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy (CSCR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients eligible for this trial will be those who have failed carfilzomib either as a single agent as the last form of therapy, or carfilzomib in combination with dexamethasone, or carfilzomib in combination with revlimid and dexamethasone; given the potential for compounding/worsening toxicities with the addition of cabozantinib to carfilzomib, patients eligible for the trial will have to have had very good tolerance to carfilzomib in the context of described regimens, with resolved prior toxicity to grade 1 or better, and no toxicities due to carfilzomib that required dose reductions to less than 27 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with another agent targeting the MUC20/c-Met axis, including either monoclonal antibodies to MUC20 or c-Met, or small molecule inhibitors of c-MetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known moderate or severe hepatic impairment, active hepatitis A, B, and/or C infection, due to the difficulty that would be faced in assessing the attribution of any events of hepatic toxicity while on cabozantinib therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have carfilzomib-related posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome (PRES) and thrombotic microangiopathy (TMA) should not be challenged with carfilzomibXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically, subject is a candidate for cytoreductive nephrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXBe scheduled for sub-lobar radioembolization therapy of a previously untreated HCC mass < 6 cm visible on grayscale ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXBe medically stableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recent cerebral hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivities to albumin, blood, or blood productsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known congenital heart defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe emphysema, pulmonary vasculitis, or a history of pulmonary emboliXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with portal vein thrombusXx_NEWLINE_xXConsented for genome sequencing and dbGAP-based data sharingXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have no active major medical or psychosocial problems that could be complicated by study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a strong likelihood of non-adherence such as difficulties in adhering to follow-up schedule due to geographic distance from the Siteman Cancer Center should not knowingly be registeredXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals in whom a skinfold measurement of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue for eligible injection sites (left and right medial deltoid region) exceeds 40 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXTherapeutic or traumatic metal implant in the skin or muscle of either deltoid regionXx_NEWLINE_xXSyncopal episode within 12 months of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any electronic stimulation device, such as cardiac demand pacemakers, automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator, nerve stimulators, or deep brain stimulatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of CD20+ statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an indication for therapy per standard modified Groupe d’Etude des Lymphomes Folliculaires (GELF) criteria including:\r\n* Symptoms attributable to lymphoma, threatened end-organ function, cytopenia secondary to lymphoma, bulky disease (defined as: single mass > 7 cm in diameter, or 3 or more masses > 3 cm in diameter), splenomegaly, and steady progression over at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of large B cell transformation (transformed disease) are not eligible; if in the opinion of the investigator there is high suspicion of transformed disease based on imaging (eg high standardized uptake value [SUV] uptake > 10 on the PET scan) and a biopsy of the suspected site is not feasible, then those patients are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should not have a history of uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXSigns or symptoms of life-threatening raised intracranial pressure: as defined by the treating neurosurgeon, including severe headache, nausea, decreasing level of consciousness, precluding 4-7 day delay in scheduling neurosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have vulvar HSIL as confirmed by pathology report from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXVulvar HSIL must be HPV-16+ by a polymerase chain reaction (PCR), ribonucleic acid (RNA), or in situ hybridization test from a CLIA certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of disease that can be biopsied for research purposes is not an inclusion criterionXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to participate in Gene Therapy Long Term Followup Protocol (15-C-0141), which will follow patients for up to 15 years per Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients vulvar HSIL that is not HPV-16+ or is associated with multiple types of high-risk HPV are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the distal esophagus, gastroesophageal junction or stomach, including patients with HER2+ disease; distal esophagus is defined as within 5 centimeters of the gastroesophageal junction (GEJ)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave been treated on any Merck-sponsored pembrolizumab-containing gastric cancer pivotal trial will require prior authorization by Merck in order to enroll in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of severe allergic reaction to cisplatin or carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of one or more cutaneous lesions (measuring at least 1 cm x 1 cm in size; if only one lesion is present it should be up to the investigator discretion to determine eligibility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with major symptoms or impairments related to brain metastases, such as aphasia or severe confusion, will be excluded per principal investigator (PI) discretion when those symptoms preclude proper neurocognitive evaluation during the study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels < 1.5 × ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any liver metastases or visceral metastasis of ? 3 cm, plus evidence of progression meeting irRC 1.0 within 1 month before the first OBP-301 administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring chronic systemic immunosuppressive medication including pharmacologic dose of glucocorticoids or cyclosporine should be evaluated by the Medical Monitor for enrollment eligibility.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML Blast cell expressing CD123 by flow cytometry performed as per standard practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXAfebrile (<38°C per CTCAE v4.03);Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of rituximab and other anti-cluster of differentiation 20 (CD20) antibodies known to have the same epitope as rituximab or anti-CD20 for which the epitope is unknown within 3 months prior to start of lymphodepletionXx_NEWLINE_xXbiopsy-proven refractory disease after frontline chemo-immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXfor subjects with DLBCL, PMBCL, and Gr3b-FL: relapsed or refractory disease following at least 2 prior regimens or following an auto-HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXfor subjects with MCL (confirmed with cyclin D1 expression or evidence of t(11;14) by cytogenetics, fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) or polymerase chain reaction (PCR): relapsed or refractory disease after at least 1 prior regimen with chemo-immunotherapy (prior auto-HSCT is allowable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXalemtuzumab within 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXfludarabine, cladribine, or clofarabine within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior m3F8, hu3F8, ch14.18 or hu14.18 treatment must have human anti-human antibody (HAHA) antibody titer =< 1300 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (Elisa) units/ml; human anti-mouse antibody positivity is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with complete response (CR)/very good partial response (VGPR) diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal volume of lesions =< 30 cm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXMaximum volume of largest lesion =< 5 cm^3\r\n* This volume limit would be equivalent to a largest diameter of about 2.1 cm, assuming a perfect sphereXx_NEWLINE_xXNot a candidate for or eligible for but refused Gamma Knife radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXLife expectancy < 6 months (as estimated per diagnosis-specific graded prognostic assessment [ds-GPA])Xx_NEWLINE_xXClotting parameters within normal limits or maximum 25% outside of the the normal rangesXx_NEWLINE_xXUrine protein (dipstick): negative or trace; in case of trace, a urinalysis has to be performed in the local laboratory and have to confirm that such abnormality is not to be considered clinically significant, according to the investigator's judgementXx_NEWLINE_xXeGFR> 60% of mean age adjusted normal valuesXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate respiratory function defined as not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation; oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has sufficient stored T cell product to manufacture appropriate doses of T-APCsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT AXx_NEWLINE_xXHas sufficient CD19 CAR T cell product (1x10^6 CAR T cells/kg) meeting release criteria for infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT BXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT CXx_NEWLINE_xXFollowing CAR T cell infusion on PLAT-02, patient initially achieved BCA and has now lost BCA in the bone marrow or peripheral blood, before 6 months; BCA is defined as < 1% CD19+ cells by lymphocyte subset testing, as measured by flow cytometry\r\n* If patient has disease relapse in this setting, disease must remain CD19+Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas sufficient CD19 CAR T cell product (1x10^6 CAR T cells/kg) meeting release criteria for re-infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has tolerated prior dose of modified CAR T cell infusion without experiencing a severe toxicity; OR if patient did have a severe toxicity, they have fully recovered to baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXLDH ?2.5 times the ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown lactose intolerance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires vitamin K antagonists. Note: Patients receiving low doses prescribed to maintain the patency of venous access devices may be included. Factor Xa antagonists are permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppression, of any kindXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior usage of PD-1 inhibitors, programed-death ligand 1 and/or 2 inhibitors, CTLA-4 inhibitors including but not limited to ipilimumab, nivolumab, avelumab, durvalumab, tremelimumab, and pembrolizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXActive on-going immunologic or autoimmune disease including but not limited to systemic or cutaneous lupus erythematosus, cutaneous psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, sicca syndrome, polymyalgia rheumatica, polyarteritis nodosa, granulomatous polyangiitis, microscopic polyangiitis, polyarteritis nodosa, temporal arteritis, giant cell arteritis, dermatomyositis, Kawasaki diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-treatment biopsy must establish the diagnosis AND have enough remaining tissues to satisfy the mandatory research studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive prophylactic treatment for pneumocystis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), or herpes zoster (VZV) at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to MD Anderson laboratory protocol PA13-0291.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAT SCREENING: Serum chemistries, renal and liver panels within institutional normal limits or meets the requirements for radical prostatectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of major implant(s) or device(s), including but not limited to:\r\n* Prosthetic heart valve(s).\r\n* Artificial joints and prosthetics placed =< 12 months prior to treatment initiation.\r\n* Current or prior history of infection or other clinically significant adverse event associated with an exogenous implant or device that cannot be removed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to carboplatin or paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol or drug dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hyper- or hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluation by the treating medical oncologist (or if systemic therapy is being given outside Stanford, by the Stanford consulting medical oncologist) must show:\r\n* The patient is expected to continue on immunotherapy for at least three more months\r\n* Imaging must show response, stable disease, or modest progression\r\n* If there is modest progression, the patient must be clinically stable in terms of performance status and overall disease-related symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS >2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active extramedullary disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic off steroids for at least 10 days except patients: a) who have mild symptoms from intracranial disease that do not affect their performance status; or b) who are asymptomatic, but require steroids for control of symptoms on a maximum dose of dexamethasone 4mg/day orally (PO) or equivalentXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%) No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xX(Bevacizumab-related exclusion) Prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXLow-risk HPV+ disease, defined as meeting all of the following criteria:\r\n* Patients with HPV+ by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or p16\r\n* Smoking history =< 10 pack years\r\n* Stage T1-2N0-2b, T3N0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known contraindications to radiotherapy including inherited syndromes associated with hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation (e.g., ataxia telangiectasia, Nijmegen breakage syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with a biopsy proven diagnosis of chondrosarcoma that is grade I, II or III orXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biopsy proven dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma that chose not to pursue neoadjuvant chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of osteoclast inhibitors for osteoporosis will not be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine > 1.5 or history of renal disease preventing use of ZAXx_NEWLINE_xXOther concurrent severe and/or uncontrolled medical conditions including need for urgent dentoalveolar surgery as indicated by preventative dental examXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically proven diagnosis of ependymoma, medulloblastoma, pineoblastoma/pineocytoma, choroid plexus carcinoma/papilloma, chordoma, gliomatosis cerebri, brainstem glioma, midline glioma, ATRT, atypical/malignant meningioma, gliosarcoma or primary brain sarcoma prior to registration as confirmed by National Cancer Institute (NCI) Laboratory of PathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-CHEMORADIATION SAMPLE COLLECTION: Patients with muscularis propria invasion clinical stages 2 to 4 (T2-4a, N0 or N+, M0 or T1 with N+), who are not candidates for radical cystectomy\r\n* Patients may have undergone partial cystectomy for removal of bladder tumor prior to chemoradiation; patients who have down-staged from M1 disease to M0 with prior platinum-based chemotherapy will be eligible\r\n* Staging is determined prior to chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY TREATMENT: Patients with muscularis propria invasion clinical stages 2 to 4 (T2-4a, N0 or N+, M0 or T1 with N+), who are not candidates for radical cystectomy\r\n* Patients may have undergone partial cystectomy for removal of bladder tumor prior to chemoradiation; patients who have down-staged from M1 disease to M0 with prior platinum-based chemotherapy will be eligible\r\n* Staging is determined prior to chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXDiffuse bladder carcinoma in situ (CIS) that was not able to be encompassed in a boost radiotherapy volumeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who desire and are candidates for radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have received at least 2 consecutive cycles of a bortezomib- or carfilzomib-containing regimen, and either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling, including pharmacokinetic (PK) sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to adhere to pomalidomide-related risk mitigation activities if randomized to the pomalidomide+dexamethasone (pom+dex) arm (e.g., Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies [REMS], pregnancy prevention programs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdmission or evidence of illicit drug use, drug abuse, or alcohol abuse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a permanent pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any arterial thromboembolic event within 3 months prior to first dose of investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXHave one of the following confirmed histologically, cytologically, or through biochemical testing:\r\n* Wild-type GIST (GIST without KIT or PDGFRA mutation);\r\n* PHEO/PGL with a germline mutation in SDHA, SDHB, SDHC, or SDHD;\r\n* Renal cell cancer associated with HLRCC\r\n* Testing will be performed in Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified labs using genetic tests for KIT/PDGFRA and testing panels developed for patients with PHEO/PGL; results from outside labs will be accepted; pathologic diagnosis will be reviewed and verified at the Clinical CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to SGI-110 or decitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of concomitant medications with high risk of causing Torsades des Pointes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional criteria for escalation cohorts: A) patients must have Ras pathway activation (RPA) (including KRAS, NRAS, NF1, HRAS, and BRAF); B) prior treatment with MEK inhibitors and/or PARP inhibitors is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmological conditions as follows: current or past history of retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED)/central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vein occlusion; or intraocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of IOP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is confirmed to have actively symptomatic pneumonitisXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have medical assessment consistent with prognosis for an expected survival of at least 6 months and be clinically appropriate to receive a 12 week hiatus from any cytotoxic treatment according to the best clinical judgement of the treating investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecognized immunodeficiency condition including cellular immunodeficiencies, hypogammaglobulinemia or dysgammaglobulinemia; subjects who have acquired, hereditary, or congenital immunodeficiencies, including HIV infection or have been splenectomized.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave contraindications to the use of pressor agents (e.g., SC epinephrine), notably monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown to have recent history of drug abuse or alcoholism.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fistula documented radiographically or by EDG/EUS, endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of, or suspected allergic reactions to durvalumab, pralatrexate, oral 5-azacitidine, or romidepsin or any of their excipientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors contain activating EGFR mutations or ALK rearrangement should be excluded from this study, unless disease has progressed on all available, approved therapies targeting the EGFR mutation or ALK rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled concomitant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have suspected recurrent malignant glioma (WHO grade III-IV), including recurrent glioblastoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, anaplastic oligoastrocytoma, and anaplastic ependymoma; stereotactic biopsies will be performed to confirm recurrent malignant glioma prior to initiating the treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diffuse subependymal or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors involving the cerebellum or both cerebral hemispheresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with systemic diseases which may be associated with unacceptable anesthetic/operative riskXx_NEWLINE_xXMen taking propranolol on a daily for any reason are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior exposure to colony stimulating factor 1 receptor (CSF1R) antagonists such as but not limited to emactuzumab (RG7155) (Roche), PLX3397 (Plexicon), JNJ40346627 (Johnson & Johnson), including both anti-CSF1R and small molecule inhibitors and prostaglandin E2 receptor 4 (EP4) antagonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive hydronephrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXExclude if patient has cirrhosis or is currently being actively treated for hepatitis CXx_NEWLINE_xXHas history of osteonecrosis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXHas history of wound dehiscence or complications requiring medical intervention within 6 months of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a history of coagulopathies or hematological disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects already taking drugs known to be 5-lipoxygenase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking drugs that interact with OATP1B3 (an anion transporter), MRP2 (a multidrug resistant protein), and/or P-glycoprotein (P-Gp)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking anti-coagulants or platelet inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects undergoing emergency surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have BRAFV600-mutation status known (molecularly confirmed using validated, commercially available assay performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] approved laboratory)\r\n* If test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved method, information about the assay must be provided; (FDA approved tests for BRAF V600 mutations in melanoma include: THxID BRAF Detection Kit and Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED):\r\n* History of RVO or RPED\r\n* Current evidence of visible retinal pathology as assessed by pre-study ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of visual field defects, and/or intraocular pressure > 21 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXDNA damage repair deficiency as assessed centrally by a gene mutation biomarker panel (testing of de novo or archiaval tumor tissue (via central laboratory) or prior historical testing (with Sponsor approval) using the Foundation Medicine, FoundationOne® NGS gene panel test.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to a saliva sample collection for a germline comparator, unless prohibited by local regulations or ethics committee (EC) decision.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic or impending spinal cord compression or cauda equina syndrome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of MDS (Myelodysplastic syndromes).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or anticipated use of the following P gp inhibitors (amiodarone, carvedilol, clarithromycin, cobicistat, darunavir, dronedarone, erythromycin, indinavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole, lapatinib, lopinavir, propafenone, quinidine, ranolazine, ritonavir, saquinavir, telaprevir, tipranavir, verapamil, and valspodar), P gp inducers (avasimibe, carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampin, and St. John's wort), or BCRP inhibitors (curcumin, cyclosporine, elacridar [GF120918] and eltrombopag).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically inoperable or patient refusal to surgery as defined by any single of the following criteria\r\n* Determined unfit for surgery by thoracic surgeon or radiation oncologist as documented in the medical record\r\n* Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) showing forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) =< 1.2 L or diffusion capacity of the lung (DLC) < 60%\r\n* Poor exercise tolerance or failed pre-operative cardiac work-up\r\n* Patient refusal to undergo definitive surgery as documented in clinical note by a surgeon, pulmonologist, medical oncologist, or radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin >= 9.0 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the study in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known brain, spinal or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) involvement are excluded\r\n* Prophylactic intrathecal therapy is allowed per institutional protocol if deemed necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe intolerance to glucocorticoidsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= 60 years of age with previously untreated Ph-positive ALL [either t(9;22) and/or BCR-ABL positive] (includes patients initiated on first course of hyper-CVAD before cytogenetics known).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= 60 years of age with previously treated Ph-positive ALL, after 1-2 courses of chemotherapy with or without other tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs). If they achieved CR, they are assessable only for event-free and overall survival, or If they failed to achieve CR, they are assessable for CR, event-free, and overall survival.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study or history of chronic pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypertriglyceridemia (triglycerides > 450mg/dL).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes (unless these can be changed to acceptable alternatives).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of a venous thromboembolic event, cerebrovascular accident (CVA), hepatic impairment, or heart failureXx_NEWLINE_xXMDS classified as intermediate 1-risk or high risk according to the international prognostic scoring system (IPSS) or revised-IPSSXx_NEWLINE_xXResidual side effects from chemotherapy or radiation, which have not gotten better except for nerve pain or tingling or hair loss.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the colon that has metastasized (stage 4) and is TP53 mutant/deleted by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) approved genetic test; only known loss of function TP53 mutation/deletion will be eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be resistant to or intolerant of fluorouracil (5FU), oxaliplatin, irinotecan, bevacizumab and cetuximab/panitumumab (if RAS wild type)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have surgically resectable disease in the opinion of the treating physician. For patients with a primary OPSCC, patients must be eligible for TORS (transoral robotic surgery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate candidate for breast-conserving surgery based on multi-disciplinary assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be negative for Her-2 amplification; (either 1+ on semi-quantitative evaluation of immunostain or negative by fluorescent in-situ hybridization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have amplification of Her-2 (either 3+ by semi-quantitative immunostain or positive by fluorescent in-situ hybridization [FISH])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not be a known carrier of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 3 (There may be certain patients with performance status [PS] 3 in the context of rapidly proliferative/refractory ALL who would benefit from this regimen. We don’t want to exclude such patients who may derive benefit from this salvage regimen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive hepatic graft-versus-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious esophageal dilatation is permitted, provided the patient has developed recurrent dysphagia since that procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on prophylactic or full-dose anticoagulation are eligible, provided the treating physician believes it is safe to temporarily withhold anticoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXT4 tumors with involvement of any adjacent structure, including the trachea, aorta or pleuraXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of esophageal perforationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological evidence urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma of the renal pelvis, ureter, bladder or urethraXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled tumor-related pain\r\n* Subjects requiring pain medication must be on a stable regimen at study entry\r\n* Symptomatic lesions amenable to palliative radiotherapy (e.g., bone metastases or metastases causing nerve impingement) should be treated prior to enrollment\r\n* Asymptomatic metastatic lesions whose further growth would likely cause functional deficits or intractable pain (e.g., epidural metastasis that is not currently associated with spinal cord compression) should be considered for loco-regional therapy if appropriate prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical signs or symptoms of gastrointestinal obstruction or requirement for routine parenteral hydration, parenteral nutrition, or tube feedingXx_NEWLINE_xXOn-going gross hematuria associated with clotsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be eligible to undergo high dose chemotherapy (HDT) followed by ASCT as a form of remission consolidationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who were previously exposed to zydelig and experienced progression of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of (h/o) pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) or positive cytomegalovirus (CMV) viremia confirmed twice at least 1 day apart at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject meets disease-specific requirements per protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is HLA-A*02:05 positive in either allele; Subject has HLA-A*02:07 as the sole HLA-A*02 allele (e.g., a subject with HLA alleles A*02:04 and A*02:07 is eligible); or Subject has any A*02 null allele (designated with an \N\, e.g., A*02:32N) as the sole HLA-A*02 alleleXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss of > 10% in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastases (M1 disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known history of serous retinopathy will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRichter transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth pediatric and adult patients can be eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth male and female patients must have a pelvic tumor and are scheduled to have surgery at University of Texas (UT) Monroe Dunaway (MD) Anderson Cancer center that require hemipelvectomy, resulting in pelvic ring disruptionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with a history of genetic prothrombotic stateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be eligible if they have a history of color vision defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be eligible if they have a history of retinal vein or artery occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PHASE Ib PORTION OF THE STUDY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PHASE II PORTION OF THE STUDY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR ALL PHASES (Ib AND II):Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PHASE Ib ONLY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PHASE II ONLY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR ALL PHASES (Ib AND II): Concurrent diagnosis of pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients not in remission must have CD45-expressing leukemic blasts; patients in remission do not require phenotyping and may have leukemia previously documented to be CD45 negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss < 10% in preceding 3 months prior to diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior thoracic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindications to thoracic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contralateral hilar involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC) with the majority of disease confined to the peritoneal cavity and resectable or amenable to radiofrequency ablation; or disease that in the opinion of the investigators can be managed medically or surgically and does not present an immediate threat to the patient’s lifeXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand their disease and the exploratory nature of combining surgery and HIPEC for this histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHydronephrosis or biliary obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXChilds B or C cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of severe portal hypertension by history, endoscopy, or radiologic studies\r\n* Note: Any diagnosis of portal hypertension or clinical stigmata of such including but not limited to gastric or esophageal varices, umbilical vein varices or telangiectasiasXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight < 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject does not require supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, and oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry is 94% or higher on room air.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of research participant or legally responsible parent or guardian to understand the basic elements of the protocol and/or the risks/benefits of participating in this phase I study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to products containing mouse and bovine protein antibodies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on a stable dose of anti-coagulation therapy will be allowed to participate if they have no signs of bleeding or clotting and the INR/PT and PTT/aPTT results are compatible with an acceptable risk-benefit ratio as per the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are known to have a history of or a finding of corneal epitheliopathy at pre-study are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2 x UNL or =< 5.0 x UNL in case of liver metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) =< 2 x UNL or =< 5.0 x UNL in case of liver metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors that cannot be measured or clinically followedXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoblastic lymphoma\r\n* All patients will be eligible in second or greater complete remission (CR) or first or subsequent partial remission (PR)\r\n* Patients with any high-risk features will be eligible in first complete remission\r\n* High risk features include:\r\n** Stage IV\r\n** Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 2 x upper limit of normal\r\n** >= 2 extranodal sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with resistant disease (initial or at relapse): those who fail to achieve an objective partial response to three cycles of combination non-cross resistant chemotherapy will not be eligible for transplant in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXFor advanced (stage III/IV) Hodgkin disease, patients must have failed an Adriamycin containing regimen (adriamycin-bleomycin-vinblastine-dacarbazine [ABVD]) or an alternative non-cross resistant regimen (e.g. mustargen-oncovin-procarbazine-prednisone [MOPP])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any high-risk features will also be eligible, including those who:\r\n* Fail to achieve complete remission with initial combination chemotherapy\r\n* Have bulky disease after initial therapy (chemotherapy or radiation) defined as residual mediastinal mass >= 5 cm or other residual mass >= 10 cm accompanied by other features of persisting disease (e.g., positron emission tomography [PET] scan positive; high LDH; enlarging on serial x-rays or biopsy positive) will be eligible - if feasible, persistent disease should be proven by biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are carriers of hepatitis B will be included in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for any higher priority transplant protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected high-frequency microsatellite instability (MSI-H) CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had a stent placed for biliary obstruction can be included in the study provided serum bilirubin at time of enrollment is within protocol limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of syncopal or vasovagal episode as determined by medical record and history in the 12 month period prior to first vaccination administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals in whom a skinfold measurement of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue for eligible injection sites (left and right medial deltoid region) exceeds 40 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXTherapeutic or traumatic metal implant in the skin or muscle of either deltoid regionXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any electronic stimulation device, such as cardiac demand pacemakers, automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator, nerve stimulators, or deep brain stimulatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease (GvHD), grade 2-4 according to the Glucksberg criteria, active chronic GvHD requiring systemic treatment or requirement for GvHD prophylaxis with cyclosporine or tacrolimus.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject previously treated with blinatumomab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0 to 2; patients with PS 2 are being included as the primary endpoint of the study is correlation of blood based biomarkers with response; nivolumab is currently approved for both squamous and non-squamous NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to undergo a preliminary biopsy of a metastatic focus for research purposes; a second post-treatment biopsy will be offered but will not be mandatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have participated in pembrolizumab (MK-3475) Merck studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Pregnant persons or persons of reproductive ability who are unwilling to use effective contraception\r\n* Nursing personsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of primary of secondary myelofibrosis with transplant indication by Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS)-plus (> intermediate-1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= age 50 must have a comorbidity score (hematopoietic cell transplant-comorbidity index [HCT-CI]) < 4 (Sorror)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance status >=70% (Karnofsky); patients > 50 years should have adequate cognitive function; any concerns regarding cognitive function should be addressed by a geriatrician/neurologistXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of severe portal hypertension with evidence of decompensation either with bleeding varices, large volume ascites, or hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXIf previously exposed to irradiation, the combined prior and anticipated exposure for Cycle 1 is not expected to exceed organ exposure limits outlined in Table 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG performance status of 0 or 1 (51), or KPS of 100% to 80% (52)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMVT-5873 and MVT-2163 administered as part of a different protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reaction to human, or humanized, antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXTumour sites amenable to repeated biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo paired tumour biopsies during the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTo limit the heterogeneity of the tumor population and reduce the risk of masking any clinical effect of the treatment regimen, multiple categories of STS subtypes will be excluded:\r\n* Patients with primarily bone-based sarcomas that can occur in the soft tissues, such as: \r\n** Extraskeletal Ewing sarcoma\r\n** Extraskeletal osteosarcoma\r\n** Peripheral chordoma\r\n** Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma\r\n** Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma\r\n* Patients with predominantly low-grade STS, such as:\r\n** Solitary fibrous tumor / hemangiopericytoma\r\n** Well-differentiated liposarcoma\r\n** Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans\r\n** Kaposi’s sarcoma\r\n* Pediatric-type STS such as rhabdomyosarcoma\r\n* Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of current or recent clinical diagnosis of tuberculosis (within 6 months prior to enrollment). A chest x-ray (XR) will be performed to screen for active tuberculosis (TB) for patients who have a history of treated TB. A chest XR will be performed in all patients to screen for active TB unless there has been a prior chest XR or computed tomography (CT) scan of chest within 1 month of entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously enrolled in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be functionally and technically fit for partial laryngectomy. Subsite study candidates will be evaluated by enrolling physician. The assessment checklist will be submitted at time of enrollment and evaluated by Dr. Gross or Dr. Phan.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have undergone a diverting tracheostomy which is either a) traversing directly through tumor, b) has been placed for true airway insufficiency. Patients with a tracheostomy placed preemptively for impending airway compromise remain eligible for enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXcreatinine phosphokinase isozymes CPK-MB and CPK-MM ? ULN;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior or current history of digoxin exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring treatment with one or more medications known to interact adversely with digoxin, namely thiazide and/or loop diuretics, quinidine, ritonavir, amiodarone, cyclosporine, itraconazole, propafenone, spironolactone, verapamilXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring treatment with one or more beta-blockers (metoprolol, atenolol, propranolol) or calcium channel blockers with atrioventricular (AV)-nodal blocking activity (verapamil, diltiazem); patients being treated with AV nodal blocker (beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker) are allowed if the agent is being used only for correcting hypertension, and if an acceptable alternative is available (for example, transitioning from a drug such as atenolol to Lisinopril or amlodipine) prior to starting treatment on therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with history of prior exposure to decitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients eligible for intensive induction chemotherapy and “medically unfit” based on a treatment related mortality (TRM) score >= 13.1\r\n* TRM score= a scoring model which predicts early death following intensive induction chemotherapy in newly diagnosed AML; \r\n** Model looks at ECOG performance status (PS), age, platelet count, albumin, second (2nd) AML, white blood cells (WBC), percentage (%) peripheral blasts, creatinine\r\n** Score above 13.1 associated with 31%+ chance of death after inductionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown current or a history of hepatitis B or C virus, including chronic and dormant states, unless disease has been treated and confirmed clearedXx_NEWLINE_xXHowever, if the treating physician and diagnostic radiologist strongly suspect PET positivity, the patient should not be enrolled even if the biopsy is negative (to exclude patients with false-negative biopsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors > 7 cm or tumors involving the main bronchus or associated vessels or tumors that invade any critical structures (such as esophagus, brachial plexus, heart, mediastinal major vessels) are not suitable for SABRXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received previous immunotherapy with PD1 or CTLA4 antibodies are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom SABR plans cannot meet the minimum requirement of target coverage and dose-volume constraints of critical structures (see SABR treatment planning section) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA) >= 0.55 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have either a clinical diagnosis of NF1 or a germline NF1 mutation, or in patients without the NF1 syndrome, demonstrate an NF1 mutation in the GIST verified in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory; in patients without the NF1 syndrome, confirmation of the NF1 mutation in the GIST is required for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFor a clinical diagnosis of NF1 patients must have at least two of the diagnostic criteria for NF1 listed below:\r\n* Six or more cafe-au-lait macules (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in post pubertal subjects)\r\n* Freckling in axilla or groin\r\n* A neurofibroma or plexiform neurofibroma\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically or cytologically confirmed measurable GIST without platelet-derived growth factor receptor, alpha polypeptide (PDGFRA) or KIT proto-oncogene receptor tyrosine kinase (KIT) mutations; GIST may be newly diagnosed or recurrent provided that it meets criteria for progressive or metastatic disease; metastatic disease refers to disease outside the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, not simply a multifocal primary tumor; testing performed by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI), unless previously conducted by a CLIA/College of American Pathologists (CAP) external laboratory; analysis will include evaluation of 4 exons of KIT (9, 11, 13, 17) and 3 exons of PDGFRA (12, 14, 18)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease: GIST has demonstrated progression as defined by RECIST v1.1 within the past 12 months; patients whose tumors do not meet this criterion, and have a diagnosis of NF1, may enroll on the NF1 natural history studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid excessive sun exposure and use adequate sunscreen protection if sun exposure is anticipatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of another malignancy or benign tumor requiring chemotherapy or radiation therapy are excluded; however, those patients with a plexiform neurofibroma requiring treatment will be eligible as selumetinib has documented activity in plexiform neurofibromasXx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmological conditions as follows:\r\n* Current or past history of retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED)/central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vein occlusion\r\n* Intraocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of IOP)\r\n* Evidence of optic glioma, malignant glioma, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor,\r\n* Ophthalmological findings secondary to long-standing optic pathway glioma (such as visual loss, optic nerve pallor or strabismus) or long-standing orbito-temporal PN (such as visual loss, strabismus) will NOT be considered a significant abnormality for the purposes of the study\r\n* Subjects with any other significant abnormality on ophthalmic examination (performed by an ophthalmologist) should be discussed with the study chair for potential eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXNo supplementation with vitamin E is permitted because the selumetinib capsules contain vitamin EXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to walk and jog on a treadmill, in the opinion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to complete an acceptable cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPET) at baseline defined as at least one of the following:\r\n* Achieving a plateau in oxygen consumption concurrent with an increase in power output;\r\n* Respiratory exchange ratio >= 1.1 (RER);\r\n* Volitional exhaustion with a rating of perceived exertion >= 17 (RPE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the sixteen patients who elect to participate in the optional technology portion involving electronic step counts and blood pressure monitoring, the patient must have a Bluetooth-enabled smart phone, which is compatible with the wireless health monitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute contraindications to cardiopulmonary exercise testing and/or aerobic training, as\r\ndetermined by the attending oncologist:\r\n* Absolute contraindications\r\n** Uncontrolled arrhythmia causing symptoms or hemodynamic compromise\r\n** Recurrent syncope\r\n** Active endocarditis\r\n** Acute myocarditis or pericarditis\r\n** Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis\r\n** Uncontrolled heart failure\r\n** Suspected dissecting aneurysm\r\n** Uncontrolled asthma\r\n** Pulmonary edema\r\n** Room air desaturation at rest =< 85%\r\n** Respiratory failure\r\n** Acute non-cardiopulmonary disorders that may affect exercise performance or be aggravated by exercise (i.e., infection, renal failure, thyrotoxicosis)\r\n** Mental impairment leading to inability to cooperateXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of radiographically evaluable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, central serous chorioretinopathy, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients within unresectable HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with resectable HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to angiography/embolization including:\r\n* Patients cannot receive contrast:\r\n** Severe allergic reaction to contrast despite premedication\r\n** Poor renal function not on dialysis\r\n* Other, based on judgment of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG score 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXBarcelona Clinic Liver Cancer (BCLC) D = patients with distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHPV testing must be compliant with the following criteria:\r\n* p16 IHC positivity is sufficient to enroll and initiate treatment (p16 IHC interpretation to follow guidelines by Jordan and Lingen et al)\r\n* p16 IHC positivity is to be validated using an HPV polymerase chain reaction (PCR) during the induction phase; this is essential as HPV genotype influences treatment arm allocation, with non-HPV16 HPV strains being considered high riskXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of >= 10 unstained 5 micron slides (to be provided to HTRC at the University of Chicago); patients who cannot fulfill this requirement will need to undergo a new biopsy prior to enrollment on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUnequivocal demonstration of distant metastases (M1 disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological evidence of transitional cell carcinoma or carcinoma in situ of the urothelium involving the bladder or prostatic urethra following treatment with BCG with the recommendation to proceed for cystectomy; minor histologic variants (< 50% overall) are acceptable; diagnosis must be within 1 year of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have BCG unresponsive non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer defined as: Persistent or recurrence of carcinoma in situ (CIS) within 12 months, or recurrence of CIS with Ta/T1 papillary disease within 12 months, or recurrence of high grade Ta or T1 papillary disease alone within 6 months of receiving at least two courses of intravesical BCG (at least five of six induction doses and at least two doses of either a maintenance course of BCG or a 2nd re-induction of BCG; or T1 high-grade disease at the first evaluation following induction of BCG alone (at least five of six induction doses)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or chronic corneal disorder, including but not limited to the following: Sjogren’s syndrome, Fuchs corneal dystrophy (requiring treatment), history of corneal transplantation, active herpetic keratitis, and also active ocular conditions requiring on-going treatment/monitoring such as wet age-related macular degeneration requiring intravitreal injections, active diabetic retinopathy with macular edema, presence of papilledema, and acquired monocular visionXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired used of folate-containing supplements (e.g. folate deficiency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Philadelphia chromosome positive ALL must have failed at least 1 TKIXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patients who have/are either:\r\n* Transplanted in hematologic first complete remission with evidence of minimal residual disease within 45 days of allogeneic transplantation\r\n** Post-Transplant Minimal Residual Disease defined by:\r\n*** Any detectable ALL (by flow cytometry, cytogenetics, or PCR techniques) as per clinical indication\r\n* In second or third complete remission at the time of allogeneic transplantation\r\n* Treated with reduced intensity regimens\r\n* Lymphoid blast crisis of CML\r\n* Are relapsed or refractory to at least 1 line of chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Philadelphia chromosome positive ALL must have failed at least 1 TKIXx_NEWLINE_xXGraft versus host disease (GVHD) grade III or IVXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of VODXx_NEWLINE_xXColorectal patients must have documentation of microsatellite status; immunohistochemistry (IHC) is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening evaluation appropriate for leukapheresis and T-cell collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate vascular access for leukapheresis procedure (either peripheral line or surgically placed line)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternal review of histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXSuccessful collection of T cells for huJCAR014 manufacturingXx_NEWLINE_xXCRITERIA FOR LEUKAPHERESIS AND PRE-THERAPY EVALUATION: Presence of active acute or chronic graft versus host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent >= grade 2 diarrhea regardless of etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that would prohibit intermittent administration of corticosteroids for paclitaxel premedication; however, corticosteroid can be dropped after confirming of no asthma like reaction to paclitaxel after 3 dosesXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies resulting in cutaneous metastasis originating from: breast, lung, head and neck, pancreatic, urinary bladder, prostate, testicular, ovarian, uterine, cervical, gastric, adrenal, thyroid, parathyroid cancers, or other solid tumors which previously responded to taxane treatment;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one baseline eligible lesion. Per RECIST criteria (version 1.1), an eligible lesion at baseline is considered measurable when ? 10mm diameter in the longest diameter;Xx_NEWLINE_xXANC ? 1,500/µlXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reactions, irritations or sensitivity to the active ingredients or other components of SOR007;Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of current chronic alcohol or drug abuse;Xx_NEWLINE_xXmCRC with prior progression on standard multi-agent combination chemotherapy and regorafenib as a standard approved monotherapy; progression on prior regorafenib is required for inclusion in this clinical study; prior regimens may include fluorouracil/leucovorin calcium/oxaliplatin (FOLFOX) -/+ bevacizumab, folinic acid-fluorouracil-irinotecan (FOLFIRI) -/+ bevacizumab or -/+ cetuximab (if KRAS wild-type) or panitumumab (if KRAS wild-type); other prior regimens may include 5-FU or capecitabine -/+ bevacizumab, irinotecan -/+ cetuximab or panitumumab, FOLFIRI -/+ ziv-aflibercept or ramucirumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are included regardless of KRAS/NRAS, BRAF, p53, or microsatellite instability (MSI) statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with phaeochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious failure of iodine-131 (131I) therapy or not candidates to receive 131I as assessed by treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivities to either cyclophosphamide and/or sirolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known urinary outflow obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of mild autoimmune disorders - including but not limited to - mild psoriasis or Hashimoto's hypothyroidism, may be included at the discretion of the principle investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving QT-prolonging drugs with a risk of causing torsades de pointes (See Appendix E), unless ECG meets inclusion criteria on a stable dose of the drug and with discussion and agreement with the project clinicianXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients who have been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for menopausal symptoms for a period of at least 2 months will not be excluded from the study provided the HRT regimen remains unchanged during the conduct of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe first 6 patients must be >= 18 and =< 65 years old. The subsequent patients may include pediatric patients >= 12 and =< 65 years old. Eligibility for pediatric patients will be determined in conjunction with an MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC) pediatrician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine =< 1.5 mg/dL for patients 12 years old and older and =< 1 for patients younger than 12 years old.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have two cord blood (CB) units available which are matched with the patient at 4, 5, or 6/6 HLA\r\nclass I (serological) and II (molecular) antigens. Each cord must contain at least 1.5 x 10^7 total nucleated cells/Kg recipient body weight (pre-thaw).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave identified a backup cells source in case of engraftment failure. The source can be autologous, related or unrelated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have a back-up graft from any of the following: an available fraction of autologous marrow; or peripheral blood progenitor cells (PBPCs) harvested and cryopreserved; or family member donor; or a third cord blood unit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled serious medical condition such as persistent septicemia despite adequate antibiotic therapy, decompensated congestive heart failure despite cardiac medications or pulmonary insufficiency requiring intubation (excluding primary disease for which CB transplantation is proposed), or psychiatric condition that would limit informed consent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be candidates for neoadjuvant paclitaxel chemotherapy by their treating oncologist; no other investigational or commercial therapeutic agents may be given concurrently with the paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recurrent disease that could affect the action or disposition of IT-141, or clinical or laboratory assessments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with UGT1A1*28 polymorphisms.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFrequent vomiting.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history of unintentional weight loss > 10% of current body weight in the past 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent (within 1 week of Screening) or regular use of any medication (including over-the-counter (OTC), herbal or homeopathic preparations) that could improve or worsen the cancer being studied, or could affect the action or disposition of IT-141, or its clinical or laboratory assessment; e.g. Coumadin therapy, due to high competitive protein binding. Subjects taking ANY supplemental IRON, i.e., therapeutic or as part of a multivitamin regimen, are excluded from this study, whether prescribed or self-medicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in this study, followed by withdrawal for any reason.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular identification of a KRAS mutation (codons 12, 13, or 61 mutations detected by sequencing) by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified assay (source documentation required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate 1 (INT-1) or higher risk MDS defined by International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must receive a minimum dose of azacitidine of 75mg/(m)(2) doseXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients in the relapse or refractory cohort, any other therapy not being a hypomethylating agent after hypomethylating agents (HMA) failure or more than 4 months since completion of last cycle of hypomethylating agent. Please note that hypomethylating agent may include second generation compounds such as SGI-110, oral decitabine or oral azacitidine and will also include combinations with investigational agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome (Ph)+ ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence or history of veno-occlusive disease (VOD) or sinusoidal obstruction syndrome (SOS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients can have hormone receptor (HR)+ or HR-negative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to comply with protocol therapy and required safety monitoring (self-report, pulse oximetry, remote spirometry, labs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxyhemoglobin saturation at rest >= 95% (off supplemental oxygen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who received GCB systemically previously are eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently being treated with bronchodilators or corticosteroids or known to have active asthma. This will not include patients who suffered from asthma as a child and outgrew it.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with baseline symptoms of fever and/or cough and/or shortness of breath and/or wheezing and/or fatigue grade >= 2 (CTCAE version [v]4.0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDeferral of donors that:\r\n* Have traveled to active Zika virus zones \r\n* Are at potential risk of transmissible spongiform encephalopathy (TSE), including Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD), based on family and travel historyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have had a nephrectomy (radical or partial) and must provide the cell block from the nephrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with intolerance to or who have had a severe (>= grade 3) allergic or anaphylactic reaction to antibodies or infused therapeutic proteins, or patients who have had a severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to any of the substances included in the investigational product (including excipients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or patients who are involuntarily detainedXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of restricted agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of alcohol abuse within 2 years of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubradiographic and/or cytopathologic evidence of peritoneal carcinomatosis found at staging laparoscopy\r\n* Documentation of cytopathologic diagnosis of malignant peritoneal cytology in the absence of disseminated peritoneal disease must be obtained; if cytologic analysis reveals atypical cells of undetermined significance, a repeat lavage with cytopathologic analysis will be performed and must demonstrate evidence of malignancy\r\n* Limited peritoneal involvement (=< P1 or peritoneal cancer index [PCI] < 10) found at staging laparoscopy or on final pathology that is deemed completely resectable is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysiologically able to undergo HIPEC and gastrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHarboring a mutation in the BRAF oncogene or the KRAS or the NRAS oncogeneXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary amyloidosis (AL) or myeloma complicated by amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any of the following conditions are excluded:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of an ALK rearrangement (by fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH], immunohistochemistry [IHC], or next generation sequencing [NGS]), ROS1 rearrangement (by FISH or NGS), or MET oncogene as defined by MET exon 14 skipping (NGS), MET Y1003X mutation or MET gene fusion (NGS) in NSCLC tumor specimen by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical target volume (CTV) size must be < 250 cc, no more than 74 Gy of prior radiation in 2 Gy fractions previously administeredXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of continuous oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe primary lesion must be accessible for endoscopic biopsy and injection as evaluated by a gastroenterologist at New York-Presbyterian (NYP)-Columbia; further, the patient must be deemed able to tolerate repeated endoscopy procedures by an anesthesiologist and/or gastroenterologist at NYP-ColumbiaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (e.g., herpetic keratitis or encephalitis) or requires intermittent or chronic systemic (intravenous or oral) treatment with an antiherpetic drug (e.g., acyclovir), other than intermittent topical useXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known sensitivity to talimogene laherparepvec or any of its components to be administered during dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXNursing patients are not allowed on the study and women must commit to no lactation during the course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who is unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for herpes simplex virus (HSV)-1 induced complications such as immunosuppressed individuals, individuals known to have HIV infection, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year, during talimogene laherparepvec treatment and through 30 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvecXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of intra-tumoral hemorrhage > 5 maximal diameter; these subjects should be discussed with the study chairXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be on enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants or other drugs that might interact with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system; if previously on an enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs (EIAED), patients must be off for at least 10 days prior to CED infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated symptomatic hydrocephalus determined by treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent hematologic malignancies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function as assessed by >= 92% oxygen saturation on room air by pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR):\r\n* History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a high risk factor for RVO or CSR such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs that potently inhibit or induce CYP3A4 should be administered with cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXTrametinib may be an inhibitor of CYP2C8 in vivo; caution should be exercised when dosing trametinib concurrently with medications with narrow therapeutic windows that are substrates of CYP2C8Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects whose tumors harbor a mutation in EGFR exon 19 or 21 or have gene rearrangements in ALK or ROS1 must have already been treated with standard targeted therapies; NOTE: Subjects must also have progressed on or after platinum containing combination chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has salivary gland primaryXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of primary hepatobiliary malignancy, including cholangiocarcinoma or hepatocellular carcinoma, gallbladder carcinoma, cancer of ampulla of Vater.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant with a history of cirrhosis or other indication of significant possible hepatic dysfunction. Note: Those with non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) should be discussed with the AbbVie TA MD before enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor part 1, subject will have ? 1 and ? 5 tumors (prior to TURBT), none of which exceeds 3.0 cm in diameter; for part 2, patient will have ? 2 and ? 5 tumors (prior to TURBT), none of which exceeds 3.0 cm in diameter (resection loop ~1 cm).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is surgical candidate for TURBT as part of normal NMIBC treatment plan. For part 1, successful completion of TURBT procedure. For part 2, successful completion of TURBT procedure with one marker lesion left intact; the marker lesion should be > 0.5 cm and < 2.0 cm in diameter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor male subjects, the digital rectal examination must not be suspicious for carcinoma of the prostate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to retain bladder instillations for up to 120 minutes (± 15 minutes).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of vesicoureteral reflux.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn indwelling ureteral stent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas an active diagnosis of interstitial cystitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to be off prednisone or other immunosuppressive medications for at least 3 days prior to FATE-NK100 cell infusion (excluding preparative regimen pre-medications)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyocardial Infraction (MI) within the previous 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias of ambiguous lineageXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of other cytotoxic or cytostatic drugs other than PTXXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to the use of PTXXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe allergies to piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, aztreonam or vancomycin; severe reactions include anaphylaxis and Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)/toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients known to be colonized with multi-drug resistant organisms or with history of infection with multi-drug resistant organisms; patients with history of infection with extended-spectrum beta-lactamase producing organismXx_NEWLINE_xXFebrile patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or subacute intestinal occlusion;Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory requirements:Xx_NEWLINE_xXWBC >2500/mm3Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to receive an mpMRIXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate size ? 50 ccXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the study medication componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren are excluded from this study, but will be eligible for future pediatric trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on metformin or doxycycline for any reason during the preceding 4 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic subjects that are managed by taking metformin or insulinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of lactic or any other metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a current history (in the past 30 days) of heavy drinking which is defined in accordance with Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) definition as more than 8 drinks per week for women and more than 15 drinks per week for men; a standard drink contains .6 ounces of pure alcohol; generally, this amount of pure alcohol is found in 12-ounces of beer, 8-ounces of malt liquor, 5-ounces of wine, 1.5-ounces or a “shot” of 80-proof distilled spirits or liquor (e.g., gin, rum, vodka, or whiskey); while on study, patients should limit their alcohol consumption to no more than 8 drinks per week for women and no more than 15 drinks per week for menXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with prior allergic reaction to metformin, doxycycline, or any other tetracycline antibiotic in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is on medications that are contraindicated with metformin or doxycycline under current Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommendations; the following is a list of medications identified as class D (consider therapy modification) when treatment with metformin or doxycycline is considered:\r\n* Class D:\r\n** Bismuth Subsalicylate\r\n** Cimetidine\r\n** Iodinated contrast agents\r\n** SomatropinXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastases as determined by the central reading committeeXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than one primary lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the opinion of the investigator, EUS directed implantation posing undue subject risk e.g. previous EUS-FNA was considered technically too difficult to perform, or imaging demonstrates multiple collateral vessels surrounding or adjacent to the target tumorXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of radiographic invasion into stomach, duodenum or peritoneum (if not certain confirmation must be obtained prior to enrolment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll primary cutaneous T-cell lymphomasXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent (within the past year) or active suicidal ideation or behaviorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with inoperable conditions with resectable disease (T1-2NoMo)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll malignant disease must be able to be encompassed within a single irradiation fieldXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have radiographically assessable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a serum creatinine less than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL and total bilirubin less than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL in the absence of biliary obstruction; if the patient has biliary obstruction, biliary decompression will be required; either endoscopic placement of a biliary stent or percutaneous transhepatic drainage is acceptable; once biliary drainage has been established, institution of protocol therapy may proceed when the total bilirubin falls to 4.0 mg/dL or lower)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChemo-sensitive (defined by complete response [CR] or partial response [PR] to most recent chemo regimen) based on pre-transplant positron emission tomography (PET) within 6 weeks of autologous transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXChemotherapy (chemo)-resistant (defined by stable disease [SD] or progressive disease [PD] to most recent chemo regimen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically relevant CNS pathology such as epilepsy, childhood or adult seizure, paresis, aphasia, stroke, severe brain injuries, dementia, Parkinson’s disease, cerebellar disease, organic brain syndrome, or psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have minimal or no disease related-symptoms (minimal symptoms will include those that do not affect activities of daily living or pain that does not require regularly scheduled narcotics)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of seizures, encephalitis, or multiple sclerosisXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a presumed newly identified high grade glioma based on clinical and radiologic evaluation; pathologic confirmation of high grade glioma must be made at the time of stereotactic biopsy or resection on frozen section by a neuropathologist prior to NSC-CRAd-S-pk7 injection; if this is not possible, the injection will not be performed and the subject will no longer be eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject re-enrollment: this study permits the re-enrollment of a subject that has discontinued the study as a screen failure (ie, subject has not been randomized / has not been treated); if re-enrolled, the subject must be re-consentedXx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements; however, they must still undergo pregnancy testing as described in this sectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that potentially hamper compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule; those conditions should be discussed with the subject before registration in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function as assessed by >= 92% oxygen saturation on room air by pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on corticosteroids or immunosuppressant’s are not eligible; a 2 week wash-out period for is required before registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known prior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis/osteomyelitis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known prior history or current evidence of untreated local gum or oral infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known non-healed dental/oral surgery, including tooth extractionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire intermittent or chronic treatment with an intravenous or oral antiherpetic drug (e.g., acyclovir), other than intermittent topical useXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who is unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for human herpesvirus 1 (HSV-1) induced complications such as immunosuppressed individuals, individuals known to have HIV infection, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year, during talimogene laherparepvec treatment and through 30 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvecXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown previous history of sensitivity to talimogene laherparepvec or any of its components to be administered during dosing (e.g. sorbitol, myo-inositol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnless considered to be due to leukemic organ involvement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant had an antecedent myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) including myelofibrosis, essential thrombocytosis, polycythemia vera, or chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) with or without BCR-ABL 1 translocation and AML with BCR-ABL 1 translocation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClass 2 is defined as cardiac disease which subjects are comfortable at rest but ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, or angina pain. Class 3 is defined as cardiac disease which subjects are comfortable at rest but less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea. Class 4 is defined as cardiac disease which subjects have an inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort, symptoms of heart failure at rest, and if any physical activity is undertaken then discomfort increases.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a malabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of other malignancies prior to study entry, with the exception of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating blast count > 30,000/uL by morphology or flow cytometry (cyto-reductive therapies including leukapheresis or hydroxyurea are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNew or progressive pulmonary infiltrates concerning for new or uncontrolled infectious processXx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastasis or adenopathy below the claviclesXx_NEWLINE_xXGross total excision of both the primary and nodal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSynchronous primaries outside of the oropharynx and larynxXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received daratumumab or other anti-CD38 therapies previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXExclude patients with known Kell antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXIf surgically debulked, must be healed from surgery and at least 3 weeks have elapsed since general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave expected survival of at least 4 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of clinical hypersensitivity to GM-CSF, Interferon-alpha-2b (Merck), yeast, beef, or to any components used in the preparation of the experimental vaccine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBUN >30 and a creatinine >2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria >1+ on urinalysis or >1 gm/24hr.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgrees to take measures to avoid becoming pregnant during the study andXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 1 specific inclusion criteria: Documented EGFR exon 20 mutation by one of the following Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified tests: OncoMine Comprehensive Assay (OCA), Guardant360 Assay (using plasma), or FoundationOne Assay or by a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved device using cobas EGFR mutation test version (v)2 or therascreen EGFR RGQ PCt kit; eligible mutations include D770_N771insSVD, D770_N771insNPG, V769_D770insASV, H773_V774insNPH, or any other exon 20 in-frame insertion or point mutation excluding T790MXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2 specific inclusion criteria: documented HER2 exon 20 mutation by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory; eligible mutations include A775_G776insYVMA, G776_V777insVC, or P780_Y781insGSP, or any other in-frame exon 20 insertion mutation or point mutation including, but not limited to, L755S, G776V, and V777LXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take pills by mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR T790M mutation or any other acquired EGFR exon 20 mutation; patients with coexisting primary EGFR exon 20 and T790M mutations are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIf the diagnosis is MF-CP, must have Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS) intermediate-2/high risk disease and either be intolerant/resistant to ruxolitinib as determined by the treating investigator or ineligible for ruxolitinib therapy as determined by the treating investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly for subjects enrolled in Arm 1 - Neratinib and everolimus: patients who are taking medications with moderate or potent inhibitors or inducers of CYP450 3A4 should be off for 5 half-lives prior to starting everolimus.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly for subjects enrolled in Arm 2 - Neratinib and palbociclib: patients who are taking medications with moderate or potent inhibitors or inducers of CYP450 3A4 should be off for 5 half-lives prior to starting palbociclib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly for subjects enrolled in Arm 3 - Neratinib and trametinib: all skin rash (dermatitis acneiform, erythema, xeroderma, eczema) should be at grade 1 when starting trametinib treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly for subjects enrolled in Arm 3 - Neratinib and trametinib: history of retinal disorder, dry eye syndrome, or blurry vision need to be evaluated by ophthalmology prior to starting treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly for subjects enrolled in Arm 1 - Neratinib and everolimus: subjects requiring therapy with immunosuppressive agents such as anti-tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNFa) agents (etanercept, adalimumab), azathioprine, methotrexate, cyclosporine, etc. for active autoimmune disorder.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly for subjects enrolled in Arm 3 - Neratinib and trametinib: albumin less than 3 Gm/dL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with favorable, intermediate and poor risk categories will be eligible for the study; patients must be categorized according to favorable versus intermediate/poor risk status at registration; international Metastatic RCC Database Consortium (IMDC) must be used to determine prognostic factorsXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils < 1,500/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan for neoadjuvant chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas unresectable disease or is medically inoperableXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history or current evidence of physical or physiological contraindication to participation in this study, at the discretion of the treating investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a diagnosis of sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXTP53 mutant relapsed/refractory AML following 7+3 (or similar cytarabine containing induction chemotherapy for AML) disease detected by one of the following methods:\r\n* Bone marrow blasts > 5%, or\r\n* Hematologics flow cytometry assay (threshold > 0.5%) (alternative equivalent assay may be substituted), or\r\n* Persistent cytogenetic abnormality (e.g. del5, del17p, etc) by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or conventional karyotyping, or\r\n* Persistent TP53 mutation (at least 5 variant reads with at least 50x coverage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of a TP53 mutation should be determined by Genoptix (or institutional preferred equivalent assay) for all patients; detection of a TP53 mutation at the time of initial diagnosis is sufficient for enrollment; detection of a TP53 mutation in either the peripheral blood or bone marrow is adequate for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or radiologic diagnosis of advanced (unresectable or metastatic) HCC with Child-Pugh A or Child Pugh B7 cirrhosis:\r\n* The diagnosis of HCC will be made according to the European Association for the Study of the Liver-European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer Clinical Practice Guidelines (EASL–EORTC CPG) and according to successive modifications of the American Association for the Study of Liver Disease (AASLD) practice guidelines \r\n* Pathological diagnoses of HCC will be made according to the International Working Party criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly controlled or refractory (grade 3-4) hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck that has been resected with no evidence of gross residual disease (margin positivity is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have undergone resection of the disease and demonstrate high risk pathologic features including:\r\n* T4\r\n* Node positive disease\r\n* T2/T3N0 disease with any 1 additional feature, including:\r\n** Recurrent Disease\r\n** Perineural invasion\r\n** Lymphovascular space invasion\r\n** Poorly differentiated histology\r\n** Positive Margins\r\n** Satellitosis or in-transit metastases\r\nNote: Not all patients with T2N0 cancer with one additional risk factor may be ideal candidates for this study, such as patients with only focal perineural invasion without other adverse features; clinical judgment should be used by the investigator in carefully selecting patients believed to be at significant risk of recurrence with radiation aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXBorderline or low-malignant potential histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylaxis or serious allergic reaction to carboplatin or paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of CDK4/6 inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of choroidal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave known contraindications or sensitivities to the study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXAge 27- 69 at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of initial or recurrent anal or vulvar high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion diagnosed on or after 1/1/2014; study pathologist will use p16 staining as needed to rule out low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL) diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical evidence of HSIL on screening examination; if HSIL is suspected, a biopsy will be done to exclude HSIL; patients whose screening visit reveals HSIL on biopsy, may be re-screened one time, >= 2 months after therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXResident in the area and willing to attend up to 7 clinic visits for a 36-month period at the Virology Research Clinic (VRC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to sign medical records release form and tissue release formXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior HPV vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently participating in an interventional research study related to HPV, except the Anal Cancer HSIL Outcomes Research (ANCHOR) study (NCT02135419)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery within 28 days of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic colorectal cancer with mismatch repair deficiency (MMR-D or microsatellite instability [MSI]-high)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients being treated with medications with drug-drug interactions with study agents will require evaluation by to determine if full doses of all study treatments can be given safely; significant drug-drug interactions will need to be addressed prior to enrollment; alternatively, the patient will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry >= 92% on room air at restXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of hydroxyurea is permitted to control blasts until day -3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias of ambiguous lineageXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior ALT-803Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight of at least 40 kilogramsXx_NEWLINE_xXIn general good health as determined by the medical providerXx_NEWLINE_xXClear CD30 expression must be detected on 75% or more of malignant cells from either bone marrow or lymphoma mass by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry; the patient’s malignancy will need to be assessed for CD30 expression by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry performed at the National Institutes of Health (NIH); if unstained, paraffin-embedded bone marrow or lymphoma sections are available from prior biopsies, these can be used to determine CD30 expression by immunohistochemistry; otherwise, patients will need to come to the NIH for a biopsy to determine CD30 expression; the sample for CD30 expression can come from a biopsy obtained at any time before enrollment, unless the patient has received a prior anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody, in which case the sample must come from a biopsy following completion of the most recent anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSeronegative for human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt time of protocol enrollment, the patient should be negative for cytomegalovirus (CMV) by antibody testing or by PCR; in case of disagreement between these 2 CMV tests, the tests will be repeated and department (Dept.) of Laboratory Medicine consultedXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 5% malignant cells in the peripheral blood leukocytesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo endotracheal intubation, mechanical ventilation, dialysis, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), and electrical defibrillation; patients must be willing to receive vasopressor drugs and all other standard intensive care unit interventions; any living will must be amended to allow these interventions or the patient will not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXEither no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD) or minimal clinical evidence of acute GVHD and chronic GVHD while off of systemic immunosuppressive therapy for at least 28 days; minimal clinical evidence of acute GVHD defined as grade 0 to I acute GVHD; minimal evidence of chronic GVHD is defined as mild global score chronic GVHD (as defined by the 2005 NIH consensus project) or no chronic GVHD; subjects with disease that is controlled to stage I acute GVHD or to mild global score chronic GVHD with local topical cutaneous steroids will be eligible for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have active hemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be seen for screening appointments or enrolled on the protocol if they have been hospitalized within the 7 days prior to the screening appointment or the date of protocol enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are known to be EGFR- or ALK-positive must have received prior EGFR- or ALK-targeted therapy, respectively\r\n* NOTE: in such cases, documentation of EGFR mutation or ALK translocation status should be provided if availableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known diabetes whose glucose control or general health condition may be adversely affected by the use of metformin as per the study protocol as deemed by either the study investigator or endocrinologist are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any of the following contraindications to metformin:\r\n* Hypersensitivity to metformin or any component of the formulation\r\n* Kidney dysfunction or abnormal creatinine (Cr < 2 ng/mL) from any cause\r\n* Acute or metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with high-risk MDS (i.e. International Prognostic Scoring System [IPSS] Intermediate-2 or high-risk; or R-IPSS high or very-high risk). Patients with Intermediate-1 risk by IPSS or Intermediate risk by R-IPSS and with IDH1 or IDH2, or high-risk molecular features including TP53, ASXL1, EZH2, and/or RUNX1 mutations are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPSA doubling time (PSADT) =< 6 months, based upon >= 3 consecutive measurements collected in the past 12 months, at least 4 weeks apart, calculating using the Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) calculatorXx_NEWLINE_xXFor enrichment stage of trial only (if necessary): Confirmation of a suspected/known deleterious mutation in a gene of interest (ATM, BARD1, BRCA1, BRCA2, BRIP1, CDK12, CHEK1, CHEK2, FANCL, PALB2, PPP2R2A, RAD51B, RAD51C, RAD51D or other DNA repair genes) via Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrolment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXRichter’s transformation confirmed by biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to understand the purpose and risks of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP I (IMAGING AND DOSIMETRY)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease not amenable to curative intent treatment (primarily surgery) and in addition has shown either clinical or radiographic progression on all available therapies known to confer clinical benefitXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP IXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than one concurrent, malignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects for whom, in the opinion of their physician, a 24-hour discontinuation of somatostatin analogue therapy represents a health riskXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to discontinue medications known to affect MIBG uptake (unless approved by the principal investigator [P.I.] or designee)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria, grade 2 (i.e., >= 2+ proteinuria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of clinical progression, in the form of increased lesions on cross-sectional imaging, or new cancer-attributable symptoms or worsening of existing symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intolerance to somatostatin analoguesXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serum anti-poliovirus titer >= 1:8 prior to biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have received a boost immunization with trivalent inactivated poliomyelitis vaccine (IPOL) (Sanofi-Pasteur) >= 1 week prior to administration of the study agentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an impending, life-threatening cerebral herniation syndrome, based on the assessment of the study neurosurgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an active infection requiring intravenous treatment or having an unexplained febrile illness (maximum temperature [Tmax] > 99.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neoplastic lesions in the brainstem, cerebellum, or spinal cord, tumors extending into or crossing the corpus callosum, intraventricular tumors, pineal tumors, pituitary tumors, radiological evidence of active (growing) multifocal disease, leptomeningeal disease, or other locations at the discretion of the treating neurosurgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of agammaglobulinemia, that is:\r\n* Undetectable anti-tetanus toxoid immunoglobulin G (IgG)\r\n* Known history of agammaglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with worsening steroid myopathy (history of gradual progression of bilateral proximal muscle weakness, and atrophy of proximal muscle groups)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolling in this trail should have received either Enzalutamide or AbirateroneXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinary tract obstruction or marked hydronephrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have unknown transfusion historyXx_NEWLINE_xXWith otolaryngeal cancer receiving surgery with general anesthesia\r\n* Please note we are purposefully including patients with higher predisposition to delirium as we are investigating potential preventive strategies for this diagnosis of multiple etiologies; patients at higher risk of delirium (e.g., advanced age, chronic hypertension) will be included in our study; additionally, other common risk factors that exist in this patient population (e.g., alcohol or nicotine use) are thought to contribute to delirium postoperativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXMonitored anesthesia care (i.e., regional anesthesia alone without plans for general anesthesia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgery involving the eye, eyebrow, forehead, or frontal scalp near the sensor placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor health literacyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in active alcohol withdrawalXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented CD20+ FL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDid not discontinue because of tolerability concerns.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAchieved either partial or CR to the bendamustine regimen of at least 12 months in duration before relapse/progression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExperienced progression following a regimen containing an alkylating agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy (eg, subjects in whom re-administration with rituximab would be contraindicated for safety reasons).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented macular degeneration or untreated diabetic retinopathy (stable retinopathy is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring the use of enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic medication (phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, primidone or oxcarbazepine) are not eligible for entry into the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 10 VOCs within the past 12 months that required a hospital, emergency room or clinic visitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are receiving regularly scheduled blood (RBC) transfusion therapy (also termed chronic, prophylactic, or preventive transfusion) or have received a RBC transfusion for any reason within 60 days of signing the ICFXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have at least 3 measurable lesions that are >= 1.5 cm in one dimension; one of the lesions must be >= 2.0 cm and is amenable to image-guided cryoablation and multiple vaccine injections as determined by interventional radiology and principal investigator (PI) (including tumors that can be safely accessed using imaging guidance and treated with minimal risk to adjacent structures)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven T2 malignant melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXVisible additional disease that suggests a greater than T2 malignant melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to tolerate general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma located on face or digitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who occasionally or regularly use medications that impact dopamine receptor signaling and can cause side effects in people with neuroendocrine tumors including PC-PG such as metoclopromide, chloropromazine, prochlorperazine, droperidol, ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, fenfluramine, methylphenidate, phentermine, amitryptaline, imipramine, tranciproamine, moclobemide, phenelzine, paroexetine, and fluoxetineXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements including returning for scans, taking oral medication, home monitoring of blood pressure and heart rate, recording side effects in a self-report diary, or becoming pregnant while on study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of NB as defined by a) histopathology (confirmed by the Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center [MSK] Department of Pathology), or b) BM metastases or metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG)-avid lesion(s) plus high urine catecholamine levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be in first CR/VGPRXx_NEWLINE_xXThis treatment is for patients with high risk hematologic malignancies; high risk is defined as:\r\n* Any patient with a hematologic malignancy in which allogeneic HSCT is pursued with the expectation of cure; patients may have post-treatment residual disease, but the disease should be stable or minimally progressive and must be responsive to chemotherapy\r\n* Any patient with an untreated hematologic malignancy in which allogeneic HSCT is thought to be the sole or the best option for cure and in which prior treatment is unlikely to meaningfully address the disease\r\n* Patients without morphologic evidence of disease but with high risk features which would predict for relapsed despite remission at HSCT such as adverse cytogenetics, third (3rd) or greater complete response (CR), or failure to recover peripheral blood counts to normal ranges; while these patients do not have detectable disease by current methods, like all patients they have non-detectable disease which in their case is highly aggressiveXx_NEWLINE_xXModified KPS of < 80%Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 5 comorbidity points on the Hematopoietic Cell Transplant Co-Morbidity Index (HCT CI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) within 8 weeks of HSCT admissionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active inflammatory processes including T max > 101 or active tissue inflammation are excluded up to and including the day of admissionXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of wound dehiscenceXx_NEWLINE_xXClearance of 99mTc mercaptoacetyltriglycine (MAG3) within 1.5 x ULN and no evidence of obstruction on the scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to elotuzumab or pomalidomideXx_NEWLINE_xXPrognostic Index for Spinal Metastases (PRISM) group 1-3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be able to lie supineXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have received prior conventional external-beam radiation therapy (cEBRT) to the site of interest to no more than a critical neural tissue dose equivalent dose (EQD)2/2 of 42 Gy in a single session or 50 Gy cumulative over multiple sessions and cauda equina dose EQD2/2 of 50 Gy in a single session or 60 Gy cumulative over multiple sessionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing prior surgery or laser interstitial thermotherapy are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to lie flat comfortably for 2 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment or randomization in the present study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresolved partial or complete small or large bowel obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-English speakers will be excluded from participating in the patient-reported outcomes component of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have radiographic and/or CSF cytological evidence of LMDXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of contraindication for Ommaya reservoirXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (=< 10 days of study enrollment) use of aspirin (> 325 mg/day), clopidogrel (> 75 mg/day), or therapeutic oral or parenteral anticoagulants or thrombolytic agents for therapeutic purposes\r\n* The use of full-dose oral or parenteral anticoagulants is permitted as long as the INR or aPTT is within therapeutic limits (according to medical standard of the institution) and the patient has been on a stable dose of anticoagulants for at least 2 week at the time of study enrollment; prophylactic use of anticoagulants is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressive disease at study entry defined as one or more of the following three criteria that occurred while the patient was on androgen deprivation therapy; for patients enrolling on the basis of soft tissue or bone progression, the baseline scan must show progression relative to a comparison scan; if the comparison scan is not available, the baseline scan report must reference the previous scan to document progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXSoft tissue disease progression is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum on study (this includes the baseline sum if that is the smallest on study); in addition to the relative increase of 20%, the sum must also demonstrate an absolute increase of at least 5 mm; (Note: the appearance of one or more new non-osseous lesions is also considered progression); clinical lesions will only be considered measurable when they are superficial (e.g., skin nodules, palpable lymph nodes) and at least 10 mm in diameter as assessed using calipers (e.g., skin nodules)\r\n* Per Prostate Cancer Working Group 2 (PCWG2): Visceral (lung, liver adrenal) or extranodal lesions need to be >= 10 mm in one dimension, using spiral CT; however, lymph nodes need to be >= 20 mm in at least one dimension to be considered newXx_NEWLINE_xXNo structurally unstable bone lesions suggesting impending fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXA score of 0-1 on Brief Pain Inventory (BPI)-Short Form (SF) question 3 (worst pain in last 24 hours) will be considered asymptomatic, and a score of 2-3 will be considered mildly symptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-SCREENING: Mesothelin positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-SCREENING: No history of keratitis or corneal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the opinion of the treating investigator, patients must be an unsuitable candidate for a pediatric-inspired regimen, reasons for which may include (but not be limited to) older age (i.e., >= 40 years), practical/logistical barriers to or toxicity concerns from administration of a pediatric-inspired regimen, or Ph+ diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAs patients with ALL frequently have cytopenias, no hematologic parameters will be required for enrollment or to receive the first cycle of treatment; however, adequate recovery of blood counts will be required to receive subsequent cycles)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have previously undergone an intracranial LITT procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with progression of multifocal tumors or tumors involving the posterior fossa (brainstem and cerebellum) will be excluded, as will patients where the anticipated treatment margin will be within 5 mm of critical intracranial structures (e.g., primary branches of cerebral vessels, dural sinuses, hypophysis or cranial nerves).Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrolment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed histologically proven locoregional OCSCC (T-stage 2-4) without evidence of distant metastases; OCSCC includes the subsites of oral tongue, floor of mouth, gingiva, retromolar trigone, and buccal mucosaXx_NEWLINE_xXMen who are expecting to father children within the research periodXx_NEWLINE_xXHave received radiation therapy with concurrent temozolomide; total radiation dosage can range from 5400 to 6000 cGy administered in daily fractions of 150 to 200 cGy over 6 weeks, or the equivalent in a hypofractionated protocol (for example, 4000cGy in 15 fractions or 2500cGy in 5 fractions); patients who are MGMT negative do not need to have received temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically proven glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) or gliosarcoma (GS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measurable disease by Response Assessment in Neuro-Oncology (RANO) 2010 criteria at the time of registration (pre-operative)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to be off prednisone or other immunosuppressive medications for at least 3 days prior to NAM-NK cell infusion (excluding preparative regimen pre-medications)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma, presently on chronic medications (a history of mild asthma requiring inhaled steroids only is eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory disease after first-line chemoimmunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any indwelling line or drain. Dedicated central venous access catheter such as a Port-a-Cath or Hickman catheter are permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented EGFR exon 20 insertion mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented HER2 exon 20 insertion mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prognostic Index (IPI) score of 2-5Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the individual components of CHOP, including prior receipt of anthracyclinesXx_NEWLINE_xXDemyelinating form of Charcot-Marie-Tooth diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive results for the human T-lymphotrophic 1 virus (HTLV-1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival < 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cutaneous or mucocutaneous reactions, or diseases in the past, due to any cause, severe enough to cause hospitalization or an inability to eat or drink for > 2 days; this exclusion relates to the long-term possibility of severe cutaneous or mucocutaneous reactions to rituximab that might occur at increased frequency in participants who have had severe skin disease or reactions in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathological diagnosis of amyloidosis based on detection by immunohistochemistry and polarizing light microscopy of green bi-refringent material in congo red stained tissue specimens (in an organ other than bone marrow) or characteristic electron microscopy appearanceXx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more organs impacted by AL amyloidosis according to consensus guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXNT-ProBNP > 8500 nanogram per liter (ng/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown to be seropositive for hepatitis C (except in the setting of a sustained virologic response [SVR], defined as aviremia at least 12 weeks after completion of antiviral therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a documented asymptomatic CMV infection, with a screening value of CMV DNA >=2730 IU/mL to less than or equal to (<=) 273000 IU/mL in whole blood or >=910 IU/mL to <=91000 IU/mL in plasma in 2 consecutive assessments, separated by at least 1 day, as determined by local or central specialty laboratory quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) or comparable quantitative CMV DNA results. Both samples should be taken within 14 days prior to randomization with second sample obtained within 5 days prior to randomization. Same laboratory and same sample type (whole blood or plasma) should be used for these assessments. Asymptomatic CMV infection is defined as an infection that does not present with tissue invasive CMV disease, as assessed by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave the current CMV infection as the first episode of CMV viremia after HSCT, either primary or reactivation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave all of the following results as part of screening laboratory assessments (results from either the central laboratory or a local laboratory can be used for qualification):Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeigh >=40 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a CMV infection that is known to be genotypically resistant to ganciclovir, valganciclovir, foscarnet, or cidofovir based on documented evidence.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire ganciclovir, valganciclovir, foscarnet, or cidofovir administration for conditions other than CMV when study treatment is initiated (example: herpes simplex virus [HSV] coinfection requiring use of any of these agents after the randomization) or would need a co-administration with maribavir for CMV infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire mechanical ventilation or vasopressors for hemodynamic support at the time of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously completed, discontinued, or have been withdrawn from this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously received maribavir.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have: a. Relapsed and/or refractory non-APL AML that has failed to achieve a complete remission (CR) or partial remission (PR) following standard induction therapy, or has relapsed after any duration of CR or PR i. Patients must have measurable disease with bone marrow blasts ?5%at screening b. Relapsed and/or refractory higher-risk MDS (High / Very High Risk, as defined by the Revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R)) that has failed to achieve a CR or PR, or any hematologic improvement (HI, per IWG 2006 criteria) after standard therapy with hypomethylating agents (e.g., azacitidine, decitabine), or has relapsed after any duration of CR or PR or HI i. Patients must have measurable disease with bone marrow blasts >5% at screening c. Newly diagnosed, treatment-naïve non-APL AML in patients who, at the time of study entry are unlikely to tolerate standard intensive chemotherapy due to age, performance status, or comorbidities based on at least one of the following criteria (Ferrara et al, 2013): i. Age ? 75 years old ii. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status (PS) of 3 iii. Cardiac history of congestive heart failure (CHF) or documented ejection fraction (EF) ? 50% iv. Pulmonary disease with DLCO ? 65% or FEVI ? 65% v. Creatinine clearance ? 30 mL/min to < 45 mL/min vi. Hepatic impairment with total bilirubin > 1.5 to ? 3.0 x upper limit of normal (ULN) vii. Any other comorbidity that the Investigator judges to be incompatible with intensive chemotherapy, and reviewed and approved by the Sponsor prior to enrollment d. Transfusion dependent lower-risk MDS without the del 5q abnormality, in patients refractory to erythropoietin treatment or unlikely to respond to erythropoietin treatment (EPO >500). i. Lower-risk MDS: Very Low /Low / Intermediate Risk, as defined by IPSS-R. ii.Red blood cell (RBC) transfusion dependent anemia defined as no eight consecutive weeks without RBC transfusions within the 16 weeks prior to study entry, or ?4 RBC transfusions within the 8 weeks prior to study entry. iii.Refractory to or ineligible for ESAs is defined as RBC-Transfusion Dependence despite ESA treatment of ?40,000 units/week recombinant human erythropoietin for 8 weeks or an equivalent dose of darbepoetin (150 µg/week) or serum EPO level >500 mU/mL in patients not previously treated with ESAs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be positive for the RARA super-enhancer associated biomarker or RARA pathway associated biomarker at the time of study screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHyperleukocytosis (leukocytes ?25 x 109/L) at study entry. These patients may be treated with hydroxyurea according to routine practice, and enroll in the study when the leukocyte count falls below 25 x 109/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSY-1425 and daratumumab combination only - Prior or concurrent exposure to daratumumab or other CD38 therapies5.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSY-1425 and daratumumab combination only - Subject has either of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years, or uncontrolled asthma of any classification. Note that subjects who currently have controlled intermittent asthma or controlled mild persistent asthma are allowed to participate in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypertriglyceridemia defined as >1000 mg/dL (CTCAE Grade 4).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking Vitamin A supplements (>10,000 IU/d) unless discontinued prior to first dose of study drug, or having hypervitaminosis A.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of primary myelofibrosis, post-polycythemia vera myelofibrosis, or post-essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable spleen of > 10 cm below the left subcostal margin on physical examination at the screening visit ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegaly of 5 to 10 cm below left subcostal margin on physical exam AND active symptoms of MF at the screening visit as demonstrated by presence of 1 symptom score ? 5 or 2 symptom scores ? 3 using the Screening Symptom FormXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to be transfused with blood componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with peripheral blood blast count of > 10% at the screening or baseline hematology assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously obtained tumor sample exhibits a hypermutator phenotype; for the purposes of this trial, a hypermutator phenotype is defined as tumors harboring >= 30 mutations (non-synonymous somatic point or indel mutations) detected by the Memorial Sloan Kettering (MSK)-Integrated Mutation Profiling for Actionable Cancer Targets (IMPACT) or comparable next generation sequencing performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) environment; contingent to approval by the MSK principal investigator, patients with less than 30 mutations may be eligible if they display a mutation in a mismatch repair gene or other mutations in genes known to be associated with hypermutator phenotypes or microsatellite instability, including but not limited to MutL homolog (MLH)1, MutS protein homolog (MSH)2, MSH6, PMS2 postmeiotic segregation increased 2 (S. cerevisiae) (PMS)2, polymerase (deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] directed), epsilon-1 (POLE), polymerase (DNA directed), delta 1, catalytic subunit (POLD) as determined by validated methods, or if microsatellite instability is present, as identified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or other validated methods\r\n* Note: the MSK-IMPACT (Integrated Mutation Profiling for Actionable Cancer Targets) assay is a next generation genomic profiling performed on formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor tissue in a CLIA-certified Molecular Diagnostic Service laboratory; IMPACT provides full exon coverage of 410 cancer related genes and can detect base substitutions, small indels, copy number alterations and selected gene re-rearrangements; in some cases, additional assays such as Sanger sequencing or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) may be required to confirm specific results detected on IMPACT; patients at MSK will have this assay to determine eligibility; use of other validated next-generation sequencing techniques for eligibility may be considered, provided they are performed in a CLIA-certified laboratory and are approved by the MSK principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory B-cell NHL, includingXx_NEWLINE_xXPET-positive disease by Lugano classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate vascular access for leukapheresis procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of graft-vs-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of clinically relevant CNS pathology such as epilepsy, seizure, paresis, aphasia, stroke, severe brain injuries, dementia, Parkinson's disease, cerebellar disease, organic brain syndrome, or psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphotoxic chemotherapeutic agents (e.g., cyclophosphamide, ifosofamide, bendamustine) within 2 weeks of leukapheresis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppressive therapies within 4 weeks of leukapheresis and JCAR017 administration (e.g., calcineurin inhibitors, methotrexate or other chemotherapeutics, mycophenolyate, rapamycin, thalidomide, immunosuppressive antibodies such as anti-TNF, anti IL6, or anti-IL6R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for one of the chemotherapy options listed as TPC (Eribulin, capecitabine, gemcitabine, or vinorelbine) as per investigator assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate renal and hepatic function (creatinine ? 2.0 x IULN, bilirubin ? 1.5 IULN, AST and ALT ? 3.0 x IULN or 5 x IULN if known liver metastases).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of bulky disease (defined as any single mass > 7 cm in its greatest dimension). Patients with a mass over 7 cm, but otherwise eligible, may be considered for enrollment after discussion and approval with the medical monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active ? grade 2 anorexia, nausea or vomiting, and/or signs of intestinal obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of an anaphylactic reaction to irinotecan.Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete or partial response by International Working Group (IWG) Working Group or International Conference on Malignant Lymphoma (ICML) criteria to maximum of one salvage line of chemotherapy without pre-HDT/ASCT salvage radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPure seminoma after orchiectomy presenting with isolated retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy OR stage I pure seminoma with isolated retroperitoneal relapse; relapse should be within 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) not greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of the local laboratory assay within 14 days of RPLNDXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient recovery from first or second ASCT within 60-120 days of transplant (Cohort C)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progressive MM compared to pretransplant evaluation (Cohort C)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must have an identified pathogenetic constitutional NF1 mutation OR the clinical diagnosis of NF1 using the National Institutes of Health (NIH) consensus conference criteria; in addition to a plexiform neurofibroma, one or more of the following diagnostic criteria for NF1 must be present:\r\n* Six or more Cafe Au Lait spots (>= 0.5 centimeter [cm] in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in post pubertal subjects)\r\n* Freckling in the axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the spheroid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have plexiform neurofibroma(s) that are progressive OR are causing significant morbidity, such as (but not limited to) head and neck lesions that are compromising the airway or great vessels, brachial or lumbar plexus lesions that are causing nerve compression and loss of function, lesions causing major deformity (e.g., orbital lesions) or are significantly disfiguring, lesions of the extremity that cause limb hypertrophy or loss of function, and painful lesions; patients with paraspinal plexiform neurofibromas will be eligible for this trial; histologic confirmation of tumor is not necessary in the presence of consistent clinical and radiographic findings, but should be considered if malignant degeneration of a plexiform neurofibroma is clinically suspectedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects enrolled for “major deformity” or a “significantly disfiguring” tumor, eligible tumors will be limited to tumors of the head & neck or those on other areas of the body that are unable to be concealed by standard garments; in order to enroll a plexiform neurofibroma for these indications, the Study Chair or Co-Chair must be contacted to review patient eligibility prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who underwent surgery for a progressive plexiform neurofibroma will be eligible to enter the study after the surgery, provided the plexiform neurofibroma was incompletely resected and is measurableXx_NEWLINE_xXSteroids: patients with endocrine deficiencies are allowed to receive physiologic or stress doses of steroids if necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXDental braces or prosthesis that interferes with volumetric analysis of the neurofibroma(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior history of or active severe (grade 3 or 4) acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with SSc as defined by the American College of Rheumatology with diffuse cutaneous disease (except Group 5) at risk of disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have failed a prior >= 4-mponth course of either MMF/Myfortic or cyclophosphamide before being eligible for the study (determined at >= 1 week before start of mobilization); “failure” is defined as evidence of disease progression or absence of improvement; the response prior to MMF of cyclophosphamide will be assessed by the participating site study rheumatologistXx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP 1: \r\n* Patients must have 1) both a and b below; and 2) either c, or d\r\n** a) Diffuse cutaneous scleroderma as defined by skin thickening proximal to the elbows and knees and/or involving the torso in addition to distal extremity involvement; a skin score will be obtained but not used to determine eligibility\r\n** b) Duration of systemic sclerosis =< 7 years from the onset of first non-Raynaud's symptom; for those patients with disease activity between 5-7 years from the onset of first non-Raynaud's symptom, recent progression or activity of disease must be documented\r\n** c) Presence of SSc-related pulmonary disease with forced vital capacity (FVC) < 80% or hemoglobin-adjusted diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO) < 70% of predicted AND evidence of alveolitis or SSc-related interstitial lung disease by high-resolution chest computed tomography (CT) scan and/or by bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) (interstitial lung disease may be nonspecific interstitial pneumonia [NSIP] or usual interstitial pneumonia [UIP]; a bronchoalveolar lavage [BAL] should be done to confirm the findings of alveolitis only if the high resolution CT scan [HRCT] fails to show findings typically associated with systemic sclerosis changes [ground glass NSIP, UIP, SSc related interstitial lung disease]); alveolitis by BAL cell count will be defined based on a BAL cell differential count (> 3% neutrophils and/or > 2% eosinophils) from any lavaged lobe\r\n** d) History of SSc-related renal disease that may not be active at the time of screening; stable serum creatinine must be documented for a minimum of 3 months post-renal crisis at the time of the baseline visit; history of scleroderma hypertensive renal crisis is included in this criterion and is defined as follows:\r\n*** History of new-onset hypertension based on any of the following (measurements must be repeated and confirmed at least 2 hours apart within 3 days of first event-associated observation, with a change from baseline):\r\n**** Systolic blood pressure (SBP) >= 140 mmHg\r\n**** Diastolic blood pressure (DBP) >= 90 mmHg\r\n**** Rise in SBP >= 30 mmHg compared to baseline\r\n**** Rise in DBP >= 20 mmHg compared to baseline\r\n***AND one of the following 5 laboratory criteria: \r\n**** Increase of >= 50 % above baseline in serum creatinine\r\n***** Proteinuria: >= 2+ by dipstick confirmed by protein:creatinine ratio > 2.5\r\n***** Hematuria: >= 2+ by dipstick or > 10 red blood cell (RBC)s/hematopoietic-promoting factor (HPF) (without menstruation)\r\n***** Thrombocytopenia: < 100,000 platelets/mm^3\r\n***** Hemolysis: by blood smear or increased reticulocyte count\r\n*** The above definition of SSc hypertensive renal crisis is independent of whether concomitant anti-hypertensive medications are used\r\n*** Subjects who present with solely skin and renal disease in the absence of other organ involvement, except classic SSc renal crisis as described above and including non-hypertensive renal crisis, must see a nephrologist to confirm that their renal disease is secondary to only SSc\r\n*** Note: Subjects may be re-screened if they fail to meet inclusion criteria on initial evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP 2:\r\n* Progressive pulmonary disease as defined by a decrease in the FVC or DLCO-adjusted by 10 or 15 percent or greater, respectively, from a prior FVC or DLCO-adjusted in the previous 18-month period\r\n* Patients will have diffuse cutaneous disease and may have both FVC and DLCOcorr >= 70% at screening for the study\r\n* Patients must also have evidence of alveolitis as defined by abnormal chest computed tomography (CT) or bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP 3: Diffuse scleroderma with disease duration =< 2 years since development of first sign of skin thickening plus modified Rodnan skin score >= 25 plus either\r\n* Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) > 25 mm/1st hour and/or hemoglobin (Hb) < 11 g/dL, not explained by causes other than active scleroderma\r\n* Lung involvement (either FVC or DLCO < 80% and evidence of interstitial lung disease by CT scan or alveolitis by BAL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP 4: Diffuse scleroderma with disease duration =< 2 years and skin score >= 30Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with pulmonary, cardiac, hepatic, or renal impairment that would limit their ability to receive cytoreductive therapy and compromise their survival; this includes, but is not restricted to, subjects with any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH) defined as:\r\n* Peak systolic pulmonary artery pressure > 50 mmHg by resting echocardiogram will require right heart catheterization; if pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) is not evaluable on echocardiogram due to lack of a Tricuspid regurgitant jet, then normal anatomy and function as evidenced by normal right atrium and ventricle size, shape and wall thickness and septum shape must be documented to rule-out PAH; otherwise, right heart catheterization is indicated; prior history of PAH but controlled with medications will not exclude patients from the protocol; PAH is considered controlled with medications if peak systolic pulmonary artery pressure is < 45 mmHg or mean pulmonary artery pressure by right heart catheterization is < 30 mmHg at rest\r\n* Mean pulmonary artery pressure by right heart catheterization exceeding 30 mmHg at rest; if mean PAP is elevated and pulmonary vascular resistance and transpulmonary gradient are normal then the patient is eligible for the protocol\r\n* New York Heart Association (NYHA)/World Health Organization Class III or IVXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant renal pathology defined as:\r\n* Estimated creatinine clearance (CrCl) < 40 mL/min (using Cockcroft-Gault formula based on actual body weight) and serum creatinine > 2.0 mg/dL; OR\r\n* Active, untreated SSc renal crisis at the time of enrollment; presence of nephrotic range proteinuria (defined as >= 3.5 gms/24 hours, or protein:creatinine ratio >= 3.5), active urinary sediment, urinary RBCs > 25 per HPF, or red cell casts require further investigation by a nephrologist to rule out glomerulonephritis, overlap syndromes, or other causes of renal disease in all subjects; subjects with glomerulonephritis or overlap syndromes will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of a 2nd autoimmune disease requiring immunosuppressive therapy that has substantial risk of immunosuppressive treatment beyond transplant with the following exceptions:\r\n* History and/or presence of Sjogren's Syndrome is allowed\r\n* Stable myositis (A history of myositis that is clinically stable as defined by lack of progressive proximal muscle weakness and a stable or decreasing creatine phosphokinase [CPK] < 3 x ULN) is allowed\r\n* The presence of anti-double stranded (ds)-deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) without clinical systemic lupus erythematosus in a patient with a diagnosis of otherwise \pure\ SSc is allowed\r\n* Concomitant rheumatoid arthritis without extra-articular disease characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit < 27%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of other comorbid illnesses with an estimated median life expectancy < 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of smoking tobacco (or other related/herbal products) in the prior 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have MS/MMR result available at time of registration; MS/MMR status is to be determined per local practice (i.e. immunohistochemistry [IHC], polymerase chain reaction [PCR], or other methods)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placementXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of GISTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on imatinib, sunitinib, and regorafenib or have documented intolerance to any of these treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS of 0 to 2 at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXmalabsorption syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXrequirement for intravenous alimentation active gastrointestinal bleeding, unrelated to cancer, as evidenced by hematemesis, hematochezia, or melena in the past 3 months without evidence of resolution documented by endoscopy or colonoscopy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical signs or symptoms of GI obstruction or requirement of routine parenteral nutrition or tube feedingsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to enzalutamide, androgen receptor antagonist ARN-509 (ARN-509) or other investigational AR-directed therapy in the setting of mCRPCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must stop taking ritonavir, idinavir, saquinavir, telithromycin, clarithromycin and nelfinavir 1 week prior to registration; Note: topical ketoconazole is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed MCL, with documentation of monoclonal CD20+ B cells that have a chromosome translocation t(11;14)(q13;q32) and/or overexpress cyclin D1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have relapsed or refractory cancers for which there is no known curative optionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medications: the following medicines should be avoided on this study:\r\n* Inhibitors: ketoconazole and other imidazole antifungals, erythromycin, fluoxetine, gemfibrozil, cimetidine, ritonavir, saquinavir, indinavir, and nelfinavir\r\n* Inducers: rifampicin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, efavirenz, and nevirapine\r\n* Patients receiving any of the above medications are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have full activity or, if limited, must be able to walk and carry out light activities such as light house work or office workXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known history of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient on Coumadin and not willing to change to LMWH or oral Factor II or Xa inhibitor with half-life of less than 24 hours.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who were intolerant of a gemcitabine containing regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of immune-mediated neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barré or inflammatory CNS/PNS disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXa) Intraocular PCNSL without evidence of brain disease b) PCNSL patients who cannot undergo MRI assessments c) PCNSL patients with systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas received anti-angiogenic or anti-VEGF targeted agents (e.g. bevacizumab, cediranib, aflibercept, vandetanib, XL-184, sunitinib, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas received prior interstitial brachytherapy, implanted chemotherapy, stereotactic radiosurgery or therapeutics delivered by local injection or convection enhanced deliveryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must consent to undergo biopsies of externally visible CSCC lesions (Group 2 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with other immune-modulating agents within fewer than 4 weeks prior to the first dose of REGN2810, or associated with immune-mediated adverse events that were ? grade 1 within 90 days prior to the first dose of REGN2810, or associated with toxicity that resulted in discontinuation of the immune-modulating agent. Examples of immune-modulating agents include therapeutic vaccines, cytokine treatments, or agents that target cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA-4), 4-1BB (CD137), or OX-40.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to swallow oral medications, willingness to perform mucositis prophylaxis, and suitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious treatment with phosphoinositide 3-kinase (PI3K), serine/threonine-specific protein kinase (AKT), dual PI3K/ mammalian (or mechanistic) target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors, target of rapamycin complex 1/2 (TORC1/2) inhibitors or TORC1 inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlacement of a pacemaker for control of rhythm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled asthma or oxygen saturation < 90% by arterial blood gas analysis or pulse oximetry on room air.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant valvular disease; severe regurgitation or stenosis by imaging independent of symptom control with medical intervention; or history of valve replacement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA): Subjects must have a body surface area ? 0.45 m2 at the time of the study enrollment, unless enrolled in Part EXx_NEWLINE_xXPart A: Relapsed or refractory extracranial solid tumors and (Phase 1b expansion) relapsed or refractory extracranial solid tumors with molecular alterations, non-gene fusions;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart B: Relapsed or refractory primary CNS tumors with molecular alterations, including gene fusions, documented by a CLIA-approved lab prior to enrollment;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart C: Relapsed or refractory neuroblastoma;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart D: Relapsed or refractory non-neuroblastoma, extracranial solid tumors with NTRK1/2/3, ROS1, or ALK gene fusions documented by a CLIA-approved lab prior to enrollment;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-clear subjects must be ENPP3 positive, defined as IHC H-score ?15Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas evidence of progression on or after the last regimen received:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematopoietic function as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical symptoms of hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale subject must not donate ova starting at Screening and throughout the study period, and for 6 months after the final study drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsistent and correct usage of established oral contraception.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas previously been treated with axitinib, AGS-16C3F, or AGS-16M8FXx_NEWLINE_xXrequirement for intravenous alimentation;Xx_NEWLINE_xXactive gastrointestinal bleeding, unrelated to cancer, as evidenced by hematemesis, hematochezia or melena in the past 3 months without evidence of resolution documented by endoscopy or colonoscopy;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas ocular conditions such as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMonocularityXx_NEWLINE_xXVisual acuity of 20/70 or worse in both eyesXx_NEWLINE_xXContact lens dependent (if using contact lens, must be able to switch to glasses during the entire study duration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled glaucoma (topical medications allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled or active ocular problems (e.g., retinopathy, macular edema, active uveitis, wet macular degeneration) requiring surgery, laser treatment, or intravitreal injectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known sensitivity to any of the ingredients of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXinvestigational product AGS-16C3F and/or,Xx_NEWLINE_xXInlyta® (axitinib) and/or,Xx_NEWLINE_xX1% prednisolone acetate ophthalmic suspension and any other corticosteroids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior selective estrogen receptor downregulator use (SERD), including fulvestrantXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentified as having visceral crisis, lymphangitic spread, or leptomeningeal carcinomatosis; visceral crisis is not the mere presence of visceral metastases but implies severe organ dysfunction as assessed by symptoms and signs, laboratory studies, and rapid progression of the diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate pulmonary functionXx_NEWLINE_xXArm B (first stage of phase II of TRC102 and pemetrexed): patients with malignant pleural or peritoneal mesothelioma who had progressed while being treated with or had recurred within 6 months of being treated with pemetrexed and cisplatin or carboplatin frontline; intervening treatment is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior pemetrexed is allowed except Arm A dose level 4 (cisplatin 75 mg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo studies have been performed to assess potential metabolic and transport interactions of TRC102; as part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product; the case report form must capture the concurrent use of all other drugs, over-the-counter medications, or alternative therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known disorders associated with hemolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with thromboembolic disease and on anticoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior cumulative cisplatin dose > 300 mg/m^2 (pertains to Arm A only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunction; elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) with normal T3 and T4 are allowed; patients on thyroid replacement therapy are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of natural herbal products or other complementary alternative medications (CAM) or “folk remedies”Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy within 3 years prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically significant peripheral vascular disease or abdominal aortic aneurysm (> 5 cm) or aortic dissection; if known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm with >= 4 cm in diameter, all of the following must be met: \r\n* An ultrasound (US) within the last 6 months prior to registration will be required to document that it is =< 5 cm\r\n* Patient must be asymptomatic from the aneurysm\r\n* Blood pressure must be well controlled as defined in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of bowel obstruction within 1 month prior to starting study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of cavitation of central pulmonary lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have current dependency on intravenous (IV) hydration or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf a patient declines to participate in genetics research, there will be no penalty or loss of benefit to the patient; a patient who declines genetics research participation will not be excluded from any other aspect of the main studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR AML ONLY: Absence of uncompensated disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC- as diagnosed by standard International Society on Thrombosis and Hemostasis [ISTH] criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther concurrent chemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiotherapy, or any ancillary therapy considered investigational (used for a non-Food and Drug Administration [FDA] approved indication and in the context of a research investigation); \r\n* NOTE: in AML, the concurrent use of hydroxyurea to help control proliferative counts is allowed throughout the treatment protocol; \r\n* NOTE: in TCL, patients may use topical emollients or corticosteroids, acetic acid soaks, etc. to control pruritis and prevent infection; no topical chemotherapy is allowed (no topical nitrogen mustard)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML ONLY: Current disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTCL ONLY: Any mass >= 5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be HLA- A*02:01 positive; (retesting is not required for patients who have previous documented HLA- A*02:01 positivity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have adequate venous access for apheresis; (pheresis catheter placement for cell collection is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability of a patient for immunological and clinical follow up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xX> 40 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXDLCO =< 60%Xx_NEWLINE_xXCELL PROCUREMENT: Pediatric subjects (weight must be >= 10 kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCELL PROCUREMENT: Subjects with Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)+ ALL will be eligible if they have failed >= 2 ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors; subjects with the T315I ABL kinase point mutation will be eligible if they have failed ponatinib-containing therapy, regardless of the number of prior ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXCELL PROCUREMENT: CD19 positivity of lymphoblasts confirmed by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry (IHC) per institutional standardsXx_NEWLINE_xXCELL PROCUREMENT: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3.0 x ULN, obtained within 72 hrs prior to procurementXx_NEWLINE_xXCELL PROCUREMENT: Subjects with relapsed fulminant CD19+ ALL that is rapidly progressing who cannot safely delay definitive treatment for their ALL by at least 4 weeks in the opinion of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXCELL PROCUREMENT: Pregnant or breastfeeding (NOTE: breast milk cannot be stored for future use if the milk is collected while the mother is being treated on study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCELL PROCUREMENT: Subjects may not have an oxygen requirement as defined by pulse oximetry of < 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXLYMPHODEPLETION: Pregnant or breastfeeding (NOTE: breast milk cannot be stored for future use if the milk is collected while the mother is being treated on study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLYMPHODEPLETION: Subjects may not have an oxygen requirement as defined by pulse oximetry of < 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXiC9-CAR19 CELL INFUSION: Demonstrate adequate renal and hepatic function; all screening labs to be obtained within 24 hrs prior to cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXiC9-CAR19 CELL INFUSION: Corticosteroid use is contraindicated following iC9-CAR19 infusion unless medically necessary e.g., to treat CRS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXiC9-CAR19 CELL INFUSION: Severe systemic uncontrolled disease or toxicities that develop after lymphodepletion may prompt exclusion from cell infusion at the discretion of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloma Frailty Score:\r\n*NOTE: this will include calculating a frailty score (based on age, activities of daily living, instrumental activities of daily living and Charlson comorbidity index)\r\n** Phase I: “intermediate fitness” or “frail”; NOTE: no “fit” patients will be included in the phase 1 portion of the trial which is being done to determine the MTD of the 3-drug combination\r\n** Phase II: transplant-ineligible as per their treating physician; NOTE: all the patients with “intermediate fitness” or “frail” status will be considered transplant-ineligible; other reasons to consider transplant ineligibility may include, but are not limited to: financial constraints or patient preference; in case such patients have a frailty score of “fit”, it should be duly noted by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete study-related (QoL, pill diary) questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-secretory MM or known amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires use of therapeutic anticoagulation prior to registration\r\n* NOTE: thromboprophylaxis with any agent is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: active dermatologic disease >= grade 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been previously treated with mTOR inhibitors such as everolimus and temsirolimus, or with c-MET inhibitors such as cabozantinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be scheduled to receive another experimental drug while on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients who cannot be compliant with the appointments required in this protocol must not be enrolled in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to ingest oral medications (crushing and administering via percutaneous endoscopic gastronomy [PEG] tube is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXApproval for hydroxychloroquine treatment by an eye doctor, based on a screening eye exam; examples of disqualifying baseline conditions include macular degeneration and other retinal disease such as cataracts that would interfere with required funduscopic examinations, or severe baseline visual impairment, retinopathy or visual field changes, or having only one functional eye; all patients must undergo a screening eye exam prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCaution should be taken with the use of hydroxychloroquine and any drugs known to interact with it; as part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal productXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that are on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Stage IIIB/IV squamous or non-squamous NSCLC (American Joint Committee on Cancer 7th Edition Staging) who have had prior treatment with nivolumab or pembrolizumab will be enrolled in one of 3 parallel cohorts based on the following:\r\n* Cohort 1: patient with progressive disease on nivolumab or pembrolizumab as the BOR; progressive disease must be confirmed with a confirmatory scan ? 4 weeks after the 1st documented date of progression\r\n* Cohort 2: patients with stable disease as the BOR on a minimum of 12 weeks of therapy with nivolumab or pembrolizumab\r\n* Cohort 3: patients with partial or complete response as the BOR, followed by progressive disease, on nivolumab or pembrolizumab; a confirmatory scan at the time of disease progression must be performed ? 4 weeks after the 1st documented date of progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with everolimus is allowed, if the patient was able to tolerate 10 mg daily everolimus with acceptable side effects, and if everolimus was not given in combination with fosbretabulin; a 1 week washout period will be required if patient was previously on everolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight over 40 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXTo be performed within 10 business days prior to day 1: Cardiac function (12 lead-electrocardiogram [ECG] versus [vs] non 12 led ECG) shows no underlying arrhythmia or heart blocks (for VRP only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft versus host disease (GVHD) or on immunosuppressive medication of GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXMonoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) or smoldering myelomaXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related mortality (TRM) score >= 13.1 as calculated with simplified modelXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant illness associated with a likely survival of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXScore greater than 7 on the Insomnia Severity Index and meet the criteria for insomnia disorder as defined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental disorders, 5th Edition (DSM-5) as assessed by the insomnia interview scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self report, participant has another sleep disorder provided that it is not adequately treated (e.g., sleep apnea without continuous positive airway pressure [CPAP] treatment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self report, heavy drinker (regularly having more than 14 alcoholic beverages per week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self report, engaging in night shift workXx_NEWLINE_xXTo not obscure cortisol assessment, regular smokers per self report (daily use) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self report significant needle phobia as to prevent participation in acupunctureXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self report, currently engaged in ongoing acupunctureXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed/refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable disease per modified severity weighted assessment tool (mSWAT) and/or Sezary countXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline skin biopsy taken within 6 months available for central review submissionXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II portion of the study - histologically or flow cytometry confirmed diagnosis of BCLL/SLL according to NCI-WG 1996 guidelines; patients who lack CD23 expression on their leukemia cells should be examined for (and found NOT to have) either t(11;14) or cyclin D1 overexpression, to rule out mantle cell lymphomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled immune hemolysis or thrombocytopenia (positive direct antiglobulin test in absence of hemolysis or history of immune-mediated cytopenias are not exclusions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed diagnosis of intermediate or high-grade soft tissue sarcoma for which single-agent doxorubicin is appropriate therapy, including but not limited to:\r\n* Synovial sarcoma\r\n* Fibrosarcoma\r\n* Undifferentiated sarcoma\r\n* Liposarcoma\r\n* Leiomyosarcoma\r\n* Angiosarcoma\r\n* Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor\r\n* Pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma\r\n* Myxofibrosarcoma\r\n* Epithelioid sarcoma\r\n* Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnic groups will be included; for subjects between the ages of 12-18 years only, body surface area (BSA) must be >= 1.28 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of warfarin for any reason; NOTE: if patient can be safely transitioned to another anticoagulant, they may be eligible provided other criteria are satisfiedXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving any medications or substances with risk of torsades de pointes; NOTE: medications or substances with known risk of torsades de pointes are prohibited; consult pharmacist for review if neededXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown severe allergic or other prohibitive reactions to other tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not appropriate candidates for prostate SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neuroendocrine or small cell features are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXGNRH agonists or GNRH antagonists (e.g., leuprorelin, degarelix) for > 2 months prior to consentingXx_NEWLINE_xXAntiandrogens (e.g., bicalutamide, flutamide, nilutamide, abiraterone, enzalutamide) for > 2 months prior to consenting; patients on 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are allowed on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEstrogen containing compounds for > 2 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPCSPES or PCx products; other herbal therapies or supplements will be considered by the principle investigator on a case-by-case basis based on their potential for hormonal or anticancer therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombotic microangiopathy, hemolytic-uremic syndrome or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraXx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignant relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXHave unresectable malignant mesothelioma (any histology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive CD30+ immunohistochemical expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPersons who are incarcerated at time of enrollment (e.g., prisoners) or likely to become\r\nincarcerated during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal preoperative coagulation blood test (prothrombin time)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who would have otherwise been eligible to receive routine post-RP careXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients judged by their urologist or preoperative evaluation center (PEC) center to be unsafe to forgo pharmacologic prophylaxis or systemic anticoagulation postoperatively (whether or not they are on systematic anticoagulation for indications other than VTE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEpidural analgesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have been identified by their respective physicians as candidates for radioembolization and scheduled to undergo such a procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure to satisfy minimum criteria of lung shunting (> 20%) or presence of extrahepatic gastrointestinal activity on microaggregated albumin (MAA) scan or angiogram that preclude SIR-SpheresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXT1 with T ?1.5cm, T2 or T3 by at least one radiographic or clinical measurementXx_NEWLINE_xXM0Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny T0, Tis, T1 < 1.5 cm, T4; or N2-3; or M1 BC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or lactating subjects. * Note: Major surgery defined as requiring a general anesthesia or respiratory assistance; involving openings into the great cavities of the body, organs removed, or normal anatomy altered; implying risks of severe hemorrhage; implying risk for life of the patient or severe disability.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin ?9 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils ?1.5 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXA concomitant medical condition requiring receipt of a therapeutic anticoagulant that in the opinion of the treating physician cannot safely allow for therapeutic injection of ONCOS-102 and tumor biopsies. Local clinical practice can be followed with regard to holding a therapeutic anticoagulant during invasive procedures such as biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 3 or higher colitis attributable to PD1 blockade; note that colitis attributable to ipilimumab is not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXRe-enrollment of a subject that has discontinued the study as a pre-treatment screen failure (i.e. a consented patient who did not receive avelumab) is permitted; if re-enrolled, the subject must be re-consented; only the screening procedures performed outside of protocol-specified timing must be repeatedXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled asthma (defined as having 3 or more of the following features of partially controlled asthma within 28 days prior to starting study treatment: daytime symptoms more than twice per week, any limitation of activities, any nocturnal symptoms/awaking, need for reliever/rescue inhaler more than twice per week, or known lung function [peak expiratory flow (PEF) or forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)] without administration of a bronchodilator that is < 80% predicted or personal best [if known])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo hematologic parameters for inclusion; transfusion-dependent patients are eligible and platelet counts should be maintained greater than 10,000/mm^3 throughout cycles 1 and 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility of patients receiving any medications or substances known to affect or with the potential to affect the activity or pharmacokinetics of ibrutinib or blinatumomab will be determined following review of their case by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allo-HCT less than three months from the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIMMUNE RECONSTITUTION STUDY ONLY: Decline to participate in the main trial, or main trial closed to accrual due to safety reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXIMMUNE RECONSTITUTION STUDY ONLY: Received haploidentical BMT with the current standard of two days of PT-CY (and no PT-BEN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIMMUNE RECONSTITUTION STUDY ONLY: Be willing and able to provide written consent/assent for the immune reconstitution portion of the trial onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXIMMUNE RECONSTITUTION STUDY ONLY: Between 8 and 60 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-morbidities precluding patient's ability to tolerate BMTXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection at time of hospital admission of haploidentical (Haplo) BMTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of medical noncomplianceXx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 2: Subjects in the post-operative setting (cohort 2) are not required to have measurable disease and response rate will not be assessed in cohort 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXA history of metal in the head or eyesXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may take steroids for disease control up to 24 hours prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to humanized monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx, larynx, hypopharynx, or oral cavity with clinical or pathologic high-risk features for whom cisplatin and radiation would be considered appropriate care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment plan to receive a continuous course of IMRT delivered as single daily fractions of 2.0 to 2.1 Gy with a cumulative radiation dose between 60 Gy and 70 Gy depending on whether patients are considered post-operative high risk or unresectable/organ preservation high risk. Planned radiation treatment fields must include at least two oral sites buccal mucosa, retromolar trigone, floor of mouth, oral tongue, soft palate, hard palate) with a portion of each site receiving a minimum total of 50 Gy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLimited neck dissections retrieving ? 4 nodes are permitted and considered as non-therapeutic nodal excisions. Fine needle aspirations of the neck that are positive for squamous cell carcinoma are sufficient for diagnosis pending pathology review at participating institutions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExamination by an ear/nose/throat (ENT) or head and neck surgeon, including laryngopharyngoscopy (mirror and/or fiberoptic and/or direct procedure) within 8 weeks prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for concurrent treatment with nitrates or other drugs that may, in the judgment of the treating investigator, create a risk for a precipitous decrease in blood pressureXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of syncope within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 3-4 electrolyte abnormalities (CTCAE v 4.03) except sodium, which must be ?126 mmol/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny one hepatocellular carcinoma > 15 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal maximal sum of hepatocellular carcinomas or a single conglomerate HCC > 20 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable common or main branch biliary duct involvement with HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of regular phenytoin, carbamazepine, hypericum perforatum (also known as St. John’s wort) or rifampinXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be considered appropriate candidates for high dose (HD) IL-2 by one of the treating investigators listed on the protocol; HD IL-2 candidacy evaluation is per institutional guidelines at each site and should include a dobutamine stress echocardiogram or equivalent; subjects with a positive stress test for cardiac ischemia would be excluded from this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to interleukin-2 or nivolumabXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic dysfunction that would confound the evaluation of neurologic and other adverse eventsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radiation doses equivalent to, or greater than, 8000 cGy to the target lesions at 200 cGy fractions at any timepointXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias: Must be in remission by morphology (< 5% blasts); NOTE: cytogenetic relapse or persistent disease without morphologic relapse is acceptable; also a small percentage of blasts that is equivocal between marrow regeneration versus (vs.) early relapse are acceptable provided there are no associated cytogenetic markers consistent with relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXBiphenotypic/undifferentiated/prolymphocytic leukemias in first or subsequent CRXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome: any subtype including refractory anemia (RA) if severe pancytopenia or complex cytogenetics; blasts must be less than 5%. If 5% or more requires chemotherapy for cytoreduction to =< 5% prior to transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative neoplasms/myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXNatural Killer cell malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXVoluntary written consent (adult; legally authorized representative on behalf of cognitively impaired adult; or parent/guardian with presentation of the minor information sheet, if appropriate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCML in blast crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a diagnosis of a locally advanced or metastatic sarcoma that is progressing; the following subtypes (considered genomically complex) will be eligible: leiomyosarcoma (well differentiated or poorly differentiated), undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma, myxofibrosarcoma, pleomorphic rhabdomyosarcoma, pleomorphic liposarcoma, malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor, angiosarcoma or extraskeletal osteosarcoma; other potentially genomically complex soft tissue sarcoma (STS) subtypes may be included on a case-by-case basis after discussion with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXProgression of disease by radiographic imaging (10% increase in size by RECIST version [v]1.1 within 6 months of registration) or presence of new lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) =< 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serum anti-poliovirus titer prior to biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have received a boost immunization with trivalent inactivated poliomyelitis (IPOL) (Sanofi-Pasteur) at least 1 week prior to administration of the study agentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an impending, life-threatening cerebral herniation syndrome, based on the assessment of the study neurosurgeons or their designateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a previous history of neurological complications due to polyoma virus (PV) infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with undetectable anti-tetanus toxoid IgGXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known history of agammaglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with worsening steroid myopathy (history of gradual progression of bilateral proximal muscle weakness, and atrophy of proximal muscle groups)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hematologic malignancies status post allogeneic SCT without evidence of disease relapse, active graft versus host disease (GVHD) or history of more than stage I skin acute GVHD; and off immunosuppression for at least 4 weeks; at least 60 days after allo-SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have disease relapse, active GVHD or history of more than grade 1 skin acute GVHD, history of chronic (c)GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of swallowing pills wholeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously exposed to, intolerant of, or ineligible for CDK inhibitors, mTOR inhibitors, and/or their combinationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of CYP3A4 inhibiting or activating medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor (increased risk of angioedema with ACE inhibitors administered in combination with everolimus, seen in approximately 6.8% of patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe ability for the definitive cancer surgery to be scheduled within 10 days to 12 weeks post initiation of dietary intervention as determined by the enrolling physician (not from diagnosis – but from start of diet)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 21 at time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated willingness and ability to record daily caloric intake either on paper or in online programXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI < 21 at time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily caloric consumption < 1000 caloriesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient on anti-retroviral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute diverticulitis within the last 6 months, or current chronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer disease even if asymptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of cholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of anaphylaxis to peginterferon alfa-2b or interferon alfa-2bXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known serious neuropsychiatric conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have no prior history of veno-occlusive disease (VOD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have a history of severe (grade 3-4) acute graft versus host disease (GVHD), and/or current > grade 1 acute GHVD; subjects must not have a history of active chronic GVHD (whether limited or extensive stage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed, mismatch repair-proficient adenocarcinoma of colorectum, who have received at least two prior lines of therapy in the metastatic setting\r\n* Mismatch repair proficiency can be assessed for eligibility by immunohistochemistry (intact expression of MLH1, MSH2, PMS2, and MSH6) or by molecular testing in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratory for microsatellite instability (0 or 1 microsatellites unstable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust not require supplemental oxygen or have a pulse oximetry < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery within 4 weeks of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a known or suspected hypersensitivity to GM-CSF, hetastarch, corn, dimethyl sulfoxide, fetal bovine serum, trypsin (porcine origin), yeast or any other component of GVAX vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 (fully active, able to carry out all pre-disease activities without restriction) or 1 (unable to perform physically strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInoperable on the basis of co-existent medical problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has history of clinically significant dry eye (xerophthalmia) or other corneal abnormality or, if a contact lens wearer, does not agree to abstain from contact lens use from day 0 through the last study drug doseXx_NEWLINE_xXsecondary to MDS treated at least by hypomethylating agent orXx_NEWLINE_xXLDH < 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum CK/CPK ?2.5 x ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnlikely to cooperate in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant already enrolled in the study who has received at least one S64315 infusion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active or chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically =< 3 cm unifocal lesion by imaging or physical examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXBreast size B cup or larger, to allow for IORT procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXHas primary lesion > 3 cm in size radiographically or by physical examination; pathologically proven nodal disease at diagnosis is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo blasts or promyelocytes in peripheral bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be in a major molecular remission (MMR) on a TKI (imatinib, dasatinib, nilotinib, or bosutinib) for a minimum of 1 year leading up to enrollment; major molecular remission is defined as BCR-ABL1 transcripts =< 0.1% by quantitative real time polymerase chain reaction (QPCR) (International Scale [IS]) or >= 3-log reduction in BCR-ABL1 messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA) from the standardized baseline, if QPCR (IS) is not available\r\n* MMR must be documented on at least 2 occasions, at least 3 months apart, in the 6 to 12 months leading up to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in complete molecular remission (CMR) on a TKI (imatinib, dasatinib, nilotinib, or bosutinib); CMR is defined as no detectable BCR-ABL1 mRNA by QPCR (IS) using as assay with a sensitivity >= 4.5 logs below the standardized baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXAtypical BCR-ABL1 mRNA transcripts that cannot be monitored with QPCRXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have failed nilotinib or not tolerated nilotinib in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented BCR-ABL Kinase Domain mutations that confer resistance to nilotinib; this includes, but is not limited to, the T315I mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects requiring daily corticosteroids either via oral route of administration (po) or infusion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn oral medication with a narrow therapeutic index known to be a P-gp substrate within 24 hours prior to start of dosing in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire therapeutic use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of developing any condition during prior treatment with ramucirumab for which ramucirumab must be permanently discontinued according to the ramucirumab label.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered appropriate candidates for LITTXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 30 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or multifocal high grade glioma (HGG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPost-operative complications including significant neurological decline or hemorrhage that causes a drop in Karnofsky performance status (KPS) to less than 60 or renders the patient not suitable for chemoradiation as determined by their treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXActive connective tissue disorders, such as lupus or scleroderma, that in the opinion of the treating physician may put the patient at high risk for radiation toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXGeriatric assessment score of >= 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cerebrovascular accident (CVA) with persistent neurological deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXDiarrhea > grade 1 in the absence of antidiarrhealsXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary function test is required, within 3 months of start; the treating physician will assess suitability by usual clinical criteria used for IL-2 treatment generally consistent with the Proleukin prescribing information; there is no specific minimum result specified by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following are not counted as medical therapies: nephrectomy, radiation therapy, other energy-ablative techniques, or metastasectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXMyocardial infarction, stroke, coronary artery bypass surgery, coronary stent, or unstable angina within one year are excluded; Note: A subject may enroll in the study and have a start date set in the near future in a way that meets the timelines for exclusion items by the treatment start dateXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to abstain from alcohol or any alcohol-containing fluids for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of Wilson’s disease or a copper deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed within 1 year of first responseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject likely to not be available to complete all protocol required study visits or procedures to the best of the subject and investigator's knowledgeXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to infused protein products, sucrose, histidine or polysorbate 80Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pre-existing uncontrolled pulmonary disease will be excluded; uncontrolled refers to patients having had at least one hospitalization due to pulmonary disease (for example, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) within the 6 months prior to enrollment in the study; patients with previous history of pneumonitis will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a diagnosis of immunodeficiency; note that patients should not receive steroids during pembrolizumab administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing an extrapleural pneumonectomy (EPP); lung sparing surgeries, such as pleurectomy/decortication, are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received pleurectomy with decortication (P/D) or EPP for mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with inherited syndromes associated with hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation, specifically patients with known history of ataxia-telengiectasia, Nijmegen breakage syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXHas carcinomatous meningitis as determined by positive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to donate blood for research at 4 time pointsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with an anti-androgen (abiraterone, apalutamide [ARN-509], bicalutamide, enzalutamide, AR antagonist ODM-201 [ODM-201], TAK-448, TAK-683, orteronel [TAK-700], seviteronel [VT-464])Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot on full dose anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXTroponin-I, creatine kinase muscle and brain (CK-MB), B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) =< ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II only: blood EGF level >= pg/mL at baseline (to be determined based on Phase I results)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for fulvestrant therapy – patients who have started fulvestrant may enter this trial if within 3 months of starting fulvestrantXx_NEWLINE_xXIf patient is pre- or peri- menopausal, then will need to have concurrent ovarian suppression; patients may have already gotten the loading dose of ovarian suppression; pre- or peri-menopausal subjects must have a negative urine pregnancy test confirmed at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to donate blood for research at 4 time pointsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with an anti-androgen (abiraterone, ARN-509, bicalutamide, enzalutamide, ODM-201, TAK-448, TAK-683, TAK-700, VT-464)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with thyroid dysfunction if not adequately controlledXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXDependency on IV hydration or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ia (dose-escalation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may agree to provide optional paired biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ib (dose expansionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who must or wish to continue the intake of restricted medications or any drug considered likely to interfere with the safe conduct of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin <90 g/L (<9 g/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEjection fraction (EF) <55% or the lower limit of normal of the institutional standard will be excluded. Only in cases where the Investigator (or the treating physician or both) suspects cardiac disease with negative effect on the EF will the EF be measured during screening using an appropriate method according to local standards to confirm eligibility (e.g., echocardiogram [ECHO], multi-gated acquisition scan [MUGA]). A historic measurement of EF no older than 6 months prior to first administration of study drug can be accepted provided that there is clinical evidence that the EF value has not worsened since this measurement in the opinion of the Investigator or of the treating physician or both.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are scheduled to undergo therapeutic or prophylactic mastectomy with immediate placement of tissue expanders and have a strong family history or hereditary cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXPART I: Patients with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia (WM) must meet the indications for treatment per the International Workshop on Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinemia (IWWM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART IB: Patients with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia (WM) must meet the indications for treatment per the International Workshop on Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinemia (IWWM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas evidence of immune- mediated hepatitis, nephritis, or thyroiditisXx_NEWLINE_xXHas evidence of colitisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than three progressive sites of disease, with at least one of the disease sites to be deemed suitable for treatment with MRI-guided, online adaptive SBRT to the non-liver abdomen as per radiation oncology evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be deemed medically fit for SBRT by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPast history of external beam radiotherapy within the projected treatment field of any of the disease sites to be treated by MRI-guided, online adaptive SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stage T4 (invasion into rectum or ureters) significantly increases the morbidity of the surgery\r\n* Patients with rectal or ureteral invasion will be considered to have unresectable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant chronic (daily or almost daily for >= 1 month prior) use of steroids or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTroponin-I, creatine kinase MB (CK-MB), B-type natiuretic peptide (BNP) =< ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal serum TSH within 12 months preceding surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have histologically or cytologically confirmed squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx, hypopharynx, supraglottic larynx, nasal cavity, unknown primary, or nasopharynx that is p16 and HPV positive; tissue or cytology from the primary site or lymph node must be available for biomarker studies and for polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing; immunohistochemistry (IHC) must be performed in a lab verified by the central laboratory or the slides must be available for review by the central laboratory (Zhang, MSSM) and PCR must be done in the central laboratory prior to radiotherapy; HPV PCR must be performed and results available for reduced dose therapy after induction.\r\n* Patients who are on the Quarterback Trial when Quarterback 2 is activated and who have been randomized to radiotherapy arm will be asked to transfer to this trial and receive the Quarterback 2 defined radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active alcohol addiction (as assessed by medical caregiver and defined as at least 6 months without activity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have experienced an involuntary weight loss of more than 25% of their body weight in the 2 months preceding study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXActive smoking or a cumulative pack year history of > 20 pack years, active smoking is (defined as >= 1 cigarette per day) within the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or pathologic evidence for distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave very low, low or intermediate-risk disease by the Revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMicrocytosis on screening blood cell count (CBC) (mean corpuscular volume [MCV] < 81 fL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of non-transfusional hemosiderosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently using aluminum-containing antacid productsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with SMM within the last 4 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis, defined as T-score less than -2.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pathologic diagnosis of anaplastic astrocytoma (defined as WHO grade III, or glioblastoma/gliosarcoma, WHO grade IV, which are confirmed by National Cancer Institute (NCI) laboratory of pathology; if the pathology diagnosis is anaplastic glioma or anaplastic oligoastrocytoma, evidence of either intact 1p/19q chromosomes or molecular features suggesting astrocytic tumor must be present; (including, but not limited to ATRX, p53)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than two prior disease relapses to be eligible for the phase I portion of the study and no more than one prior relapse to be eligible for phase IIXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 1.5 times institutional normalXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously been treated with ixazomib, or participated in a study with ixazomib whether treated with ixazomib or notXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the case of women, both pre/perimenopausal and postmenopausal patients are allowed to be included in this study; menopausal status is relevant for the requirement of goserelin to be used concomitantly with ribociclib and letrozole.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPerimenopausal status is define as neither premenopausal nor postmenopausal Note: Throughout this document, perimenopausal and premenopausal status is grouped together and referred as \Premenopausal\Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a 12-lead ECG with ALL of the following parameters at screening:Xx_NEWLINE_xXResting heart rate ? 50 bpmXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with advanced hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) with no curative optionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave measurable disease based on RECIST 1.1 as confirmed by the blinded MD Anderson radiology; target lesions situated in a previously irradiated area are considered measurable if progression has been demonstrated in such lesions; Note: the same image acquisition and processing parameters should be used throughout the study for a given subjectXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically apparent ascites or encephalopathy, or untreated varices are not eligible for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPortal vein invasion at the main portal branch (Vp4), inferior vena cava, or cardiac involvement of HCC based on imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXHas had encephalopathy in the last 6 months; subjects on rifaximin or lactulose to control their encephalopathy are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all required evaluations and procedures in this study protocol including swallowing capsules without difficultyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have advanced hepatocellular carcinoma; fibrolamellar HCC is not allowed; hepatocellular carcinoma should be confirmed by at least one of the following:\r\n* Tissue diagnosis\r\n* The presence of one or more liver lesions measuring >= 2 cm in longest diameter, showing characteristic arterial enhancement and venous washout using arterial-phase contrast enhanced imaging, and a clinical history of cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented progression or intolerance to sorafenib as demonstrated by:\r\n* Radiographic (by modified [m]RECIST) or symptomatic progression on/after sorafenib\r\n* Intolerance to sorafenib consisting of Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) grade 2 or greater during drug-related adverse event which persisted in spite of comprehensive supportive therapy according to institutional standards AND persisted or recurred after sorafenib treatment interruption of at least 7 days and dose reduction by one dose level (to 400 mg once daily)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are receiving drugs that are sensitive substrates of CYP450 1A2, 3A4, 2C9, 2C19 or 2D6, or strong inhibitors or inducers of all major CYP450 isozymes that cannot be stopped at least 7 days or 5 half-lives (whichever is longer) before starting treatment with ABC294640 and either replaced with another appropriate medication or not given for the duration of the clinical studyXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC) grade 3 bleeding esophageal or gastric varices within the past 2 months; prior variceal bleed is permitted if patient has undergone banding or sclerotherapy and there has been no evidence of bleeding for 2 months; patients at risk for varices (based on the following: known history of esophageal or gastric varices; evidence of hepatic cirrhosis and/or portal hypertension including biopsy-proven cirrhosis, hypersplenism, or radiographic findings of varices) will be screened (using either esophagogastroduodenoscopy [EGD] or capsule endoscopy) for esophageal varices, unless such screening has been performed in the past two years from study entry and the patient is receiving medical treatment for prophylaxis of variceal bleeding, such as non-selective beta blockade; if varices are identified that require intervention (banding), patient will not be eligible until varices are adequately treated; patients presenting with gastric varices will not be eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior diagnosis of thrombosis or known hypercoagulable stateXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe or uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of St. John’s wort or rifampinXx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients who have received prior vaccination with vaccinia virus (for smallpox immunization) must not have a history of adverse reaction to the vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXLEAD IN COHORTXx_NEWLINE_xXNEOADJUVANT COHORTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe recombinant vaccinia vaccine should not be administered if the following apply to either recipients or, for at least 3 weeks after vaccination, their close household contacts (close household contacts are those who share housing or have close physical contact):\r\n* Persons with active or a history of eczema or other eczematoid skin disorders\r\n* Those with other acute, chronic or exfoliative skin conditions (e.g., atopic dermatitis, burns, impetigo, varicella zoster, severe acne or other open rashes or wounds) until condition resolves\r\n* Pregnant or nursing women; children under 3 years of ageXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area requirements varied by dose level: \r\n* Dose level: -1; body surface area (BSA): >= 0.82 m^2\r\n* Dose level: 1; BSA: >= 0.66 m^2\r\n* Dose level: 2; BSA: >= 0.52 m^2\r\n* Dose level: 3; BSA: >= 0.45 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to swallow tablet or have existing gastrostomy feeding tube to enable administration of tabletXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1 (Dose Escalation): Diagnosis of B-cell DLBCL, FL, MCL, or HL, as documented by medical records.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for therapy of the hematological malignancy due to disease-related symptoms, lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, extranodal organ involvement, or progressive disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with DLBCL, FL, MCL, HL, or CLL/SLL: presence of radiographically measurable lymphadenopathy or extranodal lymphoid malignancy (defined as the presence of ?1 lesion that measures ?2.0 cm in the longest dimension [LD] and ?1.0 cm in the longest perpendicular dimension [LPD] as assessed by computed tomography [CT]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn subjects requiring biliary decompression, biliary stent or drainage using percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram (PTC) are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline organ function defined by: International Normalization Ratio (INR) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) <=1.3xupper limit of normal (ULN); platelet count (PLT) >=10,000 (transfusions permitted to bring PLT to >10,000); total bilirubin <=1.5xULN (Isolated bilirubin >1.5xULN is acceptable if bilirubin is fractionated and direct bilirubin <35% or subject has a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome); Alanine transaminase (ALT) <=2.5xULN; creatinine <=1.5xULN OR calculated creatinine clearance by Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) equation or measured from 24 hour urine >=50 milliliters (mL)/minute (min); and Ejection fraction >=lower limit of normal (LLN) by Echocardiogram (ECHO) or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MOCA) score of 22 or lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with poly adenosine diphosphate (ADP) ribose polymerase (PARP) inhibitors (example (e.g.), olaparib, veliparib [ABT-888])Xx_NEWLINE_xXTwo or more cancers not resectable through a single lumpectomy incisionXx_NEWLINE_xXPaget’s disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXActive systemic lupus, erythematosus, or any history of scleroderma, dermatomyositis with active rashXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 patients must have confirmed EGFR T790M mutation-positive NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant is on ixazomib monotherapy or on a drug combination with another medication, established while in his/her parent study; andXx_NEWLINE_xXPB or BM basophils ?20%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T315I mutation will not be excluded, but their response will be analyzed separately.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of intolerance to Das or for whom Das might not be appropriateXx_NEWLINE_xXInitial prostate biopsy is available for central pathologic review, and is confirmed to show at least 2 positive cores and a Gleason sum of >= 7Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadical prostatectomy has been scheduled at Johns Hopkins HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXThe etiology of abnormal bilirubin and transaminase levels should be evaluated prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled major active infectious, cardiovascular, pulmonary, hematologic, or psychiatric illnesses that would make the patient a poor study candidateXx_NEWLINE_xXMale or female subjects, age 18 to 75 years admitted to hospital with a clinical diagnosis of acute PE categorized as low risk or intermediate-risk or submassive PE and for whom catheter-based therapy is not planned;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a CTA scan confirming the PE diagnosis and with at least one measurable index lesion in a segmental or larger pulmonary artery prior to randomization;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with PE lesions only in the sub-segmental or smaller arteries;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who within 48 hours of randomization have used an anti-Factor IIa agent such as dabigatran or an anti-FXa agent such as rivaroxaban, apixaban, or edoxaban;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC with evidence of a centrally cavitating lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic conditions (e.g., severe hepatic impairment) or current unstable or uncompensated respiratory or cardiac conditions which makes it undesirable for the patient to participate in the study or which could jeopardize compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindication to be on a minimum of 81 mg aspirin a day (or other anticoagulant therapy as prescribed) for thromboembolism prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related mortality (TRM) score =< 9.2 as calculated with simplified modelXx_NEWLINE_xXMay have previously received monotherapy with demethylating agents for MDS or AML or treatment with a mitoxantrone- or cladribine-based regimen for MDS or AML, including G-CLAM, but not demethylating agent as priming for or in combination with chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant illness associated with a likely survival of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously untreated localized gastric or gastroesophageal (GE) junction adenocarcinoma as defined by T2 or greater primary lesion or the presence of any positive nodes-N+(clinical nodes) without evidence of metastatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to proceed to surgery following peri-operative chemotherapy based on standard staging studies per local practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary or secondary myelofibrosis intermediate or high risk by Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS) in chronic or accelerated phaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a total lifetime anthracycline exposure exceeding the equivalent of 900 mg/m^2 of daunorubicinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior selective internal radiation are candidates are eligible as long as they are candidates for repeat procedures and they have demonstrated progressive disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo known infection with HIV. Due to the mechanism of action of ipilimumab, activity and side effects in an immune compromised patient are unknown.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine ? 3.0 xULNXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically diagnosed Grades II to IV acute GvHD as per standard criteria occurring after alloSCT requiring systemic immune suppressive therapy. Biopsy of involved organs with aGvHD is encouraged but not required for study screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFailure to achieve at a minimum partial response based on organ assessment after 7 days compared to organ stage at the time of initiation of high-dose systemic corticosteroid +/- CNI for the treatment of Grade II-IV aGvHD,ORXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of arm volume measurement by perometer prior to axillary surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or pathologic evidence for distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate renal function, defined as calculated or estimated creatinine clearance < 60 mL/min unless lymphoma, KSHV-MCD, or KSHV-associated inflammatory cytokines syndrome (KICS)-relatedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown drug-related, inherited, or acquired procoagulant disorder including prothrombin gene mutation 20210, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency and antiphospholipid syndrome but not including heterozygosity for the Factor V Leiden mutation or the presence of a lupus anticoagulant in the absence of other criteria for the antiphospholipid syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500 /uLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least 3 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cells/kg frozenXx_NEWLINE_xXLight chain (AL) amyloidosis patients with Mayo cardiac stage III (defined as N-terminal proB-type natriuretic peptide measurement [proBNP] > 332 ng/L and cardiac troponin [cTnT] > 0.035 ug/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring beta blockade are disqualified from participating in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who, in the estimation of the treating physician or primary investigator, have had a clinical deterioration of their ECOG performance within the month prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of natural or synthetic cannabinoidsXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor sample confirmed as KRAS or NRAS [codons 12 and 13 (exon 2), 59 and 61 (exon 3), and 117 and 146 (exon 4)] or BRAF [codon 600 (exon 15)] mutation positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of bowel obstruction at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of cavitary or necrotic tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant weight loss (> 20% of body weight [BW]) within past 6 months prior to inclusion into the trial or actual body weight of less than 50 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXMaximum projected treatment length 15 cm and width 5 cm, which are the dimensions of the largest available CivaSheetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindications to general anesthesia, as determined by the treating physician or surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have pathologically confirmed urothelial carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the bladder and meet one of the following criteria\r\n* Persistence of high-grade CIS at 6 months following an adequate course of BCG; OR\r\n* Stage/grade progression at 3 months after induction BCG; OR\r\n* Recurrence of high-grade CIS after achieving a disease-free state (i.e., complete response [CR]) following induction of an adequate course of BCG that occurs < 9 months after the last exposure to BCG; OR\r\n* Persistent CIS noted on the bladder biopsies within 3 months of completing at least 2 induction BCG (minimum of five weekly instillations)\r\nAn adequate course of BCG should be defined as at least one course of induction (minimum of five weekly instillations) and one maintenance (two of three instillations) in a 6 months period, with an exception for any patient with grade/stage progression after induction BCG (minimum of five weekly instillations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXINR > 1.5 or other evidence of impaired hepatic synthesis function.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled dysrhythmias or poorly controlled angina.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during the study (e.g., mammalian derived products, calcium, or vitamin D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have prior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis or osteomyelitis of the jaw, evidence of untreated local gum or oral infection, or non-healed dental or oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active dental or jaw conditions which require oral surgery/dental procedures, including tooth extraction for the course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXMental incompetence or criminal incarcerationXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have stage 2, 3 or 4 disease, with either high tumor burden by GELF criteria and/or FLIPI 3-5 (for FL)\r\n* To meet GELF criteria, patient must have at least one criterion:\r\n** Nodal or extranodal mass > 7 cm (document here the largest/longest single nodal or extranodal mass diameter)\r\n** At least 3 nodal masses: each > 3.0 cm in longest dimension\r\n** Systemic symptoms due to lymphoma or B symptoms\r\n** Splenomegaly with spleen > 16 cm by computed tomography (CT) scan\r\n** Evidence of compression syndrome (e.g., ureteral, orbital, gastrointestinal) or pleural or peritoneal serous effusion due to lymphoma (irrespective of cell content)\r\n** Leukemic presentation (> 5.0 x 10^9/L malignant circulating follicular cells)\r\n** Cytopenias (absolute neutrophil count < 1.0 X 10^9/L, hemoglobin < 10 gm/dL, and/or platelets < 100 x 10^9/L) AND/OR\r\n* To meet FLIPI criteria for FL, patient must have a score of 3, 4, or 5 (one point each for below criterion):\r\n** Age > 60 years\r\n** Ann Arbor stage III-IV\r\n** Hemoglobin level < 12 mg/dL\r\n** >= 5 nodal areas\r\n** Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level above normal\r\n* FLIPI2; each patient should be assessed for the presence or absence of the following 5 adverse prognostic factors:\r\n** Age (> 60 years versus [vs.] 60 years or less)\r\n** Hemoglobin level (< 120 g/L vs. 120 g/L or higher)\r\n** Beta2-microglobulin (above normal vs. normal or below)\r\n** Largest involved lymph node (> 6 cm vs. 6cm or lower)\r\n** Bone marrow (involved by histology vs. not involved)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior use of Revlimid or VelcadeXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion size >= 3 cm in maximum dimension or >= 1 cm and deemed a poor candidate for other ablative approachesXx_NEWLINE_xXPredicted survival of > 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXGerm cell or hematologic malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer disease for lesions within 5 cm of the stomachXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXThe Hepatobiliary Multidisciplinary Committee (HDMC) must approve of this interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXInsurance pre-authorization must be receivedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe Hepatobiliary Multidisciplinary Committee (HDMC) disapproves of this interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXInsurance will not cover the procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has been permanently discontinued from any IMCgp100 study or from IMCgp100 treatment in the parent study due to unequivocal progressive disease, unacceptable toxicity, non-compliance to study procedures, withdrawal of consent, or any other reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXHas one of the following sarcoma subtypes where combining anthracyclines with other chemotherapies is established as the standard of care: osteosarcoma, Ewings sarcoma, embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, alveolar rhabdomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXLargest lesion =< 4 cm diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases within 2 mm of the optic apparatusXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have received cabozantinib or have an allergy to cabozantinib are excluded; subjects who have previously received tyrosine kinase inhibitors are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastrointestinal or urinary fistulae, non-healed or chronic wound, or other conditions that, in the investigator’s view, would contraindicate or significantly increase the risks of bevacizumab therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known hemoptysis, gastrointestinal or intracerebral hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to IACS-010759 or other oxidative phosphorylation inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXLactate levels > 2 mmol/L and or and serum pH < 7.35 at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject currently being treated with biguanides or other agents known to increase risk of lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny concomitant disease or condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable riskXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated active major depressionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizures in the past 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent therapy with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI), or other tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) or use within 2 weeks study startXx_NEWLINE_xXGlaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) in first complete remission (CR1) with high risk for relapse including:\r\n* t(9;22) or detected BCR-ABL1 translocation by genomic methodologies\r\n* BCR-ABL1-Like B-ALL including mutations of IKZF1 or CRLF2\r\n* Translocations or mutations involving 11q23 (MLL) gene\r\n* Hypodiploid karyotype\r\n* Deletion of 9p\r\n* Loss of 17p or TP53 mutation\r\n* T-lymphocyte lineage antigen expression (T-ALL)\r\n* Central nervous system (CNS) or other extramedullary involvement\r\n* White blood cell (WBC) count >= 100,000 cells/uL at diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute myeloid leukemia (AML) in CR1 with intermediate or high risk features including:\r\n* Cytogenetic abnormalities associated with myelodysplastic syndrome including abnormalities of chromosome 5 or 7\r\n* History of anti-neoplastic therapy (radiation or chemotherapy)\r\n* Extramedullary involvement\r\n* WBC count >= 100,000 cells/uL at diagnosis\r\n* Rearrangements or mutations of 11q23 (MLL)\r\n* Abnormalities of chromosome 3\r\n* TP53 mutation or loss of 17p\r\n* Complex or monosomal karyotype \r\n* Normal karyotype with mutations of FLT3, RUNX1, or ASXL1Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyelofibrosis with Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS) scores of INT-2 or high risk or any risk category if life threatening cytopenias are presentXx_NEWLINE_xXCML with BCR-ABL mutation consistent with poor response to tyrosine kinase inhibition (e.g. T351I mutation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged 70-75 with hematopoietic cell transplant-co-morbidity index (HCT-CI) of 0-1 are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of psychiatric or neurologic disease, or lack of social support that limits patient's ability to comply with the treatment protocol including supportive care, follow-up, and research testsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of GISTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have refused or have evidence of intolerance to or progression on imatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males are exempt from contraceptive requirements; WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are also exempt from contraceptive requirements, and still must undergo pregnancy testing as described in this sectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarcerated; (Note: under certain specific circumstances a person who has been imprisoned may be included or permitted to continue as a subjectXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an EGFR mutation (sensitizing or non-sensitizing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs, at the time of signing informed consent, a regular user (including “recreational use”) of any illicit drugs or had a recent history (within the last year) of substance abuse (including alcohol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSensitizing mutations in EGFR or rearrangements in ALK or ROS1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed, previously untreated B-lineage ALL or lymphoblastic lymphoma, or having achieved complete remission (CR) with one course of induction chemotherapy; patients who require steroids, cytarabine (ara-c) or hydrea to manage disease symptoms prior to finalization of diagnosis and treatment plan are allowed and eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active or co-existing malignancy with life expectancy less than 12 months, sources for the determination of clinical significance by the treating physician will be included in the subject’s medical recordXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome (Ph)-positive ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXActive and uncontrolled disease/infection as judged by the treating physician, sources for the determination of clinical significance by the treating physician will be included in the subject’s medical recordXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who weigh less than 45 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not candidates for, or who cannot tolerate intensive chemotherapy or blinatumomab, sources for the determination of clinical significance by the treating physician will be included in the subject’s medical recordXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has adequate pulmonary function per protocol and oxygen saturation >92% on room air.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed availability of production capacities for the patient's ACTolog products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition contraindicating leukapheresis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on metformin or doxycycline for any reason during the preceding 4 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic subjects are eligible if they are not taking metformin or insulinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of lactic or any other metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a current history (in the past 30 days) of heavy drinking which is defined in accordance with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) definition as more than 8 drinks per week for women and more than 15 drinks per week for men; a standard drink contains .6 ounces of pure alcohol; generally, this amount of pure alcohol is found in 12-ounces of beer, 8-ounces of malt liquor, 5-ounces of wine, 1.5-ounces or a “shot” of 80-proof distilled spirits or liquor (e.g., gin, rum, vodka, or whiskey); while on study, patients should limit their alcohol consumption to no more than 8 drinks per week for women and no more than 15 drinks per week for men; patients who feel they cannot comply with this recommendation are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to metformin, doxycycline, or any other tetracycline antibiotic in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is on medications that are contraindicated with metformin or doxycycline under current Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommendations; the following is a list of medications identified as class D (consider therapy modification) when treatment with metformin or doxycycline is considered\r\n* Class D \r\n** Bismuth Subsalicylate\r\n** Cimetidine\r\n** Iodinated contrast agents\r\n** SomatropinXx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft versus-host disease and must not be on immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXLocally advanced, unresectable pancreatic cancer as confirmed by the multidisciplinary input from a hepatobiliary surgeon and as defined on CT as having tumor abutment of > 180 degrees (> 50%) of the circumference of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) or celiac axis, unreconstructable superior mesenteric vein (SMV) or portal vein (PV) involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand and follow the breathing instructions involved in the respiratory gating procedure or to tolerate compression sufficient to reduce fiducial motion to =< 5 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in which iodine contrast is contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to TGR-1202 or carfilzomibXx_NEWLINE_xXAccessible tumors for sequential biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic skin disorders that would interfere with subcutaneous injection of the vaccine or subsequent assessment of potential skin reactionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to any vaccine, that after discussion with Immunovaccine, are serious enough to warrant exclusion from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be CMV seropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXNot adhering to pregnancy prevention recommendationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic or unable to tolerate TMZ for any reason; any patient that successfully completed at least 5 weeks of Temodar during standard of care XRT/TMZ and whose blood counts meet the eligibility requirements within 4 weeks post XRT/TMZ is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have biopsiable disease at the time of enrollment as biopsies after progression are required for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring continuous supplemental oxygen are excluded to avoid possible complications from pneumonitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with comorbidity score > 3; the principal investigator is the final arbiter of eligibility for comorbidity score > 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of tumors involving spinal cord or heartXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to limit daily alcohol intake to the following: one 12-oz glass of beer, one 6-oz glass of wine, or one 1.5-oz portion of 80-proof alcoholXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXNo visceral crisis: Visceral crisis is moderate-to severe organ dysfunction as assessed by symptoms and signs, laboratory studies, and rapid progression of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCentral ER determination on pre-registration biopsy completedXx_NEWLINE_xXDevelopment of visceral crisis since pre-registration.\r\n* NOTE: Visceral crisis is moderate-to-severe organ dysfunction as assessed by symptoms and signs, laboratory studies, and rapid progression of disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic or refractory/recurrent HPV-16+ cancer (determined by in situ hybridization [ISH] or a polymerase chain reaction [PCR]-based test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to take medications orally;Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant treatment with the following drugs that may interact with S-1: Sorivudine, brivudine, uracil, eniluracil, folinate/folinic acid, Cimetidine, dipyridamole, and nitroimidazoles, including metronidazole and misonidazoleMethotrexate, Clozapine,Allopurinol,Phenytoin,Flucytosine, a fluorinated pyrimidine antifungal agent,Coumarin-derivative anticoagulantXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious use of TAS-114, S-1, and 5-FU drugs;Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant may have received bevacizumab (or other antiangiogenic agent) and/or cyclophosphamide in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has clinical symptoms or signs of partial or complete gastrointestinal obstruction or, requires parenteral hydration and/or nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXCommon variable immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach (no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for one hour after dosing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of apalutamide, abiraterone acetate or degarelixXx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of asthma that is nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced or with asthma that is classified as ‘mild-persistent’ or worse (based on symptoms occurring more than 2 days per week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically fit to undergo cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of alcoholic or non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), auto-immune hepatitis, or previous grade 3-4 drug-related hepatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor prognosis disease as defined by any of the following:\r\n* PSA nadir >=4.0, or\r\n* Gleason score 8-10, or\r\n* Time from ADT initiation to CRPC of =< 16 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1.5 x 10^9 /LXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior taxanes for CRPCXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior enzalutamide, abiraterone or ketoconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a documented germline neurofibromatosis 1 (NF1) mutation in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory or a diagnosis of NF1 based on clinical National Institutes of Health (NIH) consensus criteria; in addition to substantial cutaneous neurofibroma burden, at least one of the criteria below have to be present:\r\n* Six or more cafe-au-lait macules (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in post pubertal subjects)\r\n* Freckling in axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have substantial cutaneous neurofibroma burden causing distress to the patient by disfigurement or itching; patients must have >= 9 measurable cutaneous neurofibromas; for the purpose of this study measurability will be defined for each of the lesions selected as target lesions as a neurofibroma with a longest diameter >= 4 mm in the longest diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic parameters for patients undergoing biopsy only: patients should have international normalized ratio (INR) =< 1.4 and prothrombin time (PT) =< 40 seconds (unless due to lupus anticoagulant); in patients not meeting these parameters, clearance by hematology will be required prior to undergoing a biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid excessive sun exposure and use adequate sunscreen protection if sun exposure is anticipatedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo supplementation with vitamin E is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown ophthalmologic conditions, such as:\r\n* Current or past history of retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED)/central serous retinopathy (CSR)\r\n* Current or past history of retinal vein occlusion\r\n* Known intraocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg (or ULN adjusted by age) or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of IOP); patients with controlled glaucoma and increased IOP who do not have meaningful vision (light perception only or no light perception) may be eligible after discussion with the study chair\r\n* Subjects with any other significant abnormality on ophthalmic examination (performed by an ophthalmologist) should be discussed with the study chair for potential eligibility \r\n* Ophthalmological findings secondary to long-standing optic pathway glioma (such as visual loss, optic nerve pallor or strabismus) or long-standing orbito-temporal PN (such as visual loss, strabismus) will NOT be considered a significant abnormality for the purposes of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven malignant pleural mesothelioma MPM that is considered resectable according to the following criteria:\r\n* Confined to one pleural space\r\n* No chest wall invasion\r\n* No transdiaphragmatic involvement\r\n* No invasion of mediastinal structuresXx_NEWLINE_xXThe ability to take folic acid, vitamin B12, and dexamethasone according to protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXRegistered patients with an active infection or with a fever of ? 38.5 Celsius degrees (C) within 24 hours of the first scheduled day of protocol initiation will be excluded until their infection and/or fever resolvesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of third space fluid which cannot be controlled by drainageXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor must be mismatch repair (MMR) proficient as determined by microsatellite instability or immunohistochemistry for MMR proteins\r\n* Microsatellite instability testing must be microsatellite instability (MSI)-stable or MSI-low\r\n* Or immunohistochemistry (IHC) for MMR proteins must demonstrate intact MMR proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be a candidate for SBRT to at least one intrahepatic lesion; there is no limit on the number of intrahepatic lesions the patient may haveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) confirmed by American Association for Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) guidelines with a Childs-Pugh score of A or B (but, =< Childs score B8)\r\n* NOTE: If the patient does not have histological confirmation of disease by biopsy, diagnosis of HCC must be documented with approval by a tumor board or other multidisciplinary conferenceXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious allo-HSCT of any kindXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to a short interspersed element (SINE) compoundXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients < 8 years of age unable to perform pulmonary function tests (PFTs) due to age or developmental ability: (1) no evidence of dyspnea at rest and (2) no need for supplemental oxygen and (3) oxygen (O2) saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Fanconi anemia; at a minimum, the diagnosis of Fanconi anemia must be excluded by diepoxybutane (DEB) or equivalent testing on peripheral blood or marrow in patients younger than 30 years of age; (additional mutational testing may have been performed in a clinical or research capacity on a per patient basis but is not considered an exclusion criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClonal cytogenetic abnormalities consistent with pre-myelodysplastic syndrome (pre-MDS) or MDS on marrow examination (e.g. monosomy 7)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive hepatitis B or C determined by serology and/or nucleic acid testing (NAT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pathologically proven diagnosis of high grade gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be three or more months from the end of chemoradiotherapy or have biopsy or imaging consistent with disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrollable allergic reactions to bevacizumab or ascorbic acidXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of oxalate nephrolithiasis or urine oxalate >60 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXAnuria, dehydration, severe pulmonary congestion or pulmonary edema or fixed low cardiac inputXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamide; Note: high dose ascorbic acid may affect urine acidification and, as a result, may affect clearance rates of these drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient desires and is medically fit to undergo prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of HPV tested by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn accordance with National Cancer Institute of Canada Clinical Trials Group (NCIC CTG) policy, protocol treatment is to begin within 2 working days of patient registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with body weight < 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight >= 120 pounds (lbs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDecision impaired patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI < 21 at time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight < 120 lbs at time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXActive drug/alcohol dependence or abuse historyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient on anti-retroviral medication (as these medications may alter patient metabolism)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening blood counts of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening chemistry values of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior chemotherapies more than 2 lines (Phase II part only) .Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of impaired adrenal gland function (eg, Addison's disease, Cushing's syndrome).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCo-administration of CYP3A4 ligands that serve as substrates or induce or inhibit the enzyme.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious history of difficulty swallowing capsules.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior known history of retinal neovascularization, macular edema or macular degeneration; patients without such a history are required to have a baseline ophthalmologic exam as part of screening, and must not have evidence of retinal neovascularization, macular edema or macular degeneration on the screening exam in order to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for TSEB based on investigator determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease must be technically amenable to transhepatic arterial chemoembolization (TACE) (HCC patients only), radiofrequency ablation (RFA), or cryoablation; each case will be discussed at gastrointestinal (GI) tumor board with interventional radiology; patients must have evaluable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXDiverticulitis either active or history of within the past 2 years; note that diverticulosis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to research blood sampling to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown (histology/cytology proven) or evidenced by radiology of recurrent and/or metastatic SCCHN not suited for local therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXMales or females aged ? 20 years and < 75 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombocytopenia with complications (including hemorrhage or bleeding ? Grade 2, based on NCI-CTCAE v4.03 criteria), hemolytic condition, or coagulation disorders that would make subjects unsafe based on the judgment of the InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed sarcoma that fall into one of the following categories;  patients with low-grade tumors are eligible if there is definite evidence of metastasis or progression (defined as at least a 10% increase in the cumulative sum of the longest diameters within a 3 month period)\r\n* Adipocytic tumors (well-differentiated/dedifferentiated liposarcoma, myxoid liposarcoma, pleomorphic liposarcoma)\r\n* Vascular tumors (leiomyosarcoma, angiosarcoma)\r\n* Undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma\r\n* Synovial sarcoma\r\n* Osteosarcoma\r\n* Other sarcoma histologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary conditions, which in the principal investigator's (PI’s) opinion would increase the risk of immunotherapy-related pulmonary toxicity, for example, interstitial lung diseases, such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, and hypersensitivity pneumonitis, silicosis or sarcoidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following high-risk features who are not candidates for traditional neoadjuvant chemotherapy will be included for this trial: micropapillary, sarcomatoid and plasmacytoid features; 3-dimensional (3-D) mass on exam under anesthesia (EUA); lymphovascular invasion; hydronephrosis (unless in the opinion of the treating physician, this is not due to tumor); high grade (grade 3) tumors of the ureter, renal pelvis, or tumors in these areas with radiographic abnormality large enough to recognize as an abnormal mass by computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) imaging; direct invasion of the prostatic stroma or the vaginal wall (i.e. cT4a disease); patients who are candidates for but refusing conventional chemotherapy may be considered eligible; for patients in whom eligibility is unclear, final arbitration will be determined by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current relevant CNS pathology such as epilepsy, seizure, paresis, aphasia, apoplexia, severe brain injuries, cerebellar disease, organic brain syndrome, psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR ALL ARMS OF THE PROTOCOLXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have an ambulatory oxygen saturation of > 88% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo mass ?7 cm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 3 nodal sites, each with diameter >3 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXNo systemic or B symptoms (fever >38°C for 3 consecutive days; recurrent, drenching night sweats; unintentional weight loss exceeding 10% body weight in the last 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo risk of vital organ compression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body surface area >3.0 m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically documented recurrence of non-muscle-invasive bladder carcinoma (T1HG, T1HG after repeat transurethral resection [reTUR]) or BCG refractory; if patient has received BCG they can be Ta, Tis, or T1)\r\n* Note: Gross disease is not allowed, however positive urine cytology and carcinoma in situ is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be BCG-unresponsive; a patient is BCG-unresponsive if they meet one of more of the following criteria:\r\n* Patient has persistent or recurrent high-grade Ta/carcinoma in situ (CIS)/ urothelial carcinoma after completing therapy with at least induction BCG (>= 5 doses) and first round maintenance or second induction BCG (>= 2 doses); patient has high grade T1 urothelial carcinoma after induction BCG (>= 5 doses) only or after induction BCG (>= 5 doses) and first round maintenance or second induction BCG (>= 2 doses)\r\n* Patient is disease-free at completion of BCG (i.e., complete response) but then experiences a high-grade recurrence before or at the 6 month follow-up cystoscopy\r\n* Recurrence after treatment with at least 3 doses of a BCG refractory agent (for example, though not limited to, gemcitabine, docetaxel, valrubicin or an interferon adenovirus)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with B-lineage ALL in a) hematologic complete remission (CR) beyond CR1 at time of transplant; patients beyond CR1 or with primary induction failure may be without minimal residual disease, b) any residual disease defined by positive flow > 0.01%, detection of breakpoint cluster region-abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 (BCR-ABL) transcript by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) with a sensitivity of 1/10,000, or detection of the t(9;22) translocation in any metaphases by cytogenetics at time of transplant, or presence of the MLL geneXx_NEWLINE_xXDuring the Phase II trial, patient must have been treated with enzalutamide or other second-generation androgen receptor antagonist before enrollment into this trial, and is tested positive for AR-V7Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dissemination (positive CSF cytology for malignancy or MRI findings with CSF dissemination)Xx_NEWLINE_xXARDS characterized by hypoxemia and bilateral radiographic opacities not fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload as judged by the treating physician using all available data; moderate ARDS includes patients with malignancies with the previous presentation and a partial pressure arterial oxygen and fraction of inspired oxygen (P/F) ratio =< 200 or oximetric saturation to the fraction of inspired oxygen (S/F) ratio of =< 214; the duration of the hypoxemia criterion and the radiograph criterion must be within 10 days of the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMoribund patients not expected to survive up to 48 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ARDS resulting from traumaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Gilbert’s syndrome will be eligible for the study; a diagnosis of Gilbert’s syndrome will be based on the exclusion of other diseases based on the following criteria:\r\n* Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia noted on several occasions\r\n* No evidence of hemolysis (normal hemoglobin, reticulocyte count, and lactate dehydrogenase [LDH])\r\n* Normal liver function tests\r\n* Absence of other diseases associated with unconjugated hyperbilirubinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have an ambulatory oxygen saturation of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior pneumonectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXARM B ONLYXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with 1-4 metastatic brain lesions who are considered eligible for single-fraction, frame-based SRS, who are unable or unwilling to undergo frame-based SRSXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion(s) involving the brainstem, optic chiasm or optic nerve(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients willing to be treated with frame-based gamma knife SRS at MD Anderson main campus or MD Anderson at the WoodlandsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on an enzyme-inducing anti-convulsant who cannot be switched to a non-enzyme-inducing anti-convulsant with a 2 week wash-out period from time of drug discontinuation until day 1 of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be cleared for surgery and low/moderate risk for perioperative complications related to general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have potentially curable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent/previous treated head and neck squamous cell carcinoma that is deemed surgically resectable by the treating physician but at high risk for recurrence; this group otherwise would be considered for retreatment with radiation and/or chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with exposed carotid artery preoperatively requiring sacrifice or bypass intra-operativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active pharyngocutaneous fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have had a recent previous hospital admission (within 30 days) or be admitted preoperatively but not for the following conditions\r\n* Unstable angina\r\n* Congestive heart failure\r\n* Severe hypothyroidism thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) >10\r\n** Endocrine consult and intervention may allow participation at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI) for a TSH > 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients deemed to be “high risk” by pre admission testing (care process model [CPM]) or by a preoperative risk assessment by the hospitalist for perioperative complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave inadequate venous access for or contraindications to leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXCraniopharyngioma diagnosed by histology, cytology or neuroimaging or intra-operative assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have experienced a toxicity that led to permanent discontinuation of prior immunotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a history of a small or large bowel obstruction within 2 weeks of screening or who have and active partial small bowel obstruction or percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)-tubeXx_NEWLINE_xXmet the screening criteria for CI through a positive response to at least 1 of 2 scaled questions from the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer Quality of Life questionnaire (EORTC-QLQ) i.e. Please rate on a scale from 0 to 10, the difficulty level you have in concentrating on things, like reading a newspaper or watching television? \0\ means no difficulty and \10\ means very difficult. Please rate on a scale from 0 to 10, the difficulty level you have in remembering things. \0\ means no difficulty and \10\ means very difficult, will be included.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pretreatment neck and chest imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must be potentially surgically resectable via a transoral approach, at the discretion of the treating surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to biospecimen submission for tissue and serum processing and storage for secondary biomarker studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T4 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with N3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed medically inoperable per urology evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating blast count > 30,000/uL by morphology or flow cytometry (cyto-reductive therapies including leukapheresis or hydroxyurea are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of donor specific antibodies (DSA) with mean fluorescence intensity (MFI) of > 2000 as assessed by the single antigen bead assay, < 6 weeks prior to starting transplant conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXNew or progressive pulmonary infiltrates; progressive pulmonary infiltrate is defined as an increase of 20% or greater from prior radiologic exam; radiologic assessment methods may be computed tomography (CT) or posterioranterior (PA)/lateral (L) x-ray imaging; infiltrates attributed to infection must be stable or improving after 1 week of appropriate therapy, or 4 weeks for presumed or proven fungal infections to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: In general good health, and medically able to tolerate leukapheresis required for harvesting the NK cells for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of Philadelphia chromosome positive (Ph+) (by cytogenetics or FISH) or BCR-ABL+ (by polymerase chain reaction [PCR]) CML in CP (cohort 1), AP (cohort 2) or BP (cohort 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have demonstrated resistance, intolerance or treatment discontinuation for any other reason of at least 2 FDA-approved TKIs (other than bosutinib) if in CP (cohort 1), or at least 1 Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved TKI (other than bosutinib) if in AP (cohort 2); resistance will be defined as meeting the criteria for failure or warning by the European Leukemia Net (ELN); no prior therapy is necessary for patients in BP (cohort 2); patients in CP who have failed < 3 TKIs, but are ineligible to receive other FDA-approved TKIs, may also be enrolled in cohort 1; at least 10 CP patients with the T315I mutation affecting the kinase domain of Bcr-Abl will be enrolled in cohort 1, as well as in the phase II portion of cohort 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXReliable telephone access so as to be able to receive calls from an interactive voice response (IVR) system (only applicable to patients participating in the optional symptom burden assessment portion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on proton pump inhibitors, potent CYP3A or P-glycoprotein substrates, inhibitors or inducers a minimum 7 day period washout required unless discontinuation or substitution is not in the best interests of the patient as determined by the investigator; in instances where use of these agents is felt to be required for optimal management, inclusion of such patients should be discussed with the principal investigator (PI) and the rationale documented; these patients, if enrolled on study, may require dose modifications for both axitinib and bosutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXShort removable metal stents rather than plastic stents are strongly encouraged but not required for palliation of initial obstructive jaundiceXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed de novo AML; orXx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigator considers participant ineligible for intensive induction therapy based on medical reasons, disease characteristics such as genetics, type of AML (de novo or secondary), or participant characteristics such as age, performance status, co-morbidities, organ dysfunctions, or patient election of low-intensity treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPancreatic or periampullary tumors must be less than 8.0 cm in greatest axial dimension at the time of treatment planningXx_NEWLINE_xXAchieving partial response (PR) or very good partial response (VGPR) with systemic chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who achieved complete response (CR) prior to autologous HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have had histologic verification of neuroblastoma at original diagnosis or relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2 GROUP 1 INCLUSION CRITERIA: Subject has high-risk neuroblastoma with a protocol-defined genomic aberration that allows assignment to Group 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2 GROUP 2A INCLUSION CRITERIA: Subject has high-risk neuroblastoma with a protocol-defined genomic aberration that allows assignment to Group 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2 GROUP 3 INCLUSION CRITERIA: Subject has high-risk neuroblastoma with a protocol-defined genomic aberration that allows assignment to Group 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART 1 EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Potential subjects and/or parents/guardians who, in the opinion of the investigative team, are likely to be non-compliant with study schedules or proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2 GROUP 1 EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Potential subjects and/or parents/guardians who, in the opinion of the investigative team, are likely to be non-compliant with study schedules or proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2 GROUP 2A EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Potential subjects and/or parents/guardians who, in the opinion of the investigative team, are likely to be non-compliant with study schedules or proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2 GROUP 3 EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Potential subjects and/or parents/guardians who, in the opinion of the investigative team, are likely to be non-compliant with study schedules or proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be aged between >= 18 years and =< 64 for AML and > 40 and =< 64 for ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed AML patients who are identified with FLT3-ITD or tyrosine kinase domain (TKD) point mutation in the codon for an aspartate (D835) or an isoleucine (I836) residueXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)+ ALL are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll outside study medications and supplements will be reviewed and monitored by the inpatient pharmacy team; patients will be discouraged from taking herbals and additional supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should not be prescribed concomitant medications that may contribute to prolonged QTc without consultation with the chemotherapy pharmacist; additional ECGs should be done at the investigator’s discretion to ensure the subject’s safety; drugs that are generally accepted to increase the risk of Torsades de Pointes, include (but not limited to):\r\n* Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n* Amiodarone, ibutilide, dofetilide, sotalol\r\n* Erythromycin, clarithromycin\r\n* Chlorpromazine, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n* Cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high risk or intermediate risk disease, defined below; staging evaluation should be determined by imaging studies and complete head and neck exam in accordance with the American Joint Committee on Cancer Staging Manual, 7th edition\r\n* High risk patient must meet one of the following criteria:\r\n** Surgically unresectable oral cavity; patients who are technically resectable but refuse surgery due to morbidity (eg. total glossectomy) are also eligible; medically inoperable patients are not eligible\r\n** Larynx: T4 any N; T2-3 and >= N2a\r\n** Hypopharynx: T1-2N1-3 or T3-4N0-3\r\n** Oropharynx: p16(-) AND T3-4 or >= N2a\r\n** Unknown primary: p16(-) AND >= N2a\r\n* Intermediate risk patients must meet one of the following criteria:\r\n** Oropharynx: p16(+) AND one of the following\r\n*** T3 or >= N2a AND >= 10 pack-years tobacco exposure \r\n*** T4 or N3 disease irrespective of tobacco exposure\r\n** Unknown primary: p16(+) AND one of the following:\r\n*** >= N2a AND >= 10 pack-years tobacco exposure\r\n*** N3 disease irrespective of tobacco exposure\r\nNote: for patients with oropharyngeal or unknown primary tumors, p16 status must be known, and can be performed at the local site; p16-positive disease is defined as >= 70% of tumor cells demonstrating diffuse nuclear and cytoplasmic staining by p16 immunohistochemistry (IHC); a positive test for human papilloma virus (HPV) -16 by in-situ hybridization (ISH), if this is the local site preference for assessing HPV status, may substitute for p16 IHC testing; p16 staining is not required for non-oropharyngeal sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 differentiated thyroid carcinoma (resected or management deferred), who are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant electrolyte imbalance prior to enrollment (note that patients may be supplemented to achieve acceptable electrolyte values):\r\n* Hypomagnesemia < 1.2 mg/dL or 0.5 mmol/L\r\n* Hypokalemia < 3.0 mmol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXNY-ESO-1 positive malignancy by immunohistochemistry (IHC) utilizing commonly available NY-ESO-1 antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to accept two leukapheresis proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B or C seropositivity with evidence of ongoing liver damage; if there is a positive result in the infectious disease testing that was not previously known, the patient will be referred to their primary physician and/or infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of spinal cord ependymoma, myxopapillary ependymoma, subependymoma, ependymoblastoma, supratentorial ependymoma, or mixed glioma are NOT eligible for either StratumXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical contraindication against lumbar puncture or Ommaya placement are NOT eligible for either StratumXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary function testing in patients with:\r\n* A prolonged history of cigarette smoking (20 pk/yr of smoking within the past two years)\r\n* Symptoms of respiratory dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed (non-M3) AML patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be >= 15 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXContinued CR, CRp, or CRi within 3 weeks of first dose WT-1 specific CD8+ T cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXHLA-A*02:01 expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditionally, patients treated in stage 1, cohort #3 must be EBV seropositive, given the inclusion of T cells derived from an EBV-specific subset in this groupXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of HLA-A*02:01 expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to generate antigen-specific WT1-specific CD8+ T cells for infusions; however, if a lower than planned number of cells is available, the patient will have the option to receive the generated WT1-specific T cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical or psychological conditions that, according to the PI, would make the patient unsuitable candidate for cell therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAdenocarcinoma of the prostate with histological or cytological confirmation without neuroendocrine differentiation or small cell histology and with G 4+3 or higher, and PSA >= 10, and >= T2b, for whom radical prostatectomy has been recommended and who choose to undergo radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXBe capable of swallowing study agents whole as a tabletXx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of any prior hormones including luteinizing hormone–releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists, LHRH antagonists, antiandrogens such as bicalutamide, flutamide and nilutamide, and/or the use of 5-alpha reductase inhibitors, PCSPES (or PC-x product), megestrol acetate, or estrogen containing nutraceuticals within 6 months of\r\nstudy treatment initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a known history of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXBe taking or require the use of prohibited medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical and microbiologic relapse of C. difficile associated diarrhea after at least one course of adequate antibiotic therapy or refractory disease that does not respond to treatment\r\n* At least 10 days of vancomycin at least 125 mg four times daily (QID), or metronidazole 500 mg three times daily (TID)\r\n* C. difficile associated diarrhea is defined as:\r\n** >= 3 loose or watery stools per day for at least 2 consecutive days or >= 8 loose stools in 48 hours and\r\n** Positive Clostridium difficile polymerase chain reaction (PCR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious cardiopulmonary comorbiditiesXx_NEWLINE_xXActive fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXIleusXx_NEWLINE_xXGastroparesisXx_NEWLINE_xXUROTHELIAL CARCINOMA EXPANSION COHORT: ECOG 0–2Xx_NEWLINE_xXmCRPC EXPANSION COHORT: All patients must have at least one lesion deemed safe to biopsy and be willing to undergo a mandatory baseline biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious concurrent infection or nonmalignant illness that is uncontrolled or whose control may be jeopardized by complication of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must have a diagnosis of ALL of either B-cell, T-cell, or mixed (i.e., B/T lineage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously received or are ineligible for treatment with blinatumomab; ineligibility will include (but not be limited to) cluster of differentiation 19 (CD19)-negative disease, denial of insurance coverage, physician discretion, and/or patient refusalXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for:\r\n* Cohort A: Robot-assisted radical cystectomy (RARC) as per the attending urologist\r\n* Cohort B: Robot-assisted radical Nephrectomy (RARN)/robot-assisted partial nephrectomy (RAPN) as per the attending urologist\r\n* Cohort C: RAPN as per the attending urologistXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are currently no known concomitant medications that must be discontinued prior to administration of registration on study and for the duration of sEphB4-HSAXx_NEWLINE_xXNo diagnosed arrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of gross hematuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of hydronephrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has received no more than 1 other therapeutic regimen other than those listed above in (5).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 30 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum phosphate levels that are within normal limits (2.4 - 4.1 milligrams per deciliter mg/dL) at baseline.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of proteinuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (defined as > 1/2 tablespoon [tsp] of bright red blood per day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent standard long-term anticancer hormonal therapy with drugs including, but not limited to, selective estrogen receptor modulators or Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogs if started at least six months before the first dose of ARQ 751 is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be vulnerable or frail by Balducci Criteria or the patient is refusing breast surgery; vulnerable patients are defined as those with dependence in some instrumental activities of daily living, well controlled co-morbidities, and early symptoms of geriatric syndrome; frail patients are defined as those with three or more co-morbidities, dependence in one or more activities of daily living, or a clinically significant geriatric syndrome; geriatric syndromes include: dementia, delirium, incontinence (fecal and/or urinary), osteoporosis or spontaneous fractures, polypharmacy, visual/hearing impairment, sarcopenia and neglect or abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient’s refusal to proceed with curative breast surgery has to be documented by the surgeon’s and medical oncologist’s noteXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a relapsed/refractory peripheral T cell lymphoma; patients must have received at least one prior standard cytotoxic regimen such as cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone (CHOP), or etoposide phosphate, prednisone, vincristine sulfate, cyclophosphamide, and doxorubicin hydrochloride (EPOCH) ORXx_NEWLINE_xXConsidered to be suitable intensive (cytotoxic) induction candidatesXx_NEWLINE_xXIn a morphologic complete remission with incomplete blood count recovery, or morphologic complete remission post-induction after no more than 2 induction cyclesXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to comply with the treatment assignment:\r\n* Intent to proceed with high-dose cytarabine (HiDAC) consolidation for LAM VAF < 2.5%\r\n* Intent to proceed with either HiDAC consolidation or allogeneic stem cell transplantation, at the discretion of the treating physician, for LAM >= 2.5%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary AML (defined as development of AML in patients with an antecedent hematological malignancy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver capable of providing post-HCT careXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver capable of providing post-HCT care, who will be present once induction therapy with filgrastim, cladribine, cytarabine, mitoxantrone hydrochloride (GCLAM) beginsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse after minimal residual disease (MRD)-negative CR within 3 months of most recent GCLAM chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXDLCOc < 40% or FEV1 < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area > 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or ordered molecular testing for MSI, BRAF, and KRAS statusXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight > 30kg (required for flat dose-based administration of study agents)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot be on agents known to alter rapamycin metabolism significantlyXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppressed state (e.g. HIV, use of chronic steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOn agents known to alter rapamycin metabolism significantlyXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not a good candidate for BCG in their treating physician’s opinionXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic confirmation of the diagnosis either at original diagnosis or recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown non-synonymous mutation in the following genes: Raf, PDGFR, VEGFR, Flt-3, KIT, JAK, STAT, RAS, MEK, or ERK; genomic sample preferably from relapse, but may be from other stage of treatment if relapse sample is not reasonably obtainable; genetic analysis for determination of eligibility occurs as part of routine care and is not being performed specifically for the purposes of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94%Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases in the brain stem, midbrain, pons, medulla, or within 7 mm of the optic apparatus (optic nerves, chiasm and optic tracts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with relapsed or refractory CD19 positive B-acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCD19 negative B-cell leukaemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXBurkitt cell or mixed lineage acute leukaemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) or on immunosuppressive medication for GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease that is amenable to biopsy and be willing to provide the same; NOTE: Patients in whom a baseline biopsy is attempted, but is not successful, will still be considered eligible for the study; in addition, if the primary oncologist has a concern regarding the feasibility of a biopsy, it may be omitted after consulting with the protocol chairXx_NEWLINE_xXLung metastases will be unresectable due to anatomic location, distribution, or patients’ comorbidities, as determined by review of imaging by a faculty member in the Department of Thoracic & Cardiovascular SurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient refusal to participate in randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets (plt) >= 50 K/cu mm; for subjects with plt < 50 K/cu mm due to significant marrow involvement by MCL, plt must be > 25 K/cu mmXx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft versus (vs.) host disease (gvhd)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave major abnormalities documented by ECHO with Doppler (for example, moderate or severe heart valve function defect including moderate or severe valve stenosis or regurgitation, left ventricular ejection fraction <50%, evaluation based on the institutional lower limit of normal, septal aneurysm or other heart aneurysm, any aneurysm of the major vessels or any condition that results in increased risk of aneurysm (eg, Marfan syndrome, patent foramen ovale [PFO]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent dependency on total parenteral nutrition or IV fluid hydration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrolment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of primary myelofibrosis (PMF) or post-polycythemia vera (post-PV) myelofibrosis (MF) or post-essential thrombocythemia (post-ET) MF based on the World Health Organization (WHO) criteria or the International Working Group for Myelofibrosis Research and Treatment (IWG-MRT) criteria, which must be confirmed by bone marrow (BM) aspirate and/or biopsy within 6 weeks prior to screening; measurement of janus kinase 2 (JAK2) V617F allele burden in BM samples, if not done within 6 months prior to screening, must be provided with the screening BM biopsy/aspirate report (patients are eligible regardless of JAK2 mutation status)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing clinically significant anemia due to factors such as known iron, vitamin B12, or folate deficiencies, auto-immune or hereditary hemolysis, or gastrointestinal (GI) bleedingXx_NEWLINE_xXHyponatremia (defined as serum sodium level < 130 mEq/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNew onset seizures (within 3 months prior to screening) or poorly controlled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate oral intake and nutritional status without current or likely need for enteral or parenteral feeding during chemoradiation or the preoperative periodXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate caloric or fluid intake whereby there is a current or likely future need for enteral or parenteral feeding during chemoradiation or the preoperative periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior pancreatitis that was symptomatic or required medical intervention =< 6 months prior to registration (known toxicity of pembrolizumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior enteritis that was symptomatic or required medical intervention =< 6 months prior to registration (known toxicity of pembrolizumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hyper/hypothyroidism or hyper/hypocorticism =< 6 months prior to registration (known toxicity of pembrolizumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior fistula within thorax, including bronchoalveolar or esophagealXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is receiving chronic antiplatelet therapy, including aspirin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug [NSAIDs], including ibuprofen, naproxen, and others), dipyridamole or clopidogrel, or similar agents; once-daily aspirin use (maximum dose 325 mg/day) is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hemoptysis (defined as bright red blood or >= 1/2 teaspoon) within 2 months prior to enrollment, or with central or cavitating lesions, will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has radiologically documented evidence of major blood vessel invasion or encasement by cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a history of GI perforation and/or fistulae within 6 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCML in any phaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLoss of MMR following a first TKI discontinuation trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient requiring anti-diabetic medications to manage hyperglycemia are eligible; adjustments of other anti-diabetic agents will be made with close monitoring of blood glucoseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown loss of complete cytogenetic response (CCyR) by marrow cytogenetic or blood fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) for breakpoint cluster region (BCR)- v-abl Abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 (ABL1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLoss of complete hematologic response (CHR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGross (visible) hematuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of osteoporosisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of macular edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of ABL1-domain mutation that predicts resistance to the discontinued TKIXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled peripheral edema (2+ or more) of any etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cerebral/meningeal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related mortality (TRM) score =< 13.1 as calculated with simplified modelXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant illness associated with a likely survival of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious receipt of azacitidine, decitabine, anthracyclines, cytarabine, or other nucleoside analogues for treatment of AML or MPN/MDS other than as noted for cytarabineXx_NEWLINE_xXA person (such as a haploidentical family member) or unit of cord blood must be identified as a source of back-up cells source in case of engraftment failureXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT)/bilirubin < to 2.0 x normal (myeloablative regimen 1), reduced intensity regimen 3; SGPT/bilirubin < to 4.0 x normal (nonmyeloablative regimen 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled serious medical condition such as persistent septicemia despite adequate antibiotic therapy, decompensated congestive heart failure despite cardiac medications or pulmonary insufficiency requiring intubation (excluding primary disease for which cord blood [CB] transplantation is proposed), or psychiatric condition that would limit informed consentXx_NEWLINE_xXFor participation in the patient-reported outcomes and qualitative interviews, subjects must be fluent in EnglishXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistology showing mucinous or low grade epithelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXRESEARCH SAMPLE COLLECTION: Myeloma patients who are not candidates for high-dose melphalan followed by autologous HCT based on institutional standardsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived high-dose melphalan (>= 140 mg/m^2) followed by autologous HCT based on the institutional guidelines and within +45 and +180 after autologous HCT at the time of panobinostat maintenance initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically euthyroid; Note: patients are permitted to receive thyroid hormone supplements to treat underlying hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior histone deacetylase (HDAC), deacetylase (DAC), heat shock protein (HSP)90 inhibitors or valproic acid for the treatment of cancer is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXUCB graft selected according to current University of Minnesota umbilical cord blood graft selection algorithmXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias: Must be in remission by morphology (< 5% blasts); Note cytogenetic relapse or persistent disease without morphologic relapse is acceptable; also a small percentage of blasts that is equivocal between marrow regeneration vs. early relapse are acceptable provided there are no associated cytogenetic markers consistent with relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXBiphenotypic/undifferentiated/prolymphocytic leukemias in first or subsequent CRXx_NEWLINE_xXMinimal residual disease (MRD) positive leukemia (AML, ALL or accelerated/blast phase CML); selected patients in morphologic CR, but with positive immunophenotypic (flow cytometry) or molecular evidence of MRD may be eligible if recent chemotherapy has not resulted in MRD negative statusXx_NEWLINE_xXNatural killer cell malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative neoplasms/myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional criteria for bulky disease (lymphomas):\r\n*If stable disease is best response, the largest residual nodal mass must < 5 cm (approximately)\r\n*If response to previous therapy, the largest residual mass must represent a 50% reduction and be < 7.5 cm (approximately)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCML in blast crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and qualified for active surveillance at Johns Hopkins or the University of WashingtonXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of ARN-509 (apalutamide)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of drugs known to lower the seizure threshold, including: atypical antipsychotics (e.g. clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, ziprasidone), bupropion, lithium, meperidine, pethidine, phenothiazine antipsychotics (e.g. chlorpromazine, mesoridazine, thioridazine), and tricyclic antidepressants (e.g. amitriptyline, desipramine, doxepin, imipramine, maprotiline, mirtazapine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXOcular:\r\n* History of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusions (RVO), or neovascular macular degeneration\r\n* The risk factors for RVO are listed below; patients should be excluded if they have the following current conditions:\r\n** Uncontrolled glaucoma with intra-ocular pressures > 21 mmHg\r\n** Serum cholesterol >= grade 2\r\n** Hypertriglyceridemia >= grade 2\r\n** Hyperglycemia (fasting) >= grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a history of anaphylaxis or other serious adverse reactions relating to administration of any components of the investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a history of serious allergic reaction to any substance, resulting in hospitalization or requiring other emergent medical attentionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has been diagnosed and treated at an external facility, and the resulting tissue specimen is of insufficient quality such that it precludes clinical sequencing or any other necessary study procedure, and the subject is unwilling to undergo an additional biopsy procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is a prisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistamine 2 (H2) antagonists and proton pump inhibitors are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticoagulants (i.e. Coumadin, heparin, anti-Xa inhibitors) and anti-platelet agents (i.e. aspirin) are not allowed; nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) and acetaminophen are allowed on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of prolonged QTC or cardiomyopathy unless normal QTC and ejection fraction confirmed within 1 month prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXnon-hilar tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXinvasive mediastinal staging requirement will be based on current American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) lung cancer staging criteria and will be performed by any of the following tests, in appropriate patients, alone or in combination based on study site preference in accordance with ACCP guidelines - mediastinoscopy, mediastinotomy, VATS, endobronchial ultrasound, endoscopic ultrasound.Xx_NEWLINE_xXhistory of mediastinal or pulmonary irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXsystemic vascular disease or vasculitisXx_NEWLINE_xXMetabolic: glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) < 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have confirmed GBM MGMT status (tumor must be MGMT promoter unmethylated) by central laboratory Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified testing at MD Anderson, prior to registration. If initial MGMT testing obtained at an outside institution, MGMT status must be centrally retested at MD Anderson.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWithin 12 weeks of chemoradiation unless the patient fulfills criteria for early progressive disease by RANOXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for urgent palliative intervention (e.g., impending herniation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic dysfunction that would confound the evaluation of neurologic and other adverse eventsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to remain abstinent from consuming alcohol while on DSFXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to DSF or CuXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with the following medications are contraindicated with DSF when taken within 7 days prior to the first dose of DSF plus (+) Cu: metronidazole, isoniazid, dronabinol, carbocisteine, lopinavir, paraldehyde, ritonavir, sertraline, tindazole, tizanidine, atazanavir; (Note: the following medications are not contraindicated but should be cautioned if taking concurrently with DSF: warfarin, phenytoin, theophylline, chlorzoxazone, chlordiazepoxide, diazepam; if the patient is taking warfarin, international normalized ratio [INR] should be monitored closely; if the patient has to remain on phenytoin, its serum concentration and response should be monitored closely)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Wilson’s disease or family member with Wilson’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemochromatosis or family member with hemochromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 3 contiguous or discontiguous vertebral levels involved with metastasis in the spine to be irradiated in a single session or 3 sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXMotor strength >= 4 out of 5 in extremity or extremities affected by the level of the spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXInoperable disease because of patient refusal, neurosurgical evaluation, or any other medical reasonsXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions located outside of the spinal segments of T2 to T12Xx_NEWLINE_xXFrank cord compression or cord compression from bone components or configuration and acute neurological deficits (defined as motor strength < 4/5 in extremity or extremities affected by the level of the spinal cord compression)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary urothelial or predominantly urothelial carcinoma of the bladderXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic evidence of muscularis propria invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny component of small cell histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hydronephrosis that has not been addressed with a documented assessment (i.e. normal GFR, no intervention necessary) or an intervention such as placement of a stent or nephrostomy tubeXx_NEWLINE_xXExpression of one (1) or more of the following TAPAs: SP17, AKAP4, Ropporin, PTTG1 and Span-xb, by either reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) and/or immunocytochemistry, Western blotting or ELISA, in neoplastic cells and/or blood.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to provide at least 250 mL, and up to 500 mL, of whole blood obtained by phlebotomy and/or consent to leukapheresis for DC generation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ? 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindications to CYP and/or GM-CSF.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psychological or geographic conditions that prevent adequate follow-up or compliance with the study protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious histologic diagnosis of glioblastoma, transformation to glioblastoma or gliosarcoma established by biopsy or resection prior to enrollment as evident on National Institutes of Health (NIH) or outside pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with preexisting known or suspected radiation sensitivity syndromes will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive TKI for insurance reasons (uninsurable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefuse or unable to perform telephone or video conferences with research coordinatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHas favorable risk AML as defined by the presence of isolated t(8;21) or inv(16) or t(16;16)(p13.1;q22) on a standard karyotype or mutated NPM1 with concurrent wild-type FLT3 on molecular testingXx_NEWLINE_xXIf they have not previously had a video assisted thoracoscopic surgery, and they have a free pleural space to allow for a video assisted thoracoscopy surgery (VATS) procedure, then they must be willing to undergo a VATS for adequate histologic stagingXx_NEWLINE_xXArterial blood gas partial pressure carbon dioxide (pCO2) < 50 mmHgXx_NEWLINE_xXFGFR genetic alterations (specifically FGFR1-3 mutation, amplification, or translocation) via deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or ribonucleic acid (RNA) based assay; prescreening has to be completed prior to enrollment on this study; commercial or local testing is typically expected, but samples can also be sent to the University (Univ.) of Chicago for testing\r\n* The following genetic aberrations will be screened for:\r\n** FGFR1 amplification, FGFR1 somatic mutations, FGFR1 translocations\r\n** FGFR2 somatic mutations, FGFR2 translocations, FGFR2 amplification\r\n** FGFR3 somatic mutations, FGFR3 translocations, FGFR3 amplification\r\n*Other genetic FGF/FGFR pathway aberrations may be acceptable should such genetic changes be observed to emerge and require approval per the lead investigator for enrollment (e.g. fibroblast growth factor (FGF) amplification); should one genetic aberration be overrepresented in one or both of the arms the lead investigator (Dr. Seiwert) may decide to restrict enrollment of such patients; a notification/memo will be sent out to all investigators should such a restriction on enrollment be implemented (see inclusion criteria); for example, if more than 5 pts with FGFR1 amplification are enrolled further enrollment of FGFR1 amplified patiens will be put on hold, or if FGFR translocations are under-represented enrollment may be focused on this aberrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHPV status in oropharyngeal carcinomas; while HPV status (e.g. via p16) does not have to be known prior to consenting, the HPV status (e.g. using p16 immunohistochemistry [IHC]) needs to be established prior to start of therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of corneal or retinal disorder/keratopathy including, but not limited to, bullous/band keratopathy, corneal abrasion, inflammation/ulceration, keratoconjuctivitis, confirmed by ophthalmologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or current evidence of endocrine alterations of calcium/phosphate homeostasis, e.g., parathyroid disorders, history of parathyroidectomy, tumor lysis, tumoral calcinosis, etc unless the lead investigator obtains approval from NovartisXx_NEWLINE_xXEnzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXStudy medication cannot be administered through gastric (G)-tube, unless additional information from the manufacturer becomes available in the futureXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of clinically relevant CNS pathology such as epilepsy, seizure, paresis, aphasia, stroke, severe brain injuries, dementia, Parkinson's disease, cerebellar disease, or psychosis; history of other organic brain syndrome that in the opinion of the PI or designee is a contraindication to lymphodepleting chemotherapy, JCAR014 infusion or durvalumab infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening evaluation appropriate for leukapheresis and T-cell collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSuccessful collection of T cells for JCAR014 manufacturingXx_NEWLINE_xXInternal review of histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects that have received experimental vaccines or other immune therapies should be discussed with the principal investigator to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXMeets one of the following criteria: Is currently on a stable regimen of an oral contraceptive containing 1mg NE and 0.035mg EE, or Is willing to switch to a regimen of an oral contraceptive containing 1mg NE and 0.035mg EE from a stable regimen of an alternate OC, or Is willing to start a regimen of an oral contraceptive containing 1mg NE and 0.035mg EE.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known or suspected carcinoma that is excluded as administration of Oral Contraceptive would be contraindicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of RVO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of any of conditions that would contraindicate administration of an OCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who may receive the injections endoscopically should be eligible for sedation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to tissue collection for correlative studies (including participation in PA13-0291 and PA13-0247 for MD Anderson participants) at the specified timepointsXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated symptomatic spinal cord compressionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment or randomization in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXResectable primary lesion (patients with pre-existing metastasis will be included if their primary is still going to be resected)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior irradiation to the area to be treatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed MPNST, with or without underlying diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 (diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCluster of differentiation (CD)4 count >= 200/uL or >= 15% of peripheral blood lymphocytesXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of tuberculosis or history of purified protein derivative (PPD) positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring blood product supportXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent exposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiency; NOTE: patient must avoid contact during documented viral shedding; participants with continuous viral shedding will be given recommendations for restricted activities to avoid contact with immunocompromised personsXx_NEWLINE_xXMultidisciplinary evaluation of the patient must be performed with a consensus recommendation for reirradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may not receive concurrent chemotherapy with reirradiation, other than temozolomide or bevacizumab given at the discretion of the treating neuro-oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have imaging findings within the last 3 months consistent with recurrent disease in the brain; pathologic diagnosis of recurrence is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMonoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) or smoldering myelomaXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior severe skin reaction (toxic epidermal necrosis) with immunomodulating agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires left chest wall post-mastectomy radiation with or without bolusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to maintain a 30 second breath holdXx_NEWLINE_xXConventional chest wall radiation delivery dose of 50.4 Gy/ 28 fractions with or without a boost (boost will not be evaluated for endpoints)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histological confirmation of metastatic urothelial carcinoma; patients must have sufficient tumor tissues for future MTAP testing and research; histological variants such as glandular, squamous, sarcomatoid, micropapillary, plasmacytoid, and small cell changes will not be allowed for this trial unless these tumors are MTAP-deficientXx_NEWLINE_xXThe ability to take folic acid, vitamin B12, and dexamethasone according to protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXBe a medically appropriate candidate for radical cystectomy as determined by an attending urologist and be planning to receive cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas clinically relevant hearing impairment > grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO CELL PROCUREMENT: For pediatric subjects (weight must be ? 10 kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO CELL PROCUREMENT: CD30+ disease (result can be pending at the time of cell procurement, but must be confirmed prior to treatment with ATLCAR.CD30 cells); NOTE: CD30+ disease requires documented CD30 expression by immunohistochemistry based on the institutional hematopathology standardXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO CELL PROCUREMENT: Negative serum pregnancy test in females within 72 hours prior to procurement or documentation that the subject is post-menopausal or premenarchalXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO LYMPHODEPLETION: CD30+ disease (result can be pending at the time of cell procurement, but must be confirmed prior to lymphodepletion); NOTE: CD30+ disease requires documented CD30 expression by immunohistochemistry based on the institutional hematopathology standardXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO LYMPHODEPLETION: Patients on strong inhibitors of CYP1A2 (e.g., fluvoxamine, ciprofloxacin) as these may increase plasma concentrations of bendamustine, and decrease plasma concentrations of its metabolitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO INFUSION OF ATLCAR.CD30 CELLS: AST ? 3 times ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO INFUSION OF ATLCAR.CD30 CELLS: Serum creatinine ? 1.5 times ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO INFUSION OF ATLCAR.CD30 CELLS: Pulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO INFUSION OF ATLCAR.CD30 CELLS: Available autologous T cells with ? 15% expression of CD30CAR determined by flow-cytometry required prior to treatment with ATLCAR.CD30 cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measurable or evaluable disease; NOTE: All patients with greater than 10% abnormal CD4+ homogeneous CD3^low strongly CD25+ expressing cells, or greater than 5% Sezary/T-PLL cells, among the peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMCs) in the peripheral blood will be deemed to have evaluable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal T cells must be CD52+ as assessed by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma or presently on chronic inhaled corticosteroid medications (patients with a history of mild asthma not requiring corticosteroid therapy are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with smoldering and lymphomatous ATLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received alemtuzumab are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAndrogen receptor will be quantified using a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-compliant assay for AR on a biopsy specimen obtained prior to the start of treatment; AR-positivity is defined as >= 10% of nuclear stainingXx_NEWLINE_xXMen on study must use a condom if having sex with a pregnant womanXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed, recurrent, or refractory malignancy; all solid tumor diagnoses will be eligible\r\n* Pathologic confirmation of the diagnosis either at original diagnosis or recurrence\r\n* Known non-synonymous mutation in the following genes: EGFR, ERBB2, or JAK2V617F (JAK2); genomic sample preferably from relapse, but may be from other stage of treatment if relapse sample is not reasonably obtainable; genetic analysis for determination of eligibility occurs as part of routine care and is not being performed specifically for the purposes of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of active graft vs. host disease and at least 2 months must have elapsed since transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a medical or psychological impediment to probable compliance with the protocol should be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of niclosamide or allergies to niclosamideXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence by physical examination or mammography of other suspicious masses, densities, or microcalcifications in either breast, unless biopsied and found to be benignXx_NEWLINE_xXPaget’s disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with collagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo uncontrolled graft versus host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute graft versus host disease (GVHD) grade II or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXActive chronic GVHD that is extensiveXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of systemic immune suppressive other than calcineurin inhibitors and sirolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom a plan meeting institutional quality criteria cannot be designed for SBRT treatment via the MRI-guided teletherapy unit, but for whom an SBRT plan meeting institutional quality criteria can be designed for a conventional linear acceleratorXx_NEWLINE_xXUsing drugs known to lower or increase levels of DHEAXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires estrogen or testosteroneXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking warfarin sodium; patients on other blood thinners should be monitored for thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active hemoptysisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is a chronic alcoholic (intake > 35 units of alcohol (>5 bottles of wine weekly)) or drug abuserXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease-related exclusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas chronic, active colitisXx_NEWLINE_xXMedication related exclusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has previously participated in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be germline BRCA 1 or 2 negative; (Note: if BRCA status was previously determined, that result is acceptable but documentation of status must be available; subjects with unknown status will be referred to genetic counselling for BRCA testing as per standard of care) and/or patients with previously identified genetic aberrations that are associated with HRD will be eligible even in the absence of family history [e.g. somatic BRCA mutation, Fanconi Anemia gene, ATM or RAD51 mutations]Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor cohort 1, documented activating HER2 mutation in lung cancer by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) laboratory, specifically exon 20 insYVMA (Y772 A775dup), insGSP (G778 P780dup), insTGT (G776delinsVC), single base pair substitutions L 755A, L755S, V777L, V659E S310F, or another HER2 mutation approved by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reaction to human, or humanized, antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all screening assessments as outlined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown androgen receptor (AR) positive breast cancer (AR staining > 10% by immunohistochemistry is considered positive); if the AR status is unknown, the patient can go on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have been evaluated by a University of California Los Angeles (UCLA) thoracic surgeon, and deemed medically and technically suitable for a pleurectomy/decortication procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXFor the phase 1b study, patients may have had the diagnosis of BOS for any period of time; for the phase 2 study, patients must be within 2 years from the time of diagnosis; patients may be at any time interval after SCT as long as the criteria for chronic GVHD and BOS are metXx_NEWLINE_xXFEV1 < 30% (based on absolute percent predicted using United States of America [USA]-ITS-NIH equation) on pulmonary function testingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have received capecitabine or bevacizumab for this diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant therapy with any of the following: interleukin-2 (IL-2), interferon or other non-study immunotherapy regimens; cytotoxic chemotherapy; immunosuppressive agents; other investigational therapies; or chronic use of systemic corticosteroids (when used in the management of cancers other than intracranial glioblastoma, gliosarcoma or anaplastic astrocytoma, or when used to treat non-cancer-related illnesses)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of plasma cortisol and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) levels consistent with adrenal failureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not be on an inhibitor of breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP)\r\n* NOTE: AZD1775 is an inhibitor of breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP); the use of statins including atorvastatin which are substrates for BCRP are therefore prohibited and patients should be moved on to non-BCRP alternativesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently using hormone replacement therapy (oral or patch) or/and phytoestrogen supplements (i.e. black cohosh)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient relapsing more than 2 years after initial remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented platelet refractorinessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known potentially anaphylactic allergic reactions to gadolinium- diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid (DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection requiring treatment or an unexplained febrile (> 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F]) illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous history of radiosurgery, brachytherapy, Gliadel implantation, or radiolabeled monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic to temozolomide (TMZ)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed GBM, WHO grade IV. GBM variants and secondary GBM are allowed in any recurrence (including multiple) and have been treated with radiation and chemotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSkull defect such as missing bone or bullet fragments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted pacemaker, programmable shunts, defibrillator, deep brain stimulator, vagus nerve stimulator, and other implanted electronic devices in the brain or the spinal cord.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate hematologic parameters without ongoing transfusional support:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medication(s) that may cause QTc prolongation or induce Torsades de Pointes, with the exception of anti-microbials that are used as standard of care to prevent or treat infections and other such drugs that are considered by the Investigator to be essential for patient careXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II DOSE EXPANSION IN RECURRENT GBM UNDERGOING RESECTION: Have measurable disease consisting of a minimal volume of 1 cm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXCMV seropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Any number of prior relapsesXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been treated previously with bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II DOSE EXPANSION IN NEWLY DIAGNOSED GBM: Is currently participating or has participated in any other newly diagnosed therapeutic trial before or after chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV seronegativeXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II DOSE EXPANSION IN RECURRENT GBM UNDERGOING RESECTION: Has known gliomatous meningitis, subependymal spread, extracranial disease, or multifocal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II DOSE EXPANSION IN NEWLY DIAGNOSED GBM: Has known gliomatous meningitis, extracranial disease, or multifocal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication for undergoing MRIsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Has known gliomatous meningitis, subependymal spread, or extracranial diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXIf recent mold infection (e.g. aspergillus) must have minimum of 30 days of therapy and responsive disease and be cleared by infectious diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious irradiation that precludes the safe administration of an additional dose of 200 cGy of total body irradiation (TBI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate or high grade NHL, mantle cell NHL, and Hodgkin disease that is progressive on salvage therapy; stable disease is acceptable to move forward provided it is non-bulkyXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 5% malignant cells in the peripheral blood leukocytesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have active hemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be seen for screening appointments or enrolled on the protocol if they have been hospitalized within the 7 days prior to the screening appointment or the date of protocol enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup II: KS (no prior therapy required):\r\n*Concurrent KSHV-associated multicentric Castleman disease (MCD)\r\n*KSHV Inflammatory Cytokine Syndrome (KICS), including those also meeting clinical criteria for KS immune reconstitution syndrome (KS IRIS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHighly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for HIV+ patients:\r\n* All HIV+ patients must be willing to be compliant with HAART\r\n* Group I – on HAART for 1 month with stable disease; however, no minimum time restriction for patients with progressive and/or end-organ threatening disease\r\n* Group II – no minimum time restriction on prior HAART, patients may be HAART naiveXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative human anti-murine antibody (HAMA) test.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin ?9 g/dL;Xx_NEWLINE_xXunderstand that the study medication may have teratogenic riskXx_NEWLINE_xXCombined (estrogen and progestogen containing) hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulationXx_NEWLINE_xXintravaginalXx_NEWLINE_xXtransdermalXx_NEWLINE_xXProgestogen-only hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulationXx_NEWLINE_xXinjectableXx_NEWLINE_xXimplantableXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrauterine hormone-releasing system ( IUS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral tubal occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXVasectomised partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to another CD37 targeting drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseases:Xx_NEWLINE_xXpulmonary conditions e.g. unstable or uncompensated respiratory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXpsychiatric conditions e.g. patients unlikely to comply with the protocol, e.g. mental condition rendering the patient unable to understand the nature, scope, and possible consequences of participating in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXhistory of acute coronary syndromes (including unstable angina)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical evidence of disease beyond the uterus, including presence of suspicious aortic or inguinal nodes on imaging or clinical examXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received previous vaginal, pelvic, or abdominal irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have circumstances that will not permit completion of this study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical suspicion of active carcinoma in situ (CIS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of > 7 tumors present in the bladderXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of upper tract urothelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of endocrine alterations of calcium/phosphate homeostasis, e.g., parathyroid disorders, history of parathyroidectomy, tumor lysis, tumoral calcinosis, etcXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of corneal or retinal disorder/keratopathy including, but not limited to, bullous/band keratopathy, corneal abrasion, inflammation/ulceration, and/or keratoconjunctivitis, confirmed by ophthalmologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal preparations/medications (including, but not limited to: St. John’s Wort, Kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko bilboa, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginseng within 7 days prior to first doseXx_NEWLINE_xXCalculated (using the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration [CKD-EPI] equation) or measured creatinine clearance < 75% lower limit of normal (LLN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be within 12 weeks of last major neurosurgical procedure for the high-grade glioma (craniotomy, open biopsy, or stereotactic biopsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCo-medication that may interfere with study results; e.g. immuno-suppressive agents other than corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXMetal in the body (except dental fillings) e.g., pacemaker, infusion pump, metal aneurysm clip, metal prosthesis, joint, rod or plate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMonoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia, or asymptomatic (smoldering) myelomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute renal failure due solely to readily reversible causes such as hypercalcemia, hyperuricemia, dehydration, hyperviscosity, or acute tubular necrosis from nephrotoxic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cerebrovascular event with persistent neurologic deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin < 8 g/dL; qualifying laboratory value must occur at most recent measurement before enrollment and must be no more than 14 days before enrollment; no transfusions are allowed within 72 hours before qualifying laboratory valueXx_NEWLINE_xXKyphoplasty or vertebroplasty within 1 week prior to event 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAIDs), IV contrast, aminoglycosides, or other potentially nephrotoxic drugs within 2 weeks of event 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must express HLA-A2 phenotype as assessed serologically.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlbuminemia > 25g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets ? 100000/LXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing immunotherapy (checkpoint inhibition, antigen immunotherapy that would be scheduled to continue concomitantly to the study).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKarnofsky score of 60% or better (“requires occasional assistance, but is able to care for most of his/her needs”)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReported illicit drug useXx_NEWLINE_xXVulnerable population groups, i.e., prisoners, those lacking consent capacity, non-English speaking, illiterate, pregnant femalesXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Vulnerable population groups, i.e., prisoners, those lacking consent capacity, non-English speaking, illiterate, pregnant femalesXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal granulocytes of 1,000 per mcL or moreXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a positive screening Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) antibody titer on screening test as this is required to protect against EBV infection during the time of lymphodepletionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with antibiotic allergies per se are not excluded; although the production of TIL for adoptive transfer includes antibiotics, extensive washing after harvest will minimize systemic exposure to antibioticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who decline possible transfusion of blood products will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHas active cytokine release syndrome from CTL019 infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXFor cohorts 1, 2 and 3 only: Patient's tumor must be positive by histological or molecular assay for NY-ESO-1, according to the screening algorithm; historical results may be used\r\n* For cohort 4, NY-ESO-1 results will be noted but NY-ESO-1 positivity is not required for eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have adequate venous access for apheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to accept the leukapheresis procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability of a patient for immunological and clinical follow-up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with complete response (CR)/very good partial response (VGPR) diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cytopenias below these thresholds deemed to be the result of disease will be considered eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to consent for protocol #12-245 for IMPACT testingXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology or ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised status due to:\r\n* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positivity\r\n* Active autoimmune diseases such as Addison's disease, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjogren syndrome, scleroderma, myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture syndrome or active Graves disease; patients with a history of autoimmunity that has not required systemic immunosuppressive therapy or does not threaten vital organ function including central nervous system (CNS), heart, lungs, kidneys, skin, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be allowed\r\n* Other immunodeficiency diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medications used for urinary symptoms including 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride and dutasteride) and alternative medications known to alter PSA (e.g. phytoestrogens and saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of atopic dermatitis or active skin condition (acute, chronic, exfoliative) that disrupts the epidermisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious serious adverse reactions to smallpox vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczemoid skin disorders, or (d) immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIVXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have been treated with CHK1/2 inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXConsumption or use of any Noni or Noni-containing productsXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one measurable GBM lesion that meets the following criteria:\r\n* Contrast enhancing and clearly defined, bi-dimensionally measurable margins, and\r\n* At least two perpendicular diameters measuring >= 10 mm and no diameters measuring >= 35 mm\r\n* (Note: MRI measurements will not include surgical cavity, cyst, or necrotic area)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTriiodothyronine measurement (T3), thyroxine (T4) or thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) =< 3.0 x IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is a prisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has history of severe infusion reactions related to prior biologics or antibody-based treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pulmonary hemorrhage/hemoptysis >= grade 2 (defined as >= 2.5 mL bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to on-study dateXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to be treated with SBRT only at Johns Hopkins HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a pulse oximetry < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires the use of home oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery within 28 days of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc.), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a known or suspected hypersensitivity to GM-CSF, hetastarch, corn, dimethyl sulfoxide, fetal bovine serum, trypsin (porcine origin), yeast or any other component of GVAX pancreas vaccine or CRS-207 (e.g., glycerol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate clinical laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXplatelets ? 100x10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled dysrhythmias or poorly controlled angina.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe maximum diameter of any lesion must be less than 4.0 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients had craniotomy and surgery to the brain within 7 days from the date of SRSXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent medulloblastoma or recurrent high grade gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously had a severe side effect, such as agranulocytosis and neutropenia, in conjunction with previous mebendazole or benzimidazole class drug for a parasitic infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSuccessful test expansion -cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindications for leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: A comorbid condition which, in the view of the investigators, renders the subject at high risk from treatment complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENTSXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in the phase Ib expansion who have never previously been treated with a PD1 or PDL1 inhibitor, anti-CTLA 4 antibody or any other antibody or drug that specifically targets immune checkpoint pathway in the past (i.e. not \pre-treated”)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically confirmed diagnosis of previously untreated DLBCL of the non-GCB DLBCL subtypeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with performance status of =< 3 (3 only allowed if decline in status is deemed related to\r\nlymphoma and felt potentially reversible by the treating physician)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe bradycardia (heart rate < 40 beats per minute [bpm], hypotension, light-headedness, syncope)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen and men of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors (including valproic acid, entinostat, vorinostat) are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable angina (angina symptoms at rest), new-onset angina (begun within the last 3 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent diagnosis of pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unmutated (=< 2% homology with germ line) IGHVXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma/Waldenström macroglobulinemia (LPL/WM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-WM must have at least one bi-dimensionally measurable lesion (that has not been previously irradiated) according to the Lugano Classification.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHbA1c > 8.5% at ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCytomegalovirus (CMV) infection. Patients who are CMV PCR positive at baseline will not be eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed PDGFRA amplification in the tumor tissue at the time of diagnosis or time of recurrence. Central confirmation of PDGFRA amplification will be performed by FISH in CLIA certified lab (ProPath). Signal quantitation will be used to generate a PDGFRA/centromere 4 ratio. PDGFRA to Centromere 4 ratios will be interpreted as follows: 1.8 to 2.2, borderline for amplification; 2.2 to 5.0, low-level amplification; and greater than 5.0 or clustered signals that are too numerous to count would be considered highly amplified. Tumor samples with PDGFRA to Centromere 4 ratios of 2.2 or higher will be considered amplified and therefore eligible for this trial. For patients with local CLIA testing demonstrating PDGFRA amplification by Next Generation Sequencing (Foundation Medicine, CMS400), central testing will not be required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKPS ? 60Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with bevacizumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on EIADs are not eligible, unless the antiepileptic drug can be safely tapered and discontinued before C1D1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have single or multinodular tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may receive concurrent capecitabine or sorafenib at the discretion of the treating physiciansXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take folic acid, vitamin B12, and dexamethasone according to the protocol instructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or presumed intolerance of pemetrexed or sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic melanoma with at least one lesion that is resectable for TIL generationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be at high risk for recurrence, which will be defined during the pre-treatment screening period as meeting one of the following criteria:\r\n* A histologically positive nodal deposit >= 0.2 mm\r\n* Histologic grade 3\r\n* Peritumoral lymphatic vessel or vascular invasion\r\n* Oncotype Dx score of 25 or greaterXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to swallow oral medications and maintain an empty stomach state for two hours prior to the TAK-228 dose and for one hour following administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have experienced allergic reactions to monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUridine diphosphate (UDP) glycosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1 (UGT1A1) *28 homozygous patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatinine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior to exposure to ruxolitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Subject must have had a diagnosis of primary or secondary warm antibody AIHA.\n\n        - Must have failed at least 1 prior treatment regimen for AIHA.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Subject with cold antibody AIHA, cold agglutinin syndrome, mixed type AIHA, or\n             paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.\n\n          -  Subject with a platelet count of < 30,000/?L.\n\n          -  Subject has AIHA secondary to autoimmune disease, including systemic lupus\n             erythematosis (SLE), or lymphoid malignancy and the underlying disease is not stable\n             or is not well-controlled on current therapy.\n\n          -  Subject has uncontrolled or poorly controlled hypertension, defined as systolic blood\n             pressure ? 130 mmHg, or diastolic blood pressure ? 80 mmHg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of colorectal carcinoma with intrahepatic metastases; limited extrahepatic metastasis is allowed as long as the overall metastatic burden is hepatic dominantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have unresectable MPM or the patient refuses surgery for resectable MPMXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to intravenous iodinated contrast media is not contraindication to the study; patients with history of mild allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media will be premedicated with 40 mg of prednisone orally (p.o.) 12 and 2 hours (hrs) before the transarterial chemoperfusion treatment to prevent allergic reaction; patients with history of moderate and severe allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media or patients with history of mild allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media despite adequate premedication will undergo angiogram using carbon dioxide or a gadolinium based contrast agentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple myeloma specific:\r\n* Active or prior plasma cell leukemia (defined as either 20% of peripheral white blood cell [WBC] comprised of plasma/cluster of differentiation [CD]138+ cells or an absolute count of 2 x 10^9/L)\r\n* Solitary bone or solitary extramedullary plasmacytoma as the only evidence of plasma cell dyscrasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGastrointestinal condition which could impair absorption of BVD-523 or inability to ingest BVD-523Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of any psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXMinimum frozen PBSCs of 2 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation (CD)34 cells/kg for each transplant are mandatory and a PBSC of 2 x 10^6 CD34 cells/kg for back-up are strongly recommended (thus, PBSC of no less than 6 x 10^6 CD34 cells/kg is encouraged); these must all be collected prior to the initiation of consolidationXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to stop herbal medications as directed by physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to stop current supplemental vitamin D (multivitamin with vitamin D component is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to a Legacy Health/Oregon Health & Science University (OHSU) facility if necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXMulti-focal disease (unless pre-approved by principal investigator [PI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking high-dose vitamin D supplementation (50,000 IU weekly) prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypercalcemia and/or any condition resulting in malabsorptionXx_NEWLINE_xXOf any ethnic or racial groupXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of unresectable metastatic colorectal adenocarcinoma with liver-dominant bilobar disease; diagnosis may be made by histo- or cyto-pathology, or by clinical and imaging criteria as is standard of care at University of California, San Francisco (UCSF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression or intolerance to at least two prior Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved therapeutic regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXIf extrahepatic disease is present, it must be asymptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to angiography and selective visceral catheterization\r\n* Any bleeding diathesis or coagulopathy that is not correctable by usual therapy or hemostatic agents (e.g. closure device)\r\n* Severe allergy or intolerance to contrast agents, narcotics, or sedatives that cannot be managed medicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of potential delivery of\r\n* Greater than 30 Gy absorbed dose of radiation to the lungs during a single 90Y resin microsphere administration? or\r\n* Cumulative delivery of radiation to the lungs > 50 Gy over multiple treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any detectable technetium Tc-99m albumin aggregated (Tc99m MAA) flow to the stomach or duodenum, after application of established angiographic techniques to stop such flowXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior arterial liver-directed therapy, including transarterial chemoembolization (TACE), arterial embolization (TAE), and 90Y radioembolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny intervention for, or compromise of the ampulla of VaterXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant disease other than that being treated in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXknown and possible risk for QT prolongationXx_NEWLINE_xXknown to be substrates of CYP3A4/5 and P-gp with a narrow therapeutic indexXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with abnormal laboratory values, defined as any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDetectable circulating tumor cells (CTCs) with detectable AR?V7 splice?variant by reverse transcriptase (RT)?polymerase chain reaction (PCR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSECOND COHORT: The most recent therapy must be enzalutamide and enzalutamide will be continued for study duration despite progressive disease; the minimum required dose of enzalutamide at enrolment should be no less than 80 mg once dailyXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies and adverse drug reactionXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy confirming metastatic breast cancer and retinoblastoma protein (Rb) positivity by immunohistochemistry prior to enrolling on this protocol is required; biopsy must be obtained immediately before study enrollment; no intervening treatments are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has not received available therapies that confer clinical benefitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have clear and documented evidence of biallelic inactivation BRCA1, BRCA2 or ATM by sequencing, for example University of Washington (UW)-Oncoplex, SU2C, or Foundation One testing and/or patients with clearly deleterious mutations of other genes involved in homologous DNA repair (e.g., partner and localizer of BRCA2 [PALB2], BRCA1-interacting protein 1 [BRIP1], etc.) by sequencing via UW-Oncoplex, SU2C, or Foundation One testing may be included at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe preoperative Memorial Sloan-Kettering (MSK) nomogram estimates the patient’s likelihood of freedom from metastatic recurrence within the first 12 years following radical or partial nephrectomy to be =< 80%Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo nephrectomy as part of treatment plan, per assessment through an MSK urologic surgeon listed as investigator on this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of PR prolongation or atrioventricular (AV) blockXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgically resectable malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) with no disease extension beyond the ipsilateral hemithoraxXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of drugs with laxative properties and herbal or natural remedies for constipation within 90 days of receiving MEDI4736 or MEDI + tremelimumabXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXN3 nodal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant auto-immune disease requiring hospitalization within the past two years or any history of life-threatening auto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pacemaker, stainless steel aneurysm clip or any other magnetic resonance (MR) contraindicated implant or foreign body would warrant exclusion from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of arterial thromboembolic events in the past 3 months and of venous thromboembolic events in the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of CD22 expression on malignant cells at relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindications for leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXCAPMATINIB INCLUSION CRITERIA: Presence of an oncogenic kinase fusion involving MET, confirmed by assay by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXCERITINIB INCLUSION CRITERIA: Presence of an oncogenic kinase fusion involving ALK, confirmed by assay by a CLIA-approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXREGORAFENIB INCLUSION CRITERIA: Presence of an oncogenic kinase fusion involving BRAF or RET, confirmed by assay by a CLIA-approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXENTRECTINIB INCLUSION CRITERIA: Presence of an oncogenic kinase fusion involving ROS1 or NTRK1/2/3, confirmed by assay by a CLIA-approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXCAPMATINIB EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Previously identified allergy or hypersensitivity to components of capmatinib formulation (crospovidone, mannitol, microcrystalline cellulose, povidone, sodium lauryl sulfate, magnesium stearate, colloidal silicon dioxide, and various coating premixes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCAPMATINIB EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Patients on unstable or increasing doses of corticosteroids; if patients are on corticosteroids for endocrine deficiencies or tumor-associated symptoms other than CNS related, dose must have been stabilized or decreasing for at least 5 days before first dose of capmatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXENTRECTINIB EXCLUSION CRITERIA: History of other previous cancer that would interfere with the determination of safety or efficacy of entrectinib in melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be considered intermediate or high risk:\r\n* Oropharynx intermediate risk patients include those who have all of the following:\r\n** Human papillomavirus (HPV)/p16 (positive [+]) disease, a significant tobacco smoking history (> 10 pack years) and N2b-N3 disease OR\r\n** HPV (negative [-]) disease, =< 10 years of smoking and large tumors (T2-T3)\r\n* Oropharynx high risk patients include those who are either:\r\n** HPV (-) with > 10 years of smoking, OR\r\n** HPV (-), =< 10 years of smoking and T4 disease\r\n* Oral cavity, larynx, hypopharynx are considered high/intermediate risk (regardless of HPV, p16 or smoking status)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-treatment swallowing evaluation by speech and swallowing therapist, to included a modified barium swallow showing no significant impairment with swallowing oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXRecommendation to undergo concurrent CRT, as determined by the treating physician, with a curative goalXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable or unwilling to discontinue use of any sensitive CYP3A4 substrates and CYP3A4 substrates with a narrow therapeutic windowXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of MCC by internal pathology review of initial or subsequent biopsy or other pathologic materialXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 3 weeks must have passed since any of the following: systemic corticosteroids, immunotherapy (for example, T-cell infusions, immunomodulatory agents, interleukins, MCC vaccines, intravenous immunoglobulin, expanded polyclonal tumor infiltrating lymphocytes [TIL] or lymphokine-activated killer [LAK] therapy), pentoxifylline, other small molecule or chemotherapy cancer treatment, other investigational agents or other systemic agents that target Merkel cell carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to initiate treatment with doxorubicin (starting dose of 75 mg/m^2) and olaratumab (starting dose of 15 mg/kg) as routine careXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the following are not eligible:\r\n* Carbamazepine (e.g., Tegretol)\r\n* Rifabutin (e.g., Mycobutin) or\r\n* Rifampin (e.g., Rifadin)\r\n* Rifapentine (e.g., Priftin)\r\n* St. John's wort\r\n* Clarithromycin (e.g., Biaxin)\r\n* Cyclosporine (e.g. Neoral or Sandimmune)\r\n* Diltiazem (e.g., Cardizem)\r\n* Erythromycin (e.g., Akne-Mycin, Ery-Tab)\r\n* Itraconazole (e.g., Sporanox)\r\n* Ketoconazole (e.g., Nizoral)\r\n* Telithromycin (e.g., Ketek)\r\n* Verapamil (e.g., Calan sustained release [SR], Isoptin, Verelan)\r\n* Voriconazole (e.g., VFEND)\r\n• Tacrolimus (e.g. Prograf)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking fluconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole, and ketoconazole within 72 hours of study drug starting are not eligible; reinstitution of fluconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole, ketoconazole and diltiazem is permissible 72 hours after the last dose of sirolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with bacteremia must have documented negative blood cultures prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior history of multifocal adenocarcinoma in situ (ie, classic or pure bronchioloalveolar carcinoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who received any therapies intended to treat malignancy within 21 days of first receipt of DS-3032bXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a malignancy that contains a non-synonymous mutation, insertion, or deletion in the TP53 gene determined previously or at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient and partner are willing to use condoms for 12 months after receiving Toca 511 or until there is no evidence of the virus in his/her blood, whichever is longer.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has previously participated in the Toca 5 trial (Tg 511-15-01).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had other surgery within 28 days of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc.), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent signs or symptoms of severe progressive or uncontrolled hepatic, hematologic, gastrointestinal, endocrine, pulmonary or cardiac disease other than directly related to RCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a pulse oximetry of < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have previously undergone standard chemoradiation- 59.4 Gy (1.8 Gy/fraction) or 60 Gy (2.0 Gy/fraction) with concurrent and adjuvant Temodar (temozolomide)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be diagnosed with recurrent GBM either with biopsy or radiographicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Concurrent and/or adjuvant chemotherapy does not make a patient ineligible; participation in a concurrent treatment protocol does not make a patient ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIPSS score =< 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to have gold fiducial markers placed in the prostate or, if patient already has fiducial markers placed, they must be in accordance with the protocol specificationsXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to fill out IPSS, SHIM, and EPIC quality of life formsXx_NEWLINE_xXIPSS (American Urological Association [AUA]) score =< 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has very low risk, low risk, intermediate risk or very high risk disease as defined by the NCCNXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior total prostatectomy or cryotherapy of the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to have gold fiducial markers placed in the prostate, or fiducial markers already placed, that are not in accordance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXNot willing to fill out IPSS, SHIM, and EPIC quality of life questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXIPSS score > 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Patients must have a Gynecologic Oncology Groups (GOG) performance status of 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patients must have a GOG performance status of 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: ALP < 2.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: A history of autoimmune disorders\r\n* Patients with autoimmune disease other than vitiligo (e.g., psoriasis, extensive atopic dermatitis, asthma, irritable bowel disorder [IBD], muscular sclerosis [M.S.], uveitis, vasculitis), chronic inflammatory condition, or any condition requiring concurrent use of any systemic immunosuppressants or steroids for any reason are excluded from the study; any patient with an allo-transplant of any kind would be excluded as well, including xenograft heart valve; mild, intermittent asthma requiring only occasional beta-agonist inhaler use or mild localized eczema will not be excluded\r\n* Chronic use of immune-suppressive drugs (i.e., systemic corticosteroids used in the management of cancer or non-cancer related illnesses, e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD])\r\n* Known human immunodeficiency virus [HIV]-positive patients and those with other acquired/inherited immunodeficiencies are ineligible due the possibility of affecting the response to tremelimumab, and the higher risk of active opportunistic infectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: A history of autoimmune disorders\r\n* Patients with autoimmune disease other than vitiligo (e.g., psoriasis, extensive atopic dermatitis, asthma, IBD, M.S., uveitis, vasculitis), chronic inflammatory condition, or any condition requiring concurrent use of any systemic immunosuppressants or steroids for any reason are excluded from the study; any patient with an allo-transplant of any kind would be excluded as well, including xenograft heart valve; mild, intermittent asthma requiring only occasional beta-agonist inhaler use or mild localized eczema will not be excluded\r\n* Chronic use of immune-suppressive drugs (i.e., systemic corticosteroids used in the management of cancer or non-cancer related illnesses, e.g., COPD)\r\n* Known HIV-positive patients and those with other acquired/inherited immunodeficiencies are ineligible due the possibility of affecting the response to tremelimumab, and the higher risk of active opportunistic infectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take medication orallyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of bradydysrhythmia or conduction abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of cardia arrest or unexplained syncopeXx_NEWLINE_xXHypokalemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived any treatments prohibited in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXUser of herbal productsXx_NEWLINE_xXHCT-CI/age score =< 5 points (patients with greater than 5 points will be allowed for trial with approval of the PI and the co-PI or his designee; this is an adjustment to account for healthy patients who meet the spirit of this protocol but have histories that result in higher than HCT-CI 5 pointsXx_NEWLINE_xXHCT-CI/age score > 5 points (patients with greater than 5 points will be allowed for trial with approval of the principal investigator and the co-principal investigator or his designee; this is an adjustment to account for healthy patients who meet the spirit of this protocol but have histories that result in higher than HCT-CI 5 pointsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received alemtuzumab or antithymocyte globulin within 8 weeks of the transplant admission; the absence of these therapies in the medical record will serve as documentation that they were not givenXx_NEWLINE_xXOcular primary tumors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors lying in mucosal regions or close to an airway, major blood vessel or spinal cord.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects previously treated with CVA21.Xx_NEWLINE_xX2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have at least 1 measurable target lesion >= 10mm in longest dimension that is in an anatomic location treatable by MR-HIFU. Note that for this study, lesions in bone WILL be considered measurable provided they meet the other criteria by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) and are confirmed to be metabolically active on baseline studies by either metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) uptake (for neuroblastomas) or positron emission tomography (PET) avidity. Target lesions should be located so that they can be adequately heated by a hyperthermia treatment cell with a diameter of up to 58 mm, centered at a depth of 35 to 80 mm from the skin. There should be no staples, implants, extensive scarring, or other highly ultrasound absorbing or reflecting tissue in the expected beam path. For the first 5 patients enrolled on this study only, the lesion must be located in the extremities or pelvis to be considered treatable by MR-HIFU.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCumulative lifetime anthracycline dose of =< 450mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXA male of child-bearing potential is any male (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a vasectomy, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:\r\n* Has attained Tanner stage III or greater sexual developmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a contraindication to MR-HIFU.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25[OH]D) drawn at time of enrollment; (NOTE: subjects currently taking vitamin D supplements are eligible for screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrollable allergic reactions to vitamin DXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Paget’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to follow protocol required evaluationsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther disease, metabolic disorder, physical examination anomaly, abnormal laboratory result, or any other condition that investigators suspect may prohibit use of the investigational product, affect interpretation of study results, or put the patient at high risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have inadequate venous access for or contraindications to leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is eligible for TSEBTXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy confirmed CD8+ CTCL histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor women on estrogen based contraceptives, family history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) and/or risk factors predisposing for VTE and other medical conditions known to be associated with VTE.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition contraindicating fulvestrant administration:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior breast surgery which interrupts communication of the ductal systems with the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-Ductal Pathology: Lobular or Colloid type presenceXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects scheduled to undergo nipple sparing mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor nutritional state (as determined by clinician)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to Lidocaine or NovocainXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to imaging dyesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with definite liver metastasis > 1 cm or signs of visceral crisis or impending visceral crisis at the clinical discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking any herbal (alternative) medicines are NOT eligible for participation; patients must be off any such medications by the time of registration for at least 2 weeks; NOTE: Vitamin supplements are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior severe infusion reaction to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 (fully active, able to carry on all pre-disease performance without restriction), 1 (restricted in physically strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature, such as light housework or office work) or 2 (ambulatory and capable of all self-care but unable to carry out any work activities; up and about more than 50% of waking hours)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndetectable haptoglobin or evidence of glucose-6-phophate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency, pyruvate kinase deficiency, hemoglobinopathy, hereditary spherocytosis, thalassemia or other disorder associated with hemolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo robotic radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPharmacologic therapy with agents reported to produce adverse drug-drug interactions. (Table 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that are accessible for injection and electroporation, defined as cutaneous or subcutaneous disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 anatomically distinct lesions accessible for biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with electronic pacemakers or defibrillators.Xx_NEWLINE_xXsymptomatic ischemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXClassified as having insufficient tumor shrinkage by imaging (< 80% shrinkage after 4 cycles of anthracycline-based chemotherapy based upon diagnostic imaging)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric disorders or other conditions rendering the subject incapable of complying with the requirements of the protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXFLT3-ITD and/or FLT3-D835 mutated patients with relapsed/refractory AML (any number of relapses) including patients who may have been previously exposed to one or more FLT3-inhibitor therapies will be eligible for the phase I portion of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled infection at the time of enrollment; infections controlled on concurrent anti-microbial agents are acceptable, and anti-microbial prophylaxis per institutional guidelines is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXFor hypomethylating failure cohorts only, more than 4 months since last cycle of HMAXx_NEWLINE_xXLocalized EAC and its baseline clinical stage determined as: T2-T3N0 or T1-3N positive (+); imaging studies suspicious for metastases must be followed with a negative biopsy before a patient can enter the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with malignant celiac nodes are eligible if the primary lesion is in the mid-thoracic or distal thoracic esophagus or it is involving the gastroesophageal junctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II only: patients volunteering for the Phase II part of the protocol must be willing to undergo a research endoscopy for tissue collection on day 8 (+/- 2 days) from the beginning of therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be considered medically fit for operation as determined by multidisciplinary evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline clinical stage of T1N0 or inoperable T4 (unequivocal organ involvement) are to be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXTracheo-esophageal (TE) fistula or direct invasion into the tracheo-bronchial mucosa; a bronchoscopy (biopsy and cytology should be performed) is required to exclude TE fistula or tracheo-bronchial involvement in patients with a tumor located at < 26 cm from the incisorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior mediastinal irradiation (for any reason)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia or hypokalemia defined as less than the lower limit of normal for the institution, despite adequate electrolyte supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed history of CD19 positivity by flow cytometry for malignant cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst or second recurrence of MG (WHO grade III or IV glioma or astrocytoma) in surgically accessible areas with prior histologic diagnosis of MGXx_NEWLINE_xXBevacizumab-naive – no prior exposure to bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have resting baseline oxygen (O2) saturation by pulse oximetry of >= 92% at restXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection requiring treatment or an unexplained febrile (> 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F]) illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory/physical examination by the treating physician within 24 hours prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurological and functional examination within 24 hours prior to registration by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNumerical rating pain scale within 1 week prior to registration; documentation of the patient’s initial pain score is required; patients taking medication for pain at the time of registration are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCord compression at 2 non-contiguous sites in the spineXx_NEWLINE_xXSpine instability as determined by Spinal Instability Neoplastic Score (SINS) score > 12Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 50% loss of vertebral body heightXx_NEWLINE_xXBony retropulsion causing neurologic abnormalityXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular confirmation of an anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) rearrangement using ALK fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), immunohistochemistry (IHC) or next-generation sequencing (NGS); for ALK FISH, rearrangements must be detected in > 15% of tumor cells; if an ALK rearrangement has been detected by IHC or NGS, archival tissue must be available to confirm ALK positivity by FISHXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious history of haemoptysis (expectoration of more than 2.5 mL of blood), within three months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor infiltrating into large vessels or infiltrating into the proximal tracheobronchial network, visible on medical imaging; the investigator or radiologist must rule out tumors that conjoin, surround or extend into the immediate area of a large vessel (e.g.: pulmonary artery, superior vena cava)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (within 10 days of first dose of bevacizumab) use of aspirin (> 325 mg/day) or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories known to inhibit platelet function; prophylactic use of anticoagulants is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXArterial or venous thromboembolic events within 6 months of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity to any of the additives in the alectinib drug formulation (lactose monohydrate, microcrystalline cellulose, sodium starch glycolate, hydroxypropyl cellulose, sodium lauryl sulfate [SLS], magnesium stearate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have cholangiocarcinoma, gallbladder cancer or adenocarcinoma on liver biopsy with clinical features consistent with biliary primary/cholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is receiving chronic antiplatelet therapy, including aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ([NSAIDs], including ibuprofen, naproxen, and others), dipyridamole or clopidogrel, or similar agents; once-daily aspirin use (maximum dose 325 mg/day) is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological grade I, II, or III according to the modified Bloom Richardson scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPre- or perimenopausal status or menopausal status that cannot be accurately assessed (e.g. equivocal measurements of estradiol and FSH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTarget lesion that has been previously irradiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk pathologic features must be present: compromised/positive surgical margins (=< 2 mm) or extra-nodal extension (patient with other high-risk features gross perinueral invasion, bone invasion, angiolyphatic invasion, or a constellation of these factors may be eligible based on case-by-case basis at discretion of principal investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastases on any staging or imaging modalityXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with gross residual disease following salvage surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ia part: advanced solid tumors or metastases including lymphoma localized in the head and neck region or thorax with an indication for fractionated palliative RT (Arm A); or treatment-naïve SCCHN eligible for fractionated curatively intended RT with concurrent cisplatin (Arm B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLife expectancy of ? 3 months (Phase Ia, Arm A) or ? 6 months (Phase Ia, Arm B and Phase Ib)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoor vital organ functions defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the planned radiation field includes any part of the esophagus and the subject has symptoms of ongoing esophagitis, the subject is not eligible, unless an esophageal endoscopy rules out the presence of esophagitisXx_NEWLINE_xXThe target lesion must measure at least 15 mm in at least one dimension, and no more than 4 cm in any dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe additional lesions will each be treated with stereotactic radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXMoribund status or status epilepticusXx_NEWLINE_xXSupratentorial mass effect with greater than 5 mm of midline shift or hydrocephalusXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of allergic (anaphylactic) sensitivity to bortezomib, boron or mannitolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of lung adenocarcinoma that demonstrates ALK rearrangement as detected by the approved fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) test (Abbott Molecular Inc), using Vysis breakapart probes (defined as 15% or more positive tumor cells); or the Ventana immunohistochemistry (IHC) test; evidence of rearrangement by gene sequencing tests such as FoundationOne or Caris will also be seen as evidence of ALK abnormality and meeting eligibility requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-administration of aprepitant and fosaprepitant during this study is prohibitedXx_NEWLINE_xXAZD1775 is an inhibitor of breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP); the use of statins including Atorvastatin which are substrates for BCRP are therefore prohibited and patients should be moved on to non-BCRP alternativesXx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations are not allowed throughout the study; these herbal medications include, but are not limited to: St. John’s wort, kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginsengXx_NEWLINE_xXVascular invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have either of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAge 6 months - 29.99 years at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXECHO shortening fraction ? 27%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse Oximetry measurement ? 95% saturation without supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-certification for the 90Y TARE should be performed prior to enrollment on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD), e.g., angina Canadian class II-IV; in any patient in whom there is doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXAn EKG recorded at screening showing evidence of cardiac ischemia (ST depression of >= 2 mm, measured from isoelectric line to the ST segment); if in any doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking drugs leading to significant QT prolongation where the interaction is too great to proceed with romidepsinXx_NEWLINE_xXHave biopsiable disease; if biopsy is attempted and unsuccessful (the patient undergoes an invasive procedure), the patient may still be treatedXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identify as African American/Black, Hispanic (any race), or White non-HispanicXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke at least 5 cigarettes/day or carbon monoxide (CO) reading of at least 8 ppmXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently being treated for smoking cessation, alcoholism, or illicit drug useXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to attend sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXIndications that participant is not appropriate for the study (e.g., aggressive, intoxicated, disruptive, visibly ill)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not self-identify as African American, Hispanic, or White (non-Hispanic)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation by the central laboratory that the tumour harbours one of the 2 common EGFR mutations known to be associated with EGFR-TKI sensitivity (Ex19del, L858R), either alone or in combination with other EGFR mutations including T790M.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had only segmentectomies or wedge resectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny clinically important abnormalities in rhythm, conduction, or morphology of resting ECG.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPast medical history of ILD, drug-induced ILD, radiation pneumonitis which required steroid treatment, or any evidence of clinically active ILD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 1: Pre-treated patients with cMET GCN ? 6 orXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2: Pre-treated patients with cMET GCN ?4 and < 6, orXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 3: Pre-treated patients with cMET GCN < 4, orXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 4: Pre-treated patients with cMET mutations regardless of cMET GCN, orXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 6: Pre-treated patients with either cMET GCN ? 10 without cMET mutations or cMET mutations regardless of cMET GCNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with characterized EGFR mutations that predict sensitivity to EGFR therapy, including, but not limited to exon 19 deletions and exon 21 mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with characterized ALK-positive rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXLeukocytes >= 2500/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced/metastatic, symptomatic, visceral spread, at risk of life-threatening complications in the short term by investigator assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXYoung patient age between 12 – 15 could be included in only 6 centers (Bordeaux, Lyon, Villejuif, Lille, Marseille and Paris)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn accordance with French Regulatory Authorities: Patients with French Social Security in compliance with the French law relating to biomedical research (Huriet Law 88-1138 and related decrees)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented mutation in gBRCA1 or gBRCA2 that is predicted to be deleterious or suspected deleteriousXx_NEWLINE_xXgBRCA1 and/or gBRCA2 mutations that are considered to be non detrimental (eg, \Variants of uncertain clinical significance\ or \Variant of unknown significance\ or \Variant, favour polymorphism\ or \benign polymorphism\ etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy of acute GVHD target organ is strongly recommended but not required; enrollment should not be delayed for biopsy or pathology results; patients who do not enroll within 3 days of initiation of systemic steroid treatment for acute GVHD are not permitted to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current diagnosis of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring ventilator supportXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to natalizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXAge ? 10 year for Liposarcoma, Osteosarcoma, and Ewing sarcoma; Age ? 5 years for Rhabdomyosarcoma cohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight ? 15 kg (33 lb)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed advanced/metastatic liposarcoma, osteogenic sarcoma, Ewing/Ewing-like sarcoma of soft tissue or bone, fusion-positive alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma or embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma/fusion-negative alveolar rhabdomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progression of disease as defined by RECIST 1.1 (i.e. new disease sites or 20% growth of index lesions) within 6 months of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with documentation of well differentiated liposarcoma only (of the well differentiated/dedifferentiated liposarcoma family) are specifically excluded, owing to its characteristically slow growth. If high grade areas are suspected (dedifferentiation), but not proved by pathology analysis (e.g. after primary resection of a well-differentiated liposarcoma), a biopsy must be performed to demonstrate the high-grade dedifferentiated diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cytologically or histologically confirmed locally advanced or metastatic pancreas adenocarcinoma with a BRCA1 or 2 or PALB2 mutation confirmed by report from Myriad Genetics (United States of America [USA]); reports from other molecular diagnostic companies can be used to confirm mutations as well; BRCA 1 or 2 or PALB2 mutation can be confirmed locally for all international sites\r\n* For Part I, non-randomized, lead-in portion, patients with a known BRCA 1 or 2 or PALB2 mutation are eligible along with patients who potentially may have a likelihood of having a BRCA mutation (e.g., personal or family history of breast, pancreas, ovary, endometrial, prostate or other likely related malignancy); for Part I, randomized portion, a known BRCA 1 or 2 or PALB2 mutation is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to molecular analysis for therapy choice (MATCH) to APEC1621E based on the presence of an actionable mutation\r\n* Note: patients with BRAF V600 actionable mutations of interest (aMOIs) will be preferentially assigned to APEC1621G (vemurafenib) if that study is open and they are otherwise eligible for itXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.5 m^2 at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known significant ophthalmologic conditions (uncontrolled glaucoma, history of retinal vein occlusion or retinal detachment, excluding patients with longstanding findings secondary to existing conditions) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent malignancies other than BCC, other than those with negligible risk of metastases or deathXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented pathologic diagnosis of RCC; all subtypes eligible including but not limited to clear cell, papillary, chromophobe, collecting duct carcinoma, medullary carcinoma, and unclassified categories; sarcomatoid and rhabdoid differentiation are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) < 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXImminent or established spinal cord compression based on clinical and/or imaging; in subjects with untreated imminent or established spinal cord compression, treatment with standard of care as clinically indicated should be completed at least 4 weeks before enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters outside the protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf medical history of the following, case should be reviewed by the Medical Monitor: prior biliary tract disorders (as based on Hepatobiliary SOC high level terms of: obstructive bile duct disorders, hepatic vascular disorders, structural and other bile duct disorders) or portal hypertension and/or hepatic vascular disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXMulticentric cancers requiring double lumpectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAR (+), defined as >= 1% nuclear staining by IHC testing, the assessment of AR expression may have been performed any time in the past and is not limited to participation in Step 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs not breastfeeding at screening and will not breastfeed throughout the study period and for at least 3 months after final drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitivity reaction to the active pharmaceutical ingredient or any of the capsule components, including Labrasol, butylated hydroxyanisole and butylated hydroxytolueneXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiac function suitable for protocol-required hydration as determined by the investigator and/or cardiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of expressing CD20 antigen as determined by pathology at the respective institution and central pathology review at Mayo Clinic Rochester; Notes: for phase I, all types of B-cell lymphomas are allowed to participate; for phase II, only DLBCL patients are allowed to participate; for phase I only, patients with primary mediastinal large B-cell (PMLBCL) or transformed lymphoma are allowed to participate; additional notes regarding slide submission: central pathology review is mandatory, but is retrospective in nature; slides must be submitted =< 30 days after registration to allow for confirmation of DLBCL diagnosis and to have sufficient material for GCB/ABC assessment by a gene-expression profiling method; patients can be enrolled prior to submission of slides; for phase II, if central review of pathology shows that the patient does not have DLBCL or the amount of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) material is not considered sufficient for cell-of-origin (COO) analysis, the patient may remain on the study but the patient should be replacedXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving erythroid stimulating agents (epoetin alfa [EPO]: Procrit, Aranesp)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFully resected disease at study entry (residual CIS acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBCG-unresponsive high risk non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer after treatment with adequate BCG therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for radical cystectomy or refusal of radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent extra-vesical (i.e., urethra, ureter, or renal pelvis) non-muscle invasive transitional cell carcinoma of the urotheliumXx_NEWLINE_xXThat has progressed within 6 months prior to study enrollment (Cohort 5 Expansion and Cohort 6 ONLY)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a documented local diagnostic pathology of original biopsy confirmed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA/College of American Pathologists (CAP) or equivalent laboratory certificationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort 1 (rhabdoid tumors only), the following test results must be available by local laboratory: morphology and immunophenotypic panel consistent with rhabdoid tumors, and loss of INI1 or SMARCA4 confirmed by IHC, or molecular confirmation of tumor bi-allelic INI1 or SMARCA4 loss or mutation when INI1 or SMARCA4 IHC is equivocal or unavailableXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort 2 (subjects with relapsed/refractory synovial sarcoma only), the following tests must be available by local laboratory: Morphology consistent with synovial sarcomas, and cytogenetics or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or molecular confirmation (e.g., DNA sequencing) of SS18 rearrangement t(X;18)(p11;q11)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort 3, 5 and 7 (subjects with INI1-negative/aberrant tumors or any solid tumor with EZH2 GOF mutation only), the following test results must be available by local laboratory: Morphology and immunophenotypic panel consistent with INI1-negative tumors (not applicable for solid tumors with EZH2 GOF mutation), and loss of INI1 confirmed by IHC, or molecular confirmation of tumor bi-allelic INI1 loss or mutation when INI1 IHC is equivocal or unavailable, or molecular evidence of EZH2 GOF mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXMorphology and immunophenotypic panel consistent with epithelioid sarcoma (e.g., CD34, EMA, Keratin, and INI1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Subjects who are unable to undergo pre-dose (screening biopsy) will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXANC ?1,000/mm^3 (?1.0x10^9/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic (Coagulation Factors):Xx_NEWLINE_xXFibrinogen >0.5 LLNXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history or evidence of opportunistic infection within 6 months of screening including tuberculosis, severe cytomegalovirus (CMV) or herpetic infections (such as disseminated herpes, herpes encephalitis, ophthalmic herpes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a weight of < 39 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXAre taking medications with a known risk of Torsades de PointesXx_NEWLINE_xXAny revascularization procedure, including the placement of a stentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown ALK mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of exon 19 deletion or exon 21 (L858R) substitution of the EGFR geneXx_NEWLINE_xXVaccinations initiated between 3 weeks and 3 months from completion of SoC multi-modality cancer careXx_NEWLINE_xXActive pulmonary disease requiring medication to include multiple inhalers (>2 inhalers and one containing steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved in other experimental protocols (except with permission of the other study PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be a candidate for treatment with either carboplatin plus paclitaxel or carboplatin plus PLDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had secondary debulking surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of MM disease progression any time prior to enrollment; progression from smoldering/asymptomatic MM to symptomatic MM is not exclusionaryXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgeon's estimated survival >= 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients presenting for orthopaedic evaluation with a painful impending pathologic femur fracture or displaced pathologic femur fracture in the intertrochanteric, pertrochanteric, or subtrochanteric region of the proximal femur; the anatomic region of interest is defined by a line drawn from the base of the femoral neck to 5 cm below the base of the lesser trochanter or 2 diaphyseal shaft widths, whichever is greaterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an impending fracture who have had bevacizumab are eligible provided there will be a 3-week window between their last infusion and surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated survival < 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXA large soft tissue mass or other disease involving an area outside of the defined pertrochanteric anatomic region; (patients excluded based on intra-operative findings will be replaced on the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of an intramedullary occlusion by blastic metastases that would necessitate an alternative method of treatment, such as a plate/screw constructXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced hip arthritis on radiographic imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious randomization for a contralateral procedure as part of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of AT/RT or MRT as documented by institutional pathologist with loss of INI1 or BRG1 expression in tumor cells confirmed by immunohistochemistry, or by molecular confirmation of tumor-specific biallelic SMARCB1 loss/mutation or SMARCA4 loss/mutation if INI1/BRG1 immunohistochemistry is not available; patients with synchronous extraneural AT/RT are eligible; for Stratum A participants, histologic confirmation of the diagnosis of AT/RT or MRT may be from the original diagnosis or at the time of recurrence/progression\r\n* Whereas testing of INI1 expression by immunohistochemistry is widely available, Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified sequencing of SMARCB1 in tumor samples is only done in limited institutions; therefore, we expect that the vast majority of patients will have confirmation of their diagnoses by immunohistochemistry only; exceptional cases may require gene sequencing\r\n* Of note, occasional patients with histologic diagnosis suggestive of AT/RT or MRT may display immunohistochemical and/or molecular characteristics which are equivocal (e.g., patchy loss of INI1 expression by immunohistochemistry, proof of monoallelic loss of SMARCB1 without confirmation of second hit by sequencing of exons only); these cases may be confirmed unequivocally to represent AT/RT or MRT only by research studies (e.g., whole genome sequencing); therefore, we propose that such patients be candidates for the current study but their outcomes be described separatelyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome or other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or a requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton-pump inhibitor, histamine 2 (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowed while patients are on dexamethasone; we strongly recommend that patients who require gastric protection to receive only antacids starting 24 hours before the first dose until 24 hours after the last dose of alisertibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with progressive synchronous/metachronous AT/RT and MRT will be eligible for stratum A3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have previously received alisertibXx_NEWLINE_xXStable neurologic deficits on a stable dose of corticosteroids (if applicable) for at least 1 week before study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed AT/RTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed AT/RT and synchronous extra-CNS MRTXx_NEWLINE_xXBiological parent of patient enrolling on SJATRT will be assigned to Stratum PXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in the combination therapy arms must be eligible to receive erlotinib, or nivolumab per most current prescribing information, or at the discretion of the Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has history of major immunologic reaction to any Immunoglobulin G (IgG) containing agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation over 90% by pulse oximetry without administration of supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria =< +1 on dipstick or =< 1 gram/24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active hemolysis should be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Expansion: all of the above in escalation except for cervical, ovarian, and CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease-free interval =< 30 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be, after evaluation by the investigator, appropriate candidates for the administration of 5 to 6 cycles of standard platinum-based combination chemotherapy (carboplatin and paclitaxel, carboplatin and liposomal doxorubicin, or carboplatin and gemcitabine) following CRS with or without HIPECXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors of low malignant potential (borderline carcinomas)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of primary endometrial cancer are excluded unless the following conditions are met:\r\n* Stage not greater than IA\r\n* Not a poorly differentiated subtype (including papillary serous, clear cell or other International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics [FIGO] grade 3 lesions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cerebrovascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of extensive intraperitoneal adhesions at the time of surgery, as determined by the operating surgeon which prohibits intraperitoneal therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan for superficial inguinal dissection alone or combined superficial inguinal and deep pelvic node dissection is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be healthy enough to undergo a general anestheticXx_NEWLINE_xXInvasion or ulceration of inguinal nodal disease into the overlying skinXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II COMPONENT: The population will be restricted to relapsed/refractory sarcomasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to take or tolerate oral medications on a continuous basisXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine clearance above limits set in the protocol for each cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXHydroxyurea that is ongoing (hydroxyurea is permitted up to the first dose)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRectal cancer located within 10 cm from the anal verge based on proctoscopy and digital rectal examination (DRE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSeverely symptomatic rectal tumors (near-completely obstructing, symptomatic bleeding)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors invading into the internal anal sphincter muscle based on DRE and pelvic MRIXx_NEWLINE_xXFecal incontinence at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXAs there is potential for hepatic toxicity with nivolumab or nivolumab/ipilimumab combinations, drugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 Group B is restricted to HCC (fibrolamellar and mixed hepatocellular/cholangiocarcinoma subtypes are not eligible).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere should be no macroscopic intravascular invasion of tumors into the main portal vein, hepatic vein, or vena cava.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXNo supplemental oxygen requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment in any other clinical study from screening up to day 100; enrollment in another clinical study not interfering with the endpoints of this study after day 100 according to the judgment of the PI (or PI designee) will be allowed, but will be clearly documented in the case report form (CRF) and in the patient’s medical fileXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be eligible for TACEXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no clinical signs of heart failure and meet New York Heart Association functional classification I or II defined as:\r\n* Class I – patients with no limitation of activities; they suffer no symptoms from ordinary activities\r\n* Class II – patients with slight, mild limitation of activity; they are comfortable with rest or with mild exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically euthyroid; note: patients are permitted to receive thyroid hormone supplements to treat underlying hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of >= 2.5 million cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cells/kg previously apheresedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown actionable mutations, (e.g. EGFR, ALK, ROS1), against which there is an established effective targeted therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmological conditions as follows: \r\n• Intra-ocular pressure > 21 mmHg, or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of intra-ocular pressure) \r\n• Current or past history of central serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXCaution should be exercised when administering paclitaxel (Taxol) concomitantly with medicines known to inhibit (e.g. ketoconazole and other imidazole antifungals, erythromycin, fluoxetine, gemfibrozil, cimetidine, ritonavir, saquinavir, indinavir and nelfinavir) OR induce (e.g. rifampicin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, efavirenz and nevirapine) either CYP2C8 or CYP3A4. Based on the in vitro data and SimCYP simulations, selumetinib is considered unlikely to perpetrate clinically significant drug-drug interaction via inhibition or induction of CYP enzymesXx_NEWLINE_xXCaution should be exercised when administering paclitaxel (Taxol) concomitantly with medicines known to inhibit (e.g. ketoconazole and other imidazole antifungals, erythromycin, fluoxetine, gemfibrozil, cimetidine, ritonavir, saquinavir, indinavir and nelfinavir) OR induce (e.g. rifampicin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, efavirenz and nevirapine) either CYP2C8 or CYP3A4.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have recurrent OS; OS must be verified by histopathology review by the site's Department of Pathology; (patients registered at Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center [MSKCC] must have pathology confirmed by MSKCC Department of Pathology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be in a >= 2nd complete remission as indicated by appropriate radiologic evaluations at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with OS in first complete remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with carcinosarcoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with positive pelvic washings as the only extra-uterine disease are NOT eligible if the histology is other than clear cell or papillary serous carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an estimated survival of less than three months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActively smoking 5 or more cigarettes per day for at least one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to take varenicline OR nicotine patch (patient choice)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to take bupropionXx_NEWLINE_xXCarbon monoxide (CO) test under 7 parts per million (ppm)Xx_NEWLINE_xX4 or above for men OR 3 or above for women on the Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT-C) are considered a “positive” screen and will require additional clinician assessment to determine if an alcohol use disorder is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXIllicit drug use within the last monthXx_NEWLINE_xX3 or above on Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-2) Depression ScaleXx_NEWLINE_xX> 0 in PHQ-9 question 9Xx_NEWLINE_xXDaily use of a second form of tobacco or nicotine (e.g. e-cigarettes, cigars, chewing tobacco, snuff)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a smoking cessation medication (e.g. nicotine replacement, varenicline, bupropion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindication to the use of varenicline OR nicotine patchXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindication to the use of bupropionXx_NEWLINE_xXTURNSTILE I - SCREENING:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a lesion amenable to resection for the generation of TIL on MD Anderson protocol 2004-0069Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must sign the treatment consent document before Turnstile II screening procedures; before the treatment starts and at each visit, the patient will be asked to complete two quality of life questionnaires; It should take about 15 minutes to complete the questionnaires (Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy General [FACT-G], FACT-Melanoma); patients must fulfill all of the following criteria to be eligible for Turnstile II of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate TIL that were previously harvested and then cryopreserved on MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC) protocol 2004-0069Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one biopsiable measurable metastatic melanoma, lesion > 1 cm and must be amenable to undergoing serial biopsies through the course of therapy; this lesion must not be documented as one of the target lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXTURNSTILE I - SCREENINGXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is mentally or legally incapacitated at the time of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiffuse subependymal or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors involving the cerebellumXx_NEWLINE_xXUnexplained febrile illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic diseases associated with unacceptable anesthesia or operative riskXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must take anticoagulations or antiplatelet agents, including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), that cannot be stopped for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing and able (in the opinion of the treating physician) to undergo two research biopsies for the investigational component of this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo two leukapheresis procedures for the investigational component of this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of allergic reactions to filgrastim (GM-CSF) or the tetanus vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have undergone splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXIHC evidence of MUC16^ecto expression will be performed according to the technique and 0-5 scoring systemXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly MUC16^ecto tumors with moderate to strong immunoreactive scores (3-5) will be considered positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or radiographic evidence of bowel obstruction, or need for parenteral hydration and/or nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected extensive abdominal adhesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXARM A COHORT 1: Patients must not have prior nab-paclitaxel exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXARM A COHORT 1: Patients must not have a history of slowly progressive dyspnea and unproductive cough, or of conditions such as sarcoidosis, silicosis, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary hypersensitivity pneumonitis, or multiple allergiesXx_NEWLINE_xXARM B COHORT 3: Patients must not have a central lesion with radiologic evidence of arterial involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXARM C COHORT 4: Patients must not have prior cisplatin exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Advanced RCC associated with 1) HLRCC or SDH (Cohort 1); OR 2) advanced non HLRCC-related papillary RCC (Cohort 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: No more than two prior VEGF-pathway targeted agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown serious allergic reaction to vandetanib or metforminXx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria > 1gram/24 hrsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of QT prolongation associated with other medications that required discontinuation of that medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed Ph+ ALL, with no prior exposure to dasatinib and without known ABL kinase mutations predicted to be resistant to dasatinib (e.g. L248R, L248V, Q252H, E255K, V299L, T315A, T315I, F317C, F317I, F317L, F317S, F317V)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory Ph-like ALL without prior exposure to dasatinib and with mutations or rearrangements of genes conferring sensitivity to dasatinib (ABL, CSF1R, PDGFRB) or ruxolitinib (CRLF2, JAK3, EPOR, TSLP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of Philadelphia chromosome positivity by cytogenetics (karyotype/fluorescence in situ hybridization [FISH]) and/or molecular tests (BCR-ABL1 transcripts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPh-negative ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with dominant leukemic clone bearing documented bcr-abl mutations enabling bcr-abl TKI resistance at diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXMature B-cell (Burkitt’s) ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral ocular adnexal involvement is permitted, if biopsy confirms unilateral disease and there is high clinical suspicion for bilateral disease, biopsy of the contralateral ocular adnexa can be waivedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pre-existing retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active lupus or scleroderma are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered unresectable or inoperableXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners are excluded for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated MCL should be asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic from their MCL and without aggressive clinicopathological features that would otherwise warrant immediate intensive therapy; these will generally be patients who qualify for an initial period of “watch and wait” per clinical discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXBOTH PHASE I AND PHASE II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be capable of taking and absorbing oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active major medical or psychosocial problems that could be complicated by study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo histologic documentation of EOCXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or history of diverticulitis; diverticulosis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for chronic parenteral hydration/nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II STUDY COHORT 1 OVARIAN CANCER ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA (MEDI+O, MEDI+C AND MEDI+O+C): Documentation of germline breast cancer (BRCA)1 and BRCA2 mutation (gBRCAm) status will be requested; a documented deleterious germline BRCA1 and BRCA1 mutation (gBRCAm) obtained in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory will be requested, but it is not mandated for enrollment; Myriad testing will be accepted; if testing for BRCA is done by other organizations either by multi-gene panels or individual testing, genetic consultation report from a qualified medical professional listing the mutation and confirming that the laboratory results showed a recognized gBRCAm or germline deleterious BRCA rearrangement is required; if the patient refused genetic counseling, it should be documented in the medical records; variants of uncertain significance (VUS) of BRCA1 and BRCA2 are not considered deleterious; patients with VUS or deleterious mutation in other genes without gBRCAm or patients with negative BRCA testing are still eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II COLORECTAL CANCER COHORT 6 (MEDI+C ONLY):\r\nPatients must be microsatellite instability (MSI)-stable (or low)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II COLORECTAL CANCER COHORT 6 (MEDI+C ONLY):\r\nAbility of subject to understand and the willingness to record twice-daily blood pressure readingsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II COLORECTAL CANCER COHORT 6 (MEDI+C ONLY):\r\nHistory of auto-immune disease requiring steroid maintenance, or history of primary immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II COLORECTAL CANCER COHORT 6 (MEDI+C ONLY):\r\nCurrent signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction or signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction within 28 days before study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II COLORECTAL CANCER COHORT 6 (MEDI+C ONLY):\r\nCurrent dependency on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) or IV fluid hydrationXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients eligible for therapeutic study must have (>= 2 x 10^6 CD34/kg) autologous hematopoietic stem cells harvested and cryopreservedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an expected survival of > 60 days and must be free of major infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwest Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status >= 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 95% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have a rapidly progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo cardiomegaly or bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on chest radiograph; patients may have pulmonary metastatic lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo previous severe allergic reaction to hepatitis B vaccine, polio vaccine or tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis vaccine (DTP, Tdap, DT or Td)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas not had a coma or long or multiple seizures within 7 days after a dose of DTP or Tdap unless a cause other than the vaccine was indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXOutside breast imaging will be reviewed at Duke to confirm that findings are consistent with trial eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions that may increase risk for poor cosmetic outcome (i.e. lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects without placement of a biopsy clip at the diagnostic procedure who are unwilling to undergo clip placementXx_NEWLINE_xX60 years of age or older or 50-59 with a low (0-17) oncotype score; oncotype is not required for women diagnosed with DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXOutside breast imaging will be reviewed at Duke to confirm findings are consistent with trial eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions that may increase risk for poor cosmetic outcome (i.e. Lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects without placement of a biopsy clip at the diagnostic procedure who are unwilling to undergo clip placementXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of arterial thromboembolic eventXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with microscopic hematuria OR biopsy proven BK nephritis and urine or blood polymerase chain reaction (PCR) positive for BK virus and/or JC viral encephalitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) grades II-IVXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with CDKN2A wild type by a CLIA-certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented/locally determined AKT1 or PIK3CA mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXCarboplatin Plus Paclitaxel Arm:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPaclitaxel Arm:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin (Hb) ? 9 g/dL (Carboplatin Plus Paclitaxel Arm or Paclitaxel Arm) or ? 8 g/dL (Anastrozole Arm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetabolic - Glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) ? 8%Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects enrolled in the Carboplatin Plus Paclitaxel Arm or Paclitaxel Arm, concurrent standard long-term anticancer hormonal therapy with drugs including but not limited to selective estrogen receptor modulators or Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogs if started at least six months before the first dose of study treatment is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAnastrozole defined by the Investigator based on institutional SOC, scientific evidence, expert medical judgment, or published literatureXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood transfusion within 5 days of the blood draw being used to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXKi67 score/proliferative index =< 20% or low to intermediate mitotic indexXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score =< 7, no tertiary pattern >= 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Urological Association (AUA) =< 18 with or without medical managementXx_NEWLINE_xXUp to a total of 1 year of androgen deprivation allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation that insurance will cover SBRT through normal hospital authorization processXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR BOTH ARM A AND ARM B:Xx_NEWLINE_xXProsthetic implants in the pelvic region that contain metal materials (e.g., an artificial hip)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant urinary obstruction in spite of alpha blocker use (i.e. AUA symptom score > 18)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious pelvic irradiation, prostate brachytherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXIf sorafenib was previously administered, intolerance to sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected malabsorption condition or obstruction; Note: Use of pancreatic enzyme supplements is allowed to control malabsorptionXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to sildenafil including:\r\n* Known retinitis pigmentosa\r\n* History of priapism related to PDE5 inhibitors (eg, sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil)\r\n* Presence of nonmalignant hematologic disorders, such as sickle cell disease, that may increase the risk of priapismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients older than 60 who are deemed fit to receive intensive chemotherapy by the treating physician are eligible after discussion with the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn the phase I portion, patients with relapsed or refractory AML/MDS are also eligible, as per the treating physician’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXFor the phase II portion of the study, patients must be chemo-naive, i.e. not have received any prior chemotherapy (except hydrea or one dose of ara-C [cytarabine] =< 2 g) for AML or MDS; they could have received hypomethylator agents, transfusions, hematopoietic growth factors or vitamins; temporary prior measures such as apheresis or hydrea or one dose of ara-C =< 2 g in order to safely control hyperleucocytosis prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance status < 3, unless directly related to disease process as determined by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult men and women aged 18 and olderXx_NEWLINE_xXBM cellularity < 30% andXx_NEWLINE_xX< 30% for patients < 60 years,Xx_NEWLINE_xX< 20% for patients ? 60yrs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic ischemia, orXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of alcohol or drug use that may interfere with the patient's ability to participate in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo dexamethasone use (or any other corticosteroid use with the purpose of treating cerebral edema) starting 5 days prior to the treatment planning MRI; patients may be tapered to meet this criterion if deemed safe by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR THE RANDOMIZED PORTION ONLYXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR THE PILOT PORTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXIt is not required that patients have the risk factors mentionedXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of bosentanXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed by the treating physician to be unable to eat regular mealsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with a known diagnosis of ongoing alcoholism/alcohol abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma or renal histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious use of indoximod or tergenpumatucel-L immunotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoronary/peripheral artery bypass graftXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with B-lineage acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) in hematologic complete remission (CR) with molecular failure (ie, had never achieved an MRD-negativity status before blinatumomab) or had a molecular relapse (ie, became MRD positive after having been MRD negative) starting at any time point after 3 months of frontline therapy; molecular disease or minimal residual disease is defined by a value of at least of 1 x 10^-4 by multicolor flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all screening assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of PI3K or Akt inhibitors in the metastatic setting for the treatment of cancer; these include, but are not limited to: taselisib, GDC-0941, GDC-0980, BEZ235, BKM120, LY294002, PIK-75, TGX-221, XL147, XL765, SF1126, PX-866, D-87503, D-106669, GSK615, CAL101; patients who have received PI3K/Akt inhibitors previously for < 4 weeks will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of prohibited drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergone molecular testing for integral biomarkers including immunohistochemical staining for vimentinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have probable (i.e., clinically suspicious) or histologically/cytologically confirmed, primary or recurrent, malignant neoplasm, malignant neuroendocrine tumor, or carcinoma in situ (any stage)\r\n* Malignant neoplasm, malignant neuroendocrine tumor, or carcinoma in situ will be defined as\r\n** Malignant neoplasm of lip, oral cavity, or pharynx (International Classification of Disease-9-Clinical Modification [ICD-9-CM] codes 140-149 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes]) \r\n** Malignant neoplasm of digestive organs or peritoneum (ICD-9-CM codes 150-159 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes])\r\n** Malignant neoplasm of respiratory or intrathoracic organs (ICD-9-CM codes 160-165 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes]) \r\n** Malignant neoplasm of bone, connective tissue, skin, or breast (ICD-9-CM codes 170-175 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes])\r\n** Malignant neoplasm of genitourinary organs (ICD-9-CM codes 179-189 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes])\r\n** Malignant neoplasm of other or unspecified sites (ICD-9-CM codes 190-199 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes])\r\n** Malignant neuroendocrine tumor (ICD-9-CM codes 209.0-209-3, 209.7 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes])\r\n** Carcinoma in situ (ICD-9-CM codes 230-234 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes])Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for curative or palliative major cancer surgery; patient must be scheduled for at least one of the following procedures (i.e., Common Procedural Terminology [CPT codes]), and may be scheduled for more than one of these procedures within or across each of the following procedure types (e.g., glossectomy, pharyngectomy, etc.) or procedure families (e.g., head and neck surgery, thoracic surgery, etc.)\r\n* Head and neck surgery\r\n** Glossectomy (CPT codes 41135,41140,41145,41150,41153,41155)\r\n** Pharyngectomy (CPT codes 42842,42844,42845,42890,42892,42894)\r\n** Laryngectomy (CPT codes 31360,31365,31367, 31368, 31370, 31375, 31380, 31382, 31390, 31395)\r\n** Neck dissection (CPT codes 38720, 38724)\r\n* Thoracic Surgery\r\n** Esophagectomy (CPT codes 43101, 43107, 43108, 43112, 43113, 43116, 43117, 43118, 43121, 43122, 43123, 43124)\r\n** Lung resection (CPT codes 32440, 32442, 32445, 32480, 32482, 32484, 32486, 32488, 32491, 32503, 32504, 32505, 32506, 32507, 32663, 32666, 32667, 32668, 32669, 32670, 32671, 32672)\r\n* Upper gastrointestinal/hepatico-pancreatico-biliary surgery\r\n** Gastrectomy (CPT codes 43620, 43621, 43622, 43631, 43632, 43633, 43634)\r\n** Pancreatectomy (CPT codes 48120, 48140, 48145, 48146, 48148, 48150, 48152, 48153, 48154, 48155, 48999)\r\n** Hepatectomy (CPT codes 47120, 47122, 47125, 47130)\r\n* Colorectal surgery\r\n** Colectomy (CPT codes 44140, 44141, 44143, 44144, 44145, 44146, 44147, 44150, 44151, 44160, 44204, 44205, 44206, 44207, 44208, 44210)\r\n** Proctectomy (CPT codes 44155, 44156, 44157, 44158, 44211, 44212, 45110, 45111, 45112, 45113, 45114, 45116, 45119, 45120, 45121, 45123, 45126, 45130, 45135, 45160, 45395, 45397, 45402, 45550)\r\n* Gynecologic surgery\r\n** Hysterectomy/Myomectomy (CPT codes 58140, 58145, 58146, 58150, 58152, 58180, 58200, 58210, 58240, 58260, 58262, 58263, 58267, 58270, 58275, 58280, 58285, 58290, 58291, 58292, 58293, 58294, 58541, 58542, 58543, 58544, 58545, 58546, 58548, 58550, 58552, 58553, 58554, 58570, 58571, 58572, 58573, 58940, 58943, 58950, 58951, 58952, 58953, 58954, 58956)\r\n** Gynecologic reconstruction (CPT codes 57260, 57265, 57267, 57268, 57270, 57280, 57282, 57283)\r\n* Urologic Surgery\r\n** Prostatectomy (CPT codes 55801, 55810, 55812, 55815, 55821, 55831, 55840, 55842, 55845, 55866)\r\n** Nephrectomy (CPT codes 50220, 50225, 50230, 50234, 50236, 50240, 50543, 50545, 50546, 50548)\r\n** Cystectomy (CPT codes 51550, 51555, 51565, 51570, 51575, 51580, 51585, 51590, 51595, 51596, 51597)\r\n* Soft tissue/plastic surgery\r\n** Breast reconstruction (CPT codes 19324, 19325, 19340, 19342, 19357, 19361, 19364, 19366, 19367, 19368, 19369)\r\n** Flap reconstruction (CPT codes 15731, 15732, 15734, 15736, 15738, 15740, 15750, 15756, 15757, 15758)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThese procedures are commonly performed in patients with malignant neoplasms, malignant neuroendocrine tumors, or carcinomas in situ, and are commonly “tracked” by hospitals and cancer centers participating in the ACS NSQIP Procedure Targeted option because they are often associated with higher rates of postoperative morbidity and mortality (compared to other, less complex cancer procedures)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGeographical accessibility and willingness to return to FCCC for all preoperative and postoperative study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or tissue diagnosis of benign neuroendocrine tumor, benign neoplasm, neoplasm of uncertain behavior, or neoplasm of unspecified nature \r\n* Benign neuroendocrine tumor (ICD-9-CM codes 209.4-209.6 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes]) \r\n* Benign neoplasms (ICD-9-CM codes 210-229 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes]) \r\n* Neoplasm of uncertain behavior (ICD-9-CM codes 235-238 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes]) \r\n* Neoplasm of unspecified nature (ICD-9-CM codes 239 [or corresponding ICD-10-CM codes])Xx_NEWLINE_xXIncarcerated individualsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate hematologic parameters without ongoing transfusional support:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medication(s) that may cause QTc prolongation or induce Torsades de Pointes, with the exception of antimicrobials that are considered to be essential for care of the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative disease, history of uveitis, history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or any eye condition that would be considered a risk factor for RVO or has medically relevant abnormalities identified on screening ophthalmologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have injectable disease (direct injection or ultrasound guided)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCertain histologic subtypes: GIST, Desmoid, Ewing sarcoma, Kaposi sarcoma, and bone sarcomasXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with retroperitoneal and visceral sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior or current splenectomy or splenic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire intermittent or chronic treatment with an anti-herpetic drug (e.g., acyclovir), other than intermittent topical useXx_NEWLINE_xXOther investigational procedures while participating in this study that could affect the primary objective of the study as determined by the principal investigator (PI) are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject previously has entered this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on or requiring immunosuppressive therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who screen fails can be re-enrolled if the causation of the screen fail has been correctedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a positive serum Yo antibody (does not need to be repeated if performed in the past)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has proteinuria > 3.5 gm over 24 hrs are not eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit < 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is receiving medication(s) that might affect immune function; use of histamine type 2 (H2) antagonists are prohibited as are all antihistamines five days before and five days after each injection of study vaccine; however, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) including cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitors, acetaminophen or aspirin are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented adequate hematocrit > 35% for males and 33% for femalesXx_NEWLINE_xXFoundation for the Accreditation of Cellular Therapy (FACT) labs and final test results available prior to infusion into the patient (copy of labs included in appendices); in the second donation from the donor, the FACT labs must be redrawn within 30 days of initiation of apheresis; positive serologies are not repeated as they remain positive for lifetimeXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had had surgery within four weeks of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc.), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a known or suspected hypersensitivity to GM-CSF, hetastarch, corn, dimethyl sulfoxide, fetal bovine serum, trypsin (porcine origin), yeast or any other component of GVAX pancreas vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a pulse oximetry of < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is on supplemental home oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXADDITIONAL CRITERIA FOR STUDY CONTINUATION: Have a surgically resected (R0 or R1) American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) pathologic stage I or stage II adenocarcinoma of the head, neck, or uncinate of the pancreas; (following study treatment #1, if the patient’s tumor is found intraoperatively to be limited to the distal portion (body or tail) of the pancreas and is resected by distal pancreatectomy, the patient may continue to receive study treatments but will be considered non-evaluable for the primary and efficacy endpoints and will be followed for additional endpoints;) the patients with an R2 resection will not be eligible for the continuation of the study; patients with intraoperative findings of metastatic disease will not be eligible for the continuation of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXADDITIONAL CRITERIA FOR STUDY CONTINUATION: Patient has a known or suspected hypersensitivity to GM-CSF, hetastarch, corn, dimethyl sulfoxide, fetal bovine serum, trypsin (porcine origin), yeast or any other component of GVAX pancreas vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXADDITIONAL CRITERIA FOR STUDY CONTINUATION: Patient has a pulse oximetry of < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treatment history may not include anti-CD33 monoclonal antibody therapy (e.g., SGN-CD33 or Mylotarg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunction and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction or signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction within 3 months prior to starting study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXDependency on intravenous (IV) hydration or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not use any complementary or alternative medicines including natural herbal products or folk remediesXx_NEWLINE_xXPathological diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate, judged to be at high risk for recurrence based on any of the following (in accordance with the International Society of Urological Pathology (ISUP) Consensus 2005: Gleason score 8-10 OR Gleason score of 4+3 AND clinical T2b-4 AND PSA >20ng/mL OR N1 disease (involvement of lymph nodes at or below the bifurcation of the common iliac arteries) defined radiologically as greater than 10mm on short axis using standard CT or MRI, or biopsy provenXx_NEWLINE_xXHas completed the baseline HRQOL questionnaires UNLESS is unable to complete because of literacy or limited visionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory ofXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent illness, including severe infection that might jeopardize the ability of the patient to undergo the procedures outlined in this protocol with reasonable safetyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule, including alcohol dependence or drug abuse;Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral orchidectomy or radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAdenocarcinoma of the prostate treated primarily with radical prostatectomy\r\n* Any type of radical prostatectomy is permitted including retropubic, perineal, laparoscopic or robotically assisted; there is no time limit for the date of radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on immunosuppressant medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one additional non-contiguous lesion to the irradiated lesion amenable to radiographic evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXWe will allow XRT prior to study entry to other sites, with no washout period, allowed prior to study entry as long as at least one measurable sites of disease is kept unirradiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXAT THE TIME OF PROCUREMENT: Recurrent or refractory GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXAT THE TIME OF INFUSION: Intracranial catheter (such as Rickham or Ommaya) in placeXx_NEWLINE_xXAT THE TIME OF INFUSION: Pulse oximetry of ? 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven unilateral or bilateral primary breast carcinoma; (in case of bilateral cancer, the investigator has to decide prospectively which side will be evaluated for the primary endpoint)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStaging work-up prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXMRI MONITORING SUB-STUDY: Engaged in occupations or activities which may cause accidental lodging of ferromagnetic materials, or have imbedded metal fragments from military activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXMRI MONITORING SUB-STUDY: Known history of severe renal insufficiency, asthma, allergic conditions, sickle cell anemia, chronic hemolytic anemia, and gastrointestinal disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical assessment score will be obtained, at baseline\r\n* Visual assessment (VA) in affected eye of at least 20/200 - 0/1\r\n* Ocular motility intact - 0/1\r\n* No diplopia - 0/1\r\n* Binocularity (fusion) +/- prism - 0/1\r\n* Normal tear lake, no complaint of persistent tearing - 0/1\r\n* Intact lacrimal system by probing/irrigation (both canaliculi to nasolacrimal duct [NLD]) - 0/1\r\n* Patient assessment of visual function on the affected side (good, fair, poor) - 0/1/2\r\n* Score maximum - 8Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical oncology screening evaluation performed to assess medical indication/contra-indication to vismodegib treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement not to donate blood or blood products during the study and for 7 months after discontinuation of vismodegibXx_NEWLINE_xXIf the patient consents to enroll, then blood will be drawn and stored for biomarker analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has uncontrolled thyroid dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be reasonable candidates for laparoscopy and IP platinum regimen with no prior evidence of clinically significant intra-abdominal adhesions, persistent abdominal wall infections, renal toxicity, or bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior to enrollment, the CA125 should have been elevated to at least double the level seen at the nadir value following the first complete response and measurable intraperitoneal disease that can be identified radiologically and accessed by laparoscopy/laparotomy for a biopsy and peritoneal catheter placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may be required to undergo leukapheresis (depending on the study phase/cohort) and must agree to leukapheresis if so assignedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to appropriate clinical monitoring to receive the study regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a recognized immunodeficiency disease including cellular immunodeficiencies, hypogammaglobulinemia or dysgammaglobulinemia; patients who have acquired, hereditary, or congenital immunodeficienciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have contraindications to the use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID’s) like chronic renal failure, coronary artery disease, or bleeding ulcersXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have had external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) or locoregional therapies such as radiofrequency (RF) ablation must have subsequently grown unequivocally to be deemed a target lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more evaluable or measurable lesions that do not demonstrate iodine uptake on any radioiodine scan; orXx_NEWLINE_xXCumulative activity of 131 iodine greater than 400 millicuries (mCi) or 14.8 gigabecquerels (GBq), with the last dose administered at least 6 months prior to study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with DTC must be receiving thyroxine suppression therapy and levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) should not be elevated (TSH should be less than or equal to 5.50 milliunits per liter (mU/L)). When tolerated by the participant, thyroxine dose should be changed to achieve TSH suppression (TSH less than 0.50 mU/L).Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to comply with the protocol, scheduled follow-up, and management of toxicity as judged by the Investigator. Cohort 3B (Combination Expansion): Osteosarcoma subjects who progressed in Cohorts 1 or 2B and opt to receive combination therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xX< 1+ proteinuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of peptic ulcer disease or erosive gastritis within the past 3 months, unless treated for the condition and complete resolution has been documented by esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) within 28 days of starting study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must be localized (non-metastatic) and classified as borderline resectable according to Americas Hepato-Pancreato-Biliary Association (AHPBA)/Society of Surgical Oncology (SSO)/Society for Surgery of the Alimentary Tract (SSAT) consensus criteria or be clinically node-positive via computed tomography (CT) or endoscopic ultrasound\r\n* AHPBA/SSO/SSAT criteria (any one of the following):\r\n** Tumor-associated deformity of the SMV (superior mesenteric vein) or PV (portal vein)\r\n** Abutment of the SMV or PV >= 180 degrees\r\n** Short-segment occlusion of the SMV or PV amenable to resection and venous reconstruction\r\n** Short-segment involvement of the hepatic artery or its branches amenable to resection and reconstruction\r\n** Abutment of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) < 180 degreesXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with locally advanced, unresectable primary tumors will not be eligible\r\n* This includes any of the following:\r\n** Abutment of the SMA >= 180 degrees\r\n** Occlusion of the SMV or PV with insufficient normal vein above and below with which to perform venous reconstruction\r\n** Involvement of the hepatic artery with insufficient artery proximal and distal to perform reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with plastic biliary stents will be excluded; metal biliary stents are allowed and will not be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MCL must be symptomatic and need immediate therapy; symptoms and nature of MCL include any of the following: \r\n* Blastoid variant\r\n* Pleomorphic variant\r\n* B symptoms\r\n* Mantle Cell International Prognostic Score (MIPI) > 3\r\n* Ki-67 >= 30%\r\n* Bulky tumors > 7 cm or in case of >= 2 tumors, each >= 5 cm in diameter\r\n* Disease threatening organ function\r\n* Elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)\r\n* Peripheral blood white blood cell (PB WBC) > 50,000\r\n* Pancytopenia due to bone marrow MCL\r\n* Patient’s choice due to anxiety\r\n* Pain due to lymphoma\r\n* Somatic mutations in the TP53, c-MYC or NOTCH genes\r\n* Size of spleen >= 20 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have no active major medical or psychosocial problems that could be complicated by study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a strong likelihood of non-adherence such as difficulties in adhering to follow-up schedule due to geographic distance from the Siteman Cancer Center should not knowingly be registeredXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand and complete the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer (EORTC) quality of life (QOL) instrumentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors are positive for the sensitizing EGFR mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors are positive for the sensitizing ALK fusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors are positive for the sensitizing ROS-1 fusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose pathology has squamous cell features unless there is an unequivocal determination of non-squamous pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who due to age, pre-existing medical conditions, or, prior therapy are considered to be at high-risk for regimen-related toxicity associated with fully ablative transplant conditioning, and therefore reduced intensity conditioning is recommendedXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Patients positive for hepatitis B and C will be evaluated on a case by case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: White blood cell count > 3.5 x 10^9/liter, platelets > 150 x 10^9/liter and hematocrit > 35%Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: No psychological traits or psychological or medical conditions which make them unlikely to tolerate the procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Has not developed a new malignancy requiring chemotherapy or radiation in the interval since apheresis for initial hematocrit (HCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no evidence of active graft-versus-host disease at the time of the CD8+ memory T-cell infusion; patients with a history of acute GVHD overall grade II based on skin only involvement or upper gastrointestinal (GI) tract involvement only will be eligible; patients with a history of liver or lower GI tract GVHD will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have clinical evidence of disease progression prior to the CD8+ memory T-cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have histologic demonstration of metastatic or locally unresectable transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium; variant histology is allowed as long as there is an urothelial component present; the principal investigator (PI), will serve as the final arbiter of eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: patients are eligible with any number of prior regimens regardless of what those regimens contained (i.e. prior bortezomib or combination gemcitabine and adriamycin is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInfection requiring current intravenous antibiotic therapy; the PI will serve as the final arbiter regarding eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented genetic lesion(s) known to confer susceptibility to inhibition by either ruxolitinib or dasatinib or cytokine receptor-like factor 2 (CRLF2) positivity by flow cytometry (for the ruxolitinib cohort)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other conditions that preclude enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other malignancies will not be eligible for stratum I or II; patients with disseminated disease including to the spine will not be eligible for stratum 1 but will be eligible for stratum IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed DIPG who have received vorinostat previously will not be eligible for stratum I; patients with progressive DIPG will be eligible if they have received either one of the two drugs vorinostat or temsirolimus but will not be eligible for stratum II if have received both the drugs beforeXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-grade peritoneal carcinomatosis from appendiceal adenocarcinoma\r\n* Moderate or poorly-differentiated adenocarcinoma, signet ring cell carcinoma or “high-grade” carcinoma as designated by University of California San Diego (UCSD) pathologic testing\r\n* May be initially determined from pre-CRS/HIPEC tumor pathology (for screening purposes), but must be confirmed with UCSD pathology from resected tumors as part of CRS/HIPECXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had complete (CC-0 or CC-1) CRS with HIPEC open or minimally invasive (laparoscopic or robotic)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIncarcerated patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with delayed healing of wounds, ulcers, and/or bone fracturesXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of radiographic evidence of extrathyroidal extensionXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of abnormal lymphadenopathy suggesting metastatic PTC on physical examination and/or imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum transaminases =< 3 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to perform 6 minute walk testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with persistent LV dysfunction 90 days after discontinuation of trastuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of ischemic heart disease as determined by study cardiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant valvular disease; (aortic stenosis [AS] with aortic valve area [AVA] < 1.5 and severe aortic regurgitation [AR] and mitral regurgitation [MR])Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of familial cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent documented myocarditis within 2 months of consentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infiltrative cardiomyopathy or restrictive cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXInotropic dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable or life-threatening arrhythmiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMechanical or bioprosthetic heart valveXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiogenic shockXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR mutation with exon 19 deletion or L858R mutation (Exon 21) or ALK rearrangement positive must have failed prior TKI therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking (cigarettes, cigars or pipes) must be discontinued at least 7 days prior to initiating study drug administration; smoking cessation products (transdermal nicotine patches or chewing gum may be used)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo deleterious or suspected deleterious germline BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation based on full sequencing and comprehensive rearrangement testing at an external reference laboratory; patients with variants of unknown significance will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDeleterious or suspected deleterious germline or somatic gene mutation implicated in the HR pathway, excluding BRCA1 or BRCA2, based on multiplex germline gene testing or direct tumor next generation deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequencing; these genes include: PTEN, PALB2, CHEK2, ATM, NBN, BARD1, BRIP1, RAD50, RAD51C, RAD51, RAD51D, MRE11, ATR, Fanconi anemia complementation group of genes (FANCA, FANCC, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCF, FANCG, FANCL), plus other HR-related genes at the discretion of the primary investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with a deleterious mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2Xx_NEWLINE_xXITP that has persisted for ? 3 months. ITP must be diagnosed in accordance The American Society of Hematology 2011 Evidence-based Practice Guideline for Immune Thrombocytopenia (Neunert et al. 2011) or the International Consensus Report on The Investigation and Management of Primary Immune Thrombocytopenia (Provan et al. 2010), as locally applicable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical history of vasculitis or lupus erythematosusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with treated supratentorial metastases are allowed if stable, the patient is off steroids and no evidence of intracranial hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled concomitant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must meet the diagnostic criteria for HPS (at least 5 of the following):\r\n* Fever\r\n* Splenomegaly\r\n* Cytopenia involving >= 2 cell lines\r\n* Hypertriglyceridemia or hypofibrinogenemia\r\n* Tissue demonstration of hemophagocytosis\r\n* Hepatitis\r\n* Low or absent natural killer (NK) cell activity\r\n* Serum ferritin >= 3000 ug/L\r\n* Soluble interleukin (IL)-2 receptor (cluster of differentiation [CD25]) > 2400 U/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXFLT3-ITD or FLT3-D835 positive disease at any time during disease course.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of allogeneic HSCT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) ? Grade 1, either no signs of chronic GVHD or mild chronic GVHD graded as limited diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAzacitidine, decitabine or other demethylating agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with nivolumab and/or ipilimumab in combination with 5-azacytidine will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active GVHD > grade 2 will be excluded; patients with recent increase in the immunosuppressive medication dose within last 2 weeks to control GVHD will not be included; patients with grade 1 or lower GVHD on =< 10 mg prednisone without any additional immunosuppressive therapies (tacrolimus, prograf, etc) will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 30 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area (BSA) of >= 0.42 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior total body irradiation (TBI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive drug use or alcoholismXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned to receive chemotherapy for 6 cycles which the treating physician plans to utilize for pegfilgrastim to minimize risk for neutropenic fever, including but not limited to rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone (R-CHOP), rituximab, etoposide, prednisone, vincristine sulfate, cyclophosphamide, and doxorubicin hydrochloride (R-EPOCH), and rituximab, cyclophosphamide, vincristine sulfate, doxorubicin hydrochloride, and dexamethasone, administered on a hyperfractionated schedule (R-HyperCVAD), cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone (CHOP), and dexamethasone, methotrexate, ifosfamide, asparaginase, and etoposide (SMILE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic daily usage of antihistamine without an acceptable alternative non-antihistamine medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse; all subjects with relapsed or refractory solid tumors are eligible including primary or metastatic CNS tumors; in the case of diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG), or optic pathway glioma, imaging findings consistent with these tumors will suffice without the need for biopsy for histologic verificationXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) defined as not exceeding maximum value listed below :\r\n* Age: 0 to < 4 years; 305 units/L for males and 305 units/L for females\r\n* Age: 4 to < 7 years; 230 units/L for males and 230 units/L for females\r\n* Age: 7 to < 10 years; 365 units/L for males and 365 units/L for females\r\n* Age: 10 to < 12 years; 215 units/L for males and 230 units/L for females\r\n* Age: 12 to < 14 years; 330 units/L for males and 295 units/L for females\r\n* Age: 14 to < 16 years; 335 units/L for males and 240 units/L for females\r\n* Age: 16 to < 19 years; 370 units/L for males and 230 units/L for females\r\n* Age: >= 19 years; 170 units/L for males and 145 units/L for femalesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or previous treatment with an 3-hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-coenzyme A reductase (HMG CoA) reductase inhibitor (any statin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior brain surgery is allowed, although a lesion situated in the operative bed would not be selected to receive an experimental dose of SRS treatment; SRS should be delivered 4-6 weeks post-surgery if the patient had a craniotomy for resection of a lesion; enrollment of a patient with the goal of performing SRS outside of the 4-6 post-craniotomy window is at the principal investigator (PI)’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXAll metastatic lesions must be separated by a minimum of 3 cm as measured from the peripheral edges of the lesions which are in closest proximity to one another; if multiple lesions are present and are not all >= 3 cm away from each other, the patient will be deemed ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior whole/partial brain irradiation or stereotactic radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion located in anatomic regions that are not amenable to SRS, including the brain stem, optic apparatus, or eloquent cortexXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multiple lesions, which by size criteria would be enrolled in a cohort which is full at the time of enrollment and the 12-16 week dose-limiting toxicity (DLT) period has not yet been reachedXx_NEWLINE_xXA measurable residual disease at the time of screening defined as at least MRD-positive disease:\r\n* A method of evaluation of MRD is multi-parameter flow cytometry (MFC) performed at the University of Chicago\r\n* Patients who have negative MRD by multi-parameter flow cytometry (MFC) but have residual original monoclonal protein by serum or urine immunofixation may be eligible if they are found to have MRD-positive disease by next generation sequencing (NGS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function as defined as: no evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94% if there is clinical indication for determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum cholesterol and serum triglyceride levels must be < grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnticonvulsants: patients on enzyme inducing anticonvulsants (EIAED) will be excluded; if patients were previously on EIAEDs that have been discontinued, patients must have been off EIAEDs for >= 2 weeks prior to initiation of dasatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXCategory I drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing torsades de pointes including: (patients must discontinue drug at least 7 days prior to starting dasatinib)\r\n* Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n* Amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide\r\n* Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n* Cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXOther drugs permitted but use with caution include; drugs are not recommended but can be used with caution\r\n* Antacids: use of H2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors is not recommended; patients who require antacids should use short acting, locally active agents (e.g., Maalox, Mylanta etc.); however, these agents should not be taken within either 2 hours before or 2 hours after the dasatinib dose\r\n* Drugs prolong QT interval; erythromycin, clarithromycin, pentamidine, ondansetron, granisetron, and methadoneXx_NEWLINE_xXA documentation of diagnosis of hemophagocytic lymphocytosis, either newly diagnosed or relapsed/refractory by the treating physician and the principal investigator (PI) in the patients chart; it must be noted that no diagnostic criteria have been established for diagnosis of HLH in adult patients as this was a hitherto poorly identified and considered to be a very rare disease in adults; adult HLH seems to occur more frequently post malignancy and has a more fulminant course than pediatric HLH; in the absence of standard diagnostic guidelines if the patient's symptoms are highly suspicious for HLH and after an adequate work-up to rule out alternate potential alternate etiologies is performed we will treat the patient for HLH as missing the diagnosis is associated with high mortality; these patients will be discussed with the PI (Dr. Daver) prior to enrollment in all such casesXx_NEWLINE_xXIf organ dysfunction is thought to be related to the HLH process this must be clearly documented in the chart and the patients may be enrolled on study irrespective of creatinine and bilirubin levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have no evidence of immune dysfunction as listed belowXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who receive greater than 12 mCi/kg are required to have stem cell rescue products harvested prior to study treatment; a minimum frozen autologous peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) collection of 4 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cells/kg as 2 aliquots is the suggested dose; for subjects receiving < 12 mCi/ kg, a backup of 2.0 X 10^6 viable CD34+ cells/kg purged or unpurged PBSC is strongly recommended but not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine < 2 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age\r\n1 to < 2 yrs males: 0.6 females: 0.6\r\n2 to < 6 yrs males: 0.8 females: 0.8\r\n6 to < 10 yrs males: 1 females: 1\r\n10 to < 13 yrs males: 1.2 females: 1.2\r\n13 to < 16 yrs males: 1.5 females: 1.4\r\n17 to 20 yrs males: 1.7 females: 1.4\r\nOver 21 yrs males: 2 x ULN females: 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have clinically normal lung function as manifested by no dyspnea at rest and no oxygen requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresumed pediatric gliomas (grades I-IV) on MRI that are determined to be candidates for MLA by the treating neurosurgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent pediatric brain tumors determined candidates for MLA as determined by the treating neurosurgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent lesions with dimension and contour that are determined by the treating neurosurgeon to be appropriate for MLAXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 100 K/cumm (must be within 7 days of MLA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 2 prior relapses (not counting the current relapse being treated on this study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluable myelofibrosis by IWG-MRT criteria including one or more of the following:\r\n* Spleen >= 5 cm below the left costal margin\r\n* MPN-SAF total symptom score (TSS) > 10 at baseline\r\n* Hemoglobin < 10 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXFor cohort 2: intermediate-2 or high risk MF patients as defined by DIPSS either not eligible for ruxolitinib or having failed under ruxolitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXFor cohort 1 only: patients with evidence of intermediate 2 or high risk disease (according to DIPSS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with intolerance to compounds similar to pegylated interferon alpha-2bXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of significant or major funduscopic findings including, but not limited to, retinal exudates, hemorrhage, detachment, neovascularization, papilledema, optic atrophy, micro-aneurysm or macular changesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of leukemic or infectious pulmonary parenchymal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented penicillin or cephalosporin allergiesXx_NEWLINE_xXProgression following platin, 5-FU, cetuximab and taxane given for incurable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXB-Raf proto-oncogene, serine/threonine kinase (BRAF) V600E or other known dabrafenib sensitive BRAF mutation in tumor by any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified lab; may include, for example, Sanger sequencing, SNaPshot platform, immunohistochemistry, Foundation One tests, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of proton pump inhibitors, H2-receptor antagonists, antacidsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma/Waldenström macroglobulinemia (LPL/WM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXat least 3 grade 3 CIRS-G comorbidities ORXx_NEWLINE_xXat least 1 grade 4 CIRS-G comorbidity (if compatible to participation in the study).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with HbA1c > 8.5% at ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCytomegalovirus (CMV) infection. Patients who are CMV PCR positive at baseline will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIs in an immunosuppressed state (e.g. HIV +, use of chronic steroids [> 1 month])Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no limit to the number of prior treatments for this phase I trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of any autoimmune syndrome typically associated with thymomas but not thymic carcinomas (myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician recruitment will consist of surveying the physicians involved in treating patients on this pilot study; physician participation will be voluntary; physicians will indicate their consent through completion of the survey; survey instructions will include information about the voluntary nature of participation, confidentiality of responses and the minimal risk related to involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status worse than 2 (ie unable to perform their own activities of daily living [ADLs] without assistance, unable to spend less than 50% of day out of bed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent treatment or medications (must be off for at least 1 week) including:\r\n*Interferon (e.g. Intron-A)\r\n*Allergy desensitization injections\r\n*Growth factors (e.g. Procrit, Aranesp, Neulasta)\r\n*Interleukins (e.g. Proleukin)\r\n*Any investigational therapeutic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of hematologic malignancy meeting at least one of the disease status criteria outlined below; diagnoses from outside laboratories must be confirmed by review in the NCI laboratory of pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXBurkitt or lymphoblastic lymphomas\r\n* High-risk disease in remission\r\n* Progression after >= 1 previous regimen\r\n* Non-CR after salvage regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) and myelodysplastic/myeloproliferative overlap neoplasms\r\n* Myelofibrosis with adverse-risk features\r\n* Polycythemia vera\r\n* Essential thrombocythemia\r\n* Chronic myelomonocytic leukemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with AML in CR1 must have one of the following:\r\n* Adverse cytogenetics (as evaluated by history) as defined as complex karyotype (> 3 abnormalities); inv(3) or t(3;3); t(6;9); t(6;11); monosomy 7; trisomy 8, alone or with an abnormality other than t(8;21), t(9;11), inv(16) or t(16;16); or t(11;19)(q23;p13.1)\r\n* Cytogenetically normal AML (CN-AML) with mutations in FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3), deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) methyl transferase 3A (DMNT3A), or additional sex coombs like 1 (ASXL1)\r\n* Primary induction failure, defined as failure to achieve CR with primary induction chemotherapy\r\n* Secondary AML, defined as AML related to antecedent myeloid neoplasm or cytotoxic chemotherapy\r\n* Hyperleukocytosis, white blood cell (WBC) > 100,000, at diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) in CR1 must have one of the following:\r\n* Adverse cytogenetics defined as translocations involving t(4;11), t(1;19), t(8;14), 11q23, t(9;22) or bcr-abl rearrangement or complex cytogenetic abnormalities\r\n* Presence of minimal residual disease using multicolor flow cytometry or other analytic technique after primary induction chemotherapy\r\n* Primary induction failure, defined as failure to achieve CR with primary induction chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with myelofibrosis must have at least 2 of the following features, or be Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS) intermediate-2 or high risk:\r\n* Hemoglobin < 10 g/dl, or > 10 g/dl with transfusion dependence\r\n* WBC < 4,000 or > 30,000/mm^3 or requires cytoreductive therapy to maintain WBC < 30,000/mm^3\r\n* Abnormal cytogeneticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may have a hepatitis C infection; however, each patient will require a hepatology consultation; the risk/benefit profile of transplant and hepatitis C will be discussed with the patient and eligibility determined by the PI or the LAIXx_NEWLINE_xXHas an ECOG PS of 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after capsule(s) administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas read, understood, and signed the ICFXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of an arterial thromboembolic event within the prior six months including CVA, TIA, MI, or unstable anginaXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface Area (For Dose Level -1): Patients must be ? 0.38 m² at the time of study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have had prior exposure to gene vector delivery products within 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSGPT (ALT) ? 110 U/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medications:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient deemed eligible for rectal spacer (Space OAR) placement by treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS) or aromatase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of activating EGFR mutations or ALK re-arrangement unless previously treated with standard TKI therapy; all patients with adenocarcinoma histology must be tested for EGFR and ALK statusXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance of protocol agents as follows:\r\n* Known or presumed intolerance of gemcitabine, vorinostat or sorafenib\r\n* Experienced any of the following toxicities with prior gemcitabine administration (if given): capillary leak syndrome, posterior reversible encephalopathy, hemolytic uremic syndrome, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, unexplained dyspnea or other evidence of severe pulmonary toxicity, or severe hepatic toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected malabsorption or obstruction; note: use of pancreatic enzyme supplements is allowed to control malabsorptionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of other histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent heart rate (HR) < 50 or > 120 beats per minute (bpm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have no active major medical or psychosocial problems that could be complicated by study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a strong likelihood of non-adherence such as difficulties in adhering to follow-up schedule due to geographic distance from the Siteman Cancer Center should not knowingly be registeredXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals in whom a skinfold measurement of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue for eligible injection sites (left and right medial deltoid region) exceeds 40 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXTherapeutic or traumatic metal implant in the skin or muscle of either deltoid regionXx_NEWLINE_xXSyncopal episode within 12 months of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any electronic stimulation device, such as cardiac demand pacemakers, automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator, nerve stimulators, or deep brain stimulatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived systemic therapy with radionuclides (e.g., strontium-89, samarium-153, rhenium-186, or rhenium-188, or radium Ra 223 dichloride) for the treatment of bony metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphadenopathy exceeding 6 cm in short-axis diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXAny size pelvic lymphadenopathy if it is thought to be a contributor to concurrent hydronephrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXFecal incontinenceXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical T-classification T1-3Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score 6-10Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of distant metastasis based on a history/physical examination (to include at least digital rectal examination of the prostate and assessment of the abdomen and skeletal system)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Urological Association Symptom Index (AUA SI) =< 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical T4 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAUA SI > 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of rectal fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drug(s) involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis must be made by biopsy or excisionXx_NEWLINE_xXTolerate one test dose (15 g) of ascorbateXx_NEWLINE_xXG6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring daily finger-stick blood glucose measurements unless approved by the IND medical monitor, IND sponsor, and the study PIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on warfarin and cannot have a drug substitution or who decline the drug substitutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamide; high dose ascorbic acid may affect urine acidification and, as a result, may affect clearance rates of these drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXStable, continuous antiretroviral treatment, defined as a multi-drug regimen (excluding zidovudine, also known as azidothymidine [AZT], Retrovir) prior to enrollment, as demonstrated by HIV plasma viral load < 50 copies/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be on a prophylactic regimen for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, or agree to begin such treatment, if CD4+ cell counts are observed to be =< 200/ul in peripheral bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of HIV-associated encephalopathy; dementia of any kind; seizures in the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of zidovudine as part of the HAART regimen (a drug substitution for zidovudine at the time of study entry is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurofibromatosis are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest and pulse oximetry > 94%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of pegylated interferon or interferonXx_NEWLINE_xXDental braces or prosthesis that interferes with MR imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with diagnosis of diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate hematologic function, as defined by neutrophils ? 1.0 x 10^9/L and platelets ? 50 x 10^9/L; patients with neutrophils < 1.0 x 10^9/L due to marrow infiltration are allowed to receive growth factors to bring pre-treatment neutrophils to ? 1.0 x 10^9/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXINR and APTT ? 1.5 x ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be enrolled at collection of at least 3.0 x 10^6 CD34 cells/kg of autologous hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPC-A) by apheresis; a minimum of 2 collection procedures is required, unless collection on day # 1 > 5.0 x 10^6, CD34 cells/kg; a maximum of 10 collections is allowed; bone marrow harvest to supplement apheresis is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 35% will be considered on a case-by-case basis by the Radiation Oncology principal investigator (P.I.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of antibody against basiliximab in serum (only required for patients who have received prior antibody)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psychosocial circumstances or illnesses that preclude protocol participation (to be determined by P.I.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of marrow disease by flow and morphology after upfront or salvage cytoreductive therapy and before stem cell mobilizationXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR ADDITIONAL PTCy-MILs INFUSION AT RELAPSE: Confirmation of active relapse involving the bone marrow of a hematologic malignancy >= 6 months after alloHCT employing PTCy as GVHD prophylaxis and more than 90 days after PTCy-MILs infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR ADDITIONAL PTCy-MILs INFUSION AT RELAPSE: Expectation of ability to safely undergo salvage treatment appropriate for the patient’s malignant disease typeXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR ADDITIONAL PTCy-MILs INFUSION AT RELAPSE: More than 2 years have elapsed since the patient’s initial PTCy-MILs infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR ADDITIONAL PTCy-MILs INFUSION AT RELAPSE: Most recent alloHCT performed did not utilize PTCy GVHD prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR ADDITIONAL PTCy-MILs INFUSION AT RELAPSE: The use of immunosuppression for grade II-IV acute GVHD within 28 days prior to the infusion of PTCy-MILsXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR ADDITIONAL PTCy-MILs INFUSION AT RELAPSE: The patient’s life expectancy is =< 90 days even with aggressive treatment and/or supportive care, as determined by the treating hematologist/oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with jaundice or clinical cholangitis, with new elevation of alkaline phosphatase, total bilirubin, and imaging findings supportive of stent occlusion (loss of stent patency, debris within stent, loss of or excessive pneumobilia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave altered gastro-duodenal or hepatobiliary anatomy such that endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) is felt to be unacceptably technically difficult or unsafeXx_NEWLINE_xXHave additional sites of biliary strictures (intrahepatic/hilar) such that ERCP stenting is felt to be unlikely to provide adequate clinical benefitXx_NEWLINE_xXAre unsuitable for endoscopy (either because of hemodynamic instability, respiratory distress or unsafe hematological parameters such as refractory anemia < 7 g/dL, thrombocytopenia < 50 K/mcL, or coagulopathy with international normalized ratio [INR] > 2.0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave biliary strictures not technically amenable to endoscopic therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have impending organ compromise from disease as assessed by their treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of melanoma belonging to the following American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) TNM stages:\r\n* Tx or T1-4 and\r\n* N1b, or N2b, or N2c, or N3 and \r\n* M0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diabetes on a different agent or patients with rheumatoid arthritis taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on antipsychotic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic GVHD diagnosed within 3 years after hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) for any disease, with any graft, and any conditioning regimen with at least one manifestation secondary to fibrosis, including: sclerodermatous skin changes, dry mouth, dry eye, esophageal strictures, or vaginal GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia or hypokalemia defined as less than the lower limit of normal for the institution, despite adequate electrolyte supplementation are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be ineligible for, refused or having failed at least one previous salvage regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with persistent grade 3 or higher prior vincristine (VCR) (vincristine sulfate)-related neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXChemotherapy, immunotherapy, radiotherapy, radiosurgery, interferon (e.g. Intron-A), allergy desensitization injections, growth factors (e.g. Procrit, Aranesp, Neulasta), interleukins (e.g. Proleukin) or any investigational therapeutic medication within 4 weeks of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum bilirubin =< 2.0 mg/dl; some patients with minor deviations may be accepted on protocol after discussion with the PIXx_NEWLINE_xXEUS evidence of vessel interfering with path of fiducial markerXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment (one of the following scenarios):\r\n* Primary refractory: for newly diagnosed AML, patients must have achieved two consecutive induction attempts without achieving complete remission\r\n* Relapsed/refractory: for patients initially in complete remission whose AML relapses > 6 months after preceding remission, one re-induction must be attempted to be eligible\r\n* Relapsed/untreated: for AML patients with early relapse, in whom the preceding remission is shorter than 6 months duration, no re-induction regimen is necessary to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated or uncontrolled neuropsychiatric illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have untreated or relapsed SCCS that is considered to be aggressive and locally advanced by the following criteria: tumors 2 cm or more, tumors invading deep tissues such as muscle, cartilage or bone; tumors showing perineural invasion, and/or tumors metastatic to loco-regional lymph nodes; patients may have had prior surgical interventions or been treated with investigational agents with residual or recurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with distant organ metastases will not be included in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with EGFR wild-type NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following laboratory abnormalities:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling, including pharmacokinteic (PK) and pharmacodynamic (PD) sampling and blood transfusion support.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical laboratory values as specified in the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse or consumption of any of the following substances:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor dose expansion cohort: patients with stage IIIB or IV ALK + NSCLC who have failed at least one line of therapy and are progressing on an ALK inhibitor; for dose expansion, patients who have ROS1 rearrangement testing by either next generation sequencing (NGS) or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas one of the following diagnoses: Subjects must have refractory or relapsed AML or ALL, CML in blast phase, or high risk MDS (defined by Revised International Prognostic Scoring System [IPSS-R] score as High or Very High for inclusion in Part 1 of the study. Subjects must have refractory or relapsed AML or high-risk MDS (defined by IPSS-R score as High or Very High for inclusion in Part 2 of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs willing to undergo malignancy genotyping for TP53 gene mutation, insertion, or deletion at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a malignancy that contains a non synonymous mutation, insertion, or deletion in the TP53 gene determined previously or at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn the absence of a being treated on a clinical trial, the patient would be recommended to receive neoadjuvant chemoradiation followed by curative intent surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious pelvic RTXx_NEWLINE_xXAny conditions that would preclude a patient from completing all study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXEither resectable or borderline resectable as determined on staging imaging (as defined by National Comprehensive Cancer Network [NCCN])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any serious/poorly controlled medical or psychological conditions that would be exacerbated by treatment, would complicate protocol complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological documentation of mCRCXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (K-Ras) mutational statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with porphyria are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented macular degeneration or untreated diabetic retinopathy (stable retinopathy is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with oligometastatic NSCLC (defined as =< 4 metastatic sites of disease), all treated with definitive intent using radiation, surgery, radiofrequency ablation (RFA), chemoradiation therapy, other definitive modalities or combinations of theseXx_NEWLINE_xXMassive (i.e. > 6 cm below the left costal margin) or progressive/symptomatic splenomegaly ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of disease-related constitutional symptoms:\r\n* Weight loss >= 10% over the preceding 6 months\r\n* Significant fatigue (i.e., Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group [ECOG] performance status [PS] 2 or worse; inability to work or perform usual activities)\r\n* Fevers higher than 100.5°F or 38.0°C for 2 or more weeks without other evidence of infection\r\n* Night sweats for more than 1 month without evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive lymphocytes with an increase of >= 50% over a 2-month period or an anticipated doubling time of less than 6 months ORXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of, anemia and/or thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXMales and females 65 years of age and older; subjects < 65 years of age that meet any of the following criteria: \r\n* Subjects that refuse to be treated with chemotherapy based agents (this should be documented in the consent form)\r\n* Subjects that are not candidates for treatment with chemotherapy agents based on any of the following:\r\n** ECOG performance status >= 2\r\n** Cumulative illness rating scale (CIRS score) >= 6\r\n** Creatinine clearance < 70 mL/min using the Cockcroft-Gault equationXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere or debilitating pulmonary disease (dyspnea at rest, significant shortness of breath, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD])Xx_NEWLINE_xXBefore administering liposomal doxorubicin, patients must wait 4-6 weeks after surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrinsic lung disease resulting in moderate to severe dyspneaXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be within 6 months of initiating TKI treatment, which specifically targets the actionable mutation their tumor harbors (i.e., first-line TKI, or a next-line TKI that targets tumors with acquired resistance to first-line TKI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are pacemaker or defibrillator-dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXExpression of CD-22 in >= 20% blastsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously exposed to bosutinib are eligible unless they carry T315IXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T315I mutations will be excluded (this criteria is not applicable for the frontline Ph+ ALL or CML-LBC cohort)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal serum creatinine based on age/gender as defined by Seattle Children's Hospital (SCH) chemistry labXx_NEWLINE_xXNot requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation; oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room air; no dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is able to tolerate apheresis procedure including placement of temporary apheresis catheter if necessary or has prior apheresis product of 50 x 10^6 mononuclear (MNC) cells available for useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must NOT have an active severe infection defined as:\r\n* A positive blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment\r\n* A fever above 38.2 Celsius (C) AND clinical signs of infection within 48 hours of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant or parent/legal guardian must agree to participate in long-term follow-up for up to 15 years, if they are enrolled in the study and receive T-cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY CRITERIA AT THE TIME OF APHERESIS: Patients must NOT have an active severe infection defined as:\r\n* A positive blood culture within 48 hours of blood draw OR\r\n* A fever above 38.2 C AND clinical signs of infection within 48 hours of blood drawXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR T-CELL PRODUCT INFUSION: Patient has not received immunotherapy (for example- murine, chimeric or humanized monoclonal antibodies), T cell growth factors (such as IL-2, IL-7 or IL-15), interferons, vaccines, and other cellular products), pentoxifylline within the 7 days prior to the infusion of the T cell productXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Subject has tolerated prior dose of modified T cell infusion without experiencing a dose limiting toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Subject has modified T cell product available for releaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Subject has < 5% detectable modified T cells in peripheral blood (can be done any time prior)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Subject has evidence of persistent NBXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Normal serum creatinine based on age/genderXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Normal serum sodium level without need for supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Patient requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilationXx_NEWLINE_xXRETREATMENT WITH MODIFIED T CELLS: Patient has an active severe infection defined as:\r\n* A positive blood culture within 48 hours of scheduled T cell infusion\r\n* A fever above 38.2 C AND clinical signs of infection within 48 hours of T cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no ethnic restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 100kXx_NEWLINE_xXWe will carefully consider the inclusion of patients with severe artifacts in 4D CT images, which deteriorate the accuracy of ventilation computationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have metastatic cancer must have at least one lesion that is outside the radiation field that measures greater than one cm that can be followed by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1; this lesion, if it is close to the radiated lesion, must receive no more than 10% of the dose prescribed to the target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to tolerate hypofractionated radiation therapy (e.g. lie flat and hold position)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior malignancies are allowed, provided they have been treated with curative intent and have no evidence of active diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with gemcitabine or AbraxaneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a recurrent supratentorial WHO grade III or IV malignant glioma based on imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior histopathology consistent with a supratentorial WHO grade III or IV malignant gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with worsening steroid myopathy (history of gradual progression of bilateral proximal muscle weakness, and atrophy of proximal muscle groups)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of pheochromocytoma (PH)/paraganglioma (PG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of advanced (metastatic or unresectable) NSCLC with mutations, rearrangement and fusion involving RET oncogene, or abnormalities (non-synonymous single nucleotide variant [SNV] or amplification) in the nintedanib target genes VEGFR1-3, TP53, PDGFR-A, PDGFR-B, or FGFR1-3; Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified lab testing for nintedanib target genes using cell free DNA from peripheral blood and/or assays performed on tumor tissues are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of cavitary or necrotic tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant weight loss (> 10% of body weight [BW]) within past 6 months prior to inclusion into the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Patients with a diagnosis of intermediate or high risk CLL (or variant immunophenotype),\n        SLL, or B-PLL by IWCLL 2008 criteria (48) who have:\n\n          -  Previously received at least one therapy for their disease.\n\n          -  Previously untreated disease and 65 years old OR under 65 years old and or refuse or\n             are ineligible for chemoimmunotherapy\n\n        All patients must satisfy one of the following criteria for active disease requiring\n        therapy:\n\n          -  Evidence of marrow failure as manifested by the development or worsening of anemia or\n             thrombocytopenia\n\n          -  Massive (? 6 cm below the costal margin), progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly\n\n          -  Massive nodes (? 10 cm) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy\n\n          -  Constitutional symptoms, which include any of the following:\n\n               -  Unintentional weight loss of 10% or more within 6 months\n\n               -  Significant fatigue limiting activity\n\n               -  Fevers ?100.5 degrees F for 2 weeks or more without evidence of infection\n\n               -  Night sweats >1 month without evidence of infection\n\n          -  Patients with a history of Richter's transformation are eligible if they now have\n             evidence of CLL only, with <10% large cells in the bone marrow.\n\n          -  ECOG performance status ? 2\n\n          -  Life expectancy of < 2 years or that would confound assessment of toxicity in this\n             study\n\n          -  Must be ? 18 years of age\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Any life-threatening illness, medical condition, or organ dysfunction which, in the\n             investigator's opinion, could compromise the subjects' safety, interfere with the\n             absorption or metabolism of acalabrutinib, or put the study outcomes at undue risk.\n\n          -  Subjects with active cardiovascular disease not medically controlled or those who have\n             had myocardial infarction in the past 6 months, or corrected QT interval (QTc) ?480\n             ms.\n\n          -  Malabsorption syndrome, disease significantly affecting GI function, or resection of\n             the stomach or small bowel or gastric bypass, ulcerative colitis, symptomatic\n             inflammatory bowel disease, or partial or complete bowel obstruction.\n\n          -  Grade ?2 toxicity (other than alopecia) continuing from prior anticancer therapy\n             including radiation.\n\n          -  History of a bleeding diathesis (eg, hemophilia, Von Willebrand disease).\n\n          -  Uncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) or idiopathic thrombocytopenia\n             purpura.\n\n          -  History of stroke or intracranial hemorrhage within 6 months before the first dose of\n             study drug.\n\n          -  Requires or receiving anticoagulation with warfarin or equivalent vitamin K\n             antagonists (eg, phenprocoumon) within 28 days of first dose of study drug.\n\n          -  Requires treatment with proton-pump inhibitors (eg, omeprazole, esomeprazole,\n             lansoprazole, dexlansoprazole, rabeprazole, or pantoprazole).\n\n          -  Subjects with history of or ongoing drug-induced pneumonitis.\n\n          -  Subjects with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or active infection with hepatitis C\n             virus (HCV) or hepatitis B virus (HBV) or any uncontrolled active systemic infection.\n\n          -  Subjects who are known to have hepatitis B infection or who are hepatitis B core\n             antibody or surface antigen positive.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRisk-group classification into the D’Amico or National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) ‘high-risk’ group, as defined by the presence of any one of the following high-risk factors:\r\n* Pre-biopsy prostate-specific antigen (PSA) >= 20\r\n* Biopsy Gleason score 8-10\r\n* Clinical stage T3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cryosurgery, high intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU) or brachytherapy of the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease free of other malignancies beside the ALL at the time of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBreakpoint cluster region-Abelson positive (BCR-ABL +) patients will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhosphorus before the first dose of ceritinibXx_NEWLINE_xXConsultation with interventional radiologist and deemed an appropriate candidate for TAREXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior 90Y TARE or sorafenib is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to perform y90 TARE due to: (1) inability to catheterize the hepatic artery, (2) portal vein thrombosis/occlusion without the ability to perform selective infusion, (3) technetium Tc 99m-labeled macroaggregated albumin (Tc-99m MAA) hepatic artery perfusion scintigraphy shows unfavorable shunt fraction between the liver and the pulmonary parenchyma as determined by the interventional radiologist, or (4) other contraindication to TARE identified by interventional radiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXAny allergic reaction to a previously administered monoclonal antibody or other therapeutic proteinXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with active herpes simplex or herpes zoster; subjects with a history of herpes zoster who have had an outbreak within the last year will also be excluded; subjects on prophylaxis for herpes who started taking medication at least 30 days prior to study entry, should continue to take the prescribed medication for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on any immunomodulatory drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have radiographic evidence of malignancy in the spine or cauda equina region (L2 to sacrum) which is suitable for radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have demonstrated progression of disease on MRI or computed tomography (CT) assessment of the spinal cord/cauda within the previous radiation field\r\n* Progression may consist of an increase in maximal dimension of the tumor by >= 20%, compromise of the spinal cord/cauda equina and/or exiting spinal nerves (assessed clinically or radiographically), or bothXx_NEWLINE_xXTarget lesion size for re-irradiation must be =< 2 vertebral bodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a life expectancy of < 6 months as predicted by the Adult Comorbidity Index (ACE-27)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with circumferential epidural diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who may not receive therapeutically effective doses via an external beam approach to the lesion of interest as specified by the Dose Limit Guidelines \r\n* Evaluation of doses previously delivered to spinal cord/cauda equina and other critical structures (bowel, esophagus, kidneys, rectum) will be taken into consideration\r\n* If repeat irradiation would exceed any normal tissue constraint the patient will be ineligible \r\n* If the total prior radiation dose to the spinal cord/cauda equina and/or sacrum over all prior treatments exceeds 100 Gy BED (biologically effective dose), the patient will be ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with paraspinal extension of disease with visceral involvement, exclusive of patients with cauda equina and sacral disease extensionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have received at least one vaccine under protocol University of Pennsylvania Cancer Center (UPCC)-19809 or UPCC-29810Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving medications that might affect immune function; additionally, H2 blockers are excluded, as are all antihistamines five days before and five days after each injection of study drug; NOTE: the following are exceptions: proton pump Inhibitors (PPIs), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) including cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 inhibitors, acetaminophen or enteric coated aspirinXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are positive for serum anti-Yo (cerebellar degeneration-related protein 2 [cdr2]) antibodies are not eligible; (Yo antibody does not need to be repeated if performed in the past)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived transplant care locally and will remain in the Houston area for at least 6 weeks post Viralym-A infusion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable Viralym-A T cell line.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for FiO2 > 0.5 to maintain arterial oxygen saturation > 90%Xx_NEWLINE_xXEndotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation at any FiO2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHemodynamic instability requiring continuous infusions of inotropes or vasopressorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active acute graft versus host disease (GVHD) grades II-IV.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of primary non-small cell carcinoma of the lung. according to WHO Classification of Tumours (WHO Classification of Tumours of the Lung, Pleura, Thymus and Heart. WHO/IARC Classification of Tumours, 4th Edition, Volume 7). Patients with large-cell neuroendocrine carcinomas are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient able and willing to complete the QoL, economics and other questionnaires. The baseline assessment must already have been completed within required timelines prior to randomization. Inability (illiteracy, loss of sight, or other equivalent reason) to complete the questionnaires will not make the patient ineligible for the study. However, ability but unwillingness to complete the questionnaires will make the patient ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of other malignancies, except:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute hematological malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within one year of study or history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are incarcerated are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on medications known to be associated with torsades de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with macular edema, retinal vein occlusion or retinal hemorrhage are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an address and telephone number where he/she may be reachedXx_NEWLINE_xXBe the only participant in his/her householdXx_NEWLINE_xXWithin the month immediately preceding the screening visit, use of any form of tobacco products other than cigarettes on 3 or more days within a week if the individual refuses to refrain from such tobacco use during the course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent enrollment or plans to enroll in another smoking cessation program in the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to use other nicotine substitutes (i.e., over-the-counter [OTC] or prescription medication for smoking cessation) or smoking cessation treatments in the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious or unstable disease within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory (last 3 months) of abnormal heart rhythms, cardiovascular disease (stroke, angina, heart attack) may result in ineligibility; these conditions will be evaluated on a case by case basis by the study physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals rated as moderate (9-16) to high (17 or greater) on suicidality as assessed by Module B of the MINIXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric hospitalization within 1 year of screening dateXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive toxicology screen for any of the following drugs: cocaine, opiates, methadone, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines, methamphetamines, phencyclidine (PCP), or tetrahydrocannabinol (THC); a. participants with valid prescriptions for opiates, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines or methadone will not be excluded; b. participants failing the toxicology screen will be allowed to re-screen once; if they test positive again, they will not be allowed to returnXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: patients with recurrent/refractory medulloblastoma (MB), atypical teratoid (AT)/rhabdoid tumors (RT) or ependymoma involving the brain and/or spine at original diagnosis or relapse; they must have histological verification at diagnosis and/or relapse; patient must have presented with these tumors in the posterior fossa (PF) or relapsed in the PFXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of or determined by neurosurgery to be a candidate for an implanted catheter in the ventricles to receive NK cell infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic deficits must have been relatively stable for a minimum of 1 week prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXExtra-cranial metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered unresectable or medically-inoperableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contralateral hilar involvement (greater than 1.5 cm on short axis or positive on PET scan, or biopsy-proven)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of nodules considered neoplastic in contralateral lobes (M1a)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of pneumonectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of active connective tissue disease (scleroderma) or idiopathic pulmonary fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be competent to report adverse events (AEs), understand the drug dosing schedule and use of medications to control AEsXx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance status =< 3, unless directly related to disease process as determined by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to take everolimus orally and maintain a pill diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2: Shortening fraction > 26%Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Umbilical cord blood units will be selected according to the following umbilical cord blood graft selection criteria; one or 2 cord blood (CB) units may be used to achieve the required cell doseXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Selection of two CB units is allowed to provide sufficient cell dose (see below for algorithm to determine single versus double unit transplant); when multiple units are selected, the following rules apply:\r\n* The CB unit with the least HLA disparity (with the patient) will be selected first (i.e., selection priority is 6/6 match > 5/6 match > 4/6 match); additional CB units then may be selected to achieve the required cell dose, as outlined below; if a second unit is required, this unit will be the unit that most closely HLA matches the patient and meets minimum size criteria outlined below of at least 1.5 x 10^7 total nucleated cells (TNC)/kg (i.e. a smaller, more closely matched unit will be selected over a larger, less well matched unit as long as minimum criteria are met)\r\n* If two CB units are used:\r\n** The total cell dose of the combined units must be at least 3.0 x 10^7 TNC per kilogram recipient weight\r\n** Each CB unit MUST contain at least 1.5 x 10^7 TNC per kilogram recipient weight\r\n* Algorithm for determining single versus double unit cord blood transplant:\r\n** Match grade 6/6: TNC dose >= 2.5 x 10^7/kg\r\n** Match grade 5/6, 4/6: TNC dose >= 4.0 (+/- 0.5) x 10^7/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: General comments:\r\n* Units will be selected first based on the TNC dose and HLA matching\r\n* Cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cell dose will not be used for unit selection unless 2 units of equal HLA-match grade and similar TNC dose (+/- 0.5 x 10^7 TNC/kg) are available; in this case, the unit with the larger CD34+ cell dose (if data available) should be selected\r\n* A CB unit that is 5/6 mismatched but homozygous at the locus of mismatch should be chosen over a 5/6 unit with bidirectional mismatch even if the latter unit is larger (has more cells); this also applies to 4/6 units; this is only applicable to choosing units within a given match grade\r\n* Other factors to be considered: \r\n** Within the same HLA match grade, matching at DR takes preference\r\n** Cord blood banks located in the United States are preferred\r\n* Up to 5% of the cord blood product(s), when ready for infusion, may be withheld for research purposes as long as thresholds for infused TNC dose are met; these products will be used to conduct studies involving the kinetics of engraftment and immunobiology of double cord transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2: Active or recent (prior 6 month) invasive fungal infection without infectious disease (ID) consult and approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren unable to perform pulmonary function tests (e.g., less than 7 years old) pulse oximetry of >= 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXHematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT) co-morbidity index score > 3; the principal investigator is the final arbiter of eligibility for comorbidity score > 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of seizures with in the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Male donors will be preferred to avoid reactivity against H-Y minor histocompatibility antigens and associated risk of risk of acute GvHD, especially grafts from multiparous womenXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Non-inherited maternal antigen (NIMA), inhibition of platelet aggregation (IPA), and natural killer cell (NK) reactivity will not be included in selection criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be scheduled for laparoscopic robot assisted partial nephrectomy of renal massXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have an expected survival status of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXIf a previous biopsy of mass has been done, pathology must be consistent with renal cell carcinoma (RCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMasses located close to the hilar vessels or at locations that cannot be accessed with the HIFU probeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with only 1 kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple or bilateral renal massesXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to hold anticoagulation for surgery due to high risk of a cerebral vascular event, myocardial event, or like riskXx_NEWLINE_xXAbdominal obesity that would, in the assessment of the principal investigator (PI), make the HIFU ablation difficultXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with tumors lying < 1 cm from sensitive structuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high-risk neuroblastoma as defined by the Children's Oncology Group (COG) Risk Stratification Schema\r\n* Patients with International Agreement on Staging (INSS) stage 4 are eligible with the following:\r\n** MYCN amplification, regardless of age or additional biologic features OR\r\n** Age > 18 months, regardless of biologic features OR\r\n** Age 12-18 months, with any of the 3 following unfavorable biologic OR features: MYCN amplification, unfavorable pathology, and/or deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) index = 1\r\n* Patients with INSS stage 3 are eligible with the following:\r\n** MYCN amplification, regardless of age or additional biologic features OR\r\n** Age > 18 months with unfavorable pathology, regardless of MYCN status\r\n* Patients with INSS stage 2a or 2b are eligible with the following:\r\n** MYCN amplification, regardless of age or additional biologic features\r\n* Patients with INSS stage 4s are eligible with the following:\r\n** MYCN amplification, regardless of additional biologic featuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have at least one metastatic or primary lesion within the lung or liver located in an anatomical location amenable to SBRT treatment with 50 Gy in 4 fractions, or if not, with either a lung, liver, or adrenal lesion treatable to 60 Gy in 10 fractionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously progressed on immunotherapy such as ipilimumab will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLung disease resulting in dyspnea at rest.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that would prohibit intermittent administration of corticosteroids for T-DM1 premedication.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXBRAF mutation-positive melanoma (V600E or V600K) based on report from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myelodysplastic syndromes refractory (primary or acquired resistance) to hypomethylating agents; at least 4 1-month cycles of prior decitabine or SGI-110 (guadecitabine) OR 6 1-month cycles of 5-azacytidine (intravenous [IV], subcutaneous, or oral) is required unless the patient has progressive disease prior to completing the required number of cyclesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with macular degeneration with markedly decreased visual acuity, patients with markedly decreased visual acuity (no specific etiology) or uncontrolled glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are significantly below their ideal body weight (body mass index [BMI] < 17)Xx_NEWLINE_xXArms 1E, 2E and 3E: solid tumor that demonstrate anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) positivity; ALK positivity can be assessed using the assays below, and documentation of ALK positivity using one of the tests below is required\r\n* Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) test for ALK positivity using the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved FISH test (Abbott Molecular Inc), using Vysis breakapart probes (defined as 15% or more positive tumor cells); OR\r\n* Harboring a confirmed ALK positivity, as determined by positivity to the Ventana immunohistochemistry (IHC) assayXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects have received two or more standard available therapies known to prolong survival and for which they would be considered eligible; at a minimum, such therapies should include regimens containing oxaliplatin and irinotecan in combination with a fluoropyrimidine (e.g., leucovorin calcium-fluorouracil-oxaliplatin [FOLFOX] and leucovorin calcium-fluorouracil-irinotecan hydrochloride [FOLFIRI] or their variants)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior failed (< 5 x 10^6 CD34/kg) peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke an average of 5 or more cigarettes or little cigars per day (CPD) prior to telephone screenXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a working telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking psychotropic, anticonvulsive, or narcotic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of neurological illness or closed head injuryXx_NEWLINE_xXReport uncorrected vision problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved in current smoking cessation activityXx_NEWLINE_xXTesting positive on a urine drug screen for drugs of abuse/potential abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXConsidered by the investigator to be an unsuitable or unstable candidate (e.g., due to cognitive impairment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to alter or remove hairstyle, hair extensions, or wig during the clinic visits to allow for correct electroencephalography (EEG) sensor placementXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) patchesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a diagnosis of primary aHUS, persistent HSCT-associated TMA or TTPXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinically apparent alternative explanation for thrombocytopenia and anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave STEC-HUSXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2, CIN3, or CIN2/3); a copy of the pathology report is required at the time of enrollment; only patients that had their biopsy performed at the University of Alabama at Birmingham (UAB) Colposcopy clinic will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXFocal lesion visualized in its entirety colposcopically and involving =< 2 quadrants of the cervixXx_NEWLINE_xXSatisfactory (adequate) colposcopyXx_NEWLINE_xXLives within 100 miles of the University of Alabama at BirminghamXx_NEWLINE_xXGlandular abnormalities on cytology or histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXCervical lesion incompletely visualized (e.g., extending into the endocervical canal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEndocervical curettage positive for high-grade cervical intraepithelial neoplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnreliable for follow-up (drug use, planning to move out of region ,etc.); any patient that lives more than 100 miles away will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMental condition rendering the subject unable to understand the nature, scope, and possible consequences of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a histologic diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus located distal to the carinaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary tumors exceeding 8 cm in length or 5 cm in widthXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary tumors located at or above the carinaXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to baseline metastatic and progressive disease biopsy (of metastatic/progressing lesion) for enabling biomarker assessment and treatment assignment (at each time point – baseline, PD1, PD2, PD3) as well as for correlative studies\r\n* Consent to baseline and serial blood draws for plasma/serum/whole blood banking for correlative studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis only requiring hormone replacement, type I diabetes, or conditions not expected to recur in the absence of an external trigger are allowed to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be scheduled to receive another experimental drug while on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not require total parenteral nutrition with lipidsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients who cannot be compliant with the appointments required in this protocol must not be enrolled in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any type of autologous or allogeneic HSCT with CMV infection will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) if on prednisone equal to or less than 0.5 mg/kg and not receiving second-line GVHD treatments like pentostatin, infliximab, etanercept, etcXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active acute GVHD grades II-IVXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV seropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2: Eligibility at time of generating and infusing CMV-specific cytotoxic T cells (adoptive immunotherapy): CMV reactivation defined as CMV DNA present in the blood (DNAemia) >= 137 copies/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV seronegativeXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2: Eligibility at time of generating and infusing CMV-specific cytotoxic T cells (adoptive immunotherapy): documented CMV end-organ diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) grades II-IVXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY TO PROCEED WITH PERIPHERAL BLOOD MONONUCLEAR CELL (PBMC) COLLECTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant must have appropriate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant has a released cryopreserved T cell productXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant does not require supplemental oxygen to keep saturation greater than 95% and/or does not have presence of any radiographic abnormalities on chest x-ray that are progressiveXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant does not have a fever exceeding 38.5° Celsius (C); there is an absence of positive blood cultures for bacteria, fungus, or virus within 48-hours prior to T cell infusion and/or there aren’t any indications of meningitisXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant requires supplemental oxygen to keep saturation greater than 95% and the situation is not expected to resolve within 2 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant requires dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of research participant to understand the basic elements of the protocol and/or the risks/benefits of participating in this phase I study; a legal guardian may substitute for the research participantXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease or borderline resectable disease assessed by a multidisciplinary panel of pancreas surgeon, medical and radiation oncologist, and a radiologist; criteria defining unresectable and borderline resectable patients will be based on the National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Guidelines (version [v] 1.2014)\r\n* Unresectable\r\n** Greater than 180 degrees of superior mesenteric artery (SMA) encasement\r\n** Any celiac abutment\r\n** Unreconstructible superior mesenteric vein (SMV)/portal occlusion\r\n** Aortic invasion or encasement\r\n** Nodal metastases beyond the field of resection\r\n* Borderline resectable\r\n** Venous involvement of the SMV/portal vein demonstrating tumor abutment with impingement and narrowing of the lumen\r\n** Encasement of the SMV/portal vein but without encasement of the nearby arteries\r\n** Short-segment venous occlusion resulting from either tumor thrombus or encasement with suitable proximal and distal vessel for reconstruction/grafting.\r\n** Gastroduodenal artery encasement up to the hepatic artery with either short segment encasement or direct abutment of the hepatic artery, without extension to celiac axis\r\n** Tumor abutment to SMA but not to exceed greater than 180 degrees of circumferential vessel wallXx_NEWLINE_xXRelief of biliary obstruction if present (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography [PTC] tube or endobiliary stent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to perform the breath hold scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of T4b disease, precluding organ preservationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving the following drugs that are contraindicated with NFV will be excluded:\r\n* Antiarrhythmics: amiodarone, quinidine\r\n* Antimycobacterial: rifampin\r\n* Ergot derivatives: dihydroergotamine, ergonovine, ergotamine, methylergonovine\r\n* Herbal products: St. John’s wort (hypericum perforatum)\r\n* 3-hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase potential 10 inhibitors: lovastatin, simvastatin\r\n* Neuroleptic: pimozide\r\n* Proton pump inhibitors\r\n* Sedative/hypnotics: midazolam, triazolamXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving the following drugs will be clinically evaluated as to whether dosage/medication can be changed to permit patient on study:\r\n* Anti-convulsants: carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin\r\n* Anti-mycobacterial: rifabutin\r\n* Phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitors: sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil\r\n* HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors: atorvastatin, rosuvastatin\r\n* Immunosuppressants: cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus\r\n* Narcotic analgesic: methadone\r\n* Oral contraceptive: ethinyl estradiol\r\n* Macrolide antibiotic: azithromycin\r\n* Inhaled/nasal steroid: fluticasone\r\n* Antidepressant: trazodoneXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with moderate-severe renal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a strong likelihood of non-adherence such as difficulties in adhering to follow-up schedule due to geographic distance from the Siteman Cancer Center should not knowingly be registeredXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals in whom a skinfold measurement of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue for the eligible injection sites (left and right medial deltoid region) exceeds 40 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXTherapeutic or traumatic metal implant in the skin or muscle of either deltoid regionXx_NEWLINE_xXSyncopal episode within 12 months of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any electronic stimulation device, such as cardiac demand pacemakers, automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator, nerve stimulators, or deep brain stimulatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXT1/2N0-2M0 SCC of the oropharynx, hypopharynx or larynxXx_NEWLINE_xXNutrition evaluation with consideration of percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placementXx_NEWLINE_xXT3/4 or N3Xx_NEWLINE_xXT1N0 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNeck adenopathy that involves the overlying skinXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of SCLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to >375 mg/m2 of doxorubicin or liposomal doxorubicin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnion gap > 16 meq/L or arterial blood pH < 7.30.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or signs of active coronary artery disease with angina pectoris within the last 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgery achieves either no gross residual disease or optimal cytoreductive status defined as no single lesion measuring more than 1 cm in its greatest diameter (this protocol calls for the intentional delay in resection of up to 3 tumors per patient until the HIPEC procedure is complete; the surgeon will identify these tumors as easily resectable from a technical and safety aspect)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be stable from cardiopulmonary and hemodynamic standpoints to continue with prolonged surgery and anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving neo-adjuvant chemotherapy whose disease has progressed following at least 3 cycles, defined by at least one of the following: clinical deterioration (new or worsening of existing ascites, carcinomatous ileus, malignant bowel obstruction, declining performance status), new lesion(s) or increase in maximal diameter of > 20% of the two largest target lesions, rising CA-125 (an increase of at least 10% of baseline value that increases over 3 values obtained every 21 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiac or pulmonary conditions that preclude aggressive cytoreductive surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with core body temperature > 37 degrees Celsius (C) at completion of cytoreductive surgery and prior to HIPECXx_NEWLINE_xXPapillary serous, endometrioid, clear cell, undifferentiated and mixed histologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXMental condition rendering the subject unable to understand the nature, scope, and possible consequences of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-compliant to medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo appropriate caregivers identifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXHIV1 (human immunodeficiency virus-1) or HIV2 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical and/or radiographic, progressive and resectable grade II gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXWithin 2 weeks of enrollment: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 25 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases detected below the tentorium or beyond the cranial vaultXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage; Note: lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels (contiguous tumor and vessels) are excluded; however, the presence of a tumor that is touching but not infiltrating (abutting) the vessels is acceptable (CT with contrast is strongly recommended to evaluate such lesions); large protruding endobronchial lesions in the mail or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, endobronchial lesions in the segmented bronchi are allowed; lesions extensively infiltrating the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, minor infiltrations in the wall of thee bronchi are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurosurgeon finds the prospective participant is able to undergo neurosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHomozygous negative for the UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1 (UGT 1A1)*28 alleleXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-medication that may interfere with study results; e.g. immuno-suppressive agents other than corticosteroids, such as systemic cyclosporine and tacrilomus; consult principal investigator for questions, including necessary washout period for the specific drugXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of Gilbert’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast, as is required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after alisertib (MLN8237) administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease requiring supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT I:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to tolerate lying in the prone position with arms extended forwardXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT II: Patient must be >= 60 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT II: Patient must be able to tolerate lying in the prone position with arms extended forwardXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT II: At the time of enrollment, patients must have had bilateral mammograms within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMastectomy intendedXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspicious microcalcification, densities, or palpable abnormalities (in the ipsilateral or contralateral breast) unless biopsied and found to be benignXx_NEWLINE_xXPaget’s disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndromes (MDS), intermediate-1 (INT-1), intermediate-2 (INT-2) or high Revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) score that has failed at least 1 first line therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelofibrosis (MF):\r\n* Intermediate-2 or high risk by Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS)-plus OR\r\n* Monosomal karyotype OR\r\n* Presence of inv(3)/i(17q) abnormalities OR \r\n* Other unfavorable karyotype OR leukocytes >= 40 x 10^9/L AND\r\n* Circulating blasts =< 9%Xx_NEWLINE_xXCandidates for reduced intensity conditioning regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a back-up umbilical cord on the registry in addition to the umbilical cord being used in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be scheduled to receive temozolomide concurrent with and following radiation (temozolomide may be started late due to insurance reasons, insufficient counts, or other reasons)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate clinical laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high-risk neuroblastoma with at least ONE of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least ONE of the following sites of disease:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no limit on number of prior regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal lung function as manifested by no dyspnea at rest and no oxygen requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known genetic metabolic conditions, or other ongoing serious medical issues, must be approved by the Study Chair prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with CNS parenchymal or meningeal-based lesions that are present at study entry evaluation are NOT eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with fenretinide, or fenretinide + ketoconazole, if DLT's were experiencedXx_NEWLINE_xXA known history of intolerance to ketoconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXA known history of intolerance to vincristineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on other essential medications for which an interaction with ketoconazole can be expected and for which dose reductions to other essential medications cannot be made in a manner adequate to ensure patient safetyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a histological evaluation of the prostate biopsy with assignment of a Gleason score to the biopsy material; Gleason scores =< 7 (3+4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious pelvic irradiation, prostate brachytherapy, or bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious hormonal therapy, such as luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists (e.g., goserelin, leuprolide) or LHRH antagonists (e.g., degarelix), anti-androgens (e.g., flutamide, bicalutamide), estrogens (e.g., diethylstilbestrol [DES]), or surgical castration (orchiectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic insufficiency resulting in clinical jaundice and/or coagulation defects; note, however, that laboratory tests for liver function and coagulation parameters are not required for entry into this protocol; (patients on Coumadin or other blood thinning agents are eligible for this study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChoose bilateral mastectomy followed by bilateral immediate tissue expander breast reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderstand the study purpose, requirements, and risksXx_NEWLINE_xXAny concurrent opioid analgesic use (baseline opioid use must be 0 to be eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients weighing less than 50 KgXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving a tattoo on the back that is too large to permit PVB injections (as determined by the provider performing the procedure)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMAIN STUDY COHORT INCLUSION CRITERIA: Presence of a solid enhancing cT1 renal mass (i.e. =< 7 cm) diagnosed on cross-sectional imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXMAIN STUDY COHORT EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Pregnancy (as determined by point of care test administered in accordance with the policies of the Department of Nuclear Medicine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRENAL CELL CARCINOMA (RCC) COHORT EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Pregnancy (as determined by point of care test administered in accordance with the policies of the Department of Nuclear Medicine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in the expansion cohort must have biopsiable disease; there will be preferential enrollment of patients with pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors or ovarian cancer during the dose expansion cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) < 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo response, progression, or relapse (according to 2006 International Working Group [IWG] criteria) following at least 4 cycles of either azacitidine or decitabine, which were completed within the last 2 years - AND/OR - intolerance to azacitidine or decitabine defined as drug-related >= grade 3 hepatic or renal toxicity leading to treatment discontinuation during the preceding 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic T1 or T2 disease, resected with negative margins (>= 2mm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic N2a, N2b, or N2c diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of T3 or T4 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of close (< 2 mm) or positive marginsXx_NEWLINE_xXPerineural invasion (PNI) on transoral robotic surgery (TORS) resection of the primary cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of N0 or N1 disease in neck dissectionXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight > 50 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY TO UNDERGO LYMPHODEPLETION\r\nNote: evaluation should be performed no more than 7 days prior to lymphodepletion\r\n* Research participant with central nervous system (CNS) leukemic involvement that is refractory to intrathecal chemotherapy and/or cranio-spinal radiation but effectively treated to completion remission (< 5 white blood cell[WBC]/mm^3 and no blast in cerebrospinal fluid [CSF]) is eligible to proceed with lymphodepletion\r\n* Research participants must have a donor or stem cells source identified for allogeneic transplantation, either related (7/8 or 8/8 allele matched or haploidentical), unrelated 7/8 or 8/8 allele match) donor, or cord blood stem cell source (at lease 4/6 matched)\r\n* Research participants with a response less than a CR or complete response with incomplete hematopoietic recovery (CRi) or detectable minimal residual disease (MRD) positive disease\r\n* Research participant has a released cryopreserved T cell product for CAR T cell infusion on approximately day 0\r\n* Research participant must be at least 2 weeks out from having received the last dose of investigational agent\r\n* Karnofsky performance status (KPS) >= 70\r\n* Documented measurable or evaluable disease\r\n* Non hematological toxicity related to prior therapy must either have returned to =< grade 2, baseline, or deemed irreversible\r\n* Research participants of reproductive potential must agree to use and utilize and adequate method of contraception throughout treatment and for at least 8 weeks after T cell infusion\r\n*If a research participant has undergone prior allogeneic stem cell transplant, he/she must be off all immunosuppressants for GVHD for at least 7 days before beginning lymphodepletion\r\n* Pulmonary: not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room air\r\n* Cardiovascular: not requiring pressor support, no symptomatic cardiac arrhythmias, no acute coronary syndrome, or uncontrolled hypertension\r\n* Renal Function: calculated creatinine clearance (absolute value) of >= 50 mL/minute or creatinine < 2.0 mg/dl or < 2 times upper limit of normal for the research participant's age group\r\n* Liver Function: adequate liver function defined as total bilirubin =< 3.0 mg/dl \r\n* ALT and AST =< 5 times the institutional upper limits of normal\r\n* Neurological: research participant without clinically significant encephalopathy/new focal deficits\r\n* Infectious diseases: no clinical evidence of uncontrolled active infectious processXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY CRITERIA TO UNDERGO OPTIONAL T CELL ABLATION\r\n* Research participant has >= 1% CAR T cells in the peripheral blood\r\n* Pulmonary: not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room air\r\n* Cardiovascular: not requiring pressor support, no symptomatic cardiac arrhythmias, no acute coronary syndrome, or uncontrolled hypertension\r\n* Renal Function: serum creatinine did NOT increase by more than 2.5 fold from baseline (at time of screening)\r\n* Liver Function: adequate liver function defined as total bilirubin =< 3.0 mg/dl \r\n* AST =< 5 x ULN, ALT =< 5 x ULN\r\n* Neurological: research participant without clinically significant encephalopathy/new focal deficits\r\n* Infectious diseases: no clinical evidence of uncontrolled active infectious processXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrence of previously pathologically proven squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck, including original primary sites in the paranasal sinuses, nasal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, oral cavity, larynx, hypopharynx, salivary glands, and/or involvement of cervical lymph nodesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is medically fit to receive cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of non-complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic or locally advanced refractory/recurrent cancer that expresses MAGE-A3 as assessed by one of the following methods: reverse transcriptase (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on tumor tissue defined as 30,000 copies of MAGE-A3 per 10^6 glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH) copies, or by immunohistochemistry of resected tissue defined as 10% or greater of tumor cells being 2-3+ for MAGE-A3, or serum antibody reactive with MAGE-A3; metastatic cancer diagnosis will be confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology at the National Cancer Institute (NCI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients presenting with lesions that may harbor an occult infectious sourceXx_NEWLINE_xXCOH pathology review confirms that research participant's diagnostic material is consistent with a lymphoproliferative B-cell neoplasmXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY TO PROCEED WITH PERIPHERAL BLOOD MONONUCLEAR CELL (PBMC) COLLECTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant must have appropriate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: exceptions may be made at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI)/study teamXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant has a released cryopreserved T cell product for T cell infusions on approximately day 0Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPreservation of renal function, serum creatinine did NOT increase by more than 2 fold above the normal rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of research participant to understand the basic elements of the protocol and/or the risks/benefits of participating in this phase I studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known contraindications to cyclophosphamide, fludarabine, etoposide, bendamustine, cetuximab or tocilizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXBorderline-resectable or locally-advanced pancreatic cancer (based upon impression of the surgical oncologist, in conjunction with radiologic consultations) as defined per the Alliance consensus:\r\n* Borderline-resectable\r\n** An interface between the primary tumor and superior mesenteric vein (SMV)/portal vein measuring 180 degrees or greater of the circumference of the vein wall\r\n** Short-segment occlusion of the SMV/portal vein but with suitable vessel proximal and distal to the obstruction to allow safe resection and reconstruction\r\n** Short-segment interface (of any degree) between the tumor and the hepatic artery with normal artery proximal and distal to the interface that is amenable to resection and arterial reconstruction\r\n** An interface between the tumor and the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) or celiac trunk measuring less than 180 degrees of the circumference of the artery wall \r\n* Locally-advanced\r\n** Encasement of the SMA/celiac artery (> 180 degrees)\r\n** Involvement of the SMV/portal vein without options for reconstruction\r\n** Aortic invasion or encasementXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of gross duodenal invasion, gastric outlet obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic collagen vascular disease including scleroderma or systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); rheumatoid arthritis is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly-controlled diarrhea (> 4 loose bowel movement [BM]/day without use of anti-motility agents) within 7 days of study enrollment; patients may be reconsidered for the study if the diarrhea resolvesXx_NEWLINE_xXRAI-refractory disease on structural imaging, defined as any one of the following:\r\n* A metastatic lesion that is not radioiodine-avid on a diagnostic radioiodine scan performed prior to enrollment in the current study, or\r\n* A radioiodine-avid metastatic lesion which remained stable in size or progressed despite radioiodine treatment 6 months or more prior to entry in the study; there are no size limitations for the index lesion used to satisfy this entry criterion\r\n* The presence of at least one fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) avid lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT A: Patients must have progressive disease, defined as the presence of new or growing lesion(s) on radiologic imaging within 14 months of study enrollment and/or new/worsening disease related symptoms within 14 months of study enrollment; (progression according to RECIST v 1.1 criteria is not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following ophthalmological findings/conditions:\r\n* Intraocular pressure > 21 mmHg, or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of intraocular pressure)\r\n* Current or past history of central serious retinopathy or retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to follow a low iodine diet or requiring medication with high content in iodide (amiodarone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who received iodinated intravenous contrast as part of a radiographic procedure within 3 months of study registration; those that have had iodinated intravenous contrast within this time frame may still be eligible if a urinary iodine analysis reveals that the excess iodine has been cleared after the last intravenous contrast administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or radiologic confirmation of advanced or metastatic HCC:\r\n* The diagnosis of HCC will be made according to the guidelines of the Barcelona-2000 European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) Conference (Bruix et al 2001) and according to successive modifications of the American Association for the Study of Liver Disease (AASLD) (Bruix et al 2005) \r\n* Pathological diagnoses of HCC will be made according to the International Working Party criteria (International Working Party 1995)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be staged according to the Barcelona Clinic Liver Cancer (BCLC) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatinine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing alcohol use or abuse defined as > an average of 2 alcoholic beverages dailyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with systemic sonidegib or with other Hedgehog (Hh) pathway inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders (e.g. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and spinal muscular atrophy) or are on concomitant treatment with drugs that are recognized to cause rhabdomyolysis, such as 3-hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA (HMG CoA) inhibitors (statins), clofibrate and gemfibrozil, and that cannot be discontinued at least 2 weeks prior to starting sonidegib study treatment; if it is essential that the patient stays on a statin to control hyperlipidemia, only pravastatin may be used with extra cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with histologically confirmed peritoneal surface malignancies, including malignant peritoneal mesothelioma and peritoneal carcinomatosis (PC) from presumed appendiceal and colorectal primary tumors; most patients will have received extensive prior treatments, due to the recurrent nature of PC; prior therapies involve previous CRS, local and systemic chemotherapy, and their different numbers; none of these prior treatments disqualifies the patient from receiving the protocol-mandated experimental treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 27.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXCity of Hope (COH) pathology review confirms that research participant’s diagnostic material is consistent with history of ALL with history of recurrence/progression/minimal residual disease (MRD) following prior therapy; additionally, CD19 positivity must be documented in a pathology report; however, it is not a requirement that the CD19 testing be performed by a COH pathologist; patients in second complete remission (CR2) or higher with history of CD19+ ALL on previous bone marrow biopsy are also eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMRD will be defined in this protocol by presence of malignant cells at 0.01% or more by flow cytometry or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) analysis at the completion of initial remission induction therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXCOH pathology review confirms that research participant’s diagnostic material is consistent with ALL; additionally, CD19 positivity must be documented in a pathology report; however it is not a requirement that the CD19 testing be performed by a COH pathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXIf the research participant is to undergo leukapheresis, he/she must must have a serum bilirubin =< 2.0 mg/dl\r\n* Note: in the event a participant has elevated levels of liver enzymes possibly related to underlying disease, the participant will still be considered eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIf research participant is undergoing leukapheresis he/she must have appropriate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant has a released cryopreserved T cell product for T cell infusion on approximately day 0Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPreservation of renal function, serum creatinine did NOT increase by more than 2 fold above the normal reference rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal bilirubin =< 2.0 mg/dL\r\n* Note: in the event a participant has elevated levels of liver enzymes possibly related to underlying disease/disease progression, the participant will still be considered eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant has undergone lymphodepletionXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary: not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant is scheduled for an alloSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant has >= 1% chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) modified T cells in the peripheral bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary criteria: not requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of research participant to understand the basic elements of the protocol and/or the risks/benefits of participating in this phase I studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known contraindications to cyclophosphamide, fludarabine, etoposide, cetuximab or tocilizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal mass =< 5 cm\r\n* The treating renal mass must be =< 5 cm; other renal masses (cysts etc.) of any size will not make the subject ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven renal neoplasm\r\n* All histology of renal cancers are included, including oncocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXGrowth of renal mass > 4 mm in radiographic scans must be demonstrated within a one year periodXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received any treatment for the treating renal mass; such as radiofrequency ablation (RFA) or cryoablation\r\n* If other renal masses received RFA or cryoablation or surgery, then these patients are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of occlusive thrombus in the main portal veinXx_NEWLINE_xXEncephalopathy not adequately controlled medicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXInfiltrative form of HCC on imaging; if there is at least one measurable lesion per modified RECIST (mRECIST) criteria and otherwise patient is eligible for the study, the patient can be enrolledXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contra-indication to angiographyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known contra-indication to chemoembolization according to the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have undergone an autologous HCT for the treatment of DLBCL and are in a complete remission (CR), partial remission (PR) or have stable disease (SD) at the day 28 post-transplant reassessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to take daily aspirin (325 mg) for the duration of INCB7839 treatment and 1 week after the last dose to reduce the risk of thrombosis (not applicable if on other anti-coagulant therapy at time of study registration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales are either postmenopausal for at least 1 year, are surgically sterile for at least 3 months, or must agree to take appropriate precautions to avoid pregnancy (with at least 99% certainty) from screening through 12 months after the last dose of rituximab if of childbearing potential; (Note: permitted methods that are at least 99% effective in preventing pregnancy should be communicated to the participants and their understanding confirmed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales must agree to take appropriate precautions to avoid fathering a child (with at least 99% certainty) from screening through 12 months after the last dose of rituximab; (Note: permitted methods that are at least 99% effective in preventing pregnancy should be communicated to the participants and their understanding confirmed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: Histologic verification at either the time of original diagnosis or relapse of neuroblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary resistant/refractory disease detected at the conclusion of at least 4 cycles of aggressive multidrug induction chemotherapy on or according to a high-risk neuroblastoma protocol (examples include Children's Oncology Group trials: A3973, ANBL0532, ANBL09P1, etc.).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBSA (m2) of <0.25Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-operative diagnosis or suspicion of papillary thyroid cancer, usually by fine needle aspiration (FNA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLargest papillary thyroid carcinoma < 1 cm in size on ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing vocal cord paralysisXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic neurologic condition which affects voice or swallow (for instance, multiple sclerosis or Parkinson disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline laryngeal pathology that would warrant intervention that could affect voice or swallow functionXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of nodal involvement identified in the operating room (OR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have a clinically documented condition associated with CMV (e.g. interstitial pneumonia, hepatitis, retinitis, colitis) OrXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have microbiological evidence of CMV viremia or tissue invasion as attested by viral culture, or detection of levels of CMV DNA in the blood or body fluids consistent with CMV infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient's CMV infection is clinically progressing or CMV viremia is persistent or increasing (as evidenced by quantitation of CMV DNA in the blood) despite two weeks induction therapy with antiviral drugs. OrXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has developed CMV viremia as attested by viral culture, or detection of levels of CMV DNA in blood or body fluids while receiving prophylactic doses of antiviral drugs to prevent CMV infection post transplant. OrXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is unable to sustain treatment with antiviral drugs due to drug associated toxicities (e.g. myelosuppression [ANC< 1000?l/ml without GCSF support] or nephrotoxicity [corrected creatinine clearance ? 60 ml/min/1.73 m^2 or serum creatinine > 2 mg/dl]) CMV infections are life threatening, and may involve multiple organ systems such as the lungs, liver, gastrointestinal tract, hematopoietic and central nervous systems. Antiviral drugs used for treatment may also compromise renal and hematopoietic function. Therefore, dysfunctions of these organs will not affect eligibility for this protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStable blood pressure and circulation, not requiring pressor supportXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no age restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are moribundXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular user (including \recreational use\) of any illicit drugs or recent history (within the last year) of substance abuse (including alcohol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be no taller than 1.9 m (6 feet 4 inches), and no wider from elbow to elbow in the supine position than 60 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of HCC:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects without underlying cirrhosis at the time of diagnosis, diagnosis of HCC documented by cytology and/or histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with underlying cirrhosis at the time of diagnosis, diagnosis of HCC established according to the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases Practice Guideline algorithm (Appendix E).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged 18 to 55 years with high risk AML who have achieved their FIRST complete remission (CR) or complete remission with incomplete recovery (CRi) within 12 months of enrollment and are not immediately candidates for allogeneic stem cell transplant; patients above age 55 who are not eligible for other protocols may be considered for enrollment on a case by case basis after discussion with the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in their FIRST CR or CRi may be eligible for enrollment only if they have a high risk feature, including, but not limited to: adverse karyotype, fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) mutation, history of antecedent hematologic disorder (AHD), presence of dysplasia in the bone marrow, therapy-related AML, history of requiring more than 1 cycle of intensive induction chemotherapy to achieve first remission, or presence of persistent minimal residual disease (detected by cytogenetics, molecular markers, or flow cytometry) at any point after initial induction cycle; patients aged >= 18 years with AML who have achieved a SECOND CR or CRi within 12 months of enrollment and are not immediately candidates for allogeneic stem cell transplant are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of AML associated with the following karyotypes: inversion (inv)(16), t(16;16), t(8;21), t(15;17), or t(9;22)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive intracranial ependymoma after prior focal irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior craniospinal irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to lie still in full body cast for 45 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating peripheral blood myeloblasts or lymphoblasts on morphologic analysis from time of last treatment to time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative purified protein derivative (PPD) testXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of agents for TNF-alpha blockadeXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healed infected skin ulcersXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a biopsy confirmed basal cell carcinoma (BCC) that measures at least 6 mm in size at the time of the initial evaluation (visit #1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must have the ability to understand and communicate with the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on systemic medications known to affect the Hedgehog pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on cisapride, oral midazolam, nisoldipine, felodipine, pimozide, quinidine, dofetilide, triazolam, methadone, levacetylmethadol (levomethadyl), lovastatin, simvastatin, dihydroergotamine, ergometrine (ergonovine), ergotamine and methylergometrine (methylergonovine), cisapride, pimozide, methadone, levacetylmethadol (levomethadyl), quinidineXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on chronic immunosuppression, or who have a history of compromised immune function (e.g. history of or current malignancy other than BCC/squamous cell skin cancers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of keloids or excessive scarringXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine measurement (Cr) < 1.7Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior intracavitary irradiation or Gliadel wafersXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis ( >= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 10 pack years of tobacco use or moreXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with a single HCC lesion ? 3.0 cm but ? 7.0 cm in maximum diameter based on diagnosis at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects meeting the American Association for the Study of Liver Disease (AASLD) criteria may be randomized without a biopsy, but will undergo a biopsy during the RFA procedure unless contraindicated or unattainable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects not meeting the AASLD criteria for HCC will need a biopsy to confirm HCC prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe position and accessibility of the target lesion allows for the safe administration of multiple ablation cycles or deployments to achieve a probe dwell time of ? 45 minutes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected ablation volume > 30% of total liver volume or removal of 3 hepatic segmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 1 lesion identified during baseline.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously received any anthracycline outside the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHave extrahepatic metastasis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline ChemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXHave any known allergic reactions to any of the drugs or liposomal components or intravenous imaging agents that prohibit the ability to complete the imaging requirements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave INR > 1.5 times the institution's upper normal limit (UNL), except in subjects who are therapeutically anticoagulated for medical conditions unrelated to HCC such as atrial fibrillation. Subjects may be re-screened after condition is treated or anticoagulant is withheld.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of hemachromatosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of noninfectious pneumonitis will be excluded during the dose-escalation phase of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastasis to the lung, bone or brain; typically, most stage 4 uterine papillary serous cancer (UPSC) is confined to the abdomen on presentationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients can be either ipilimumab naïve or refractory to ipilimumab, defined as received at least two doses of ipilimumab and documented disease progression; patients who were re-treated with ipilimumab and patients who were on maintenance ipilimumab will be allowed to enter the trial as long as there is documented progressive disease (PD); progressive disease will be defined as increase in tumor burden > 25% relative to nadir (minimum recorded tumor burden) which is confirmed by repeat assessment no less than four weeks from the date of the first documented PD; once PD is confirmed, initial date of PD documentation will be considered as the date of disease progression; prior ipilimumab therapy must have been completed at least 12 weeks before study drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic or locally advanced refractory/recurrent cancer that expresses MAGE-A3 as assessed by one of the following methods: reverse transcriptase (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) on tumor tissue defined as 30,000 copies of MAGE-A3 per 10^6 glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH) copies, or by immunohistochemistry of resected tissue defined as 10% or greater of tumor cells being 2-3+ for MAGE-A3, or serum antibody reactive with MAGE-A3; metastatic cancer diagnosis will be confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology at the National Cancer Institute (NCI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXCytarabine containing regimen in excess of 2 g/m^2/day within 6 months of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV: Treatment of persistent or relapsed CMV disease or infection after standard therapy; for CMV infection, standard therapy is defined as antiviral therapy with ganciclovir, foscarnet or cidofovir\r\n* CMV disease: defined as the demonstration of CMV by biopsy specimen from visceral sites (by culture or histology) or the detection of CMV by culture or direct fluorescent antibody stain in broncheoalveolar lavage fluid in the presence of new or changing pulmonary infiltrates or changes consistent with CMV retinitis on ophthalmologic examination\r\n* CMV infection: defined as the presence of CMV positivity as detected by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or pp65 antigenemia or culture from ONE site such as stool or blood or urine or nasopharynx\r\n* Failure of antiviral therapy: defined as a rise or a fall of less than 50% in viral load in peripheral blood or any site of disease as measured by PCR or pp65 antigenemia after 7 days of antiviral therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXEBV: For treatment of persistent EBV infection despite standard therapy; for EBV infection, standard therapy is defined as rituximab given at 375 mg/m^2 in patients for 1-4 doses with a cluster of differentiation (CD)20+ tumor\r\n* EBV infection: defined as\r\n** Biopsy proven lymphoma with EBV genomes detected in tumor cells by immunocytochemistry or in situ PCR\r\n** Or clinical or imaging findings consistent with EBV lymphoma and/or elevated EBV viral load in peripheral blood\r\n* Failure of therapy is defined as\r\n** Increase or less than 50% response at sites of disease for EBV lymphoma OR\r\n** Increase or a fall of less than 50% in EBV viral load in peripheral blood or any site of disease after 1st dose of rituximabXx_NEWLINE_xXBK virus: Treatment of persistent BK virus infection or BK virus disease despite antiviral treatment with cidofovir or leflunomide; no clear standard treatment is defined; cidofovir has been administered in low doses as well as high doses to HSCT patients with BK infections but no randomized trials are available proving its clinical efficacy; in small trials leflunomide had activity against BK virus, therefore we will consider this agent an acceptable alternative to cidofovir, given the absence of a clear first line option\r\n* BK virus infection is defined as the presence of BK virus positivity as detected by PCR or culture in one site such as blood or urine\r\n* BK virus disease is defined as the presence of BK virus detectable by culture or PCR in blood or urine or other body fluids and symptoms of disease including, but not limited to persistent microscopic or macroscopic hematuria or detectable BK virus in more than one site\r\n* Failure of therapy is defined as a rise or a fall of less than 50% in viral load in peripheral blood or any site of disease (as measured by PCR or any other quantitative assay) or worsening hematuria after 7 days of antiviral therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHHV6: Treatment of persistent HHV6 infection or disease despite antiviral treatment with ganciclovir, cidofovir and foscarnet; no clear standard treatment is defined; ganciclovir, cidofovir and foscarnet all have variable in vitro activity against HHV-6, and may have a role in treating HHV-6-associated disease – therefore antiviral treatment with one or more of these agents will we acceptable initial therapy\r\n* HHV6 virus infection is defined as the presence of elevated HHV-6 levels as detected by PCR or positive culture in one site such as cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or blood\r\n* HHV6 disease is defined as defined as the presence of HHV6 detectable by culture or PCR in one or more sites such as blood or CSF and symptoms of disease including symptoms of HHV6 encephalitis OR detectable HHV6 by PCR or culture in more than one site\r\n* Failure of therapy is defined as a rise or a fall of less than 50% in viral load in peripheral blood or any site of disease (as measured by PCR or any other quantitative assay) after 7 days of antiviral therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXJC virus: Treatment of progressive or persistent JC virus infection or disease without suitable alternative treatment option; pepmixes specific for antigens on adenovirus, EBV, CMV, HHV6 and BK virus are used to generate multivirus-specific VSTs; no pepmix specific for the rare JC virus is used for generation of these cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs), however given the high homology (> 90%) between JC and BK and the fact that BK virus-specific T cells targeting polyomavirus capsid protein (VP1) and large T (as targeted in multivirus VSTs) have been administered to treat JCV-progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), resulting in viral clearance from the cerebrospinal fluid it is likely that VSTs are efficacious against JC virus; given the current lack of treatment options for JC virus infection or reactivation after HSCT and the risk of progression to PML, which is almost uniformly fatal, and the apparent activity of BK virus-directed T cells against JC virus infected cells, this trial proposes including patients with progressive or persistent JC virus on this study, unless a suitable alternative therapy is available\r\n* JC virus infection is defined as the presence of elevated JC virus levels as detected by PCR or positive culture in one site such as CSF or blood\r\n* JC virus disease is defined as defined as the presence of JC virus detectable by culture or PCR in one or more sites such as blood or CSF and symptoms of disease including symptoms of PML OR detectable JC virus by PCR or culture in more than one siteXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) grades II-IVXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of NB as defined by international criteria, i.e., histopathology (confirmed by the Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center [MSKCC] Department of Pathology) or BM metastases plus high urine catecholamine levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk NB, as defined by risk-related treatment guidelines and the International NB Staging System, i.e., stage 4 with (any age) or without (> 18 months) v-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene neuroblastoma derived homolog (MYCN)-amplification, or MYCN-amplified NB other than stage IXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are in CR/VGPR or have primary refractory NB in BM - i.e., NB resistant to standard therapy, as evidenced by persistence of NB in the BM by histology or metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) scan, but all other findings in scans show VGPRXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman anti-mouse antibody (HAMA) titer > 1000 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (Elisa) units/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be diagnosed with treatment requiring PMF or post ET/PV MF with intermediate-1, intermediate -2 or high risk disease according to the International Working Group (IWG) prognostic scoring system, or if with low risk disease then with symptomatic splenomegaly that is >= 5 cm below left costal margin by physical examXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not candidates for, intolerant, or relapsed/refractory to ruxolitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed, BRAF-mutant (V600E/K) solid tumor (molecularly confirmed using Cobas assay or a comparable Food and Drug Administration [FDA]-approved assay) that is metastatic or unresectable, have received and tolerated prior BRAF or BRAF and MEK inhibitor (BRAF targeted) therapy at full dose or not previously received BRAF targeted therapy, and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective\r\n* If test at Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratory (lab) used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be provided; (FDA approved tests for BRAF V600 mutations in melanoma include: THxID BRAF Detection Kit and Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED):\r\n* History of RVO or RPED, or predisposing factors to RVO or RPED (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mm mercury (Hg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXElectrocardiogram (EKG) showing no ischemic changes and no abnormal rhythmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other active malignancies are ineligible for this study, other than localized malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort A (enzalutamide) and Cohort B (abiraterone acetate): patients who have progressed on both enzalutamide and abiraterone acetate are eligible and post-BAT will be retreated with the last second line agent they had received (e.g. patient receiving abiraterone acetate [abiraterone] then enzalutamide would receive retreatment with enzalutamide post-BAT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort A (enzalutamide) and Cohort B (abiraterone acetate): patients must be withdrawn from enzalutamide or abiraterone acetate for >= 4 weeks and have documented PSA increase after the withdrawal periodXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort A (enzalutamide) and Cohort B (abiraterone acetate): patients receiving prednisone in conjunction with abiraterone acetate must be weaned off prednisone prior to starting BATXx_NEWLINE_xX> 5 sites of visceral disease in lung or liver (nonspecific lung nodules =< 1 cm in diameter are permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of disease in sites or extent that, in the opinion of the investigator, would put the patient at risk from therapy with testosterone (e.g. femoral metastases with concern over fracture risk, spinal metastases with concern over spinal cord compression, lymph node disease with concern for ureteral obstruction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of a thromboembolic event within the last two years and not currently on systemic anticoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 50%, untreated severe obstructive sleep apnea, uncontrolled or poorly controlled heart failure (per Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly patients with mutated rat sarcoma (RAS) (KRAS and NRAS) mutations are eligible to participate (Phase II only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of disease progression post SCT at the time of consideration for the study enrollment will not be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity, which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in the trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with systemic LDE225 or with other hedgehog pathway inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders (e.g. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and spinal muscular atrophy) or are on concomitant treatment with drugs that are recognized to cause rhabdomyolysis, such as 5-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG CoA) inhibitors (statins), clofibrate and gemfibrozil, and that cannot be discontinued at least 2 weeks prior to starting LDE225 treatment; NOTE: if it is essential that the patient stays on a statin to control hyperlipidemia, only pravastatin may be used with extra cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven metastatic melanoma or NSCLC as follows:\r\n* Patients with metastatic melanoma must have untreated brain metastases including:\r\n** At least one cerebral metastasis that requires local intervention and is amenable to craniotomy or LITT either due to symptoms, lesion size, location, edema or hemorrhage (“surgical lesion”); alternatively, a patient may be eligible if a cerebral metastasis was resected or biopsied any time prior to enrollment and there is tumor tissue available for analysis\r\n** At least one cerebral metastasis that is at least 5 mm AND twice the magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) slice thickness, but less than 20 mm, that is asymptomatic and does not require local therapy at the time of enrollment (“clinically evaluable lesion[s]”)\r\n* Patients with stage IV NSCLC with at least one cerebral metastasis that is at least 5 mm AND twice the MRI slice thickness, but less than 20 mm, that is asymptomatic and does not require local therapy at the time of enrollment (“clinically evaluable lesion[s]”)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior autologous SCT in last 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne of the following must be satisfied:\r\n* The patient is undergoing mobilization to collect and store for an autologous PBSC transplant in the future\r\n* The patient is eligible to undergo autologous PBSC transplantation on institutional protocols in the futureXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior attempt at mobilizing PBSCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have received radiation therapy to more than 20% of hematopoiesis forming bones (spine, pelvis and proximal long bones) during lifetimeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of asthma will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of intrahepatic malignancy including but not limited to HCC; the histopathology confirmation criterion may be waived in patients with a radiographically identifiable liver mass, known laboratory or clinical risk factors for cancer or elevated tumor markers such as alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and clinical findingsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindications to angiography and hepatic artery catheterization such as:\r\n* History of severe allergy or intolerance to any contrast media, narcotics, sedatives, or atropine that cannot be corrected or premedicated\r\n* Bleeding diathesis, not correctable by usual forms of therapy\r\n* Severe peripheral vascular disease that would preclude catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of potential delivery of greater than 16.5 mCi (30 Gy absorbed dose) of radiation to the lungs in a single treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of pulmonary insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any detectable technetium-99m macroaggregated serum albumin (Tc-99m MAA) flow to the stomach or duodenum, not correctable by using established angiographic techniques to stop or mitigate such flowXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant extrahepatic disease representing an imminent life-threatening outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-morbid disease of condition that would preclude safe delivery of TheraSphere treatment or, in the judgment of the physician, place the patient at undue riskXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal oxygen saturation at baseline ABG (arterial blood gas) testingXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to provide all biologic specimens as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXCluster of differentiation (CD)4 count >= 200/uL or >= 15% of peripheral blood lymphocytesXx_NEWLINE_xXEpithelial tumors of low malignant potential, stromal tumors, and germ cell tumors of the ovaryXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring blood product supportXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reaction to sunitinib or valproic acid; inability to receive sunitinib or valproic acidXx_NEWLINE_xXActive epilepsy or convulsive conditions that require continuous use of anticonvulsantsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of hematemesis, melena or gross hematuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients ineligible if the time interval between radical prostatectomy and the first day of randomization exceeds 3 months (+/- 2 weeks)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMacroscopic residual disease after surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of gallbladder problems or gall stones or biliary obstruction, unless patient had cholecystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant agents - patients taking 81 mg of aspirin will be allowed with close observationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastric or duodenal ulcers or untreated hyperacidity syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious pelvic irradiation, prostate brachytherapy, or bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious hormonal therapy, such as luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists (e.g., leuprolide, goserelin, buserelin, triptorelin) or LHRH antagonist (e.g. degarelix), anti-androgens (e.g., flutamide, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate), estrogens (e.g., diethylstilbestrol [DES]), or surgical castration (orchiectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the hormones involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpes lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent therapy with any drug active against simplexvirus (HSV) (acyclovir, valacyclovir, penciclovir, famcyclovir, gancyclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known history of allergic reaction to intravenous (IV) contrast material that is not amenable to pre-treatment by University of Alabama at Birmingham (UAB) protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pacemakers, ferro-magnetic aneurysm clips, metal infusion pumps, metal or shrapnel fragments or certain types of stentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have no more than 3 distinct lesions within the brain; at least 1 lesion must be a minimum of 3 cm in greatest dimension, no larger than 5 cm which will be treatable by fractionated stereotactic radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe additional lesions will each be treated with single fraction stereotactic radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may be on steroids or anti-epilepticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic patients in need of surgery to the “target” lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXFour or more newly-diagnosed lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having previously undergone splenectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sickle-cell anemia or thalassemia major.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFractional shortening (FS) > 27%Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor children who are unable to perform pulmonary function tests but have no evidence of dyspnea at rest nor exercise intolerance nor abnormal chest X-ray (CXR), a pulse oximetry > 94% on room air is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXCentral vascular access device(s) (e.g. infusaport, tunneled central veinous catheter [CVC] &/or peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC] line) providing a combined 3 access ports is advised for all patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients excluded from this protocol are those with high risk hematologic malignancies in remission (and no prior allogeneic HSCT), where allogeneic HSCT is indicated but an appropriately matched HSC source (sibling, unrelated adult or UCB) is availableXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Cell yield goal (post CD34 determination): > 1-6 x10^6 CD34+ cells/kg recipientXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of chronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXa. Have advanced solid tumors that are refractory to established therapies known to provide clinical benefit for the malignancy in question, ORXx_NEWLINE_xXb. Be intolerant of established therapies known to provide clinical benefit for the malignancy in questionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in the dose-expansion part of the trial must have at least one lesion that may qualify as a target lesion based on the RECIST 1.1 criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have INR and PTT values ? 1.5X ULN for the reference laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require coumadin administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient who has not previously received hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy must have histopathologically or cytologically confirmed cancer from peritoneal mesothelioma, pseudomyxoma, or gastrointestinal malignancies (excluding pancreatic and hepatobiliary) with known synchronous or metachronous disease dissemination limited to the peritoneal surfacesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have documented disease limited to the peritoneal surface, amenable to complete cytoreduction indicated by:\r\n* Disease confined to the peritoneal surfaces\r\n* No parenchymal liver metastases\r\n* No evidence of clinical, biochemical or radiological biliary obstruction\r\n* Small volume of disease in the gastro-hepatic ligament defined by a < 5 cm mass in the epigastric region on cross-sectional imaging\r\n* No clinical or radiological evidence of hematogenous or distant nodal metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXSatisfactory cardiopulmonary function (no history of severe congestive heart failure or severe pulmonary disease, as indicated by clinically acceptable risks to undergo major abdominal - cytoreductive surgery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the above criteria and who have undergone CRS and HIPEC in the past 18 months for the forementioned disease processes without evidence of recurrence will be eligible for participation in this study for analyzing ability to achieve complete cytoreduction, morbidity, progression and survivalXx_NEWLINE_xXChilds B or C cirrhosis or with evidence of severe portal hypertension by history, endoscopy or radiologic studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric or addictive disorders or other conditions that would preclude the patient from meeting the study requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body mass index (BMI) of 40 or moreXx_NEWLINE_xXSickle cell disease - patients with sickle cell disease at high risk for disease related morbidity or mortality, defined by having irreversible end-organ damage (A, B, C, D, or E) or potentially reversible complication(s) not ameliorated by hydroxyurea (F):\r\n* A. Stroke defined as a clinically significant neurologic event that is accompanied by an infarct on cerebral magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or an abnormal trans-cranial Doppler examination (>= 200 m/s); or\r\n* B. Sickle cell related renal insufficiency defined by a creatinine level >= 1.5 times the upper limit of normal and kidney biopsy consistent with sickle cell nephropathy or nephrotic syndrome or creatinine clearance < 50 mL/min or requiring peritoneal or hemodialysis; or\r\n* C. Pulmonary hypertension as defined by tricuspid regurgitant jet velocity (TRV) of >= 2.5 m/s at least 3 weeks after a vaso-occlusive crisis; or\r\n* D. Recurrent tricorporal priapism defined as at least two episodes of an erection lasting >= 4 hours involving the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosa; or\r\n* E. Sickle hepatopathy defined as either ferritin > 1000 mcg/L or direct bilirubin > 0.4 mg/dL at baseline; orXx_NEWLINE_xXF. Any one of the below complications\r\n* Vaso-occlusive crises; eligible for hydroxyurea*: at least 3 hospital admissions in the last year; eligible for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT): more than 1 hospital admission per year while on maximal tolerated dose of hydroxyurea*\r\n* Acute chest syndrome (ACS); eligible for hydroxyurea*: 2 prior ACS while > 3 years of age and adequately treated for asthma; eligible for HSCT: any ACS while on hydroxyurea*\r\n* Osteonecrosis of 2 or more joints; eligible for hydroxyurea*: and significantly affecting their quality of life by Karnofsky score 50-60; eligible for HSCT: and on hydroxyurea* where total hemoglobin increase less than 1 g/dL or fetal hemoglobin increases < 2.5 times the baseline level\r\n* Red cell alloimmunization; eligible for hydroxyurea*: transfusion-dependent; eligible for HSCT: total hemoglobin increase < 1 g/dL while on hydroxyurea*\r\n* Note: hydroxyurea at maximum tolerated doseXx_NEWLINE_xXThalassemia - patients with thalassemia who have grade 2 or 3 iron overload, determined by the presence of 2 or more of the following:\r\n* Portal fibrosis by liver biopsy \r\n* Inadequate chelation history (defined as failure to maintain adequate compliance with chelation with desferroxamine initiated within 18 months of the first transfusion and administered subcutaneously for 8-10 hours at least 5 days each week)\r\n* Hepatomegaly of greater than 2 cm below the costochondral marginXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation of < 85% or partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) < 70Xx_NEWLINE_xXMajor ABO mismatchXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have unresectable disease, defined radiographically as > 180 degrees involvement of the superior mesenteric artery or celiac trunk or superior mesenteric vein (SMV)/portal vein impingement that cannot be surgically reconstructed, in the absence of distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal bilirubin =< 3, (with relief of biliary obstruction if present [percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC) tube or endobiliary stent])Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a minimum level of pulmonary reserve defined as =< grade 1 dyspnea and pulse oxygen > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindications for leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extra-medullary disease relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute or chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed disease after prior allogeneic SCT (myeloablative or non-myeloablative) will be eligible if they meet all other inclusion criteria and:\r\n* Have experienced graft rejection (no evidence of donor cells by short tandem repeat (STR) analysis on 2 occasions separated by at least 1 month)\r\n* Have no active graft-vs-host disease (GVHD) and require no immunosuppression\r\n* Are more than 6 months from transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable or assessable disease according to the “Revised Response Criteria for Malignant Lymphoma” (Cheson et al., J. Clin. Onc., 1999)105; patients in complete remission with no evidence of disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSuccessful T cell test expansion (first 10 subjects)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in complete remission with no assessable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically proven supratentorial low-grade glioma at initial diagnosis; pathology must have been reviewed by University of California at San Francisco (UCSF) neuropathology; eligible low-grade gliomas include: astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma and mixed oligoastrocytoma; pilocytic astrocytomas are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXResults of ATRX and/or 1p/19q chromosomal status: if ATRX is lost, 1p/19q status is not required; if ATRX is intact, 1p/19q chromosomal status must be available to permit treatment selectionXx_NEWLINE_xXResults of pRAS40 testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no limit as to the number or type of prior drug treatments but patients must have radiographic evidence of progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior therapy that included interstitial brachytherapy, or Gliadel wafers must have confirmation of true progressive disease rather than radiation necrosis based upon either positron emission tomography (PET) or thallium scanning, MR spectroscopy or surgical documentation of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMulti-focal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity reactions to products containing irinotecan (irinotecan), topotecan or other topoisomerase inhibitors, gadolinium contrast agents or lipid productsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not be on an enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drug (EIAED); if previously on an EIAED, patient must be off for at least 10 days prior to CED infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient not candidate for orthotopic liver transplantation at the Hospital of the University of Pennsylvania based on review of patient imaging and history at multidisciplinary Hepatic Tumor Conference at the Hospital of the University of PennsylvaniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior TACEXx_NEWLINE_xXUnilobar HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because propranolol is an agent with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with worsening depression that has not been addressed clinically will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to or unwillingness to undergo study related procedures including a repeat bronchoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is able/eligible to undergo treatment with transoral surgery (transoral laser microsurgery [TOLM] or transoral robotic surgery [TORS]) with or without neck dissection and with or without adjuvant radiation therapy or chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is a prisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is allergic to naproxen or ibuprofenXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has implanted medical device(s) that pose a high risk for colonization and/or cannot be easily removed (e.g., prosthetic joints, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s), bone graft(s), or other exogenous implant[s]); NOTE: More common devices and prosthetics which include arterial and venous stents, dental and breast implants and venous access devices (e.g. Port-a-Cath or Mediport) are permitted; the study chair must be contacted prior to consenting any subject who has any other device and/or implantXx_NEWLINE_xXThe extrathoracic disease must be controlledXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a minimum expected duration of survival of 8 weeks as determined and documented by the attending surgeon or medical oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any systemic illness which precludes them from being an operative candidateXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with macroscopic recurrent disease are allowed; macroscopic disease is defined as clinically detectable or evident on radiographic imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to blood sampling to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny non-oncology vaccine therapy used for prevention of infectious diseases (for up to 1 month before or after any dose of ipilimumab)\r\n* Subjects may receive flu vaccine at any time before or during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence ongoing transformation into aggressive NHLXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive test results for human T-lymphotropic 1 (HTLV 1) virus; HTLV testing is required in patients from endemic countries (Japan, countries in the Caribbean basin, South America, Central America, Sub Saharan Africa, and Melanesia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of pre-existing hearing deficitsXx_NEWLINE_xXUltrasound visible lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf younger than 40, there must be comorbidities which preclude the patient to undergo cyclophosphamide (Cy) TBI conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-compliant to medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo appropriate caregivers identifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXHIV1 (human immunodeficiency virus-1) or HIV2 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have a history or current evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or predisposing factors to CSR or RVO (i.e., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatinine phosphokinase (i.e. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBisphosphonates are allowed, at the treating investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of kidney stonesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of either symptomatic hypercalcemia or hyperparathyroidism, at the treating investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with biopsy-proven potentially resectable or borderline adenocarcinoma of the pancreas as determined by National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPTT WNL; if patient on warfarin for prophylactic clot presentation for indwelling catheter, PT/PTT may be +/- 15 %Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic evidence of gastric outlet obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with porphyria are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psoriasis are ineligible unless the disease is well controlled and they are under the care of a specialist who agrees to monitor the patient for exacerbationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring the use of enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic medication that includes: phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, primidone or oxcarbazepine are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have evidence of disease progression as demonstrated by an increase of > 50% in lymphocytosis since diagnosis and/or lymphadenopathy and a lymphocyte doubling time of more than 6 months; patients must have had at least 3 months of observation since diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAlthough rare, the only exception to this would be patients with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis who ARE eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: patients who have previously received ipilimumab and have documented gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity must have a normal colonoscopy with normal colonic biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven recurrent meningioma or aggressive meningioma; note: confirmation of ESO expression and pathology is not required in patients with definitive radiologic evidence of meningioma who are unresectable, and in whom radiation therapy without biopsy is the standard treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be co-enrolled in protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one lesion which can be biopsied with acceptable clinical risk as judged by the clinical services who perform the biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphocytes >= 500/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery within 4 weeks of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known or suspected hypersensitivity to GM-CSF (sargramostim), Cytoxan, pentastarch or hetastarch, corn, or dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received at least 1 prior rituximab-based immunochemotherapy (e.g., R-CHOP, R-EPOCH, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically documented uterine leiomyosarcoma with no visible residual diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate TIL available (Turnstile II); pre-rapid expansion procedure (Pre-REP) TIL generated in the similar clinical trial 2004-0069 may also be utilized for Turnstile IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one biopsiable measurable metastatic melanoma, lesion > or = to 1 cm (Turnstile II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have brain lesions =< 1 cm each; the PI or designee will approve the treatment (Turnstile II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication or unwillingness to undergo multiple CT scansXx_NEWLINE_xXHave clinically acceptable laboratory screening results within certain limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treated with simple cystectomy with macroscopically negative margins are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological evaluation of prostate biopsy with assignment of a Gleason score to the biopsy material demonstrating Gleason score 2-7 within 365 days of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to complete the EPIC questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histological evidence of a metastatic well differentiated or moderately differentiated mucinous appendiceal epithelial neoplasm (AEN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic images demonstrating the presence of mucinous peritoneal carcinomatosis (PMP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be considered a candidate for a complete surgical cytoreductive surgery; this determination will be made through either discussion at MD Anderson peritoneal surface malignancy multidisciplinary review or consultation with MD Anderson peritoneal surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to understand and provide answers to the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer (EORTC) Quality of Life Questionnaire Core-30 (QLQ-C30)/ovarian (OV)-28 QOL questionnaires in order to participate in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of complete or partial bowel obstruction based upon clinical assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing use of total parental nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ib: 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: 0, 1 or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior irinotecan or carfilzomibXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have no contraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a ?20mm non-pedunculated colon polypXx_NEWLINE_xXPedunculated polyps (as defined by Paris Classification type Ip or Isp)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ulcerated depressed lesions (as defined by Paris Classification type III)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoor general health (ASA class>3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoor bowel preparationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent or progressive glioblastoma or other grade IV malignant glioma (e.g. glioblastoma, gliosarcoma, giant cell glioblastoma, etc.) who have failed prior radiation but who have not progressed/recurred on bevacizumab; patients will be eligible if the original histology was lower-grade glioma and subsequent diagnosis of glioblastoma or gliosarcoma is madeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any number of recurrences are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of central nervous system (CNS) radiotherapy: radiation of 60 gray (Gy) in 30 fractions, 59.4 Gy in 1.8 Gy fractions, 75 Gy in 30 fractions or equivalent or lower dosesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be maintained on a stable or decreasing corticosteroid regimen from the time of their baseline scan until registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active implanted medical or electronic device or bullet fragments including pacemakers, defibrillators, deep brain stimulators, spinal cord stimulators, vagus nerve stimulators, and programmable shuntsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity or allergy to conductive hydrogels (like the gel used on electrocardiogram [ECG] stickers or TENS [transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation] electrodes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllogeneic patients if: i. patients had engrafted donor cells (i.e., > 20% donor T-cell from peripheral blood [PB]/polymerase chain reaction [PCR]); and, ii. patients NOT in complete remission (CR) after their allogeneic transplant, and off tacrolimus and/or mycophenolate mofetil for at least 3 to 4 weeks with no signs of GVHD; or, iii. patients had evidence of relapse after their transplant who are off tacrolimus and/or mycophenolate mofetil or other immunosuppressants for GVHD for 3 to 4 weeks with no signs of GVHD (prednisone doses =< 10 mg are permitted as stated previously)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior auto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma and listed for orthotopic liver transplantation at the participating institution in accordance with Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network (OPTN) guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXUp to 3 tumors all less than 3 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXNo gross vascular invasion or regional nodal or distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXChilds’ class A or B7Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior TACE, radiofrequency ablation (RFA), or liver transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete obstruction of portal venous flow to the segment of liver that includes the target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors primarily of the tail of the pancreas requiring a distal pancreaticoduodenectomy would be excluded; tumors of the body that require a surgical approach similar to pancreatic head tumors are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known severe claustrophobia or with body habitus not compatible with the bore (> 300 lbs, body mass index [BMI] > 40) may also have to be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient-reported worst pain score between 5 and 10 (inclusive) on a 0-10 scale (assessed verbally)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of duloxetine or milnacipranXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be taking any contraindicated medications listed on the duloxetine package insert including the following: phenothiazines, propafenone, flecainide, linezolid, or anticoagulation medication (e.g., heparin, warfarin); treatment with monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor within 14 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXThumbnail abnormalities on either hand (such as due to chemotherapy or trauma, or artificial nails) that are likely to alter pain perception during testingXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or behavior that would, in the investigator’s judgment, prohibit compliance for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled narrow-angle glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent Grade 3 or higher coagulopathy, thrombosis and/or hemostasis disorders,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Grade 3 or higher blood transfusion incident according to US Biovigilance Network which refers to any transfusion followed by a major intervention (vasopressors, intubation, transfer to intensive care) to prevent death.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresenting with anti-erythrocyte antibodies leading to the unavailability of phenotype compatible red blood cells.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient undergoing yellow fever vaccination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with corticosteroid requirements to control cerebral edema must be maintained at a stable or decreasing dose for a minimum of two weeks without progression of clinical symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXMultifocal progression or involvement of the leptomeningesXx_NEWLINE_xXInfratentorial diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient receiving or planning to receive trastuzumab, trastuzumab with pertuzumab or ado-trastuzumab emtansine, for at least 3 months, alone or in combination with other systemic treatment or radiationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent signs or symptoms of heart failure (HF) or ischemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of anthracyclines or use of anthracyclines in the last 50 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility for pediatric patients will be determined in conjunction with an MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC) pediatrician; patients age 2-17 years old may be enrolled after at least 4 adults (ages 18-65 years old) have been treated without toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS): a. de novo MDS with intermediate or high-risk International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) scores; patients with intermediate-1 features should have failed to respond to hypomethylating agent therapy, or b. patients with treatment-related MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXBi-dimensionally measurable disease (as per Revised Assessment in Neuro-Oncology [RANO] criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf sexually active, patients must agree to take contraceptive measures for the duration of the treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection) or recent peripheral arterial thrombosis within 6 months prior to day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen refusing to exercise a reliable form of contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access via central line (e.g., portacath)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior illicit drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is diagnosed with benign or malignant stricture, fistula, perforation, or leakXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician plans to remove the stent within the duration of study follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient that is contraindicated to upper GI endoscopy and/or any procedure to be performed in conjunction with esophageal stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXDIAGNOSIS REQUIREMENT FOR PHASE I PATIENTS: Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with excess blasts (> 5%) and progressive disease at any time after initiation of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) hypomethylator treatment during the past 2 years, OR failure to achieve complete or partial response or hematological improvement after at least six cycles of azacytidine or four cycles of decitabine administered during the past 2 years, OR intolerance to azacytidine or decitabine; MDS patients with isolated 5q- abnormalities that meet these criteria after lenalidomide therapy and DNA hypomethylator therapy are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II ONLY: Isolated extramedullary relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II ONLY: More than one course of salvage chemotherapy for primary induction failure or AML relapsing after first complete remission (CR1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating blast count >= 30,000/uL by morphology or flow cytometry (cytoreductive therapies including leukapheresis or hydroxyurea are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIt is strongly encouraged that all patients have metallic clips placed in the tumor prior to neoadjuvant therapy in order to facilitate evaluation for microscopic disease at the time of surgery; placement of clips is particularly encouraged for patients being considered for breast conserving surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is medically suitable candidate for preoperative chemotherapy and surgery in the judgment of the treating physiciansXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I (ARMS A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, X, Y, Z)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no evidence of dyspnea at rest and a pulse oximetry > 92% while breathing room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients registering to Arms D, E, F, G, H, I, X, Y must not currently be smoking tobacco or other substances and must not have smoked within the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED PHASE II (ARMS K AND L): Patients may not have received other prior activating immunotherapies (i.e. checkpoint inhibitor therapies); for the purposes of this study monoclonal antibodies and antibody drug conjugates are not considered to be activating immunotherapies and there are no additional time restrictions on prior exposure to these agents (except prior brentuximab vedotin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED PHASE II (ARMS K AND L): ECOG-ACRIN performance status between 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED PHASE II (ARMS K AND L): Patients must have no evidence of dyspnea at rest and a pulse oximetry > 92% while breathing room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic evidence of clear cell RCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have > 1 lesion; combined diameter of the lesions must be of size > 1.5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be eligible for SABR to one or more extra cranial sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate cardiac function (adequate perfusion; no ischemia) on thallium (or technetium [Tc]) stress testXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to recombinant IL-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase I Only: Patients are eligible regardless of their FLT3 mutation status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase II only: Patients must have evidence of FLT3 ITD in their most recent assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of planning, unable to deliver 10 Gray (Gy) or less to optic nerve/chiasmXx_NEWLINE_xXNo irreversible coagulopathiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinalysis; abnormalities on urinalysis (i.e. proteinuria) will not exclude patients from participation on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIrreversible coagulopathies that preclude fiducial placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior upper abdominal external beam irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXDecreased platelet count and/or anticoagulation parameters that would preclude transcutaneous placement of fiducialsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a medical or psychological impediment to probable compliance with the protocol should be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with allergies to any component of the vaccine will be excluded from the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute or chronic skin disorders that will interfere with injection into the skin of the extremities or subsequent assessment of potential skin reactions will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed MCL: Ki67 protein (Ki67) < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed MCL: Willing and able to participate in all study related procedures and therapy including swallowing capsules without difficultyXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed MCL: Patients with blastoid and pleomorphic variantsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following specific histologic subtypes of soft tissue sarcomas will be excluded: gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST), Kaposi’s sarcoma, mesothelioma, dermatofibrosarcoma, chordoma, alveolar soft-part sarcoma; also, all bone sarcomas are excluded including Ewing’s sarcoma, osteosarcoma, GIST, low grade chondrosarcoma, and chordomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking concomitant histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors; use of HDAC inhibitor like compounds such as valproic acid for epilepsy is permitted if there is at least a 2 week wash outXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4) within normal limits (patients may be on thyroid hormone replacement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been treated with vemurafenib will be allowed in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have taken a hypomethylating agentXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia defined as heart rate < 50 beats per minute; patients with a pacemaker and heart rate >= 50 beats per minute are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block and left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of drugs with a risk of causing torsades de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received prior therapies will be allowed to enroll after a wash-out period as follows assuming they have recovered from the side effects of such therapies:\r\n* Chemotherapy – 3 week wash-out period\r\n* Oral agents – 2 week wash-out period (except vemurafenib, which will require no wash-out period)\r\n* Investigational agents – 3 week wash-out period\r\n* Immunotherapy – 4 week wash-out period\r\n* Palliative radiation therapy to bone/brain – 2 week wash-out period\r\n* Major radiation or surgical procedure – 3 week wash-out periodXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other severe concurrent disease, or have a history of serious organ dysfunction or disease involving the heart, kidney, liver, or other organ system that may place the patient at undue risk to undergo the proposed therapy; this includes uncontrolled hypertension and uncontrolled diabetes, as cases of life threatening hyperglycemia have been reported (using continuous infusion at higher doses of omacetaxine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXcT2 N+ or cT3-T4 N0 or N+ as assessed by endorectal ultrasound (US)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to refrain from the use of any nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or full-dose acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)-containing NSAID while taking study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously taken omega-3 fatty acid within 1 month prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not take any of the following medications while on study, but will be considered eligible if medication is discontinued 72 hours prior to first dose of sirolimus:\r\n* Carbamazepine (e.g. Tegretol)\r\n* Rifabutin (e.g. Mycobutin)\r\n* Rifampin (e.g. Rifadin)\r\n* Rifapentine (e.g. Priftin)\r\n* St. John’s wort\r\n* Clarithromycin (e.g. Biaxin)\r\n* Cyclosporine e.g. (Neoral or Sandimmune)\r\n* Diltiazem (e.g. Cardizem)\r\n* Erythromycin (e.g. Akne-Mycin, Ery-Tab)\r\n* Itraconazole (e.g. Sporanox)\r\n* Fluconazole (e.g. Diflucan)\r\n* Ketoconazole (e.g. Nizoral)\r\n* Telithromycin (e.g. Ketek)\r\n* Verapamil (e.g. Calan SR, Isoptin, Verelan)\r\n* Voriconazole (e.g. VFEND) - can take 72 hours after last dose of sirolimus\r\n* Tacrolimus (e.g. Prograf)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Mutation in the GATA2 gene, or evidence of loss of expression of one allele of GATA2, by complementary deoxyribonucleic acid (cDNA) analysis performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory, or the clinical syndrome of MonoMACXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Clinical history of at least one life-threatening infection and/or MDS with International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) category of intermediate-1, intermediate-2, or highXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Adequate central venous access potentialXx_NEWLINE_xXHAPLOIDENTICAL RELATED DONOR: Haploidentical donors will undergo marrow harvest with general anesthesia; subjects will undergo anesthesia consultation prior to enrollment; cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ fraction will be determinedXx_NEWLINE_xXHAPLOIDENTICAL RELATED DONOR: History of prior malignancy; however, cancer survivors who have undergone potentially curative therapy may be considered for stem cell donation on a case-by-case basis; the risk/benefit of the transplant and the possibility of transmitting viable tumor cells at the time of transplantation will be discussed with the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXHAPLOIDENTICAL RELATED DONOR: Mutation in GATA2, or evidence of loss of expression of one allele of GATA2 by cDNA analysis performed by a CLIA certified laboratory, or in the case where the mutation in GATA2 has not been identified, but the recipient has the clinical syndrome of MonoMAC, the donor is required to have no clinical history of MonoMACXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a tissue or blood proven KRAS or EGFR mutation confirmed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified lab (only required in the Phase IB expansion cohort)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CK (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed, advanced stage, high-risk neuroblastoma defined as one of the following:\r\n* Children < 1 year with International Neuroblastoma Staging System (INSS) stage 2a, 2b, 3, 4 or 4S disease and MYCN amplification (> 10 copies, or greater than four-fold increase in MYCN signal as compared to reference signal)\r\n* INSS 2a or 2b disease and MYCN amplification, regardless of age or additional biologic features\r\n* INSS stage 3 and:\r\n** MYCN amplification (> 10 copies, or greater than four-fold increase in MYCN signal as compared to reference signal, regardless of age or additional biologic features)\r\n** Age > 18 months (> 547 days) with unfavorable pathology, regardless of MYCN status\r\n* INSS stage 4 and:\r\n** MYCN amplification, regardless of age or additional biologic features\r\n** Age > 18 months (> 547 days) regardless of biologic features\r\n** Age 12 – 18 months (365 – 547 days) with any of the following three unfavorable biologic features (MYCN amplification, unfavorable pathology and/or deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] index = 1) or any biologic feature that is indeterminate/unknown\r\n* Children >= 365 days initially diagnosed with: INSS stage 1, 2, 4S who have progressed to a stage 4 without interval chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren with INSS 4 disease, age < 18 months with all 3 favorable biologic features (non-amplified MYCN, favorable pathology and deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] index > 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-SBRT prostate volume > 120 cc as estimated by trans-rectal ultrasound at time of prostate biopsy (TRUS biopsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust consent to participate in study I 03103: Roswell Park Cancer Institute (RPCI) Data Bank and Biorepository (DBBR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable autologous or syngeneic activated peripheral blood T cell products (CD28zeta and CD28/CD137zeta) with >= 15% expression of CD19.CAR determined by flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXIf a patient does not have a hematopoietic stem cell product available for re-infusion after MIBG treatment, they may not receive a 131I-MIBG dose > 12mCi/kg; patients must have a hematopoietic stem cell product available for reinfusion after MIBG treatment at doses of > 12 mCi/kg; the minimum quantity for peripheral blood stem cells is 1.5 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation [CD]34+ cells/kg (optimum > 2 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg); the minimum dose for bone marrow is 1.0 x 10^8 mononuclear cells/kg (optimum > 2.0 x 10^8 mononuclear cells/kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal lung function as manifested by no dyspnea and/or oxygen saturation >= 94% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated patients with locoregional-only disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions to be treated under this protocol must be > 2 cm, but =< 4.0 cm in diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXConformality index 2.0 or less cannot be achieved, or homogeneity index is > 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to deliver 10 gray (Gy) or less to optic nerve/chiasm (typically 3 mm or more separation of the tumor from the optic nerve/chiasm is necessary)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBrainstem location is excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXInvasive ductal, medullary, papillary, colloid (mucinous) or tubular histologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients presenting with abnormal microcalcifications on a screening mammogram must have radiographically confirmed excision of the suspicious microcalcifications, either by specimen radiograph or post-biopsy mammogramsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe target lumpectomy cavity must be clearly delineated and the target lumpectomy cavity/whole breast reference volume must be =< 30% based on the postoperative/pre-enrollment computed tomography (CT) scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPure DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXLobular or mixed ductal and lobular histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXClear delineation of the extent of the lumpectomy cavity is not possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had a positive SLNB but decline completion ALND are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspicious microcalcifications, densities, or palpable abnormalities (in the ipsilateral or contralateral breast) unless these were biopsied and found to be benignXx_NEWLINE_xXPaget’s disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXCollagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or with an active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXActively being treated on any other therapeutic research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 SUBJECTS ONLY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic deposits near a great vessel or spinal cordXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 SUBJECTS ONLY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 AND 2 SUBJECTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of alcohol abuse or illicit drug use within 12 months of study initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior myocardial infraction (MI) ascertained from medical history and review of systemsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimaries on the torso, upper and lower extremities and head and neck regionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior wide excision with diameter of the excision > 3 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary melanoma arises from the eye or mucus membranesXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of regional, intransit ,or distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary or secondary immunodeficienciesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe protocol chairman will determine the eligibility of patients related to hepatic abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPediatric patients (age 7-18 years) will be entered only after 3 adult patients have been entered without dose limiting toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled infection, not responding to appropriate antimicrobial agents after seven days of therapy; the protocol principal investigator (PI) is the final arbiter of eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXInfratentorial and multi-focal tumors are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 30 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases beyond the cranial vaultXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be capable and reliable to participate in all study related proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of cervical conglomerate nodal mass or extracapsular spread (ECS) on imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject presents an increased surgical risk including abnormally positioned carotid artery or an inability to obtain adequate exposure for transoral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has previously been treated for the primary diagnosis of OP-SCCA or SG-SCCAXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with metastatic disease exclusively present within a previously irradiated field\r\n* Subjects with metastasis within and outside of previously irradiated field that is eligible for SABR are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any of the following within the past 14 days: megestrol acetate (Megace), diethyl stilbestrol (DES), or cyproterone acetate, ketoconazole, high dose calcitriol [1,25(OH)2VitD] (i.e., > 7.0 ug/week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary HLH patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of secondary Haemophagocytic Lymphohistiocytosis consequent to a proven rheumatic or neoplastic disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight < 3 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treated with biologics within a specific timeframeXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed high-grade glioma (World Health Organization [WHO] grade 3 or 4), with documented computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) progression or recurrence; biopsy is also an acceptable method of confirming progression; if initial tumor was grade 2 glioma, histological confirmation of high-grade recurrence is required\r\n* After first interim analysis, if the study proceeds to enrollment of selected patients (only those who have PDGFR alpha-positive tumors), patients will be pre-registered for PDGFR alpha analysis and registered to the combination treatment schema only if PDGFR alpha-positive and all other enrollment criteria are metXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions or intolerance to any of the required agents on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSeizure disorder necessitating the use of enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs (EIAEDs); efforts may be made by the treating physician to change the antiepileptic drug from another agent to valproic acid or non-EIAED prior to excluding the patient from studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of priapismXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of retinitis pigmentosaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown mitochondrial disorder caused by mutations in mitochondrial deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) polymerase gammaXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent heart rate (HR) < 50 or > 120 beats per minute (bpm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntraoperative histological frozen section at the time of tumor resection compatible with high-grade glioma; if intraoperative diagnosis is not compatible with high grade glioma, the patient will not be treatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic, renal, and liver function as determined by hematology and clinical chemistry tests will be acceptable if within +/- 2x of “normal” reference range as defined by the local hospital clinical laboratory; final decision on inclusion will be made by physician, concerning suitability of patient for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXDiffusely multifocal lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions not amenable to GTRXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors infiltrate the cerebellum, bilateral corpus callosum (“butterfly glioma”), ventricular system, or brain stemXx_NEWLINE_xXInfratentorial high grade gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of other significant disease including hematologic, renal or liver disease that is not explained by the patient’s current medical condition or concomitant disease, (i.e. levels of absolute neutrophil count [ANC], hemoglobin, platelets, clotting time, serum creatinine, etc); lab values, as determined by hematology and clinical chemistry tests, will be unacceptable if greater than +/- 2x of “normal” reference range as defined by the local hospital clinical laboratory; final decision on inclusion will be made by physician, concerning suitability of patient for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXUnacceptable anesthesia riskXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood counts no restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who had anything less than a CR (PR, SD or progressive disease) to their last salvage regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure to obtain insurance/payment authorization for Zevalin, unless the subject agrees to cover the costXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior allogeneic HCT, and no autologous HCT within the previous 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Identified as either:\r\n* Completed the process of donor eligibility determination as outlined in 21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1271 and agency guidance; OR\r\n* Does not meet 21 CFR 1271 eligibility requirements, but has a declaration of urgent medical need completed by the principal investigator or physician sub-investigator per 21 CFR 1271Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be excluded on the basis of sex, racial or ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive leukocytotoxic crossmatchXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has at least one medically fit family member expected to be HLA mismatched at 1-9/10 more commonly and preferred: 4-6/10 loci (e.g. parent, sibling, niece/nephew, etc. but adult children preferred)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Positive infectious disease test as dictated by blood collection center’s standard operating procedure (SOP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have >= 0.5 cm of inflammatory breast cancer (IBC) on core (5 cores)\r\n* NOTE: If the core is less than 0.5 cm, the subjects may be considered for inclusion based on the pathologists’ review of biopsy slidesXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have allergies to any compounds similar to CDB-4124Xx_NEWLINE_xXWhile participating, subjects must agree not to use soy supplements, over the counter estrogen supplements like Estroven, Chinese herbs, or other over-the-counter (OTC) herbal productsXx_NEWLINE_xXHLA-A2 positive based on flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent treatment or medications (must be off for at least 1 week) including:\r\n* Interferon (e.g. Intron-A)\r\n* Allergy desensitization injections\r\n* Growth factors (e.g. Procrit, Aranesp, Neulasta)\r\n* Interleukins (e.g. Proleukin)\r\n* Any investigational therapeutic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known immune deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXCombination of any two of the following (a+b or a+c, or b+c):Xx_NEWLINE_xXSexually active males unless they use a condom during intercourse while taking drug and for 1 months after pasireotide s.c. last dose and 3 months after pasireotide LAR last dose and should not father a child in this period. A condom is required to be used also by vasectomized men in order to prevent delivery of the drug via seminal fluid If a study patient or partner becomes pregnant or suspects being pregnant during the study or within 1 month after the final dose of pasireotide s.c. or 3 months after the final dose of pasireotide LAR, the Study Doctor needs to be informed immediately and ongoing study treatment with pasireotide has to be stopped immediately For patients taking pasireotide LAR, the future dose injections will be cancelled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must demonstrate active noninfectious inflammatory pustular skin lesions resembling pustular psoriasis and involving >= 5% total body surface area, or palmoplantar involvement; conditions may include, but are not be limited to, pustular psoriasis, Sneddon-Wilkinson disease, subcorneal pustular dermatosis, reactive arthritis, palmoplantar pustulosis, acrodermatitis continua of Hallopeau and palmoplantar pustular psoriasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histopathologic confirmation of epidermal neutrophilic pustular skin diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXQuantiferon tuberculosis (TB) gold must be performed for screening for mycobacterium tuberculosis infection; however, a tuberculin skin test may be placed if the Quantiferon TB gold test is indeterminate; patients must have a negative Quantiferon TB Gold (or tuberculin skin test) or evidence of appropriate treatment prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anakinra useXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who experience a significant flare after discontinuation of a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor as part of this study that requires urgent medical management or hospitalization, or in the estimation of the principal investigator poses excessive risk to the patient to enter the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOther defined dermatologic conditions which may include pustules as part of the clinical presentation, but which clinically and/or histologically do not resemble pustular psoriasis; examples include, but are not limited to acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP, a drug-induced pustular dermatosis typically caused by beta-lactam antibiotics, tetracyclines, oral antifungals and other drugs), bacterial or fungal folliculitis, cutaneous candidiasis, tinea pedis, tinea corporis, neutrophilic eccrine hidradenitis or eosinophilic pustular folliculitis (Ofuji syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of deficiency of the interleukin-1 receptor antagonist (DIRA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active infection; history of exposure to TB (positive purified protein derivative [PPD] or Quantiferon TB gold) who have not been treated with a TB prophylaxis regimen for at least one monthXx_NEWLINE_xXChest x-ray (if Quantiferon TB Gold is positive) demonstrating pleural scarring and/or calcified granuloma consistent with prior or current untreated TBXx_NEWLINE_xXOther immunoregulatory or immunodeficiency diseases, such as multiple sclerosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with life-threatening or disabling inflammation of the eyes, gut or joints requiring urgent or immediate medical attention, or at the physician's discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects for whom there is concern about compliance with the protocol proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of primary myelofibrosis (PM), post polycythemia vera myelofibrosis (PPV MF), or post essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosis (PET MF) requiring therapy, including those previously treated and relapsed or refractory, or if newly diagnosed, with intermediate or high risk according to International Working Group (IWG-MRT) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with RUX or AZA (only applicable for the MF and MDS/MPN arms)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed, untreated intraocular retinoblastoma; participants previously diagnosed with unilateral retinoblastoma treated surgically, with focal therapy or needing chemotherapy who develop asynchronous involvement of the contralateral eye, or patients with unilateral retinoblastoma treated only with enucleation or focal therapy who develop asynchronous involvement of the contralateral eye, will be eligible for studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight >40 kg (88 lb) and ?150 kg (330 lb); if between 13 and 14 years of age must weigh >= 50 kg (110 lb)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic (>1 month duration) IA, relapsed/recurrent IA, or refractory IA which has not responded to antifungal therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic pulmonary aspergillosis, pulmonary sarcoidosis, aspergilloma, or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA).Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of any systemic (oral, intravenous, or inhaled) antifungal therapy for this infection episode for 4 or more consecutive days (>= 96 hours) immediately before randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDeveloped the current episode of IA infection during receipt of >13 days of antifungal prophylaxis with an agent considered to be a mold-active antifungal agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hereditary problem of galactose intolerance, Lapp lactase deficiency, or glucose-galactose malabsorption.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute symptomatic pancreatitis within 6 months of study entry or a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis at the time of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOn artificial ventilation or receiving acute Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)/Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BPAP) at the time of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected Gilbert's disease at the time of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPancreatic or periampullary tumors must be less than 8.0 cm in greatest axial dimension at the time of treatment planningXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be a patient to be treated with SBRT only at Johns Hopkins HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of probable pancreatic cancer, distal common bile duct (CBD) cholangiocarcinoma and other periampullary cancers (histology not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary obstructive symptoms or signsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin level at/above 100 umol per liter (5.8 mg/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDistal biliary obstruction consistent with pancreatic cancer, distal CBD cholangiocarcinoma or other periampullary malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXLocation of distal biliary obstruction is such that it would allow the proximal end of a stent to be positioned at least 2cm from the hilumXx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary strictures caused by confirmed benign tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary strictures caused by malignancies other than pancreatic cancer, distal CBD cholangiocarcinoma and other periampullary cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgically altered biliary tract anatomy, not including prior cholecystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious biliary drainage by ERCP/PTCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom endoscopic techniques are contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXIf image guidance with daily cone beam CT with direct physician visual assessment is used for treatment positioning, the presence of markers or clips in the surgical bed is recommended but not required. If cone beam CT imaging will NOT be used for image guidance, then the patient must be prepared to have 2 fiducial markers minimum, 3 preferred, placed prior to treatment (if not previously done).Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf markers or clips were placed at the time of surgery, patient must be able to start treatment within 12 weeks after lumpectomy or re-excision for adequate margins.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf markers were not placed at the time of surgery and are needed, patient must have markers placed within 6 weeks after surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny clinical or radiographically suspicious nodes, unless biopsy proven benign.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuspicious residual microcalcifications on mammography of either breast, unless negative for malignancy on pathology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMulticentric or bilateral disease unless biopsy of the clinical abnormalities are performed and result is negative.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphovascular space invasion (LVSI) on pathology specimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPaget's disease of the nipple.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSkin involvement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant infection or other co-existing medical condition that would preclude protocol therapy such as pregnancy, HIV/AIDS or collagen vascular diseases specifically systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, or dermatomyositis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically and cytologically proven bile duct cancer of any type (including intrahepatic cholangiocarcinomas, extrahepatic primary cholangiocarcinomas, hilar cholangiocarcinomas, cholangiocarcinomas located in the gall bladder or hepatic capsule effraction, and carcinoma of the Ampulla of Vater, etc.) that is not amenable to surgery, radiation, or combined modality therapy with curative intent, and has failed or is not eligible for available chemotherapies such as gemcitabine with or without platinumXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of biliary duct obstruction, unless obstruction is controlled by local treatment or, in whom the biliary tree can be decompressed by endoscopic or percutaneous stenting with subsequent reduction in bilirubin to below 1.5 x upper level of normal (ULN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea with moderate exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior illicit drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged 60 to 65 years must have a KPS of >= 80% and an HCT-CI score of 4 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged 66 to 69 years must have a KPS of 90% and an HCT-CI score of 3 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged 70 years or more must have a KPS of 90% and an HCT-CI score of 2 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high-risk NB (including v-myc myelocytomatosis viral related oncogene [MYCN] amplified stage 2/3/4/4S of any age and MYCN-non-amplified stage 4 in patients greater than 18 months of age) AND:\r\n* Phase I: Patients must have refractory or relapsed NB, resistant to standard therapy; for NB standard therapy includes intensive induction chemotherapy, followed by a variety of consolidation or salvage therapies, depending on response\r\n* Phase II: Patients must have primary or secondary refractory disease in BM, defined as morphologic evidence of NB in BM and/or abnormal 123 iodine (I)-MIBG uptake in osteomedullary sites, OR patients are in >= 2nd CR/VGPRXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting major organ dysfunction > grade 2, with the exception of hearing loss and hematologic toxicity (defined as suppression of all subtypes of white blood cells [WBCs], red blood cells [RBCs], and platelets)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHuman anti-hu3F8 antibody (HAHA) titer > 1300 Elisa units/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXIn cases of SLL, subjects must have at least one bidimensionally measurable lesion; one of the measurements must be >= 1.5 cm in one dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivity to any immunomodulatory drugs (IMiDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior use of pomalidomideXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenström’s macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary systemic amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients 18 years or older with Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)-positive or BCR/ABL-positive CML (as determined by cytogenetics, FISH, or PCR).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received the current TKI for at least 18 months and not have increased their dose in the last 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the phase I portion of the study, patients may be included without a CCyR provided they remain in chronic or accelerated phase CML and have at least a CHR. For the Phase II portion of the study patients must be in complete cytogenetic remission (CCyR), regardless of the stage of disease they had at the time they started therapy with TKI.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have detectable BCR-ABL transcript levels meeting at least 1 of the following criteria: Patient has never achieved a major molecular response (MMR, as defined by a BCR-ABL/ABL </=0.1% in the international scale (currently equivalent to 0.28 in the MDACC molecular diagnostic laboratory), & transcript levels have shown in at least 2 consecutive measures separated by at least 1 month to have increased by any value; or achieved a major molecular response which has been lost, with an interim increase in transcript levels by at least one-log, confirmed in two consecutive analyses separated by at least 1 month; or patient has received therapy for at least 2 years & lacks a sustained major molecular response; or patient has received therapy for at least 5 years & lacks a sustained complete molecular response (CMR, defined as transcript levels still detectable in the MDACC molecular diagnostic laboratory).Xx_NEWLINE_xXANC >/=1 x10(9)/L and platelets >/=100 x10(9)/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the phase I portion of the study, patients in blast phase. For the phase II portion of the study, patients in accelerated or blast phase.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have a confirmed diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia defined as all of the following:\r\n* Absolute lymphocyte count (ALC) > 5000\r\n* Positive for either CD19 or CD 20 together with CD23 and CD5\r\n* Less than 55% atypical cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who relapse after receiving a one or more courses of fludarabine, bendamustine, cytoxan, rituxan, chlorambucil, or campath based therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have findings of relapse by one or both of the following:\r\n* ALC > 5000 on 2 consecutive occasions and increasing\r\n* Any increase in lymphadenopathy over best response that has persisted for more than 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with confirmed del11q mutation may be included if untreatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to drink and eat more than 75% of their usual daily mealsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS must be transplant candidates by current clinical standardsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been treated with hypomethylating agents prior to entering the study are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have 4-8 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cells/kg (recipient weight) infused on day 0Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have at least one additional aliquot of >= 1 x 10^6 CD34/kg cryopreserved cells stored at the time of transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXMust receive a myeloablative or reduced intensity conditioning regimen for stem cell transplant (SCT) as defined by the Center for International Blood and Bone Marrow Transplant Research (CIBMTR)\r\n* Cyclophosphamide (Cy) and single dose total body irradiation\r\n* Fludarabine (Flu) and busulfan\r\n* Fractionated total body irradiation (TBI) and cyclophosphamide\r\n* Busulfan and cyclophosphamideXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to receive GVHD prophylaxis with tacrolimus and methotrexateXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have nonmyeloablative conditioning as defined below:\r\n* TBI =< 2 Gy +/- purine analog\r\n* Flu + Cy +/- antithymocyte globulin (ATG)\r\n* Flu + cytarabine (AraC) + idarubicin (Ida)\r\n* Cladribine + AraC\r\n* Total lymphoid irradiation + ATGXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not receive antithymocyte globulin as part of pre-transplant conditioning regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXAn anticipated overall survival of at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have undergone/undergo testing for v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) V600 mutation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious history of anaphylaxis or severe allergic reaction to hsp110, gp100, other vaccines, or unknown allergensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate TIL available (Turnstile II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one biopsiable and measurable metastatic melanoma lesions >= 1 cm (Turnstile II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have brain lesions which measure =< 1 cm each (Turnstile II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor dose escalation study, patients must have histological confirmation of solid tumors that is metastatic or unresectable. For expansion cohorts, patients must have metastatic or unresectable GIST, melanoma, or uncategorized tumors with tumor biopsies that are positive for c-KIT mutations by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or immunohistochemistry (IHC). For patients enrolled in the melanoma expansion cohort, only select KIT mutations will be eligible. Patients with mutations in exon 13 V654X, 14 T6701, 17 D816X and all exon 18 mutations will not be eligible for enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in the expansion cohort must also agree to participate in the biomarker study. However, patients in the Melanoma KIT positive mutant subgroup, patients must agree to participate in the biomarker study and biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of St. John’s Wort because of its effects on hepatic drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an organ confined renal mass planning to undergo a robotic assisted partial nephrectomy (RAPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with non-organ confined renal masses (invading renal vein, inferior vena cava, peri-renal tissue, ipsilateral adrenal gland, or metastasis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with bilateral synchronous renal massesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot discontinue Plavix, Coumadin or other anti-platelet or anti-coagulant medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal lesions determined to be too complex to perform a RAPN without clamp by the surgeon; (the renal mass may be deemed too difficult based on pre-operatively radiological findings; the surgeon’s decision to exclude a mass from a robotic assisted partial nephrectomy would be based on a higher risk of positive margin or complication if a RAPN was performed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high risk multiple myeloma who are transplant candidates, in partial response (PR) or better; high risk will be defined as patients with any of the following:\r\n* Fluorescence in situ hybridization showing t(4:14), t(14:16)t (14:20) deletion (Del) 17/17p or gain (amp) 1q; \r\n* Deletion 13 by conventional cytogenetic analysis; \r\n* High risk signatures as determined by the GEP-70 or EMC-92 gene expression profiles;\r\n* Relapsed disease within 18 months of prior autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of autologous peripheral blood stem cell graft, containing at least 6.0 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation 34 positive (CD34+) cells/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired baseline laboratory dataXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with transfusion-dependent anemia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of documented human anti-globulin antibodies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRapid influenza diagnostic test (RIDT), polymerase chain reaction (PCR), or viral culture positive for influenzaXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromisedXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms/signs suggestive of influenza like illness (ILI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of severe hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXInfants with post-menstrual age (PMA) <36 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXHereditary fructose intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXMPN-associated myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior sotaterceptXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated or uncontrolled grade 3 or 4 graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNY-ESO-1 positive malignancy by immunohistochemistry (IHC) utilizing commonly available NY-ESO-1 antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with skin metastases, lesions selected as non-completely biopsied target lesion(s) that can be accurately measured and recorded by color photography with a ruler to document the size of the target lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo restriction based on prior treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to accept at least two leukapheresis proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B or C seropositivity with evidence of ongoing liver damage, which would increase the likelihood of hepatic toxicities from the chemotherapy conditioning regimen and supportive treatments; if there is a positive result in the infectious disease testing that was not previously known, the patient will be referred to their primary physician and/or infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms or manifestations of: a) gastroparesis; b) refractory gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) including persistent esophagitis, refractory heartburn, reflux-related laryngitis, and respiratory symptoms; or c) severe dyspepsiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of a comprehensive evaluation, including clinical history and physical examination, to eliminate other causes of their symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are receiving antiarrhythmic medications with action on repolarization times (with prolongation of the QTc interval such as amiodarone, disopyramide, dofetilide, flecainide, ibutilide, quinidine, sotalol, dronedarone etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of bisphosphonates or RANK-ligand inhibitors is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 1.5 x institutional ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a target tumor that is accessible for intratumoral administration by PTA (Percutaneous transluminal approach) or EUS (Endoscopic Ultrasound) guidance as determined by the radiologist/gastroenterologist performing the PTA/EUS injection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBulky celiac adenopathy (?2.5 cm) or nonadenocarcinoma histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive or other pulmonary disease with hypoxemia (requires supplementary oxygen, symptoms due to hypoxemia or oxygen saturation <90% by pulse oximetry after a 2 minute walk) or in the opinion of the investigator any physiological state likely to cause systemic or regional hypoxemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to CMC-544 within past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXEstablished refractoriness to CMC-544Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have cytologic or histologic confirmation of carcinoma arising in the pancreas; patients with neuroendocrine tumors are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal bilirubin < 2.0 mg/dl with relief of biliary obstruction if present (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography [PTC] tube or endobiliary stent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of alcohol abuse or illicit drug use within 12 months of study initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe aplastic anemia defined by one of the following: peripheral blood neutrophils < 0.5 x 10^9/L; platelets < 30 x 10^9/L or platelet transfusion dependence; reticulocytes < 50 x 10^9/L in anemic patients or red cell transfusion dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of dyskeratosis congenita based on clinical triad of abnormalities of skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy, oral leukoplakia; OR one of clinical triad and presence of two or more associated features; OR a pathogenic mutation in DKC1,TERC, TERT, NOP10, NHP2, TCAB1, TINF2, CTC1, PARN, RTEL1, or ACD as reported by a CLIA-approved laboratory; OR age-adjusted mean telomere length < 1%ile in peripheral blood lymphocytes as reported by a CLIA-approved laboratory; OR Hoyeraal-Hreidarsson syndrome; OR Revesz syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of Fanconi anemia must be excluded by mitomycin C or diepoxybutane chromosomal breakage testing on peripheral blood at a CLIA-approved laboratory (not required for patients with a genetic mutation consistent with DC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXcT2/T3-N0-M0 urothelial carcinoma of the bladderXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of pacemaker or intracranial aneurysm clipXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must express HLA-A*0201Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are currently undergoing or who previously underwent matched allogeneic HCT for:\r\n* AML: Prospective enrollment will now be limited to patients with relapsed disease (overt relapse or minimal residual disease) at any time post allogeneic HCT\r\n* MDS will no longer be a criterion for eligibility\r\n* CML will no longer be a criterion for eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be >= 15 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocyte >= 1500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Males and females aged 18-50 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Subjects must be co-enrolled in National Institutes of Health (NIH) protocol 08-HG-0059Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Access to bathing facilities (Cohort 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Subjects must be aged 2-50 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Subjects must be co-enrolled in NIH protocol 08-HG-0059Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Subjects must have a diagnosis of atopic dermatitis on the basis of the criteria defined by UK Working Party's Diagnostic Criteria for Atopic DermatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Subjects must have a primary care providerXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Subjects must have an Objective SCORAD (SCORing Atopic Dermatitis) of >= 15 indicating AD severity of moderate to severeXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Access to bathing facilitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Any female with symptoms and/or serum hormone levels consistent with perimenopauseXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Use of systemic antibiotics in 12 months preceding baseline samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Use of swimming pools, hot tubs, or whirlpools in 7 days preceding baseline samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Use of topical or oral complementary/alternative medicine (CAM) agents within 4 weeks of initiation of treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Known allergic reaction to sulfa, beta-lactam, or tetracycline class drugs; or lidocaine or epinephrineXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Family history of toxic epidermal necrolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: History of AD and asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Any chronic past or present medical illness, including chronic skin diseases like psoriasisXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Subjects receiving or planning to receive an investigational new drug (IND) agent, ultraviolet light therapy, monoclonal antibodies, or systemic immunosuppressantsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORTS 1 AND 2: HEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Subjects who provide direct healthcare or reside in healthcare facilities or in non-hospital settings such as clinics, assisted living facilities, homeless shelters, jails and prisons as well as subjects with frequent exposure to laboratory animalsXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Any female with symptoms and/or serum hormone levels consistent with perimenopauseXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Known allergic reaction to beta-lactam class drugs, lidocaine, or epinephrineXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Family history of toxic epidermal necrolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Known allergic reaction to sodium hypochlorite (NaOCl)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Use of topical corticosteroids on all intended sampling sites within 7 days, prior to baseline samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Subjects with unstable or uncontrolled medical conditions that could require hospitalization during the initial month of the study or who have been hospitalized for treatment of these conditions in the one month prior to baseline samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3: ATOPIC DERMATITIS PATIENTS: Pregnancy or lactatingXx_NEWLINE_xXSmokers and subjects who use smokeless tobacco products are excluded in all cohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss < 15% in the 3 months before diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXThe gross target volume (GTV) is suitable for motion management using 4 dimensional computed tomography (4D CT), internal target volume (ITV), or respiratory gating; in addition, the target coverage and normal tissue constraints must be met as specified in protocol accounting for the respiratory motion of anatomy as a whole (not just the tumor)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radiotherapy to any anatomic regions that would result in overlap of radiation dose distribution to critical structures (esophagus, heart, spinal cord, brachial plexus)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient refusalXx_NEWLINE_xXNo change in dosing of immunosuppressive agents in the 2 weeks preceding the naive T-cell depleted donor lymphocyte infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXA commitment not to electively taper for a minimum of 60 days, the immunosuppressive medications ongoing at time of naive T-cell depleted donor lymphocyte infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo extensive chronic GvHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the diagnosis of MDS (low, int-1 by International Prognostic Scoring System [IPSS], or hypocellular) who are either previously treated or untreated are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have an indication for therapy for their disease such as transfusion dependence or morbidity associated with their cytopenia(s) such as bleeding, severe fatigue, or frequent/multiple infections (eg. neutropenia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with measurable inoperable, histologically confirmed primary lung and esophageal carcinomas, thymic neoplasms, germ cell tumors, malignant pleural mesotheliomas or chest wall sarcomas, as well as patients with gastric, colorectal or renal cancers and sarcomas metastatic to the thorax are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease amenable to biopsy via percutaneous approach or other minimally invasive procedures such as thoracoscopy, bronchoscopy, laparoscopy, or gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ATP-binding cassette, sub-family B (MDR/TAP) (ABCB)4 and ABCB11 genotypes associated with mithramycin-mediated hepatotoxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are concurrently receiving or requiring any of the following agents, which may increase the risk for mithramycin related toxicities, such as hemorrhage:\r\n* Thrombolytic agents\r\n* Aspirin or salicylate-containing products, which may increase risk of hemorrhage\r\n* Dextran\r\n* Dipyridamole\r\n* Sulfinpyrazone\r\n* Valproic acid\r\n* ClopidogrelXx_NEWLINE_xXNo uncontrolled thyroid disease (e.g. hyperthyroid/hypothyroidism)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment on another study involving the investigation of veliparib (ABT-888), with the exception of receiving a single dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXConsideration by the Investigator, for any reason, that the subject is an unsuitable candidate to receive veliparib (ABT-888) and/or breast irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXCertain scores on an anxiety and depression mood questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXDasatinib use prior to ASCT is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of LGL clone prior to enrollment will not be an exclusion criterion if the LGL clone is < 25% of T cell populationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have evidence of disease progression before day 100 after ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXProhibited treatments and or therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCategory I drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes including: (patients must discontinue drug 7 days prior to starting dasatinib):\r\n* Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n* Amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide\r\n* Erythromycin, clarithromycin\r\n* Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n* Cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees to discontinue St. Johns Wort while receiving dasatinib therapy (discontinue St. Johns Wort at least 5 days before starting dasatinib)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees that intravenous (IV) bisphosphonates will be withheld for the first 8 weeks of dasatinib therapy due to risk of hypocalcemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have undergone simple, modified radical, or radical abdominal hysterectomy or vaginal hysterectomy and lymphadenectomy (pelvic nodes, para-aortic nodes, or both nodal basins) by open or laparoscopic assisted techniqueXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline hematology laboratories will be performed prior to registration, the patient can be enrolled in the trial if laboratory values are deemed clinically acceptable by treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histological confirmation of the diagnosis (it is recommended that the immunohistochemical panel includes: CD45, CD20, CD30, CD15, CD10, BCL6, BCL2, MUM-1), and in addition have a dominant mass within the anterior mediastinum.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be eligible if the treatment phase consisting in a Rituximab combined with any anthracycline-containing chemotherapy regimen without consolidation with autologous stem cell support (e.g., 6 cycles of CHOP14-21, DA-EPOCH, Mega-CHOP or 12 weeks of VACOP-B or MACOP-B).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 6 courses of Rituximab should be administeredXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnostic material available for review.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary AML in 1st remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXAML in 1st relapse or >= 2nd remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXOther rare lethal disorders of hematopoiesis and lymphohistiocytosis for which a T-cell depleted transplant is indicated (e.g., hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis; refractory; non-severe combined immunodeficiency [SCID] lethal genetic immunodeficiencies such as Wiskott Aldrich syndrome, CD40 ligand deficiency, autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome [ALPS])Xx_NEWLINE_xX< 2.0 x ULN serum bilirubin, unless there is congenital benign hyperbilirubinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be eligible to have all lesions treated with SRS (i.e. maximum diameter of largest lesion < 3.5 cm) as determined by the radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have histologically proven intracranial glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) or gliosarcoma (GS); this includes treatment-naive patients with prior tissue diagnoses of lower grade gliomas that have been upgraded to GBM after repeat resectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have available archived tissues of 20-30 unstained slides; if frozen tissues are available, at least 200 mg would be preferred, but not mandatory for study eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to forego other drug therapy against the tumor while being treated with pulse dosing of lapatinib and temozolomide and radiation and subsequently pulse dosing lapatinib and temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with histologic proof of advanced solid tumors, who are not candidates for known regimens or protocol treatments of higher efficacy or priorityXx_NEWLINE_xXFor dose expansion phase: patients must have EphA2 overexpression overall H-score of 3 or above in immunohistochemistry (IHC) evaluation; Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified EphA2 IHC staining to be performed on formalin fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue sections using monoclonal EphA2 antibody; EphA2 expression to be assessed through a combo of % of positive cells and staining intensity; the % of positive cells will be rated: 0 points (pts), 0 to 5%; 2 pts, 6 to 50%; 3 pts, 50%; the staining intensity will be rated as follows: 1 pt, weak intensity; 2 pts, moderate intensity; 3 pts, strong intensity; pts for expression and % of positive cells will be added; an overall score will be assigned; tumors to be categorized into 4 groups: negative (overall score 0), 5% cells stained, regardless of intensity; weak expression (overall score 1), 1 - 2 pts; moderate expression (overall score 2), 3 - 4 pts; and strong expression (overall score 3), 5 - 6 pts; overall H-score of 3 or above will be defined as EphA2 overexpression in tumor cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose circumstances do not permit completion of the study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXExclusion criteria (PET specific):\r\n* Pregnant or nursing women; extreme claustrophobia; weight near or greater than 350 poundsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have clinically severe SCD (SS, SC or SBeta0 Thal) or thalassemia major and be eligible for myeloablative SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient physiological reservesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biopsy proven locally advanced sinus, nasal cavity, hard palate, soft palate, major or minor salivary gland tumors, or lacrimal apparatus, with nasal cavity, sinus, auditory canal, or skull base involvement are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a radiosurgery boost or fractionated stereotactic boost as a part of their treatment plan are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFIGO 2008 stage 1B2, 2B, 3B, 4AXx_NEWLINE_xXPara-aortic nodal involvement above the level of the common iliac nodes or L3/L4 (if biopsy proven, PET positive or > 15mm short axis diameter on CT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeighs at least 12kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastases (excluding para-aortic nodes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of bisphosphonates is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients willing and able to complete the questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a hypersensitivity to halichondrin B and/or halichondrin B chemical derivativeXx_NEWLINE_xXTriglyceride level of no more than 400 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXColorectal cancer patients with known v-Ki-ras2 Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) mutation (for the arm combining bevacizumab, temsirolimus and cetuximab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients using any of the following medications: mesoridazine, dronedarone, thioridazine, ziprasidone, levomethadyl, and saquinavir for vemurafenib/sorafenib armXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must otherwise be a candidate for ASCT as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a diagnosis of Gilbert’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a diagnosis of hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a diagnosis of sclerosing cholangitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must weigh a minimum of 8 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated symptomatic hydrocephalus determined by treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically documented EBV antigen positive lymphoproliferative disease, lymphoma or other EBV-associated malignancy, ORXx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluable disease as demonstrated by clinical and/or radiologic studies with current or prior elevated blood levels of EBV-deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) exceeding 500 copies/ml by quantitative real time polymerase chain reaction (PCR), ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent or recurrent elevations in levels of EBVDNA exceeding 500 copies/ml in patients previously treated for EBV lymphoproliferative disease (EBVLPD) with chemotherapy and/or Rituxan who do not yet have clinically or radiologically evaluable disease but are at high risk of disease recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXStable blood pressure and circulation not requiring pressor transportXx_NEWLINE_xXIt is expected that five types of patients afflicted with EBV-associated lymphomas, lymphoproliferative disease or malignancies will be referred and will consent to participate in this trial; these are:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who develop EBV lymphomas or lymphoproliferative diseases or other EBV-associated malignancy as a consequence of profound immunodeficiencies associated with a congenital immune deficit or acquired as a sequela of anti-neoplastic or immunosuppressive therapy; for these patients, normal, EBV specific T-cells from third party seropositive donors who are HLA compatible in 1) at least 2 HLA antigens and 2) one restricted allele shared by the patient will be used; again, selection of T cells known to be restricted by an allele shared by the patient will be given priorityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who develop other EBV-associated malignancies without pre-existing immune deficiency, including: EBV+ Hodgkin's and non-Hodgkin's disease, EBV+ nasopharyngeal carcinoma, EBV+ hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, or EBV+ leiomyosarcoma; normal, EBV specific T-cells from third party seropositive donors who are HLA compatible in 1) at least 2 HLA antigens and 2) one restricted allele shared by the patient will be used; again, selection of T cells known to be restricted by an HLA allele shared by the patient will be given priorityXx_NEWLINE_xXDONORS: Donors in groups 1 and 2 would have already been determined to be eligible and will have donated blood or leukocytes to establish EBV-specific T-cells under IRB # 05-065, 07-055, 95-024, or 12-086; there are no additional eligibility requirements for these donorsXx_NEWLINE_xXDONORS: Donors in group 3, however, will need to meet the following eligibility requirements prior to donation:\r\n* Donors must satisfy the criteria specified in Food and Drug Administration (FDA) 21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1271\r\n* Donors must be typed for HLA-A, B, C, and DR\r\n* Donors must have a hemoglobin value > 10 g/dl\r\n* Donors must be capable of undergoing, at least, a single standard 2 blood volume leukapheresis or a donation of one unit of whole bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe comorbidities, not related to their EBV-associated malignancy, that would be expected to preclude their survival for the 6 weeks required to assess response of T cell therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXKaposi sarcoma pathologically confirmed by Department of Pathology, Clinical Center, National Institutes of HealthXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with HIV-associated entered after a tolerable dose has been determined, KS lesions must be either:\r\n* Increasing despite HAART and HIV suppression below the limit of detection (48 copies/mL) in the two months prior to screening or\r\n* Stable despite HAART for at least three months; stable disease must be symptomatic (examples of symptomatic disease include disease associated with pain, edema, psychological distress and/or social withdrawal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic pulmonary KSXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic visceral KS (except for non-ulcerating disease restricted to the oral cavity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny abnormality that would be scored as a >= grade 3 toxicity by CTCAE, except:\r\n* Obesity is not considered an abnormality for the purposes of eligibility assessment unless in the opinion of the principal investigator or lead associate investigator its clinical consequences in a particular subject places the subject at unacceptable risk if they were to participate in the study or confounds the ability to interpret data from the study\r\n* Lymphopenia\r\n* Asymptomatic hyperuricemia, hypophosphatemia, or creatine kinase (CK) elevations\r\n* Direct manifestations of KS\r\n* Direct manifestations of HIV infection, except for neurologic or cardiac manifestations\r\n* Direct manifestations of HIV therapy, except for neurologic or cardiac manifestationsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown drug-related, inherited, or acquired procoagulant disorder including prothrombin gene mutation 20210, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency and antiphospholipid syndrome but not including heterozygosity for the factor V Leiden mutation or the presence of a lupus anticoagulant in the absence of other criteria for the antiphospholipid syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXABT-888 is primarily excreted in the urine, and is not even metabolized by the liver; thus such degree of hepatic impairment is not expected to affect the dosing of ABT-888Xx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening visceral disease or other severe concurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated patient survival under 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with either progressive aGvHD or steroid refractory (SR) aGvHD after hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) will be eligible; prophylactic GvHD therapy with cyclosporine, tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil (MMF), or sirolimus can be continued; biopsy/pathological confirmation of skin/gastrointestinal or liver GvHD is not required, but it is encouragedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients developing SR aGvHD after donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or after withdrawal of immunosuppression are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with late onset acute GvHD will be eligible; this includes features of classical acute GvHD without diagnostic or distinctive manifestations of chronic GvHD occurring beyond 100 days of HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients developing aGvHD after ablative or non-myeloablative or reduced intensity conditioning will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal dysfunction or veno-occlusive disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology confirmation of HL with City of Hope (COH) pathology reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be enrolled after receiving at least two cycles of salvage cytoreductive chemotherapy and collection of at least 3.0 x 10^6 CD34 cells/kg of autologous hematopoietic progenitor cells (HPC-A) by apheresis; a minimum of 2 collection procedures is required, unless collection on day #1 > 5.0 x 10^6 CD34 cells/kg; a maximum of 10 collections is allowed; bone marrow harvest to supplement apheresis is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll pre-study and follow-up imaging studies preferably performed at City of HopeXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 30% will be considered on a case-by-case basis by the radiation oncology principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of antibody against basiliximab (only required for patients who have received prior antibody)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psychosocial circumstances or illnesses that preclude protocol participation (to be determined by PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCo-morbid illnesses that preclude protocol participation (to be determined by PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must present with indications for diagnostic or therapeutic approaches for benign and/or malignant diseases of the oral cavity or laryngopharynx (including the neoplastic lesions of the tongue, tongue base, retromolar trigone, tonsils, palate, posterior and lateral pharynx, glottic, supraglottic and subglottic larynx)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProphylactic use of lamivudine in patients that have antibody positive (+), but no active infection will be up to the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with concurrent use of complementary or alternative medicinesXx_NEWLINE_xXASA score 1-3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to communicate sensations during the ExAblate MRGFUS procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBrain edema and/or mass effect that causes midline shift or shift in wall of the third (3rd) ventricle of more than 10-mm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTargeted area (i.e.: ROT) less than 5 millimeters from primary branches of cerebral vessels, dural sinuses, the hypophysis or cranial nervesXx_NEWLINE_xXContaining calcifications in the focused ultrasound sonication beam path in the event system tools cannot tailor the treatment around these calcification spotsXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 30% of the skull area traversed by the sonication pathway is covered by scars, scalp disorders (e.g., eczema), or atrophy of the scalp.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClips or other metallic implanted objects in the skull or the brain, except shunts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject presents with:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms and signs of increased intracranial pressure (e.g., headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and papilledema).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable hemodynamic status including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic coronary artery stenosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-coagulant therapy, on medications known to increase risk of hemorrhage, (e.g.: non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), statins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal level of platelets (< 100000), PT (>14) or PTT (>36), and INR > 1.3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTIA or stroke in the last 1 month.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cerebral or systemic vasculopathy:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking immunosuppressants (corticosteroids to prevent/treat brain edema are permitted).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to gadolinium-DTPA.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have recurrent glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) or anaplastic astrocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 months from completion of temozolomide (to be consistent with the “rechallenge” group from Perry et al. JCO 2010)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to receive MRIs will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be co-enrolled on protocol 03-C-0277Xx_NEWLINE_xXA prior history of Gliadel implantation in the past six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors arising in the skull and spineXx_NEWLINE_xXActively being treated on any other therapeutic research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed KSHV-MCDXx_NEWLINE_xXElevated C-reactive protein (CRP) (CRP > 3 mg/L) probably or definitely attributable to KSHV-MCDXx_NEWLINE_xXNo life- or organ-threatening manifestations of MCDXx_NEWLINE_xXAny abnormality that would be scored as NCI Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC) grade 3 toxicity that is unrelated to HIV, its treatment, or to MCD that would preclude protocol treatment; exceptions include:\r\n* Lymphopenia\r\n* Direct manifestations of Kaposi sarcoma or MCD\r\n* Direct manifestation of HIV (i.e. low cluster of differentiation [CD]4 count)\r\n* Direct manifestation of HIV therapy (i.e. hyperbilirubinemia associated with protease inhibitors)\r\n* Asymptomatic hyperuricemia\r\n* Hypophosphatemia\r\n* Elevated creatinine kinase (CK) attributed to exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of >= 2 allergic reaction or any grade anaphylactic reaction during prior administration of tocilizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not be candidates for intensive high-dose chemotherapy, with or without an autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT), due to one or more of the following factors:\r\n* Age >= 65 years: Patients < 65 years of age must be ineligible for high-dose chemotherapy (HDT)/ASCT on the basis of comorbidity, organ dysfunction or patients refusal for HDT/ASCT\r\n* Comorbid disease, such as coronary artery disease (CAD), congestive heart failure (CHF), pulmonary dysfunction, liver or kidney dysfunction, precluding high dose therapy secondary to expected increased morbidity and mortality: poor performance status (Karnofsky performance scale [KPS] 70% or less); ejection fraction < 45%; impaired pulmonary function test with diffusing capacity of lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO) < 50% expected\r\n* Patient refusal\r\n* Medical conditions which in the opinion of the treating physician and DMT preclude HDT/ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a bilirubin level of < 2.0 mg/dl in the absence of a history of Gilbert's disease (or pattern consistent with Gilbert's)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with histologically proven recurrent intracranial malignant glioma will be eligible for the phase I/II component of this protocol; malignant glioma includes glioblastoma (GBM), gliosarcoma (GS), anaplastic astrocytoma (AA), anaplastic oligodendroglioma (AO), anaplastic mixed oligoastrocytoma (AMO), or malignant astrocytoma NOS (not otherwise specified); patients will be eligible if the original histology was low-grade glioma and a subsequent histological diagnosis of a malignant glioma is madeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior therapy that included interstitial brachytherapy or stereotactic radiosurgery must have confirmation of true progressive disease rather than radiation necrosis based upon either positron emission tomography (PET) or thallium scanning, MR spectroscopy or surgical/pathological documentation of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients is on an enzyme inducing anti-convulsants; if patients were previously on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs (EIAEDs) and these have been discontinued, patients must have been off the agent for at least 2 weeks prior to first study drug administration; for patients who need to start an antiepileptic drug (AED) or the AED needs to be changed, it is strongly recommended that all efforts should be made to use a non-EIAEDXx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical condition that would contraindicate allogeneic transplantation as per standard practice guidelines (e.g., impaired cardiopulmonary function, hepatitis, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny level of acute graft versus host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with mixed chimerism (present of more than 5% recipient chimerism) at 6 months post transplant will not be started on the protocol until the chimerism changes back to > 98%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active AML or MDS at the time of the study (anything less than a complete remission) are not eligible for this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not able to swallow the lenalidomide capsule as a whole are excluded from this study; (capsule cannot be opened, chewed, or crushed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Related donors < 18 years of age requiring placement of a leukapheresis catheter will donate peripheral blood collected by phlebotomy (including a unit of blood if weight permits) and shall not undergo catheter placement for leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Evidence of prior sensitization to EBV by EBV serology testing (seropositive)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Complete blood count (CBC) within one week of donation; results of tests must be within a range that would not preclude donating blood or undergoing leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any concurrent active malignancies as defined by malignancies requiring any therapy other than expectant observationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious infusion of CD19 CAR T cells at another institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPreceding and/or ongoing organ dysfunction or other co-morbidity including but not limited to uncontrolled infection that would impair the patient’s ability to endure known side effects of cytokine release syndrome or neurological toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of one of the following:\r\n* Previously untreated Ph-positive ALL (either t[9;22] and/or bcr-abl positive) (includes patients initiated on first course of hyper-CVAD before cytogenetics known)\r\n* Previously treated Ph-positive ALL, after 1-2 courses of chemotherapy with or without other tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs)\r\n** If they achieved complete response (CR), they are assessable only for event-free and overall survival, or\r\n** If they failed to achieve CR, they are assessable for CR, event-free, and overall survivalXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study or history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing torsades de pointes (unless these can be changed to acceptable alternatives)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExisting major organ dysfunction > grade 2, with the exception of hearing loss and myelosuppression (defined as suppression of all types of white blood cells [WBCs], red blood cells [RBCs] and platelets)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to more than one prior anti-tubulin/microtubule agentXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported race of either African American or CaucasianXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with abiraterone acetate, enzalutamide, apalutamide (ARN-509), galeterone (TOK-001), orteronel (TAK-700), or similar agentXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or other medical condition that would make prednisone/prednisolone (corticosteroid) use contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXAvoid co-administration of abiraterone acetate with CYP2D6 substrates that have a narrow therapeutic index; if an alternative treatment cannot be used, exercise caution and consider a dose reduction of the concomitant CYP2D6 substrateXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal products that may decrease PSA levels (i.e., saw palmetto) (no washout period required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits should be stable for a minimum of 1 week prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have minimum head circumference of 44 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with major skull defects (such as missing bone without replacement) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active implanted electronic devices in the brain or spinal cord such as programmable VP shunts, deep brain stimulators, vagus nerve stimulators, are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pacemaker, defibrillator, or documented significant arrhythmia, are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with foreign body intracranially, such as bullet fragments, are not allowed, with the exception of VP-shunts (non-programmable) and Ommaya cathetersXx_NEWLINE_xXHad prior exposure to an immuno-oncology or pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD)-based drugXx_NEWLINE_xXLung function capacity capable of tolerating the proposed lung surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of diffuse lepto or pachy meningeal carcinomatosis (focal/localized involvement from limited meningeal based metastases acceptable), greater than 1 cm mid-line shift, uncal herniation, or severe hemorrhage/hydrocephalous (small intra-lesional hemorrhage or anticipated surgical cavity is acceptable); patients with seizure at presentation who have been started on levetiracetam and have been stable for 48 hours prior to study registration are eligible at the discretion of treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunohistochemically negative for IDH1 R132H mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXGenotyping data available or in process (data must be available at time of initial registration if randomization probabilities differ across biomarker subgroups as determined by the Dana-Farber Cancer Institute [DFCI] Coordinating Center) to assign biomarker subgroups through whole exome sequencing, whole genome copy number analysis, or a combinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intratumoral or peritumoral hemorrhage if deemed significant by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants taking an enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drug (EIAED): phenobarbital, phenytoin, fosphenytoin, primidone, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, eslicarbazepine, rufinamide, and felbamate; participant must be off any EIAEDs for at least 7 days prior to planned start of study treatment; among non-EIAED, caution is recommended with use of valproic acid due to potential for drug interactionXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of herbal preparations/medications, including but not limited to: St. John’s wort, kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, ginseng; participants should stop using these herbal medications 7 days prior to planned start of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) with an activating EGFR mutation (exon 19 deletion, L858R point mutation, or any other mutation known to be associated with EGFR TKI sensitivity); presence of an activating EGFR mutation may be documented in tumor tissue or by plasma testing if performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratory; ANDXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of an EGFR T790M mutation after progression on a first- or second-generation EGFR TKI; presence of an EGFR T790M mutation may be documented from biopsy material from any site of disease (intra- or extra-cranial) or from plasma testing if performed in a CLIA-certified laboratory; for patients who have disease progression in the CNS only (with otherwise stable disease systemically), T790M positivity is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired heart functionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must have documented diagnosis of de novo MDS with:Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) risk categories Int-2 or High (IPSS overall score ? 1.5) andXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a diagnosis other than previously untreated de novo MDS with IPSS risk categories Int-2 or High, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMDS with IPSS risk categories Low or Int-1 (overall IPSS score < 1.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMDS evolving from a pre-existing myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have either PB or BM blasts ?5% at time of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are in first relapse after initial induction, if they had a response duration of >12 months from date when first response first documented or if they are good candidates for HCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory congestive heart failure unresponsive to medical treatment; active infection resistant to all antibiotics; or non-AML-associated pulmonary disease requiring >2 liters per minute (LPM) oxygen, or any other condition that puts the subject at an imminent risk of death.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with high PB blasts >50% AND poor ECOG PS of 2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo limitations on prior therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of oral glucocorticoids within 1 month of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Mobitz II second degree or third degree heart block without a permanent pacemaker in placeXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia as indicated by a heart rate of < 45 beats per minute on the screening electrocardiogram (ECG) and on physical examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of duvelisib if discontinued due to toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with active Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) unrelated to underlying lymphoma (positive serology for anti-EBV virus capsid antigen [VCA] IgM antibody and negative for anti-EBV Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen [EBNA] IgG antibody, or clinical manifestations and positive EBV PCR consistent with active EBV infection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with active cytomegalovirus (CMV) (positive serology for anti-CMV IgM antibody and negative for anti-CMV IgG antibody and positive CMV PCR with clinical manifestations consistent with active CMV infection) and requiring therapy will be excluded from participation in the study; carriers will be monitored per institutional guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a documented EGFR in-frame exon 20 insertion by a local test, including A763_Y764insFQEA, V769_D770insASV, D770_N771insNPG, D770_N771insSVD, H773_V774insNPH, or any other in-frame exon 20 insertion mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave one of the following documented by a local test:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA HER2 exon 20 insertion including A775_G776insYVMA, G776_V777insVC, or P780_Y781insGSP, or any other in-frame exon 20 insertion mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn activating point mutation in HER2 including, but not limited to, L755S, G776V, and V777L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave not received a TKI with pan-HER activity (eg, afatinib, neratinib, or dacomitinib).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave one of the following documented by a local test:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn EGFR exon 20 insertion: A763_Y764insFQEA, V769_D770insASV, D770_N771insNPG, D770_N771insSVD, H773_V774insNPH, or any other in-frame exon 20 insertion mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA HER2 exon 20 insertion: A775_G776insYVMA, G776_V777insVC, P780_Y781insGSP, or any other in-frame exon 20 insertion mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn activating point mutation in HER2 including, but not limited to, L755S, G776V, and V777L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with an EGFR exon 20 insertion: have not received a TKI with activity against the specific documented EGFR exon 20 insertion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with a HER2 exon 20 insertion or HER2 activating point mutation: have not received a TKI with pan-HER activity (eg, afatinib, neratinib, or dacomitinib).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave one of the following documented by a local test: an activating mutation in EGFR including exon 19 deletions or exon 21 L858R substitution (with or without T790M), or an uncommon activating mutation other than exon 20 insertion including, but not limited to, G719X (where X is any other amino acid), S768I, L861Q, or L861R.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with a documented EGFR exon 19 deletion or exon 21 L858R substitution: resistant to at least one prior EGFR inhibitor (eg, erlotinib, gefitinib, or afatinib).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with a documented EGFR T790M mutation: have not received a TKI with activity against the EGFR T790M mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with an uncommon activating mutation in EGFR: have not received a TKI with activity against the specific documented uncommon activating mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave prolonged QTcF interval, or being treated with medications known to be associated with the development of Torsades de Pointes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters outside Protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a mitotic index <2 mitoses/2 mm2 for typical carcinoid (TC) and <10 mitoses/2 mm2 and/or foci of necrosis for atypical carcinoid (AC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive Somatostatin receptors (SSTR) imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly differentiated or high grade carcinoma, or patients with neuroendocrine tumors not of lung origin are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must weigh ? 35 kg (due to possible size limitations with respect to percutaneous catheterization of the femoral artery and vein using the Delcath Hepatic Delivery System).Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of limited extrahepatic disease on preoperative radiological studies is acceptable if the life threatening component of disease is in the liver. Limited extrahepatic disease is defined in this protocol as follows: metastasis in bone, subcutaneous, lung or lymph nodes that is amenable to resection or radiation and has a defined treatment plan. Patients with extra-hepatic tumor burden which does not have a defined treatment plan (i.e. monitor or is unable to be resected or radiated) must not be included in the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor female patients of childbearing potential (i.e., have had a menstrual period within the past 12 months): unwilling or unable to undergo hormonal suppression to avoid menstruation during treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe allergic reaction to iodine contrast, which cannot be controlled by premedication with antihistamines and steroids (because a hepatic angiogram is needed for the Delcath system procedure).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of gastrinoma, hepatic vasculature incompatible with perfusion, hepatofugal flow in the portal vein or known unresolved venous shunting.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior Whipple's procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously been treated with ixazomib, or who participated in a blinded study with ixazomib (whether treated with ixazomib or not)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParts 1 and 2:Xx_NEWLINE_xXParts 3 and 4:Xx_NEWLINE_xXElderly subjects (? 65 years) with newly diagnosed AML must be treatment naive and unfit for intensive chemotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyelofibrosis subjects must have been treated with ruxolitinib for ? 6 months with a stable dose for ? 8 weeks (acceptable doses are 5 mg twice daily [BID] to 25 mg BID).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1: 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXParts 2, 3 and 4: 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave any condition that does not permit compliance with the study schedule including psychological, geographical, or medicalXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving medications that can effect clotting ability: warfarin, aspirin, (once-daily aspirin use- maximum dose 325 mg/day is permitted), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug [NSAID]s, including ibuprofen, naproxen, and others), dipyridamole or clopidogrel, or similar agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological/cytological diagnosis of primary HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of cholangiocarcinoma, hepatocholangiocarcinoma, fibrolamellar carcinoma and hepatoblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXBulky disease patients - tumors encompassing >50% of the liver volume and / or inferior vena cava invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters not within the protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHLA-A*0201 positive by Central AssayXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with any out-of-range laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent (< 12 months) active diverticulitisXx_NEWLINE_xXThe combination of any 2 of the following methods when both are used simultaneously:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe in first relapse (within 24 months of CR) or have primary refractory AML (refractory to initial induction therapy using 1 or 2 cycles of intensive anthracycline/cytarabine ± etoposide or cladribine induction) or have newly diagnosed high-risk AML as defined in this protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived >360 mg/m2 equivalents of daunorubicinXx_NEWLINE_xXHave evidence of uncontrolled disseminated intravascular coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional inclusion for Part B:Has histologically and/or cytologically confirmed SCCHN that is RM and not amendable to curative therapy by surgery or radiation. Squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck originating from the following sites is eligible: oral cavity, oropharynx, larynx, or hypopharynx. Has at least 1 SCCHN tumour lesion (TL) amenable to biopsy and must have failed, refused, or has been found to be ineligible for least 1 prior platinum-based chemotherapy for RM-SCCHN Additional inclusion criteria for Arms B1 & B2:must have had prior exposure to anti PDL-1 antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormalities in rhythm, conduction or morphology of resting 12-lead ECGXx_NEWLINE_xXuncontrolled comorbid conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with non-measurable, structural disease the following must apply:\r\n* Undetectable thyroglobulin antibody AND\r\n* A serum thyroglobulin of 10 ng/ml or greater in the context of suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (TSH =< 0.4 mcU/ml) =< 28 days prior to study registration; use of any thyroglobulin assay is allowed, though all serum thyroglobulin measurements for study purposes must be conducted with the same thyroglobulin assayXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving been treated with a total cumulative (lifetime) 131I therapeutic activity > 800 mCi (excluding 131I activity administered for diagnostic scans)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK), RAS, or RAF inhibitors (note: previous exposure to sorafenib is allowed) OR history of hypersensitivity to selumetinib, thyrotropin alpha (Thyrogen), or any excipient agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmological conditions as follows:\r\n* Intra-ocular pressure > 21 mmHg, or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of intra-ocular pressure)\r\n* Current or past history of central serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to follow a low iodine diet or requiring medication with high content in iodide (e.g., amiodarone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived iodinated intravenous contrast within =< 2 months of registration; avoidance of iodinated oral contrast is also preferred but not strictly required for study enrollment; NOTE: those who have had iodinated intravenous contrast within this time frame may still be eligible if a urinary iodine analysis reveals that excess iodine has been cleared (defined as urinary iodine documented to be < 300 mcg/day by either a spot urinary iodine or 24-hour urinary iodine measurement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot willing to discontinue use of supplemental vitamin EXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematologic statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with lymphomas: prior allogeneic SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup B: Individuals > 70 years of age with previously untreated AML or individuals < 70 years of age with previously untreated AML who refuse or are unable to receive cytarabine as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAre taking concurrent enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs (EIAED).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a preexisting chronic condition resulting in persistent diarrhea.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with del(17p) confirmed by FISH in >= 20% of cells or on stimulated karyotypeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unmutated IGHV who also have a complex karyotype on a stimulated karyotypeXx_NEWLINE_xXSCREENING:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient pathologic material must be available for central analysis and reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors will be deemed Wnt positive if, at the time of central analysis, there is:\r\n* Monosomy 6 as determined by array comparative genomic hybridization (CGH)\r\n* Gene transcript detection by NanoString supporting Wnt+ medulloblastoma\r\n* Absence of large-cell, anaplastic histology\r\n* Nuclear b-catenin immunohistochemistry (IHC) result will be determined, but not required for the diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnostic imaging (pre and post contrast) must be forwarded to Dana-Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI) for central review to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of Asian descentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day 1 of FOLFIRI + bevacizumab initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXA reasonable suspicion of ovarian cancer by the treating oncologist is required, evidenced by abdominal carcinomatosis, omental caking, pleural effusions or ascites AND an elevated CA125 > 250 OR CA125:carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) ratio > 25 OR CA125 =< 250 with no evidence of gastrointestinal (GI) cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known diabetes and those taking metformin, sulfonylureas, thiazolidinediones or insulin for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION: subjects undergoing primary debulking surgery must have stage III or IV disease and have undergone surgery to include, at a minimum, removal of the uterus, ovaries and fallopian tubes; these patients may be optimally debulked (less than 1 cm residual disease) but must have grossly visible macroscopic residual disease OR be suboptimally debulkedXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION: subjects for whom neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by interval cytoreductive surgery is planned must have fine needle aspirate (FNA) or other cytology showing adenocarcinoma OR core biopsies OR surgically directed biopsies showing adenocarcinoma AND CA125 over 250 OR CA125:CEA ratio > 25 OR CA =< 250 with no evidence of GI cancer; they should have presumed stage III or IV disease, generally based on abdominal carcinomatosis, omental caking, pleural effusions or ascitesXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION: the subject and her physician must agree to 6 cycles (a total of up to 8 cycles will be allowed) of one of the standard of care regimens allowed on this protocol; these regimens (starting dosage) include:\r\n* < 70 years of age:\r\n** R1: IV paclitaxel 175 mg/m^2 and carboplatin area under the curve (AUC) 5-6 every 21 days\r\n** R2: IV docetaxel 75 mg/m^2 and carboplatin AUC 5-6 every 21 days\r\n** R3: IV paclitaxel 80 mg/m^2 day 1, 8, and 15 and carboplatin AUC 5-6 day 1 every 21 days\r\n* >= 70 years of age may (but not required to) choose one of the following alternative regimens:\r\n** R4: IV paclitaxel 135 mg/m^2 plus IV carboplatin AUC 5 plus optional filgrastim (G-CSF) every 21 days\r\n** R5: IV paclitaxel 60 mg/m^2 day 1, 8, and 15 plus IV carboplatin AUC 5 day 1 every 21 days (day 15 paclitaxel optional)\r\n** R6: IV paclitaxel 60 mg/m^2 plus IV carboplatin AUC 2 day 1, 8, and 15 every 21 days\r\n*** Use of granulocyte colony stimulating factor is permitted, but additional chemotherapy agents (e.g. gemcitabine) or biologic agents (e.g. bevacizumab) are not; dose modifications for patients >= age 70 are allowable as indicated above; patients >= age 70 for whom the physician deems carboplatin AUC 5 to be unsafe may be treated with AUC 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR REGISTRATION: subjects should not be participating in other clinical trials of interventions designed to reduce risk of ovarian cancer recurrence or plan to receive off –protocol maintenance therapy (e.g. paclitaxel or bevacizumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA minimum of 2 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation 34 positive (CD34+) cells must have been collectedXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related mortality (TRM) score < 9.21 corresponding to a TRM rate of 3% when chemotherapy of similar intensity as proposed here is administered to inpatientsXx_NEWLINE_xXFibrinogen > 200Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have an outpatient caregiver availableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be willing to return to the treating physician’s office for outpatient follow-up once outpatient treatment is completedXx_NEWLINE_xXLogistical requirements:\r\n* Space available in infusion room\r\n* Outpatient infusion pump available if continuous infusion required\r\n* Case discussed with infusion room nursing staffXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have histologically proven primary (or locally recurrent after prior surgery) soft tissue sarcoma of the retroperitoneum; patients in the phase II portion of the trial will be primary soft tissue sarcomas only; extraskeletal chondrosarcoma is allowed; pathology must be reviewed at treating institution or Dana-Farber (DF)/Harvard Cancer Center (HCC) affiliate prior to study entry (for locally recurrent participants, biopsy and pathology review may be from time of original diagnosis); NOTE: for patients with retroperitoneal neoplasms that have ambiguous histological and/or immunohistochemical findings, the diagnoses of carcinoma, melanoma, and lymphoma should be excluded by immunohistochemical studies with antibodies to broad spectrum cytokeratin (AE1/AE3), S-100, cluster of differentiation (CD)45, or LCA (leucocyte common antigen), respectively; if these diagnoses are excluded by immunohistochemistry, then patients presenting with primary non-visceral retroperitoneal masses that are felt to be \consistent with sarcoma\ shall be considered eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPara-aortic or inguinal metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hip, pelvic, or lumbosacral prosthesis or other implanted deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing preoperative chemoradiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have recurrent or refractory intracranial ependymoma (including myxopapillary, clear cell, papillary, tanycytic, and anaplastic ependymoma) or subependymoma; patients with primary diagnosis of intracranial ependymoma with spinal cord metastases or relapse are eligible; the diagnosis must be confirmed by the Collaborative of Ependymoma Research Network (CERN) enrolling site's pathologist on tissue from either the initial presentation or time of recurrence prior to registration; for central pathology review and trial biological studies, submission of a paraffin block with tumor measuring at least 1 cm x 1 cm in area is preferred, but 15 x 5 micro molar (m) unstained sections on slides may be provided by the referring laboratory instead; tissue must be submitted within 60 days after enrollment for central processing and analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits should have deficits that are stable or improving for a minimum of 1 week prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have received: cimetidine within 48 hours prior and for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXNo exercise intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 94% if there is clinical indication for determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have previously been treated with bevacizumab or lapatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any disease that would obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on enzyme inducing anticonvulsantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require the use of therapeutic anti-coagulation: except as required to maintain patency of preexisting permanent vascular catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXEpithelioid or biphasic histology subtype (Note: patients with biphasic histology can have < 10% sarcomatoid)Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 10% Sarcomatoid or desmoplastic histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXContinuous oxygen useXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior nephrectomy on the contralateral side of malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBulky disease in the fissure preventing lung-sparing pleural IMRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing extrapleural pneumonectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biopsy-proven small cell or sarcomatoid histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical or radiological evidence of bone (>= 3 sites, or predominantly lytic if < 3) or other extranodal metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of APL based on the presence of the PML-RAR-alpha fusion gene by cytogenetics, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), or POD testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treated on this study will have:\r\n* Acute leukemia in 1st or 2nd complete remission (CR)\r\n* MDS (myelodysplastic syndrome), specific subtypes of RA (refractory anemia) or RARS (refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts) subtypes\r\n* Hodgkin or indolent non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma with chemosensitive disease\r\n* Myeloma without morphological evidence of disease, or a PR to the most recent therapy\r\n* Myeloproliferative disorders with at least a PR to current therapy\r\n* Aplastic anemia\r\n* A hematological or oncological disease (not listed) that meets the criteria reviewed aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate Karnofsky performance status (KPS) and hematopoietic cell transplantation comorbidity index (HCT-CI) scores:\r\n* Patients < age 60 years must have a KPS of >= 80% and an HCT-CI score of 5 or less\r\n* Patients aged 60 to 65 years must have a KPS of >= 80% and an HCT-CI score of 4 or less\r\n* Patients aged 66 to 69 years must have a KPS of 90% and an HCT-CI score of 3 or less\r\n* Patients aged 70 years or more must have a KPS of 90% and an HCT-CI score of 2 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received alemtuzumab within 8 weeks of the transplant admission, or who have recently received horse or rabbit anti-thymocyte globulin and have an anti-thymocyte globulin level of >= 2 ugm/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are not required to have HER-2 or epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) over-expression to be on this study at the dose escalation cohort; however, patients will be required to have HER-2 overexpression and/or EGFR overexpression for the extension and expansion cohorts\r\n* If the patient has had HER-2 expression measured prior to enrollment, the report alone will be accepted the dose escalation phase of the study\r\n* If the patient has had EGFR expression measured prior to enrollment, the report alone will be accepted on the dose escalation phase of the study.\r\n*If the patient has not had HER-2 or EGFR expression measured prior to enrollment on this study, it would be obligatory for the patient to have the tests performed to justify their status; HER-2 status can be performed by a variety of tests; either immunohistochemistry (IHC) or fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) assay are acceptable if breast tumor tissues (previously frozen) are available; the test can be done at Ohio State University (OSU) or elsewhere if the patient is from out of townXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require or likely to require corticosteroids or other immunosuppressives for intercurrent disease are NOT eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have developed anaphylactic responses to other vaccinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with refractory-relapsed ALL of any age are eligible, provided they are not eligible for regimens of higher priorityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically documented uterine carcinosarcoma with no visible residual diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s will have no evidence of gross vascular invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have no more than 3 distinct lesions, all being =< 3 cm in greatest dimension, OR 1 lesion =< 6 cm in greatest dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are being therapeutically anticoagulated with an agent such as Coumadin or heparin will be allowed to participate provided that no prior evidence of underlying abnormality in these parameters existsXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo- or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPortal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hepatocellular carcinoma will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic diagnosis to be confirmed at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) or other Dana-Farber/Harvard Cancer Center (DF/HCC) institution; in cases of progressive or recurrent disease, pathologic diagnosis may be from time of original biopsy and/or surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be otherwise indicated for radiation therapy independent of this study:\r\n* For low-grade gliomas, typical indications would include at least one of:\r\n** Progressive or recurrent disease as defined by imaging\r\n** Persistence or progression of neurological symptoms (e.g., seizures), or\r\n** At risk of early progression as defined by either (a) age >= 40, (b) mindbomb homolog 1 (MIB-1) >= 3%, or (c) size > 6 cm and/or of limited resectability\r\n* For favorable grade III gliomas, typical indications would be at upfront diagnosis following maximal safe surgery or a recurrence of a lower grade tumor with metaplastic evolution to grade III diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXOther baseline neurocognitive or emotional disorders or deficits, including but not limited to head injury, cardiovascular accident (CVA), transient ischemic attack (TIA), or other cerebral insults with residual neuropsychiatric deficits, psychiatric disorders, learning disabilities, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positivity or other medical conditions at high risk of causing neurocognitive decline or emotional instabilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning target volume (PTV) must be encompassed in a reasonable SBRT “portal” as defined by the treating radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-adenocarcinomas, adenosquamous carcinomas, islet cell carcinomas, cystadenomas, cystadenocarcinomas, carcinoid tumors, duodenal carcinomas, distal bile duct, and ampullary carcinomas are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFor clinically stage II patients, the patient must have been evaluated by a thoracic surgeon, and deemed medically or technically inoperable, or the patient must refuse surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of NF2 by National Institutes of Health (NIH) criteria (1988) with evidence of either:\r\n* Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, or\r\n* First-degree family relative with NF2 and either unilateral vestibular schwannomas (VS) or any 2 of: meningioma, schwannoma, glioma, neurofibroma, or juvenile posterior subcapsular lens opacityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one unresected VSXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to adequately perform volumetric measurement of at least 1 target lesion (e.g., due to the presence of artifacts from cochlear or auditory brainstem implants, ill-defined tumor margins resulting from the juxtaposition of tumors abutting each other, or sequela from prior irradiation to the target lesion); Note: patients with cochlear or auditory brainstem implants may participate if a target lesion can be accurately assessedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory/physical examination to include, at a minimum, digital rectal examination of the prostate and examination of the skeletal system and abdomen, and formal comorbidity assessment via the Charlson Comorbidity Index within 60 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive lupus or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXFA demonstrated by a positive test for increased sensitivity to chromosomal breakage with mitomycin C or diepoxybutane performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) or College of American Pathologists (CAP) approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXFA complementation group A as determined by somatic cell hybrids, molecular characterization, western blot analysis, acquisition of mitomycin C resistance after in vitro lentiviral transduction with a vector bearing the complementary deoxyribonucleic acid (cDNA) for Fanconi complementation group A, or other clinically certified method of complementation group analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy or lactation; females of childbearing potential and males who are admitted to the study will be advised that the study procedures and study drugs may be teratogenic, and they will be required to take adequate measures to prevent conception for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 100KXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms of gastrointestinal obstruction and who require parenteral hydration/nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal abstinence orXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance with medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXLumbar cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) must be assayed for cytology, alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and beta human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCGB); a quantitative serum determination of AFP and HCGB should be performed at the time of the lumbar CSF assayXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate antibiotics, blood products, antiemetics, fluids, electrolytes and general supportive care are to be used as necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of any enzyme inducing anticonvulsants is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll institutional and Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requirements for human studies must be metXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ICGCTs who are newly diagnosed are excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received gemcitabine, oxaliplatin and/or paclitaxel are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXInsufficient recovery from all active toxicities of prior therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere renal disease (creatinine > x 3 normal for age)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe target lumpectomy cavity must be clearly delineated and the target lumpectomy cavity/whole breast reference volume must be less than or equal to 30% based on the postoperative/pre-enrollment computed tomography (CT) scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible if, based on the postoperative CT scan, partial breast irradiation (PBI) is judged to be technically deliverableXx_NEWLINE_xXMen are not eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAxillary nodes with definite evidence of microscopic or macroscopic extracapsular extensionXx_NEWLINE_xXPaget's disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXClear delineation of the extent of the target lumpectomy cavity not possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented diagnosis of collagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or with an active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXMDS with at least one of the following poor-risk features: \r\n* Poor-risk cytogenetics (7/7q minus or complex cytogenetics)\r\n* International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score of intermediate (INT)-2 or greater; treatment-related MDS\r\n* MDS diagnosed before age 21 years \r\n* Progression on or lack of response to standard deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-methyltransferase inhibitor therapy \r\n* Life-threatening cytopenias, including those generally requiring greater than weekly transfusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome negative myeloproliferative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXOne of the following, in order to lower risk of graft rejection: cytotoxic chemotherapy, an adequate course of 5-azacitidine or decitabine, or alemtuzumab within 3 months prior to start of conditioning; or previous BMT within 6 months prior to start of conditioning; Note: patients who have received treatment outside of these windows may be eligible if it is deemed sufficient to reduce graft rejection risk; this will be decided on a case-by-case basis by the Principal Investigator (PI) or co-PIXx_NEWLINE_xXAny previous BMT must have occurred at least 3 months prior to start of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXEBV seropositivity (can be pending at this time)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived rituximab within 4 months of blood collection for lymphoblastoid cell line (LCL) initiation (unless circulating CD19+ B are >= 2%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis - CD30+ HL or CD30+ NHLXx_NEWLINE_xXAfter Dose Escalation: any patient (children or adults) with relapsed CD30+ HL or CD30+ NHL or newly diagnosed patients unable to receive or complete standard therapy OR diagnosis of relapsed/refractory CD30+ HL or CD30+ NHL with a treatment plan that will include high dose therapy and autologous stem cell transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXEBV seropositivityXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable autologous transduced EBV-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes with >= 15% expression of CD30CAR determined by flow-cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient requiring allogeneic SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXActive, acute GvHD > grade II or extensive, chronic GvHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric disturbanceXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine > 3x normalXx_NEWLINE_xXActive, acute GvHD > grade II or extensive, chronic GvHDXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindications to angiography and hepatic artery catheterization such as: History of severe allergy or intolerance to any contrast media, narcotics, sedatives, or atropine that cannot be corrected or premedicated; Bleeding diathesis, not correctable by usual forms of therapy; Severe peripheral vascular disease that would preclude catheterization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of potential delivery of greater than 16.5 mCi (30 Gy absorbed dose) of radiation to the lungs in a single treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of pulmonary insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any detectable Technetium-99 Macroaggregated Albumin (Tc-99m MAA) flow to the stomach or duodenum, after application of established angiographic techniques to stop or mitigate such flow.Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete occlusion of the main portal vein.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant extrahepatic disease representing an imminent life-threatening outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-morbid disease of condition that would preclude safe delivery of TheraSphere treatment or, in the judgment of the physician, place the patient at undue riskXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight > 12 kilogramsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate central venous access potentialXx_NEWLINE_xXHAPLOIDENTICAL RELATED DONOR: Adequate venous access for peripheral apheresis, or consent to use a temporary central venous catheter for apheresis (if applicable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to lie supine for approximately 60 minutes, the anticipated duration of each treatment sessionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with radiographic changes including pulmonary disease, including but not limited to: pulmonary nodules, infiltrates, pleural effusion are excluded unless cleared by pulmonary biopsy showing no evidence for pulmonary infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXHLA-A2 positive based on flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in Stratum A, B, and E must have received standard involved field radiation therapy (RT) defined as fractionated external beam radiotherapy with total doses between 5000-6000 centigray (cGy); patients in these strata must be registered within 4-12 weeks of completing RTXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent treatment or medications (must be off for at least 1 week) including:\r\n* Interferon (e.g. Intron-A)\r\n* Allergy desensitization injections \r\n* Growth factors (e.g. Procrit, Aranesp, Neulasta)\r\n* Interleukins (e.g. Proleukin)\r\n* Any investigational therapeutic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known addiction to alcohol or illicit drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXActively being treated on any other therapeutic research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of pleural effusions > 5 mm as measured by treating physician using standard radiologic measuring toolsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of grade 3 or higher radiation induced pneumonitis (severe, limiting self care activities of daily living [ADL], requiring oxygen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss > 10 percent within 6 months prior to starting treatment that is determined by the investigator or treating physician to be directly related to tumor and not directly related local esophageal symptoms (e.g. dysphagia, odynophagia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML in 1st remission - for patients whose AML does not have 'good risk' cytogenetic features (i.e. t 8;21, t15;17, inv 16)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary AML in 1st remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXAML in 1st relapse or >= 2nd remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXOther rare lethal disorders of hematopoiesis and lymphopoiesis for which a T-cell depleted transplant is indicated (e.g. hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis; refractory aplastic anemia or congenital cytopenias; non-severe combined immunodeficiency [SCID] lethal genetic immunodeficiencies such as Wiskott Aldrich syndrome, CD40 ligand deficiency or, autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome [ALPS], as well as refractory autoimmune cytopenias, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria [PNH], metabolic storage diseases or heavily transfused congenital hemoglobinopathies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccrual to each treatment arm will include standard risk and poor risk patients, except for Regimen D; all patients on Arm D will be poor risk by virtue of risks of relapse and/or transplant related mortalityXx_NEWLINE_xXStandard risk patients will include eligible patients, as defined above, who are receiving transplants as treatment for MDS in RA/RCMD, RARS, AML in 1st or 2nd remission, ALL in 1st CR, NH in 1st remission, MM in 1st remission, very good partial response, or 1st partial response on the CML in the first chronic phase or 1st remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXAll other patients, including those with treatment related malignancies and/or those who have AML derived from MDS, will have received extensive prior chemo/radiotherapy and, therefore, will be considered to be at poor risk of conditioning and transplant related morbidities, and potentially transplant related mortality; patients with life threatening non-malignant genetic and acquired disorders will also, by virtue of their history of, optional transfusions and/or infection be considered poor risk; stopping rules for non-relapse related mortality in these heavily treated patients are, therefore, slightly less stringent than patients in the poor risk transplant groups; stopping rules for the principal endpoints of graft failure and GvHD are the same for all groupsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be of either gender or any ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xX=< 1.5 total serum bilirubin, unless there is congenital benign hyperbilirubinemia or if the hyperbilirubinemia is directly caused by the disease in which the patient is receiving a transplant (e.g. AML chloroma obstructing the biliary tree); patients with higher bilirubin levels due to causes other than active liver disease are also eligible with principal investigator (PI) approval e.g. patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH), Gilbert's disease or other hemolytic disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXActively being treated on any other therapeutic research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor tumors other than DSRCT, 8H9 reactivity must be confirmed by immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinically suspected dense intraperitoneal adhesions preventing adequate IP distributionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with murine monoclonal antibodies will be excluded if they have a human anti-murine antibody (HAMA) level of > 1000 U/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic proof of phyllodes tumor of borderline or malignant grade, as first defined by Pietruszka and modified by Azzopardi and adopted by the World Health Organization:\r\n * Borderline malignant: 5-9 mitoses/10 high-power fields (HPF), pushing or infiltrating margins, 2+ (moderate) stromal cellularity and atypia\r\n * Malignant: 10 or more mitoses/10 HPF, predominantly infiltrating margins, usually 3+ (severe) stromal cellularity and atypia but occasionally 2+Xx_NEWLINE_xXA radiation planning computed tomography (CT) scan which demonstrates a target lumpectomy cavity that is not clearly delineated or a target lumpectomy cavity/whole breast reference volume > 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived the last irradiated GM-CSF transfected allogeneic pancreatic cell lines Panc 10.05 and Panc 6.03 at least six months prior (+/- 1 month) (not applicable to the vaccine-naïve cohort patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of certain autoimmune diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, rheumatoid arthritis, glomerulonephritis, or vasculitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance during previous vaccination cycles with study treatment and/or monitoring which is concerning for continued noncomplianceXx_NEWLINE_xXEither no evidence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) or minimal clinical evidence of acute GVHD and chronic GVHD while off of systemic immunosuppressive therapy for at least 28 days; minimal clinical evidence of acute GVHD is defined as grade 0 to I acute GVHD; minimal evidence of chronic GVHD is defined as mild global score chronic GVHD (as defined by the 2005 NIH consensus project) or no chronic GVHD; subjects with disease that is controlled to stage I acute GVHD or to mild global score chronic GVHD with local therapy only, e.g., topical cutaneous steroids, will be eligible for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Adequate venous access for peripheral leukapheresis, or consent to use a temporary central venous catheter for leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood blast percentage higher than 5%Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: History of hypertension that is not controlled by medication, stroke, or severe heart disease (donors with symptomatic angina will be excluded); donors with a history of coronary artery bypass grafting or angioplasty who are symptom free will receive a cardiology evaluation and be considered on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine =< 1.2 mg/dl (urinary diversion is permitted to improve renal function)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActively being treated on any other research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHSV-1 SeropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or pathological diagnosis of cirrhosis, hemochromatosis, or hepatic fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAscites, or complete occlusion of main portal veinXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXMagnesium (triplet combination only) >= 1.8 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC expanded cohort only: total of 20 never smokers and non-smokers; never smokers are defined as individuals who have never smoked and non-smokers are defined as individuals with a =<10 pack year history and have quit > 15 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC cohort only: current smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of HCL by flow cytometry of blood or a solid (lymph node) mass, confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI), including positivity for CD19, CD22, CD20, and CD11c; patients with flow cytometry consistent with HCL variant (HCLv) are eligible, including those with CD25 and/or CD103 negative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have eligible blood counts within 4 weeks from enrollment will not be considered ineligible if subsequent blood counts prior to enrollment fluctuate and become ineligible up until the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOne of the following:\r\n* At least 2 prior courses of purine analog\r\n* 1 prior course of purine analog plus >= 1 course of rituximab if the response to the course of purine analog lasted < 1 year\r\n* Diagnosis of HCL variant (HCLv)\r\n* Unmutated (> 98% homology to germline) IGHV4-34+expressing HCL/HCLvXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of non-response to both pentostatin plus rituximab and to bendamustine plus rituximabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological evaluation of prostate biopsy with assignment of a Gleason score to the biopsy material; Gleason score must be in the range of 2-6; (the highest Gleason score in any core reported on the pathology report will be used for determining inclusion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must complete all required tests listed in the protocol within the specified time framesXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages T2c or greater (AJCC Criteria 6th Ed.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score 8 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of proximal urethral stricture requiring dilatationXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias in second (2nd) or subsequent remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXBiphenotypic/undifferentiated leukemias in first (1st) or subsequent complete remission (CR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary idiopathic myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Ability of donors < 18 years of age to undergo apheresis without use of a vascular access device; vein check must be performed and verified by an apheresis nurse prior to arrival at the Seattle Cancer Care Alliance (SCCA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple myeloma (MM): patients who\r\n* Have received induction therapy for a minimum of 4 cycles\r\n* In addition, patients must meet at least one of the following criteria I-IX (I-VII at time of diagnosis or pre-autograft): \r\n** Any abnormal karyotype by metaphase analysis except for isolated t(11,14),\r\n** Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) translocation 4:14,\r\n** FISH translocation 14:16,\r\n** FISH deletion 17p,\r\n** Beta2 (B2)-microglobulin > 5.5 mg/ml,\r\n** Cytogenetic hypodiploidy\r\n** Plasmablastic morphology (>= 2%)\r\n** Recurrent or non-responsive (less than partial remission [PR]) MM after at least two different lines of conventional chemotherapy\r\n** Progressive MM after a previous autograft (provided stored autologous cluster of differentiation [CD]34 cells are available)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fungal infection and radiological progression after receipt of amphotericin B or active triazole for greater than 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: In the case that PBMC will be used as stem cell source, ability of donors < 18 years of age to undergo apheresis without use of a vascular access device; vein check must be performed and verified by an apheresis nurse prior to arrival at the Seattle Cancer Care Alliance (SCCA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of gossypol or AT-101Xx_NEWLINE_xXpatients with high grade cervical intraepithelial lesions (CIN2/3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXpatients whose lesions are HPV16+Xx_NEWLINE_xXpatients who are immunocompetentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cytologic evidence of glandular dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking immunosuppressive medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received prior chrysotherapy (administration of gold salts to treat rheumatoid arthritis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with non-healed wounds.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of keloid formation ( ID delivery group only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe Target Lesion must be determined to be amenable to percutaneous injection by the treating physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid Function: Total T3 or free T3, total T4 or free T4 and THS ? CTCAE Grade 2 abnormality.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTarget Lesion(s) must not be contiguous with, encompass or infiltrate major blood vessels.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProstate volume: =< 100 cc\r\n* Determined using: volume = ?/6 x length x height x width\r\n* Measurement from CT or ultrasound =< 90 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of patient questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active major medical or psychosocial problems that could be complicated by study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXBreast adenocarcinoma that is amplified for HER-2/neu gene expression by 2-fold or more by FISH analysis, or that is IHC 3+Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with seminomatous or nonseminomatous germ-cell tumors (GCT) in one of the following groups: A) first relapse or progression or second response with an intermediate or high risk according to the Beyer model; B) second relapse or beyondXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinary protein excretion =< 500 mg/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXA minimum apheresis collection of 5 million cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cells/kg of autologous hematopoietic progenitor cells (AHPC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 18.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with recent significant or unexplained weight loss that the investigator feels may pose an unacceptable risk for enrollment; candidates who are overweight and have lost weight intentionally via diet or exercise should not be excluded, for instanceXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on medications that may not be safely stopped during the fasting portion of the study, or which may not be safely consumed without foodXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of syncope with calorie restriction in the past or other medical comorbidity, which would make fasting potentially dangerousXx_NEWLINE_xXNo focal wall motion abnormalities as determined by either of the above studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II; Subjects must have been enrolled in Part 1 of this study and have received 1 dose of HSV1716 and have completed at a minimum the day 28 follow-up; subjects must have been categorized at a minimum as having stable disease thought to be attributable to the virus; subjects who were minimally characterized as having stable disease are also eligible if their lesion re-occurs or re-grows; the same criteria will be applied to determine eligibility for a third dose, and again for a fourth doseXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk NB (as defined above) and in 1) first CR/VGPR at >= 6 months from initiation of immunotherapy using anti-GD2 antibody, or 2) second or subsequent remission; remission is defined as complete (CR) or very good partial (VGPR) remission, according to the International Neuroblastoma Response Criteria; urine catecholamine levels are no longer taken into consideration when staging; patients can be considered as in VGPR with 1 or 2 MIBG (+) sites that were previously-irradiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXUnifocal or multifocal (confined to one quadrant, lesions less than 4 cm apart) breast cancer (1 or 2 foci which can be encompassed by one lumpectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative inked histologic margins of lumpectomy (no invasive cells at margin) or negative re-excision specimen to be confirmed prior to radiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Paget’s disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with collagen vascular diseases, specifically systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, or dermatomyositisXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology reviewed and the diagnosis confirmed at Stanford University Medical CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior malignancies diagnosed > 5 years ago without evidence of disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Willing to have a central venous catheter placed for apheresis if peripheral veins are inadequateXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of malabsorption syndrome e.g., pancreatic insufficiency, celiac disease, tropical sprueXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of nephrolithiasis within the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderwent Autologous SCT 60-120 days prior to registration including:\r\n* BEAM conditioning (BCNU: 300 mg/m2 IV day -7, Etoposide: 100 mg/m2 IV BID days -6,-5,-4,-3, Cytarabine: 100 mg/m2 IV BID days -6,-5,-4,-3, Melphalan: 140 mg/m2 IV day -2)\r\n* Minimum of 2 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg infusedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radioimmunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected progressive disease following autologous SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimarily refractory or relapsed diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with instability of the spine requiring instrumentation as judged by a neurosurgeon are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have localized spinal metastasis; this includes patients with a solitary lesion, a lesion that spans two contiguous levels, a lesion with a para-spinal component, and up to three separate single vertebral levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with loss of normal vertebral height, due to for example compression fracture or other process, prior to treatment are not allowed; patients with normal height and compression fracture are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had a visual analog scoring of pain >= 4 at the planned treated site within 14 days of registration; pain must be ongoing or require narcotic pain medicine to controlXx_NEWLINE_xXNarcotic pain prescription and usage information must be available and documentedXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages T1a-T2bXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score of 3+4 or lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages T3-4 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason (4+3) or higher scoreXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or clinical evidence of distant metastases (M1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have untreated AML, or high-risk myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) (refractory anemia with excess blasts, [RAEB], or RAEB \in transformation\ [RAEB-t]) characterized by t(8;21), inv(16), or t(16;16); the presence of additional abnormalities is irrelevantXx_NEWLINE_xXIf recent mold infection, e.g., Aspergillus, must be cleared by infectious disease to proceedXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent (prior 6 month) invasive fungal infection without infectious diseases (ID) consult and approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Selection of two CB units is mandatory when a single cord blood unit does not meet the following criteria in the table below\r\n* Match grade \r\n** 6/6\r\n*** Single unit allowed for total nucleated cell (TNC) dose >= 2.5 x 10^7/kg\r\n** 5/6, 4/6\r\n*** Single unit allowed for TNC dose >= 4.0 (+/- 0.5) x 10^7/kg\r\n* If two CB units are used, the total cell dose of the combined units must be at least 3.0 x 10^7 TNC per kilogram recipient weight based on pre-cryopreservation numbers, with each CB unit containing a MINIMUM of 1.5 x 10^7 TNC/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: The minimum recommended CD34/kg cell dose should be 2 x 10^5 CD34/kg, total dose from a single or combined doubleXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: The unmanipulated CB unit(s) will be Food and Drug Administration (FDA) licensed or will be obtained under a separate investigational new drug (IND), such as the National Marrow Donor Program (NMDP) Protocol 10-CBA conducted under BB IND-7555 or another IND sponsored by (1) a participating institution or (2) an investigator at FHCRC or one of the participating institutionsXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR (FHCRC only): Up to 5% of the unmanipulated cord blood product (s), when ready for infusion, may be withheld for research purposes as long as thresholds for infused TNC dose are met; these products will be used to conduct studies involving the kinetics of engraftment and immunobiology of double cord transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Any cord blood units without full maternal testing and negative results for hepatitis A, B, C, HIV, and human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV)-1 viruses; any additional available virology results on the unit itself will be reviewed but are not mandated, complete or always available; cord blood units are presumed to be CMV negative regardless of serologic testing due to passive transmission of maternal CMV antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had a response to chemotherapy, which the investigator feels is likely to resulting systemic control of the cancer; in most instances, this would reflect a major response (i.e. > or = 90% reduction of tumor), though a lower percentage may be acceptable if the investigator feels the residual reflects another component, such as transitional cell carcinoma (TCC); Dr Arlene Siefker-Radtke will serve as the final arbiter when questions regarding response ariseXx_NEWLINE_xXSince small cell tumors of the bladder are often associated with other variant histology including TCC and adenocarcinoma, the presence of variant histology will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSupranormal values judged to be of benign or inconsequential etiology will be acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cranial irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXOther acute leukemias that are ambiguous lineage or of other types e.g. blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm in CR1 or CR2Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome (MDS): \r\n* Intermediate-1 International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score with poor risk cytogenetics as defined by IPSS\r\n* Intermediate-2 or High International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score\r\n* MDS/ myeloproliferative disorder overlap syndromes\r\n* Any score with life threatening cytopenia(s), including red cell or platelet transfusion dependence\r\n* Receipt of at least one cycle of cytotoxic chemotherapy, azacitidine or decitabine\r\n* MDS patients must have =< 5% bone marrow myeloblasts and absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 0.2 (growth factor supported if necessary) at transplant work-upXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmission for UCBT must be within an acceptable time period after the pre-allograft chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xX2 UCB units selected according to current Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) unit selection algorithm; high resolution 8 allele HLA typing will be performed; unit selection will occur based on 8 allele HLA-match and cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ doseXx_NEWLINE_xXIn addition, each unit will have a cryopreserved dose of at least 1.5 x 10^7 total nucleated cells/recipient body weight (TNC/kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnits with attached segments for confirmatory typing will be given preferenceXx_NEWLINE_xXSeropositivity for human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf recent mold infection, e.g., Aspergillus, must be cleared by infectious diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent (prior 6 month) invasive fungal infection without infectious disease (ID) consult and approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Any cord blood units without the full maternal testing and negative results for hepatitis A, B, C, HIV, and human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV-1) viruses; any additional available virology results on the unit itself will be reviewed but are not mandated, complete or always available; cord blood units are presumed to be cytomegalovirus (CMV) negative regardless of serologic testing due to passive transmission of maternal CMV antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo MDACC Audiology and Ophthalmology AssessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastases (below the clavicle) by clinical or radiographic measures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor children who are uncooperative for pulmonary function tests and have no evidence of dyspnea at rest or exercise intolerance, pulse oximetry > 94% on room air is considered acceptable, with a normal chest X-rayXx_NEWLINE_xXVenous access: a double lumen central vascular access device or its equivalent and an additional peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line will be required for all patients entered on protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be consulted to avoid impregnating partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of valproic acid (VPA) useXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not be taking a drug specifically known to interact with VPA for at least 2 weeks prior to initiating the trial; including but not limited to: Aspirin, Felbamate, Rifampin, Amitriptyline/Nortriptyline, Carbamazepine, Clonazepam, Diazepam, Ethosuximide, Lamotrigine, Phenobarbital, Primidone, Phenytoin, Tolbutamide, Warfarin, ZidovudineXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers from all ethnic and race groups are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cytogenetic abnormalities suggesting an improved prognosis [t(8:21), t(15;17) and inv(16)] will be eligible for transplantation in first remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of embolic events (e.g. TIA) from arrhythmia or peripheral arterial disease or of recent MI whether or not treated with anti-platelet drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXThree lumens of central vascular access will be required for all patients entered on protocol due to the need for a dedicated line for continuous infusion cyclosporineXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression or relapse prior to HPC infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients will fall under one of the following disease categories:Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic lymphocytic leukemia (must have all three): Rai Stage III/IV; progression after previous complete remission (CR) or partial remission (PR) including purine antagonist (i.e. fludarabine); recent chemotherapy responsivenessXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced Hodgkin's disease beyond PR2 (>= CR3, >= PR3): recent chemotherapy responsivenessXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXVerified by morphology and confirmed by cytochemistry and immunophenotypingXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have MLL gene rearrangements documented by split-signal fluorescence in situ hybridization and meets 1 of the following risk criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXLow-risk disease, defined as all MLL germline casesXx_NEWLINE_xXMLL status unknownXx_NEWLINE_xXMLL rearranged AND age > 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMLL rearranged AND age < 6 months AND WBC < 300 x 10^9/L AND prednisone good responseXx_NEWLINE_xXAge at diagnosis < 6 months (i.e., < 183 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWBC ? 300 x 10^9/L AND/OR prednisone poor responseXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be HLA compatible in 10/10 or 9/10 alleles by 4 digit/allele high-resolution molecular genotypingXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have ? 3 x 10^8 NCs/kg BW OR 3 x 10^6/kg BW CD34-positive cells available for transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXMature B-ALL, defined by the immunophenotypical presence of surface immunoglobulins or t(8;14) and breakpoint as in B-ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of the t(9;22) (q34;q11) or bcr-abl fusion in the leukemic cells (if data are not known, patient still may be eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed ALL PATIENT CHARACTERISTICS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFood and Drug Administration (FDA) approval to receive compassionate use of TheraSphereXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergy or intolerance to any contrast media, narcotics, sedatives, or atropine, that cannot be controlled using basic angiographic techniquesXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere peripheral vascular disease that would preclude catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPortal hypertension with portal venous shunt away from the liverXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of potential delivery of greater than 16.5 mCi (30 Gy absorbed dose) of radiation to the lungs on either: 1) first TheraSphere administration; or 2) cumulative delivery of radiation to the lungs over multiple treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any detectable technetium (Tc)-99 macroaggregated albumin (MAA) flow to the stomach or duodenum, after application of established angiographic techniques to stop such flowXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant extrahepatic disease representing an imminent life-threatening outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergy or intolerance to any contrast media, narcotics, sedatives, or atropine, that cannot be controlled using basic angiographic techniquesXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere peripheral vascular disease that would preclude catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPortal hypertension with portal venous shunt away from the liverXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of potential delivery of greater than 16.5 mCi (30 Gy absorbed dose) of radiation to the lungs on either: 1) first TheraSphere administration; or 2) cumulative delivery of radiation to the lungs over multiple treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any detectable Technetium macroaggregated albumin (Tc-99 MAA) flow to the stomach or duodenum, after application of established angiographic techniques to stop such flowXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant extrahepatic disease representing an imminent life threatening outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients and donors must be able to sign consent forms; partially mismatched (at least haploidentical) first degree relative should be willing to donateXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible diagnoses: patients with sickle cell anemia such as sickle cell anemia (hemoglobin [Hb] SS), Hb S/ beta° thalassemia, Hb S/beta positive (+) thalassemia, Hb SC disease, Hb SE disease, Hb SD disease, Hemoglobin SO-Arab disease Hb S/hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin; other significant hemoglobinopathies that also fulfills a criterion from belowXx_NEWLINE_xXPlus any of the following: \r\n- Stroke or central nervous system event lasting more than 24 hours\r\n- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) changes indicative of brain parenchymal damage\r\n- Magnetic resonance angiogram (MRA) evidence of cerebrovascular disease\r\n- Acute chest syndrome requiring exchange transfusion or hospitalization\r\n- Recurrent vaso-occlusive pain crisis (more than 2/year for the last 2 years)\r\n- Stage I or II sickle lung disease\r\n- Sickle retinopathy\r\n- Osteonecrosis\r\n- Red cell alloimmunization (> 2 antibodies) during long-term transfusion\r\n- Constellation of dactylitis in the first year of life and a baseline hemoglobin < 7 g/dL and leukocytosis (> 13.4 x 10^3/mm^3) in the absence of infection during the second year of life\r\n- History of invasive pneumococcal disease\r\n- Pitted red blood cell (RBC) count > 3.5% during the first year of life\r\n- Abnormal transcranial Doppler\r\n- Transfusion dependence\r\n- Beta thalassemia majorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be excluded on the basis of sex, racial or ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Donors must meet the selection criteria as defined by the Foundation for the Accreditation of Hematopoietic Cell Therapy (FAHCT) and will be screened per the American Association of Blood Banks (AABB); (AABB guidelines and the recipients will be informed of any deviations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: ABO compatibility (in order of priority) \r\n- Compatible\r\n- Major incompatibility\r\n- Minor incompatibility\r\n- Major and minor incompatibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXThe attending surgeon considers the mass to be amendable to robotic assisted surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor mouth opening, with maximal opening less than 1.5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function as assessed by >= 92% oxygen saturation on room air by pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any concurrent active malignancies as defined by malignancies requiring any therapy other than expectant observationXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal Collection of >= 4 x 10^6 CD34 cells/kg prior to transplant oneXx_NEWLINE_xXHemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (HLH), familial hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis (FLH), viral-associated hemophagocytic syndrome (VAHS), X-linked lymphoproliferative disease (XLP), severe chronic active Epstein Barr virus infection (SCAEBV) with predilection for T- or natural killer (NK)-cell malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a severe infection that on evaluation by the Principal Investigator precludes ablative chemotherapy or successful transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent or rising minimal residual disease (MRD) after standard chemotherapy regimens: patients with evidence of minimal residual disease at the completion of therapy or evidence of rising MRD while on therapy; MRD will be defined by either flow cytometry (> 0.1% residual cells in the blast gate with immune phenotype of original leukemic clone), by molecular techniques (polymerase chain reaction [PCR] or fluorescent in situ hybridization [FISH]) or conventional cytogenetics (g-banding)\r\n* New leukemia subtypes: if new high risk features are identified after the writing of this protocol, patients can be enrolled with the approval of two members of the study committeeXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation > 92%Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of Fanconi anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Fanconi anemia (FA) must have aplastic anemia (AA), myelodysplastic syndrome without excess blasts, or high risk genotype as defined below\r\n* Aplastic anemia is defined as having at least one of the following when not receiving growth factors or transfusions:\r\n** Platelet count < 20 x 10^9 IL\r\n** Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 5 x 10^8/L\r\n** Hemoglobin (Hgb) < 8 g/dL\r\n* Myelodysplastic syndrome with multilineage dysplasia with or without chromosomal anomalies\r\n* High risk genotype (e.g. IVS-4 or exon 14 FANCC mutations, or BRCA1 or 2 mutations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate TIL available (Turnstile II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have brain lesions which measure =< 1cm each; lesions that are > 1 cm that have been treated with stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) and in the opinion of the PI or his designee no longer represents active disease will also be allowed (Turnstile II - Chemotherapy/Cell Infusion- Inclusion Criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in Cohort A will be randomized to receive either TIL alone or TIL plus dendritic cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be receiving a v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (B-RAF) inhibitor and failed to achieve PR or CR or have progressive disease in response to B-RAF treatment (Cohort C)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapid decline in neurological function as documented on exam and/or as per clinical judgment of treating physician (Cohort D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable UCB units available according to Umbilical Cord Blood Graft selection algorithm; the UCB graft may consist of one or two UCB unitsXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXUCB units will be selected according to current University of Minnesota umbilical cord blood graft selection algorithm; one or 2 UCB units may be used to achieve the required cell doseXx_NEWLINE_xXIf 2 UCB units are required to reach the target cell dose, each unit must be a 4-6 HLAA, B, DRB1 antigen match to each other, as well as a 4-6 antigen match to the recipientXx_NEWLINE_xXAll diseases are advanced hematologic malignancies not curable by conventional chemotherapy; responses to conventional treatment range from zero to 30% but are typically short livedXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias: must be in remission by morphology (< 5% blasts); note cytogenetic relapse or persistent disease without morphologic relapse is acceptable; also a small percentage of blasts that is equivocal between marrow regeneration vs. early relapse are acceptable provided there are no associated cytogenetic markers consistent with relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXNatural killer cell malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome: any subtype including refractory anemia (RA) if severe pancytopenia or complex cytogenetics; blasts must be less than 5%; if 5% or more requires induction therapy pre-transplant to reduce blast count to =< 5%Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory leukemia or MDS; these patients may be taken to transplant in aplasia after induction or re-induction chemotherapy or radiolabeled antibody; these high risk patients will be analyzed separately (Arm 3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with stable disease are eligible for transplantation if the largest residual nodal mass is < 5 cm (approximately); for patients who have responded to preceding therapy, the largest residual mass must represent a 50% reduction and be < 7.5 cm (approximately)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with radiographic signs of excessive intracranial mass effect with associated rapid neurologic deterioration, and/or spinal cord blockXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have contraindications to carboplatin, melphalan, etoposide phosphate, or sodium thiosulfateXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically newly diagnosis HCC, which is deemed resectable and resectedXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin < 2 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXAlpha feto protein (AFP) < 50 ug/L (for non-hepatitis B or C patients); alpha fetoprotein > 50 ug/L is allowed for patients with hepatitis B or C cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCan take or swallow medication orally i.e. no chronic or persistent nausea and vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is not taking St. John’s WortXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must demonstrate the ability and willingness to eat solid food and SV/placebo.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute infection, except for Herpes viruses (cytomegalovirus [CMV], Epstein Barr virus [EBV], herpes zoster virus [HZV], herpes simplex virus 1 [HSV 1]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of illicit drugs, glucocorticoids other than those necessary for concurrent radiotherapy, adrenal failure or septic shock, or other immune-suppressing or immune-modulating drugs. Glucocorticoids for anti-emetic prophylaxis and therapy should only be used as a last resort.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA known allergy to one or more components of SV, namely soy beans, mushrooms, mung beans, red dates, scallion, garlic, lentil beans, leek, hawthorn fruit, onions, ginseng, angelica root, Chinese licorice, dandelion root, Senegal root, ginger, olives, sesame seed and parsley.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have MIBG-avid NB and evaluable disease on MIBG scan at time of enrollment on protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR CCT: patients must have MIBG-avid malignant CCT and evaluable disease on MIBG scan at time of enrollment on protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no rapidly progressing or deteriorating neurologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with stored stem cells will be treated at the escalating dose while patients with no stem cells will be treated at the 50 mCi dose; neuroblastoma patients can be treated at the 50 mCi dose with or without stored stem cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with obstructive or symptomatic communicating hydrocephalusXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere major organ toxicity; specifically, renal, cardiac, hepatic, pulmonary, and gastrointestinal system toxicity should all be less than grade 2; patients with stable neurological deficits (because of their brain tumor) are not excluded; patients with =< 3 hearing loss are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have contraindications to carboplatin, cyclophosphamide, etoposide phosphate, or sodium thiosulfateXx_NEWLINE_xXAll stages (I-IV) of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) previously untreated with cytotoxic chemotherapy; however, patients may be entered if they have had prior cyclophosphamide for an urgent problem at diagnosis (e.g. epidural cord compression, superior vena cava syndrome) and/or a single dose of intrathecal methotrexate (MTX) at the time of the pre-treatment diagnostic lumbar punctureXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious rituximabXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Pathologically documented EBV antigen positive lymphoproliferative disease, lymphoma,\n             or other EBV-associated malignancy OR\n\n          -  Severely immunocompromised patients who develop blood levels of EBV DNA exceeding 500\n             copies/ml DNA, and are therefore at high risk for developing an EBV LPD\n\n        It is expected that five types of patients afflicted with EBV-associated lymphomas or\n        lymphoproliferative diseases will be referred and will consent to participate in this\n        trial. These are:\n\n          1. Patients developing or at risk for EBV lymphomas or lymphoproliferative disorders\n             following an allogeneic marrow transplant.\n\n          2. Patients developing or at risk for EBV lymphomas or lymphoproliferative disorders\n             following an allogeneic organ transplant.\n\n          3. Patients with AIDS developing EBV lymphomas or lymphoproliferative diseases as a\n             consequence of the profound acquired immunodeficiency induced by HIV.\n\n          4. Patients who develop EBV lymphomas or lymphoproliferative diseases as a consequence of\n             profound immunodeficiencies associated with a congenital immune deficit or acquired as\n             a sequela of anti-neoplastic or immunosuppressive therapy.\n\n          5. Patients who develop other EBV-associated malignancies without pre-existing immune\n             deficiency, including: EBV+ Hodgkin's and Non- Hodgkin's disease, EBV+ nasopharyngeal\n             carcinoma, EBV+ hemophagocytic lymphohistiocytosis, or EBV+ leiomyosarcoma.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        The following patients will be excluded from this study:\n\n          -  Moribund patients who, by virtue of heart, kidney, liver, lung, or neurologic\n             dysfunction not related to lymphoma, are unlikely to survive the 6-8 weeks required\n             for in vitro generation and expansion of the EBV-specific T cells to be used for\n             therapy and the subsequent 3 weeks required to achieve an initial assessment of the\n             effects of infusions of EBV-specific T cells.\n\n          -  Pregnancy does not constitute a contraindication to infusions of EBV-specific T cells.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated and treated patients are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who received > 450 mg/m^2 doxorubicin and have a cardiac ejection fraction on echocardiogram =< 40% on protocol entry are not eligible to received DA-EPOCH-RXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior systemic chemotherapy; patients may be entered if they have had prior limited-field radiotherapy, a short course of glucocorticoids and/or cyclophosphamide for an urgent problem at diagnosis (e.g. epidural cord compression, superior vena cava syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTransfusion dependent anemia with transfusion dependency of ?3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of iron chelatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal auditory acuity: defined as a normal age-related audiogram without significant hearing loss.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient compliance and geographic proximity (as determined by the Principal Investigator) that allow adequate follow-up.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPure sarcomas or borderline tumors or mucinous tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically-confirmed stage 4 NSCLC that: has not been treated with prior chemotherapy for metastatic disease and has high PD-L1 expression (ie, a TPS ? 50%), as determined by an FDA-approved test. Previous neoadjuvant/adjuvant chemotherapy is allowed if completed ? 6 months before diagnosis of metastatic disease.The subject's tumor must not harbor an EGFR sensitizing (activating) mutation or ALK translocation. EGFR sensitizing mutations are those mutations that are amenable to treatment with tyrosine kinase inhibitors including erlotinib, gefitinib, or afatinib. Investigators must be able to produce the source documentation of the EGFR mutation and ALK translocation status in all subjects with non-squamous histologies AND for subjects in whom testing is clinically recommended. If either an EGFR sensitizing mutation of ALK translocation is detected, additional information regarding the mutation status of the other molecule is not required. If unable to test for these molecular changes, formalin fixed paraffin embedded tumor tissue of any age should be submitted to a central laboratory designated by the Sponsor for such testing. Subjects with non-squamous histologies will not be randomized until the EGFR mutation status and/or ALK translocation status is available in source documentation at the site. For patients enrolled who are known to have a tumor of predominantly squamous histology, molecular testing for EGFR and ALK translocation will not be required as this is not standard of care and is not part of current diagnostic guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking any medication(s) (herbal or prescribed) known to have an adverse drug reaction with any of the study medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale subject must not donate ova starting at Screening and throughout the study period, and for 6 months after the final study drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has prior severe allergic reaction or intolerance to a monoclonal antibody, including humanized or chimeric antibodies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has prior severe allergic reaction or intolerance to any component of mFOLFOX6.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with recent gastric bleeding or symptomatic subjects with proven gastric ulcers that would exclude the subject from participation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have indication for treatment (adapted from National Comprehensive Cancer Network [NCCN] 2015 guidelines)\r\n* Any of the following constitute an indication for treatment:\r\n** Significant symptoms due to any iBCL: Which may include pain/discomfort, limitation of function, fatigue/malaise/constitutional symptoms, B-symptoms (fever, weight loss, night sweats), pruritus\r\n** Threatened end-organ function due to any iBCL\r\n** Progressive cytopenia secondary to any iBCL\r\n** Steady progression of follicular lymphoma (FL) and marginal zone lymphoma (MZL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe urinary incontinence, hydronephrosis, severe voiding dysfunction, any level of urinary obstruction requiring indwelling/condom cathetersXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled pain that results in patient's lack of compliance with the imaging proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic malignancies other than lymphomas.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic demonstration of transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium. Minor components (less than [<] 50 percent [%] overall) of variant histology such as glandular or squamous differentiation, or evolution to more aggressive phenotypes such as sarcomatoid or micropapillary change are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of diagnosis:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStem cell infusions (with or without total body irradiation [TBI]): ?84 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXANC ?1.0 × 10^9/Liter (L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA contraceptive implant;Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medications:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-GVHD agents posttransplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of lesions that are amenable for injections as determined by interventional radiology\r\n* NOTE: Nodal or extranodal sites must be palpable and easily accessible; sites such as mediastinum, retroperitoneum, within solid organs, spinal sites, central nervous system (CNS) sites, etc., are NOT allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Pregnant persons\r\n* Nursing persons\r\n* Persons of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic corticosteroids between pre-PET and post-PET evaluation and biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of TDT with ? 8 documented RBC transfusion events per year on an annualized basis in the 2-years prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed beta-thalassemia diagnosis by molecular genetic testingXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindication to apheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have determination of biomarker (BM) status (either BM positive [+] or BM negative [-]) by the sponsor's blood based assayXx_NEWLINE_xXArm C eligible for treatment with one of the following standard, every 3 week, platinum-based salvage regimens (with or without monoclonal antibody as appropriate for the disease):\r\n* Ifosfamide/carboplatin/etoposide (ICE) or rituximab/ifosfamide/carboplatin/etoposide (RICE);\r\n* Cisplatin, cytarabine (cytosine arabinoside), dexamethasone (DHAP) or rituximab, cisplatin, cytosine arabinoside, dexamethasone (RDHAP);\r\n* Gemcitabine hydrochloride (gemcitabine), dexamethasone, cisplatin (GDP) or rituximab, gemcitabine, dexamethasone, cisplatin (RGDP);\r\n* Gemcitabine and oxaliplatin (GemOx) or rituximab, gemcitabine and oxaliplatin (RGemOx);\r\n* Oxaliplatin, cytosine arabinoside, dexamethasone (OAD) or rituximab, oxaliplatin, cytosine arabinoside, dexamethasone (ROAD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to have a central venous line (peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC] or PORT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Pregnant persons\r\n* Nursing persons\r\n* Persons of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiency (below lower limit of normal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled or symptomatic kidney stones; NOTE: Patients with calcium oxalate crystals on baseline urinalysis or a history of symptomatic calcium oxalate stones must be seen by the Nephrology Stone Clinic and placed on a low oxalate diet (< 100 mg oxalate/day) prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Subjects must meet all of the following inclusion criteria to be eligible for enrollment\n        into the Intensive and Non Intensive study (unless where indicated):\n\n          1. Subjects with untreated AML according to the World Health Organization (WHO) 2016\n             Classification2, including those with:\n\n               -  AML arising from MDS or another antecedent hematologic disease (AHD).\n\n               -  AML after previous cytotoxic therapy or radiation (secondary AML).\n\n          2. 18 years of age (In Japan, 20 years of age).\n\n          3. Adequate Organ Function as defined by the following:\n\n               -  Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 3\n                  x upper limit of normal (ULN), excluding subjects with liver function\n                  abnormalities due to underlying malignancy.\n\n               -  Total serum bilirubin 2 x ULN (except subjects with documented Gilbert's\n                  syndrome).\n\n               -  Estimated creatinine clearance 30 mL/min as calculated using the standard method\n                  for the institution.\n\n          4. QTc interval 470 msec using the Fridericia correction (QTcF).\n\n          5. All anti cancer treatments (unless specified) should be discontinued 2 weeks from\n             study entry, for example: targeted chemotherapy, radiotherapy, investigational agents,\n             hormones, anagrelide or cytokines.\n\n               -  For control of rapidly progressing leukemia, all trans retinoic acid (ATRA),\n                  hydroxyurea, and/or leukopheresis may be used before and for up to 1 week after\n                  the first dose of glasdegib.\n\n          6. Serum or urine pregnancy test (for female subjects of childbearing potential) with a\n             minimum sensitivity of 25 IU/L or equivalent units of human chorionic gonadotropin\n             (hCG) negative at screening.\n\n          7. Male and female subjects of childbearing potential and at risk for pregnancy must\n             agree to use at least one highly effective method of contraception throughout the\n             study and for 180 days after the last dose of azacitidine, cytarabine, or\n             daunorubicin; and the last dose of glasdegib or placebo, whichever occurs later.\n\n          8. Female subjects of non childbearing potential must meet at least 1 of the following\n             criteria:\n\n               1. Have undergone a documented hysterectomy and/or bilateral oophorectomy;\n\n               2. Have medically confirmed ovarian failure; or\n\n               3. Achieved postmenopausal status, defined as follows: cessation of regular menses\n                  for at least 12 consecutive months with no alternative pathological or\n                  physiological cause; status may be confirmed by having a serum follicle\n                  stimulating hormone (FSH) level confirming the postmenopausal state.\n\n             All other female subjects (including female subjects with tubal ligations) are\n             considered to be of childbearing potential.\n\n          9. Consent to a saliva sample collection for a germline comparator, unless prohibited by\n             local regulations or ethics committee (EC) decision.\n\n         10. Evidence of a personally signed and dated informed consent document indicating that\n             the patient has been informed of all pertinent aspects of the study.\n\n         11. Subjects who are willing and able to comply with the study scheduled visits, treatment\n             plans, laboratory tests and other procedures (including bone marrow [BM] assessments).\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        Subjects with any of the following characteristics/conditions will not be included in the\n        study:\n\n          1. Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL) and APLwith PML RARA, subjects (WHO 2016\n             classification).\n\n          2. AML with BCR ABL1 or t(9;22)(q34;q11.2) as a sole abnormality.\n\n               -  Complex genetics may include t(9;22) cytogenetic translocation.\n\n          3. Subjects with known active CNS leukemia.\n\n          4. Participation in other clinical studies involving other investigational drug(s)\n             (Phases 1 4) within 4 weeks prior study entry and/or during study participation.\n\n          5. Subjects known to be refractory to platelet or packed red cell transfusions per\n             Institutional Guidelines, or a patient who refuses blood product support.\n\n          6. Subjects with another active malignancy on treatment with the exception of basal cell\n             carcinoma, non melanoma skin cancer, cervical carcinoma in situ. Other prior or\n             concurrent malignancies will be considered on a case by case basis.\n\n          7. Any one of the following ongoing or in the previous 6 months: myocardial infarction,\n             congenital long QT syndrome, Torsades de pointes, symptomatic arrhythmias (including\n             sustained ventricular tachyarrhythmia), right or left bundle branch block and\n             bifascicular block, unstable angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft,\n             symptomatic congestive heart failure (CHF New York Heart Association class III or IV),\n             cerebrovascular accident, transient ischemic attack or symptomatic pulmonary embolism;\n             as well as bradycardia defined as <50 bpms.\n\n          8. Subjects with an active, life threatening or clinically significant uncontrolled\n             systemic infection not related to AML.\n\n          9. Subjects with left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) <50% are excluded from the\n             Intensive Chemotherapy Study only.\n\n         10. Cumulative anthracycline dose equivalent of 550 mg/m2 of daunorubicin for the\n             Intensive Chemotherapy Study only.\n\n         11. Known malabsorption syndrome or other condition that may significantly impair\n             absorption of study medication in the investigator's judgment (eg, gastrectomy, lap\n             band, Crohn's disease) and inability or unwillingness to swallow tablets or capsules.\n\n         12. Current use or anticipated requirement for drugs that are known strong CYP3A4/5\n             inducers.\n\n         13. Concurrent administration of herbal preparations.\n\n         14. Major surgery or radiation within 4 weeks of starting study treatment.\n\n         15. Documented or suspected hypersensitivity to any one of the following:\n\n               -  For subjects assigned to intensive chemotherapy, documented or suspected\n                  hypersensitivity to cytarabine (not including drug fever or exanthema, including\n                  known cerebellar side effects) or daunorubicin.\n\n               -  For subjects assigned to non intensive chemotherapy, documented or suspected\n                  hypersensitivity to azacitidine or mannitol.\n\n         16. Known active drug or alcohol abuse.\n\n         17. Other acute or chronic medical or psychiatric condition including recent (within the\n             past year) or active suicidal ideation or behavior or laboratory abnormality that may\n             increase the risk associated with study participation or investigational product\n             administration or may interfere with the interpretation of study results and, in the\n             judgment of the investigator, would make the subject inappropriate for entry into this\n             study.\n\n         18. Pregnant females or breastfeeding female subjects.\n\n         19. Known recent or active suicidal ideation or behavior.\n\n         20. Investigator site staff members directly involved in the conduct of the study and\n             their family members, site staff members otherwise supervised by the investigator, or\n             subjects who are Pfizer employees, including their family members, directly involved\n             in the conduct of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 1: BRAF mutant melanoma (Part B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 2: NRAS or HRAS mutant solid tumors(Part B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 3: KRAS mutant CRC.(Part B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 4: KRAS mutant NSCLC (Part B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening hematology values of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening chemistry values of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening heart function lab testXx_NEWLINE_xXcreatinine kinase - MB, troponin-I, and troponin-T within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current evidence / risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) central serous retinopathy (CSR), or glaucoma with intraocular pressures ? 21 mmHg or other pre-existing ocular conditions that may put the patient at risk for ocular toxicitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXBarcelona Clinic Liver Cancer (BCLC) Stage B or C disease not amenable to or progressing after loco-regional therapy and not amenable to a curative treatment approachXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown fibrolamellar HCC, sarcomatoid HCC, or mixed cholangiocarcinoma and HCC histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXFGFR testing of patients will be performed at the investigators' discretion up to a max. of 90 days prior to start of screening. Investigators should ensure all patients will be eligible in terms of disease status and lines of treatment within this timeframe.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of endocrine alteration of calcium Phosphate homeostasis (e.g. parathyroid disorder, history of parathyroidectomy, tumor lysis, tumoral calcinosis, paraneoplastic hypercalcemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent diagnosis of any retinal detachment, retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED), serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed/refractory CMML.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpansion cohort only: Plasma cell fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) test demonstrating presence of t(11;14)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other prohibited or restricted medication as described in the study protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of an abnormal ECG, ECHO, or MUGA that is clinically meaningful.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or an unexplained fever >38.5°C during Screening or on the first scheduled day of dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute graft-versus-host disease of any grade or chronic graft-versus-host disease of Grade 2 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXHas either of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of dyspnea at rest or oxygen saturation (<=) 94 percent (%).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years, or uncontrolled asthma of any classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of primary cold agglutinin disease (CAgD) based on the following criteria: a) Chronic hemolysis; b) Polyspecific direct antiglobulin test (DAT) positive; c) Monospecific DAT strongly positive for C3d; d) Cold agglutinin titer >= 64 at 4 degree celsius; e) Immunoglobulin G (IgG) DAT less than or equal to (<=) 1+, and f) No overt malignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of at least one documented blood transfusion within 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically relevant infection of any kind within the month preceding enrollment (eg, active hepatitis C, pneumonia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE); or other autoimmune disorders with anti-nuclear antibodies at ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed post-autologous HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHave measureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas undergone prior allogeneic HSCT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are not required to have all approved therapies in a drug class (e.g., patients with kidney cancer do not need all tyrosine kinase inhibitors, patients with melanoma do not need all approved checkpoint blockade inhibitors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have erythematous manifestations of cutaneous aGvHD. Characteristics of the rash must indicate active inflammation (red coloration) as distinct from resolving inflammation (brown coloration).Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of end-organ Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients known to have CMV, adenovirus, human herpes virus 6 (HHV6), Epstein Barr virus (EBV) or any hepatitis viremia from screening according to institutional standard practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXIleus, abdominal pain, extensive denudation of intestinal mucosa or stage 4 GI GvHD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIA involving sites other than lungs and sinusesXx_NEWLINE_xXGraft failure, acute or extensive chronic GvHDXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced/metastatic, symptomatic, visceral spread, with a risk of life-threatening complications in the short term.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to vinorelbine (applicable for Cohort 1 triplet combination only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent dyspnea at rest of any origin, or other diseases requiring continuous oxygen therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias: must be in remission by morphology (=< 5% blasts); also a small percentage of blasts that is equivocal between marrow regeneration versus (vs.) early relapse are acceptable provided there are no associated cytogenetic markers consistent with relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXBiphenotypic/undifferentiated/prolymphocytic leukemias in first or subsequent CRXx_NEWLINE_xXNatural killer cell malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXOther leukemia subtypes: A major effort in the field of hematology is to identify patients who are of high risk for treatment failure so that patients can be appropriately stratified to either more (or less) intensive therapy; this effort is continually ongoing and retrospective studies identify new disease features or characteristics that are associated with treatment outcomes; therefore, if new features are identified after the writing of this protocol, patients can be enrolled with the approval of two members of the study committeeXx_NEWLINE_xXRelated donors will be assessed and collected through University of Minnesota BMT protocol MT2012-14C: “Procedure Guidelines For Related Hematopoietic Stem Cell Donors.”Xx_NEWLINE_xXCML in blast crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically documented multiple myeloma (MM)\r\n* Patients in early relapse (less than 24 months from initiation of systemic anti-myeloma therapy which may include single or planned tandem autologous transplant) after primary therapy that included and autologous HSCT; OR\r\n* Later stage; OR\r\n* High risk factors defined by the presence of any one of the following detected at any time prior to enrollment: deletion of chromosome 13 by conventional cytogenetics, hypodiploidy, abnormality in chromosome 1 (1q amplification or 1p deletion), t(4;14), t(14;16), t(14;20) or deletion of 17p by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or conventional karyotyping; high risk criteria based on commercially available gene expression profiling; OR\r\n* Extramedullary disease, plasma cell leukemia or high lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically documented myelofibrosis (MF)\r\n* Patients with Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS) plus intermediate stage 2 or higher risk MF; OR\r\n* Subset of intermediate stage 1 patients; defined by:\r\n** Poor-risk molecular profile (triple negative: JAK2, CALR, MPL); OR\r\n** Presence of any of the following mutations: ASXL1, SRSF2, EZH2, IDH1/2; OR\r\n** Severe thrombocytopenia, severe anemia, high peripheral blood blasts percentage; OR\r\n** Unfavorable cytogenetic abnormalities (rearrangements of chromosome 5 or 7 or >= 3 abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least two sites of disease amenable to biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with hematological malignancies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant disease, other than that being treated in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myelodysplastic syndrome, aplastic anemia or hemoglobinopathies will be eligible to participate regardless of disease status if plan is to proceed to HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHas male sexual partner with vasectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPractice total abstinence from sexual intercourse (minimum 1 complete menstrual cycle)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant screening laboratory result must indicate HCV genotype 1, 4, 5 or 6-infection if historical result is not available.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived study contraindicated medications prior to study drug administration including but not limited to those listed in the Full Prescribing Information Sheet for ledipasvir/sofosbuvir (Harvoni®).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment of chronic HCV infection with a direct acting antiviral agent(s): telaprevir, boceprevir, sofosbuvir, simeprevir, or other direct acting antiviralXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of liver decompensation: ascites noted on a physical exam, imaging or other test; variceal bleeding; hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHCV genotype performed during screening indicates infection with genotype 2 or 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic ITP (ITP lasting for greator than or equal to ([>=] 12 months) as defined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXVaccinations against encapsulated bacterial pathogens (Neisseria meningitis, including serogroup B meningococcus, Haemophilus influenzae, and Streptococcus pneumoniae) within 5 years of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate intravenous (IV) accessXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically relevant infection of any kind within the preceding month of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or anticoagulants within 1 week of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or other autoimmune disorders with anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs) at ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to immunotherapy including, but not limited to, anti-PD1 or anti-PDL1 antibodies is allowed but not required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales - not pregnant and willing to follow contraceptive guidanceXx_NEWLINE_xXMales - Willing to follow contraceptive guidanceXx_NEWLINE_xXcT1N0- tumour invasion into submucosa, no radiographic evidence of mesorectal nodal metastasis, tumour deposits or vascular invasion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXcT2N0 - tumour invasion into muscularis propria, no radiographic evidence of mesorectal nodal metastasis, tumour deposits or vascular invasion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXcT3a,bN0- tumour invasion through the muscularis propria no more than 5 mm into the subserosa/perirectal tissue and clear of the circumferential radial margin (CRM). Absence of radiographic evidence of mesorectal nodal metastasis, tumour deposits or lymphovascular invasion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMid to low-lying tumour eligible for local tumour excision in the opinion of the treating surgeon.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically fit to undergo radical surgery as per treating surgeon's discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXClearance to be calculated using Cockcroft formula: Males: 1.23 x (140 - age) x weight (kg) - serum creatinine (?mol/l) ; Females: 1.05 x (140 - age) x weight (kg) - serum creatinine (?mol/l)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is able (i.e. sufficiently fluent) and willing to complete the quality of life questionnaires.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has pathologic high risk factors on either the initial biopsy specimen report or follow up biopsy (if done): high histologic grade, mucinous histology, lymphatic or vascular invasion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have operable gastric adenocarcinoma, T2-T4a, N0-N3, M0Xx_NEWLINE_xXcompleted the base trial and have shown a clinical benefit of SD or better and have never met any withdrawal criteria as defined in the tisotumab vedotin base protocol, orXx_NEWLINE_xXnot completed treatment as defined in the base protocol for reasons that are not considered critical and unmanageable for the safety of the patient (as evaluated by the investigator and/or the sponsor) and the patient clearly showed response of PR or better.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have experienced radiographic disease progression or clinical signs of symptoms of instability requiring urgent intervention.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematological statusXx_NEWLINE_xXTherapeutic anti-coagulative or long-term anti-platelet treatment. Use of low dose acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) up to 81 mg/day and non-ASA nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) is allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women must not take part in this trial and will be considered as screening failures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has pathologic confirmation of recurrent or metastatic HNSCC, regardless of human papillomavirus (HPV) status or PDL-1 statusXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has HNSCC with carotid artery encasementXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with active hemorrhagic diathesisXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) =< 7 % (Gedatolisib can cause hyperglycemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an EGFR deletion or mutation known (from tumour biopsy or plasma) to be associated with EGFR TKI sensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients able to complete study and within geographical proximity allowing for adequate follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an EGFR exon 20 insertionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically-confirmed squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx or hypopharynx or HPV-positive unknown primaries presumed to be of oropharyngeal originXx_NEWLINE_xXMales or females 21 years or olderXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening laboratory assessments:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active infectious oral disease excluding oral candidiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of antibiotic rinses or trochesXx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal, alternative remedies, and alcohol containing over-the-counter mouthwashes are excluded during the course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXSigns and symptoms of active dental diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXExperienced a previous response to pembrolizumab or nivolumabXx_NEWLINE_xXANC ? 750/µL (?0.75 x 10^9/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors harbor an EGFR sensitizing mutation must have demonstrated progression on or intolerance to an Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved first-line EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI); patients with the EGFR T790M mutation, must also have demonstrated progression on or intolerance to osimertinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors harbor a ROS1 rearrangement must have demonstrated progression on or intolerance to crizotinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors harbor the BRAF V600E mutation, must have demonstrated progression on or intolerance to the combination of dabrafenib and trametinibXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned to receive IMRT with daily fractions of 2.0 Gy to 2.2 Gy to a cumulative dose of at least 60 Gy and a maximum of 72 GyXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiation fields to include at least two mucositis sites at risk (buccal mucosa, floor of mouth, ventral and lateral tongue, soft palate) in which both sites receive a minimum cumulative dose of 55 GyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active infectious disease excluding oral candidiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of oral mucositis or any oral lesion that would confound the assessment of oral mucositisXx_NEWLINE_xXActive systemic disease or condition known to impact the risk or course of oral mucositis including chronic immunosuppression and known seropositivity for HIVXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of hepatitis of any etiology or hepatic insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any study medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to isatuximab or participated clinical studies with isatuximab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of other immune related disease/conditions.Xx_NEWLINE_xX1. Confirmed diagnosis of HCC by imaging criteria per American Association for the Study\n             of Liver Diseases (AASLD) criteria.\n\n          2. Patients with single or multiple HCC who are unsuitable for surgical resection or RFA,\n             but suitable for embolization.\n\n          3. ECOG score 0-1. Child-Pugh score up to B7.\n\n          4. Patients should have measurable tumor lesion(s) by contrast MRI.\n\n          5. Patients have adequate normal organ function and suitable laboratory criteria.\n\n          6. Men and women of child-bearing age need to commit to using two levels of contraception\n             simultaneously to avoid pregnancy.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. Patients who have had a liver transplantation.\n\n          2. Patients who have uncontrolled major medical problems such as cardiac, pulmonary (COPD\n             requiring constant oxygen), renal (creatinine over 2.0) diseases, active infectious\n             diseases (except chronic Hepatitis B or C), or non-healing ulceration.\n\n          3. Patients who have any clinical evidence of hypoxia with O2 saturation less than 92% on\n             room air.\n\n          4. Patients with evidence of arterial insufficiency or microangiopathy in any organ due\n             to any reason, which could lead to distal extremity hypoxia, as evidenced by any\n             gangrenous change in distal limbs or requiring resection for this reason.\n\n          5. Patients with poorly controlled HBV infection.\n\n          6. Patients on interferon treatment need to have at least 2-week washout period from Day\n             1.\n\n          7. Patients with major gastrointestinal bleeding in the prior 2 months of enrollment or\n             known diagnosis of cancer other than HCC.\n\n          8. Pregnant or lactating women.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh or intermediate-2 risk disease, as defined per protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of prohibited medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther hematologic/biochemistry requirements, as per protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXThe tumor must have been determined to be mismatch repair proficient or microsatellite stable through CLIA approved testing (Immunohistochemistry [IHC], polymerase chain reaction [PCR], or Next-Generation Sequencing [NGS] assays).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of anal or small bowel carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic arrhythmiaXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing or active gastritis or peptic ulcer disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFunctioning intraperitoneal catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pulmonary disease or abnormal pulmonary function studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of narcolepsy or any neurological condition which may impair consciousnessXx_NEWLINE_xXConsecutive patients with a newly diagnosed, objectively confirmed: symptomatic or unsuspected, proximal lower-limb DVT or symptomatic PE or unsuspected PE in a segmental or more proximal pulmonary artery;Xx_NEWLINE_xXadministration of therapeutic doses of LMWH, fondaparinux, or unfractionated heparin (UFH) for more than 72 hours before randomization;Xx_NEWLINE_xX3 or more doses of a vitamin K antagonist before randomization;Xx_NEWLINE_xXthrombectomy, vena cava filter insertion, or thrombolysis used to manage the index episode;Xx_NEWLINE_xXrecent (in the last 1 month prior to randomization) brain, spinal or ophthalmic surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXbacterial endocarditis;Xx_NEWLINE_xXLate-Gadolinum enhancement (LGE) on CMR indicative of cardiac amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXTransthyretin amyloid (ATTR) cardiomyopathy (CM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a diagnosis of hereditary ATTR amyloidosis should have a known amyloidogenic transthyretin (TTR) mutation demonstrated by genotyping AND is recognised to be primarily associated with cardiomyopathy AND one of the following: Definite histochemical identification of amyloid by Congo red staining and green birefringence in crossed polarised light in cardiac or other tissue biopsy and identification of TTR as the amyloid fibril protein either by immunohistochemistry or proteomic analysis. Or Scintigraphy: 99m^Tc-DPD with Grade 2 cardiac uptake or 99m^Tc-PYP with either Grade 2 or 3 cardiac uptake.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a diagnosis of wild type ATTR-CM must be negative by genotyping and have one of the following: Definite histochemical identification of amyloid by Congo red staining and green birefringence in crossed polarised light in cardiac or other tissue biopsy and identification of TTR as the amyloid fibril protein either by immunohistochemistry or proteomic analysis OR Scintigraphy 99m^Technetium-dicarboxypropane diphosphonate (99m^Tc-DPD) with Grade 2 cardiac uptake or 99m^ Technetium-pyrophosphate (99m^Tc-PYP) with Grade 2 or 3 cardiac uptake.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject medically diagnosed with AL amyloidosis that has required chemotherapy or an autologous stem cell transplant based upon: AL amyloidosis confirmed by biopsy with immunohistochemical staining or proteomic identification of AL amyloid fibril type, in subjects with definite monoclonal gammopathy in whom causative mutations of all known relevant amyloidogenic genes have been excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically stable in NYHA class 2 or 3 for the 3 months preceding screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed AL amyloidosis based upon: AL amyloidosis confirmed by biopsy with immunohistochemical staining or proteomic identification of AL amyloid fibril type in subjects with definite monoclonal gammopathy in whom causative mutations of all known relevant amyloidogenic genes have been excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed free light chain complete response (CR) during the first three cycles of first-line chemotherapy where at least the first cycle has been with cyclophosphamide, bortezomib, dexamethasone (CyBorD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiomyopathy primarily caused by non-amyloid diseases (e.g. ischemic heart disease; valvular heart disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSustained / symptomatic monomorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT), or rapid polymorphic VT, at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXN-terminal pro b-type Natriuretic Peptide [(NT)-proBNP] >8500 nanograms (ng)/ Liter (L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny active and persistent dermatological conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting diagnosis of any type of dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute coronary syndrome, or any form of coronary revascularization procedure (including coronary artery bypass grafting [CABG]), within 6 months of screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUrine dipstick positive (>1+) for blood during screening with investigation indicating glomerular haematuria. If other causes are identified, subjects may be enrolled on resolution of the abnormalityXx_NEWLINE_xXDonation of blood or blood products in excess of 500 mL within 84 days of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor or unsuitable venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXOrthopnoea of sufficient severity to preclude supine scanning as determined at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXIntracranial aneurysm clips (except Sugita) or other metallic objectsXx_NEWLINE_xXIntra- orbital metal fragments that have not been removedXx_NEWLINE_xXPacemakers or other implanted cardiac rhythm management/monitoring devices and non-MR conditional heart valvesXx_NEWLINE_xXInner ear implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of claustrophobia 99m^TC-PYP OR 99mTC-DPD BONE TRACER RADIOSCINTOGRAPHYXx_NEWLINE_xXOrthopnoea of sufficient severity to preclude supine scanning as determined at ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXTTR polyneuropathy and / or intracranial TTR involvement including ophthalmological diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAML either de novo or secondary who either :Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening CLEC12A level ? 20%;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an active infection or with an unexplained fever during screening or on the first scheduled day of dosing;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has anemia due to HbS or HbC disease, alpha or beta thalassaemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has Glucose-6-phosphate deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has untreated severe hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has laboratory estimations indicating organ system dysfunction:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal electrocardiogram at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown fibrolamellar HCC, sarcomatoid HCC, or mixed cholangiocarcinoma and HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Portal-caval shuntsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented HER3-positive disease measured by immunohistochemistry (IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline laboratory assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects experiencing toxicity with ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXThe need for treatment with medications with clinically-relevant metabolism by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 isoenzyme within 3 hours before or after administration of SNX-5422Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol dependence or drug abuse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, macular degeneration, or any retinal changes detected by ophthalmological examination that are considered clinically important by examiner.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: Has received prior therapy with cancer vaccines, or compounds targeting PD-1 (including Merck pembrolizumab [MK-3475]), PD-L1, PD-L2, CTLA-4, lymphocyte-activation gene 3 (LAG-3), CD-137, OX-40 (tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 4 [TNFRSF4], also known as CD134), cluster of differentiation 40 (CD-40), glucocorticoid-induced TNFR-related protein (GITR), serine/threonine-protein kinase B-Raf (BRAF), MEK or other molecules in the MAPK pathway.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to E. coli derived products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to filgrastim, pegfilgrastim, or other G-CSF products in clinical development within 12 months prior to the administration of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline laboratory assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects experiencing toxicity with ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXThe need for treatment with medications with clinically-relevant metabolism by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 isoenzyme within 3 hours before or after administration of SNX-5422Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol dependence or drug abuse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, macular degeneration, or any retinal changes detected by ophthalmological examination that are considered clinically important by examiner.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or risks factors for RVOXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED) or risk factors for RPEDXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any medications known to affect the serum androgen levelXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a confirmed pathologic diagnosis of Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) according to the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) Guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from enrollment:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received more than 2 previous systemic therapies for Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient having out of range laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with AML or MDS per below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf undergoing myeloablative allogeneic HCT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf undergoing non-myeloablative allogeneic HCT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a reasonable expectation of ? 6 months survivalXx_NEWLINE_xXHLA-Identical Sibling (6/6): Minimal typing necessary is serologic typing for class I (AB) and molecular typing for class II (DRB1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of any experimental or approved C-C chemokine receptor type 5 (CCR5) modulators including maraviroc and PRO 140Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior exposure to Hu5F9?G4 or other CD47 targeting agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence or known history of cardiopulmonary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHaematologic and biochemical indices within the ranges shown below at the screening visitXx_NEWLINE_xXAR positive tumours defined as any nuclear AR staining by IHC (enrolment may be based on local pathology findings; subsequent review of AR expression by central pathology laboratory will be carried out)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTriple-negative tumours, i.e. tumour cells are negative forXx_NEWLINE_xXPR with <1% of tumour cells positive on IHC or an Allred score of ?2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAndrogens (testosterone, dihydroepiandrosterone, etc.);Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny approved or investigational agent that blocks androgen synthesis or targets the AR (e.g., abiraterone acetate, ARN-509, bicalutamide, enzalutamide, ODM-201, TAK-448, TAK-683, TAK-700)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the study protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic lymphadenopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXBothersome cutaneous diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening laboratory parameters:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindications for ipilimumab (Yervoy®) or nivolumab (Opdivo®) as per the package inserts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of motor neuropathy considered to be of autoimmune origin (e.g., Guillain-Barre Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or any components of the study drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for immunological and clinical assessments or post-study follow-up contact to determine relapse and survival.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the following minimum wash-out from previous treatments:Xx_NEWLINE_xX?3 weeks for systemic retinoids, interferons, vorinostat, romidepsin, fusion proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient currently has unresolved toxicities for which ceritinib dosing has been interrupted in the parent study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequired baseline central laboratory data in protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females must agree to discontinue nursingXx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory disease, having failed available therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is unable to reliably take oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a known sensitivity to any of the components of Andes-1537Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. Previously participated in, and received oral azacitidine, and continues to fulfill\n             the eligibility criteria in one of the parent oral azacitidine clinical trials.\n\n             The Investigator believes the subject is tolerating treatment with oral azacitidine\n             monotherapy and continued oral azacitidine treatment is of benefit to the subject.\n\n          2. Understand and voluntarily sign an informed consent document prior to any study\n             related assessments or procedures being conducted.\n\n          3. Willing and able to adhere to the study visit schedule and other protocol\n             requirements.\n\n          4. Females of childbearing potential (FCBP) may participate, provided they meet the\n             following conditions:\n\n               1. Have two negative pregnancy tests as verified by the Investigator prior to\n                  starting study therapy. She must agree to ongoing pregnancy testing during the\n                  course of the study, and after end of study treatment. This applies even if the\n                  subject practices true abstinence from heterosexual contact.\n\n               2. Either commit to true abstinence from heterosexual contact (which must be\n                  reviewed on a monthly basis and source documented) or agree to use, and be able\n                  to comply with, effective contraception without interruption, 28 days prior to\n                  starting investigational product, during the study therapy (including dose\n                  interruptions), and for 3 months, or longer if required by local regulations,\n                  after discontinuation of study therapy.\n\n          5. Male subjects must:\n\n               1. Practice true abstinence (which must be reviewed on a monthly basis) or agree to\n                  use a condom during sexual contact with a pregnant female or a female of\n                  childbearing potential while participating in the study, during dose\n                  interruptions and for at least 3 months, or longer if required by local\n                  regulations, following Investigational Product (IP) discontinuation, even if he\n                  has undergone a successful vasectomy.\n\n        Subjects must satisfy the following criteria to participate in the Survival Follow-up\n        phase:\n\n          1. In order to be enrolled for the survival follow-up in the Follow-up Phase of the\n             rollover study, subjects must have been in a parent oral azacitidine study where\n             monitoring for survival was required and have signed informed consent for follow-up\n             phase.\n\n          2. Understand and voluntarily sign an informed consent document for this study.\n\n          3. Willing and able to adhere to the study visit schedule and other protocol\n             requirements.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        The presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from receiving investigational\n        product in the study:\n\n          1. Concomitant use of drugs that are prohibited.\n\n          2. Prior chemotherapy (including injectable azacitidine) or radiotherapy or any\n             investigational agent after the last dose of oral azacitidine administered as part of\n             the parent oral azacitidine study.\n\n          3. Subjects have met one or more criteria for discontinuation as stipulated in the parent\n             oral azacitidine study.\n\n          4. Subjects received oral azacitidine in combination with another compound during a\n             parent oral azacitidine study (Subjects form multi-arm parent oral azacitidine studies\n             will be allowed to enroll into the rollover study, if the subject is receiving\n             single-agent oral azacitidine at the time of transition into the rollover study).\n\n          5. A subject's transition into rollover study ? 45 days after End of the Study visit of\n             the parent oral azacitidine study\n\n          6. Pregnant or lactating females. There are no exclusion criteria to prevent entry or\n             remaining on the follow-up phase of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPathological diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma before first treatment but may be enrolled with presumed diagnosis based on clinical and radiologic evaluation with confirmation made by biopsy at time of EUS prior to AdV-tk injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity or allergic reactions to acyclovir or valacyclovirXx_NEWLINE_xXFLT3 mutation positive (ITD, TKD or other)Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with AML-M3 (APL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who tolerated previous administration with TMZXx_NEWLINE_xX1 week from non-cytotoxic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable blood sugar controlXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe hepatic impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active co-morbidityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are currently taking Coumadin or Coumadin derivatives other than to maintain patency of venous access lines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring renal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXHad prior exposure to gene vector delivery products within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXFever (> 38.1°C)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious nonmalignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas receive rituximabXx_NEWLINE_xXExpression of one (1) or more of the following TAPAs: Sp17, AKAP-4, Ropporin, PTTG-1, Span-xb, Her-2/neu, HM1.24, NY-ESO-1 and MAGE-1, by either RT-PCR and/or immunocytochemistry, Western blotting or ELISA, in neoplastic cells and/or blood. For HER-2/neu expression, positive FISH results are acceptable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to provide at least 250 mL, and up to 500 mL, of whole blood obtained by phlebotomy and/or consent to leukapheresis for DC generation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ? 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindications to CYP and/or GM-CSF.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received organ transplants.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psychological or geographic conditions that prevent adequate follow- up or compliance with the study protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent use of photosensitizing agents such as fluoroquinolones and retinoids or patients undergoing phototherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in any other intraoperative margin assessment protocol that would affect data acquisition.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically proven GBM that is progressive or recurrent following standard RT and temozolomide (i.e., at least “biopsy-proven” recurrent disease); previous salvage therapies after first recurrence do not exclude subjects from this trial (e.g., anti-angiogenesis therapies, second- and third-line chemotherapies); patients will be eligible if the original histology was lower-grade glioma and a subsequent diagnosis of GBM is made; for subjects who have tumor resection within the translation sub-study, the pathology results will be reviewed post-surgery and prior to treatment on the main studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIf subjects have not passed an interval of at least 6 months, they may still be eligible if they meet the following criteria: convincing histologic evidence of disease recurrence which is not thought to predominantly represent radionecrosis, standard focal external beam radiation therapy (EBRT) treatment with acceptable doses to tumor and normal tissue which suggest re-irradiation is feasible; these cases of early recurrence must be reviewed and approved by the study PI for enrollment into the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of standard dose focal RT to 60 Gy in 30 fractions or 59.4 Gy in 1.8 Gy fractions, or equivalent or lower doses; patients who have received prior treatment with non-standard RT dose and fractionation schemes are still eligible, provided they have only received a single course of RT; however, subjects treated with interstitial brachytherapy or single-fraction stereotactic radiosurgery are not eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of biopsy-confirmed exclusive radionecrosis after initial GBM therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXA requirement for a calcium channel blocker for blood pressure control that cannot be switched to an antihypertensive with an alternative mechanism of action; permitted anti-hypertensive medications include: chlorothiazide, hydrochlorothiazide, atenolol, nadolol, enalapril, lisinopril, eprosartan, and irbesartanXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-grade (second degree or above) atrioventricular (AV) block or persistent sinus bradycardia of less than 50 beats per minute (BPM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-arrhythmia medication other than beta-blockers or digoxinXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with an H2 blocker, other than famotidine; if the subject requires a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), then esomeprazole, pantoprazole, or rabeprazole may be givenXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with concurrent enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAEDs); patients previously treated with EIAEDs may be enrolled if they have been off the EIAED for 10 days or more prior to the first dose of mibefradil (mibefradil dihydrochloride)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking and cannot discontinue over-the-counter (OTC) medications and nutritional supplements, including herbal or \Chinese\ medications, are not eligible, except if using the following OTC medications that are allowed at labeled doses, acetaminophen, aspirin, diphenhydramine, calcium carbonate antacids, branded multiple vitamin supplements and pseudoephedrine; topical preparations and decongestant nasal sprays are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with markedly decreased visual acuity in the opinion of the treating investigator after completion of screening ophthalmologic examXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious selinexor exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXHas received any treatments prohibited in this trial within specified time framesXx_NEWLINE_xXPart B dose expansion: Must have confirmed Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) wild-type colorectal cancer that is metastatic or recurrent and has failed oxaliplatin- and irinotecan-based chemotherapy or who are intolerant of irinotecan or oxaliplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXHealth care coverage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) <18.5 or >35 kg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlkaline phosphatase > UNL or > 2.5 x UNL in case of liver metastases, or > 5 x UNL in case of bone metastases.Xx_NEWLINE_xXALT/AST > UNL or > 2.5 x UNL in case of liver metastases.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUsed any prescription medication during the prior 1 month that the investigator judges is likely to interfere with the study or to pose an additional risk to the patient in participating.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a mental incapacity or language barriers precluding adequate understanding, co-operation, and compliance with the study requirements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Stage 2 only, mixed histology i.e. patients with >10% non-endometrioid malignant cells in provided histopathology samples.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave sickle cell disease (confirmed by Hb electrophoresis or more specific tests) or other conditions with iron overload from repeated blood transfusions (see exclusion criteria for exceptions);Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received at least 1 transfusion per year in the last 2 years and who are expected to have a continuing requirement (based on Investigator's judgement) during the duration of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXThalassemia syndromes;Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiamond Blackfan anemia;Xx_NEWLINE_xXA serious, unstable illness, as judged by the Investigator, during the past 3 months before screening/baseline visit including but not limited to: hepatic, renal, gastro-enterologic, respiratory, cardiovascular, endocrinologic, neurologic or immunologic disease;Xx_NEWLINE_xXWritten documentation of local or central laboratory determination of amplification or translocation to FGFR1-TACC1, FGFR3-TACC-3 fusion and/or activating mutation in FGFR1, FGFR2,or FGFR3Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeurological symptoms related to underlying disease requiring increasing doses of corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has newly diagnosed AML and refuses or is not eligible for treatment with aggressive chemotherapy and/or SCT; OR AML and has relapsed or been refractory to prior therapy; OR High-risk MDS, defined as IPSS intermediate-2 (INT-2) or IPSS high-risk, and refuses or is not eligible for standard or aggressive chemotherapy and SCT or prior experimental therapies; OR High-risk MDS, defined as IPSS INT-2 or IPSS high risk, and has failed or been refractory to deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) hypomethylating agents (azacitidine or decitabine), lenalidomide, standard/aggressive chemotherapy, SCT, or prior experimental therapies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas active graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving any medications or substances with risk of torsades de pointes; Note: medications or substances on the list \Drugs with Risk of Torsades de Pointes\ are prohibited; medications or substances on the list \Drugs with Possible or Conditional Risk of Torsades de Pointes\ may be used while on study with extreme caution and careful monitoringXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels and/or hemoptysis in excess of 2.5 mL (or one half teaspoon) =< 8 weeks of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has participated in a Novartis sponsored combination trial where imatinib was dispensed in combination with another study medication and patient is still receiving combination therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of a combination of any two of the following (a+b or a+c, or b+c):Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen and women from all ethnic and racial groupsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiarrhea ( >=3 loose bowel movements per day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDuration of diarrhea of at least 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MEN 2b (since these patients may have megacolon)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking any clay productsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose current medication schedule would not permit an approximate 2 hour window between administration of CASAD and other scheduled medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histological confirmation of a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) of any histology; confirmation of histological diagnosis must be completed prior to enrollment by the lead site (Northwestern)\r\n* Patients will be stratified by mycosis fungoides (MF) and Sezary syndrome (SS) (report diagnostic or consistent with MF/SS), stage IA-IVB according to TNM blood (TNMB) classification versus other CTCL histologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in whom IV fluid hydration is contraindicated (e.g. due to pre-existing pulmonary, cardiac, or renal impairment) will NOT be eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a contraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments (including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairment) are NOT eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to take acetaminophenXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of spinal cord compression or CNS complication unless controlled by appropriate therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal LVEF (< LLN for the institution for a patient of that age) on echocardiogramXx_NEWLINE_xXHave identified a backup cells source in case of engraftment failure; the source can be autologous, related or unrelatedXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate renal and hepatic function (creatinine ? 1.5 x IULN, bilirubin ? IULN, AST and ALT ? 3.0 x IULN or 5 x IULN if know liver metastases).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of bulky disease (defined as any single mass > 10 cm in its greatest dimension).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active ? grade 2 anorexia, nausea or vomiting, and/or signs of intestinal obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient tumor available to determine if expresses wild-type or mutated BRAF if result not already known; the presence or absence of BRAF mutation needs to be determined at Brigham and Women's Cancer Center (BWH), or by Drs. Christopher Corless and Michael Heinrich at Cancer Pathology Shared Resource Oregon Health & Science University, or in context of eligibility assessment after signing consent to a previous clinical trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement to provide blood samples for pharmacodynamic studies utilizing Peripheral Blood Mononuclear Cells (PMBCs) as outlined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor venous access for study drug administration unless patient can use silicone based cathetersXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma of ocular primaryXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because it is unknown if STA-9090 has the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk of adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother STA-9090, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with STA-9090; these potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of medications associated with a high incidence of QT prolongationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of high-grade symptomatic duodenal obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive suppurative cholangitis (hypotension, acidemia, mental status changes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients without access to the duodenum or ampulla are not candidates for ERCP and stentingXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological proof of urothelial carcinoma of the urethra, bladder, ureters, or renal pelvisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior malignancy is allowed except for cancers that have been definitively treated with a risk of recurrence of < 30% based on the treating oncologists assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 100K/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must consent to mandatory correlative sample collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXCancer must have at least one of the following PIK3CA mutations: E542K, E545K, H1047R, H1047L; the PIK3CA mutation must be documented in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to swallow the medication in its prescribed form are not eligible; the drug cannot be administered via gastric feeding (G)-tube; there will be no exceptions for this criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiency: serum creatinine > 173 µmol/lXx_NEWLINE_xXAnemia: normochromic, normocytic with a hemoglobin value of > 2g/100 ml below the lower limit of normal or a hemoglobin value < 10g/100 mlXx_NEWLINE_xXBone lesions: lytic lesions, severe osteopenia or pathologic fracturesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who received bortezomib within 6 months of randomization to this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with contra-indication to high dose of steroids (including ongoing active infection, use of live vaccines, virosis such as hepatitis, herpes, varicella, herpes zoster)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have symptomatic disease requiring therapy; indications for therapy are defined by the iwCLL2008 criteria as follows (one or more are sufficient):\r\n* Clinical manifestations (if believed by the investigator to be caused by CLL):\r\n** Unintentional weight loss > 10% within the previous 6 months\r\n** Significant fatigue\r\n** Fevers of greater than 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit (F) (38 degrees Celsius [C]) for 2 weeks without evidence of infection\r\n** Night sweats without evidence of infection\r\n* Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development or worsening of anemia (< 11 g/dl), thrombocytopenia (< 100,000/mm^3) or neutropenia (< 1,500/mm^3)\r\n* Massive (i.e. > 6 cm below left costal margin) or progressive splenomegaly\r\n* Massive nodes/clusters (> 5 cm) or progressive symptomatic adenopathy\r\n* Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of > 50% over 2 month period, or an anticipated doubling time of less than 6 months\r\n* NOTE: Marked hypogammaglobulinemia or the development of a monoclonal protein in the absence of any of the above criteria for active disease is not sufficient for protocol therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with detectable c-kit JM mutation confirmed by DNA or RNA sequencing, which is expected to be mainly found after screening of mucosal or acral melanoma or melanoma on skin with chronic sun-induced damages (defined by a microscopically marked elastosis involving the skin surrounding their primary melanoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXlesion(s) diameter is ? 2 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active alcohol addiction (as assessed by medical caregiver)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer disease defined as unhealed or clinically activeXx_NEWLINE_xXActive drug addiction including alcohol, cocaine or intravenous drug use defined as occurring within the 6 months preceding diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have experienced an involuntary weight loss of more than 25% of their body weight in the 2 months preceding study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose only nodal disease is cystic and not PET-avidXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a smoking history of > 10 pack-yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGastrointestinal diseases including Crohn's disease or hemorrhagic coloproctitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastric or small bowel surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic blood flow abnormalities and/or large-volume ascitesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to mouse antigensXx_NEWLINE_xXOne to 3 painful lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTargeted tumor(s) are ExAblate device accessible and are located in ribs, extremities (excluding joints), pelvis, shoulders and in the posterior aspects of the following spinal vertebra: Lumbar vertebra (L3 - L5), Sacral vertebra (S1 - S5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with persistent distinguishable pain associated with up to 3 tumors of which a maximum of 2 tumors will be treated: o If patient has pain from additional sites that are not planned for treatment, the pain from the additional sites must be evaluated as being less intense by at least 2 points on the NRS compared to the site(s) to be treated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with NRS (0-10 scale) pain score ? 4 at the targeted tumors (i.e: both tumors targeted for treatment must have NRS ? 4) irrespective of medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXTargeted tumors (most painful) size up to 8 cm in diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an acute medical condition (e.g., pneumonia, sepsis) that is expected to hinder them from completing this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on anti-arrhythmic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXKPS Score < 60 (See \Definitions\ below)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cerebrovascular disease (multiple CVA or CVA within 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not able or willing to tolerate the required prolonged stationary position during treatment (can be up to 4 hrs of total table time.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to communicate with the investigator and staff.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with persistent undistinguishable pain (pain source unidentifiable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTargeted (most painful) tumors size > 8 cm in diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXTargeted (most painful) tumors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNOT accessible to ExAblate deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must meet all the University of Alabama at Birmingham (UAB) diagnosis and disease status criteria for clinical appropriateness for allogeneic HSCT derived from American Society for Blood and Marrow Transplantation (ASBMT) and National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines and updated annuallyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must receive a myeloablative preparative regimen containing busulfan targeted to an area under the curve (AUC) of 1000/ dose for 16 doses combined with fludarabine 40 mg/M2 daily for 4 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any significant organ system compromise except hematopoiesis as defined in the UAB eligibility checklist including, a Karnofsky performance status > 70% and a life expectancy assuming control of primary disease > 8 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with either of the following diagnoses:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMDS and >5% blasts, or IPSS risk group intermediate-1, intermediate-2 or high riskXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients intolerant or unable to receive these agents will be considered eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML and ALL in 1st complete remission (CR) at high risk of relapse based on negative prognostic factors (for the definition of high-risk of relapse see Appendix H).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML and ALL in 2nd or subsequent CRXx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary AML in CRXx_NEWLINE_xXsecondary AML and ALL in 1st or 2nd relapse or primary refractoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPS ECOG < 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with life-threatening condition or complication other than their basic conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to haploidentical HCT as defined by the InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXInfections requiring administration of ganciclovir, valganciclovir or acyclovir at the time of infusion: HSV-Tk cells can be administered after a 24-hour discontinuation interval of antiviral therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAdministration of G-CSF after haploidentical HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXCastleman's disease (multi-centric disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory data as specified below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulation: INR < 1.5 times normal, aPTT < 1.5 times normal. Patients receiving therapeutic doses of anticoagulant therapy may be considered eligible for the trial if INR and aPTT are within the acceptable therapeutic limits for the institution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastric or small bowel surgery involving any extent of gastric or small bowel resection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have exhibited allergic reactions to a similar structural compound or to a formulation component.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of warfarin and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of anticholinergicsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of phenothiazine and atypical antipsychoticsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizures or extrapyramidal symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with one of the following documented mastocytosis as per WHO classification: Smouldering Systemic Mastocytosis, Indolent Systemic Mastocytosis, Cutaneous MastocytosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHandicapped status defined as at least two of the following handicaps, including at least one among pruritus, flushes, depression and asthenia: pruritus score ? 6, number of flushes per week ? 7, Hamilton rating scale (depression) ? 10, number of stools per day ? 4, number of mictions per day ? 8, Fatigue Impact Scale total score (asthenia) ? 40Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with OPA > 2 (moderate to intolerable general handicap)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with one of the following mastocytosis: Systemic Mastocytosis with an Associated clonal Hematologic Non Mast cell lineage Disease (SM-AHNMD), Mast cell leukemia (MCL), Aggressive systemic mastocytosis (ASM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXC-Kit (CD117) positive tumours detected immuno-histochemically or PDGF positive if c-kit negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXLow-intermediate risk of relapse defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKi 67 < 10%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of autonomous adrenocortical hormone secretion despite the absence of disease detectable with imaging techniquesXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal EKG and LVEF >40%, measured by EKG and MUGA scan, radionuclide ventriculogram, or echocardiogramXx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacity, unless authorization is granted by a legal guardianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivity to alcohol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require or are likely to require any strong modifier of CYP450 activity to be taken prior to milataxel administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXDCIS diagnosed with core biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXDCIS with microinvasion on histology on core needle biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable massXx_NEWLINE_xXMass on mammographyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to carboplatin (related to current or past diagnosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior areolar or breast surgery which interrupts communication of the ductal systems with the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of ulcerating or fungal skin lesions or infection of the breastsXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor nutritional state (as determined by clinician)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to lidocaine or marcaineXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to imaging dyesXx_NEWLINE_xXInferior margin of the cancer located within 15 cm from the anal verge as determined by rigid sigmoidoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will require APR or hand-sewn colo-anal anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXASA class 4 or 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients or their representative who are unable to understand the conditions and objectives of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients, who are participating in a previous Bayer/Onyx sponsored study that has reached its endpoint (statistical and regulatory or study end), and who are, in the opinion of the Investigator, expected to continue to have an overall positive benefit/risk from continuing treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is receiving sorafenib (Nexavar) as a monotherapy in their originating protocol. Patients who were being treated with sorafenib (Nexavar) in combination with other chemotherapies in the original study, but continued on single agent sorafenib (Nexavar) after discontinuation of the combination agent will be eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who are receiving concurrent combination with sorafenib (Nexavar) and TACE (transarterial chemoembolization) in their originating study will be eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant Rifampicin and St John's Wort (Warfarin may be used only with very close monitoring.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSatisfactory haematological or biochemical functions (tests should be carried out within 8 weeks prior to randomisation): Results of clinical investigations carried out within 8 weeks prior to randomisation can be used in place of the required screening investigations. Patients with mild laboratory abnormalities can be included at the discretion by the site principal investigator, and after approval by ASCOLT Trial Management GroupXx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted the following investigationsXx_NEWLINE_xXColonoscopy(or CT colonogram(within 16 months prior to randomization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive gastritis or active peptic ulcerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of continuous daily use of PPI more than 1 year prior to consentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of stroke, coronary arterial disease, angina, or vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of erosive GERD or active erosive GERD on gastroscopy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnexplained rise of CEA (i.e. smoker with elevated CEA will not be excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of relapsed or refractory classical HLXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived and failed potentially curative chemotherapeutic regimens (e.g., ABVD, Stanford V, or BEACOPP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived allogeneic BMTXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoked at least 10 cigarettes/day for at least 1 year.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to reduce alcohol consumption during study to 2 or fewer standard drinks/day (3 oz. of alcohol or two beers (12 oz.), or two 5 oz. glasses of wine).Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to not use illicit drugs during study period including marijuana.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of tobacco products (other than cigarettes) or nicotine products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to use of naltrexone (i.e., past history of opioid abuse or dependence or evidence of opioid use in the past 30 days; significant hepatocellular injury as evidenced by liver enzyme levels over 3 times normal limits).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of medications whose metabolism or effects may be adversely altered by bupropion or naltrexone. Medications that contraindicate the use of bupropion include theophylline, procarbazine, carbimazole, nialamide, pargyline, toloxatone, iproniazid, and systemic steroids. Medications that contraindicate the use of naltrexone include opioid analgesics and yohimbine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of anti-seizure medications, disulfiram, or any medications that significantly challenge liver functioning.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment for drug or alcohol dependence during the last year, or evidence of alcohol abuse so severe that the patient is judged potentially unable to comply with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of problem alcohol consumption based on AUDIT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported use of illicit drugs in the past 90 days (including opioids, but excluding marijuana).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuicidal or homicidal ideation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent major depression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaving plans to leave the immediate geographical area within 9 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically relevant serious co-morbid medical conditions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXASA score 1-2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to communicate sensations during the ExAblate MRGFUS procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject presents with:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms and signs of increased intracranial pressure (e.g., headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and papaedema).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-coagulant therapy, on medications known to increase risk of hemorrhage, (e.g.: non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), statinsXx_NEWLINE_xXTIA or stroke in the last 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppression (corticosteroids to prevent brain edema are permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to gadolinium-DTPAXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated, uncontrolled Sleep apneaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown life-threatening systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of uncontrolled seizures or who are not on anti seizure medication (e.g., Phenytoin 100 mg PO t.i.d. or Keppra 500 mg po bid) before the procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior enrollment in NCI protocol 09-C-0139 with receipt of at least 5 doses of TARP peptide vaccine (i.e. completion of primary vaccination series)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B and C negative, unless the result is consistent with prior vaccination or prior infection with full recoveryXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived either IPI-145 or ofatumumab while participating in study IPI-145-07 and experienced radiologically-confirmed disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXDiscontinued study participation in Verastem-sponsored IPI-145-07 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXGreater than 3 months from confirmed progressive disease on Study IPI-145-07Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive prophylactic treatment for pneumocystis and herpes simplex virus (HSV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently enrolled in Studies GS-US-352-0101, GS-US-352-1214, or GS-US-352-1154Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-smokers, former smokers and/or smokers who have not smoked within 1 month before surgery, and who agree to not smoke or utilize e-cigarettes during the post-operative periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-pectoral implant placementXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing delayed reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring Wise pattern reduction of mastectomy skin flapXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic steroid use within the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is undergoing robotic partial nephrectomy being performed by participating surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is willing to be randomized between intervention and control armsXx_NEWLINE_xXCases in which the subject has a solitary or horseshoe kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXCases in which the subject has more than two masses in the applicable kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXCases involving a bilateral operationXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in a TRACON Pharmaceuticals sponsored parent TRC105 study and, thought to have potential to derive clinical benefit from continued treatment with TRC105 in the opinion of the parent study investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXability to begin TRC105 dosing on this protocol within 6 weeks from the subjects last dose of TRC105 in the parent TRC105 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny clinical event that would make TRC105 therapy inappropriate under the parent protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with del(5q) MDS, documented del(5q) MDS by metaphase cytogenetics or FISH analysis with up to 1 additional cytogenetic abnormality other than 1 involving chromosome 7 or chromosome 17.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated refractoriness or intolerance to standard approved therapy (lenalidomide in del(5q) MDS patients & azanucleosides in non-del(5q)patients).Xx_NEWLINE_xXcreatinine: ?2 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXexclude use of acetaminophen or acetaminophen-containing medications from 1 day before to 1 day after completion of treatment. The active metabolite of acetaminophen, N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), is known to block effects of cenersen & use of acetaminophen during treatment with study regimen has been associated with a failure to achieve a response in a past clinical trial of cenersen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNonlactating female between the ages of 21 to 65 years, inclusive;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPap test documenting atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS)/HPV+, atypical squamous cells high grade (ASC-H), low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL), or high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) within 4 months prior to screening Visit 1;Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the diagnosis of CIN1, has a documented satisfactory colposcopy, ie, the entire lesion as well as the entire squamocolumnar junction is visualizible by colposcopy;Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed high-risk HPV infection by a commercially available high-risk DNA assay (eg, Hybrid Capture II [Qiagen]);Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent recognized immunodeficiency disease, including infection with HIV, cellular immunodeficiencies, hypogammaglobulinemia, or dysgammaglobulinemia, or hereditary or congenital immunodeficiencies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously enrolled in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all required evaluations and procedures in this study protocol including swallowing capsules without difficultyXx_NEWLINE_xXErythropoietin and darbopoietin-? are permitted;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHormonal therapies acting on the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (i.e., LHRH agonist/antagonist) are permitted. No other hormonal therapy is permitted;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of immunosuppressive medication at study entry, with the following exceptions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor France only: A subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent corneal epithelial disease except mild punctate keratopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have history of severe hypersensitive reaction to the active ingredient or any excipients of DHP107 or IV paclitaxel.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who cannot tolerate oral administration as determined by the InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have eligibility confirmed by rapid central pathology and central molecular screening reviews performed on APEC14B1:\r\n* Newly-diagnosed high-grade glioma such as anaplastic astrocytoma or glioblastoma\r\n* Negative results for H3 K27M by immunohistochemistry (IHC)\r\n* Negative results for BRAFV600E mutation by next-generation sequencing (NGS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with M+ disease (defined as neuraxis dissemination either by imaging or by cytology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLumbar CSF cytology is not required, but may be performed if clinically indicated prior to study enrollment. If lumbar CSF cytology is positive, the patient is considered to have M+ disease and is ineligible \r\n* Note: False positive cytology can occur within 10 days of surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with gliomatosis cerebri type 1 or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known constitutional mismatch repair deficiency syndrome (CMMR-D)/biallelic mismatch repair deficiency (bMMRD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients who are pregnant are ineligible due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xX204 Prior allogeneic HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xX205 For Part 2 (Expansion in patients with DLBCL): fluorodeoxyglucose non-avid patients.Xx_NEWLINE_xX217 Subject has known sensitivity to immunoglobulins or any of the products or components to be administered during dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBRCA1, BRCA2 and/or ATM gene defect.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease at study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of immunosuppressive medication at the time of study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological proof of muscle-invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder (stage cT2-cT3b, N0-1, M0). Subjects with mixed histology are required to have documented dominant transitional cell pattern with no more than 10% squamous differentiation and 10% glandular differentiation. Micropapillary/sarcomatoid/adenocarcinoma/plasmacytoid variants are not allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo multiple cystoscopies during the study for TAR-200 removal and post-insertion examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed eligible for and willing to undergo RC by the attending urologist.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m2 (assessed using the CKD-EPI equation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignancies within 3 years except for those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any bladder or urethral anatomic feature that in the opinion of the investigator may prevent the safe placement, indwelling use, or removal of TAR 200.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPyeloureteral tube externalized to the skin is exclusionary. Unilateral nephrostomy tube or ureteral stent is permitted as long as it does not interfere with placement or retention of TAR-200 in the bladder.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndwelling catheters are not permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with evidence of bladder perforation during diagnostic cystoscopy may be treated if perforation has resolved prior to dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBladder post-void residual volume of >500 mL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of diagnosis of neurogenic bladder requiring intermittent catheterization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled adrenal insufficiency.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDifficulty providing blood samples.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarcerated. (Note: under certain specific circumstances a person who has been imprisoned may be included or permitted to continue as a subject. Strict conditions apply and sponsor approval is required.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid pregnancy or fathering children.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values outside the protocol-defined range at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate vascular access for leukapheresis procedure (either peripheral line or surgically-placed line)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject does not meet protocol-specified washout periods for prior treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must be supratentorial in location.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of herpetic keratitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has had laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK) procedure within the last 1 year or cataract surgery within the last 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a visual condition that compromises the ability to accurately measure visual acuity or assess visual activities of daily living (vADLs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXcervical cap or diaphragm with a spermicidal agent,Xx_NEWLINE_xXtubal sterilization, orXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose circumstances do not permit completion of the study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmation of HCC (hepatocellular carcinoma) or non-invasive diagnosis of HCC as per American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) criteria in patients with a confirmed diagnosis of cirrhosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBarcelona Clinic Liver Cancer (BCLC) stage B or C that cannot benefit from treatments of established efficacy such as resection, local ablation, chemoembolization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic HCV infection with less than 4 weeks between completion of HCV therapy and start of study drug. Note: patients with chronic infection with HCV who are untreated or noncuratively treated HCV are allowed on study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have one of the histologically advanced solid tumors harboring CCNE1 amplification: their diseases are refractory to, or do not have, standard-of-care therapy; or they declined standard-of-care therapy; patients with triple negative breast cancer or small cell lung cancer are not eligible since there is an ongoing phase Ib study of AZD1775 as a single agent targeting these patients; CCNE1 amplification is defined in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory: CCNE1 amplification > 7 based on targeted custom Ampliseq panel on the Ion Torrent PGM; or CCNE1 amplification on alternate CLIA platforms such as Foundation One, UW-OncoPlex – Cancer Gene Panel, Memorial Sloan Kettering-Integrated Mutation Profiling of Actionable Cancer Targets (MSK-IMPACT), Solid Tumor Genomic Assay (Life Technologies), etc. will also be eligible to be treated after principle investigator (PI) approval; patients with known CCNE1 amplification on local or commercial platforms can start treatment after planned biopsy or submission of recent archival sample; central next-generation sequencing (NGS) CCNE1 and fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) testing will be performed to confirm the resultXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an inability to swallow oral medications; Note: Patient may not have a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube or be receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTransporter studies (in vitro) have shown that AZD1775 is an inhibitor of breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations are not allowed throughout the study; these herbal medications include but are not limited to: St. John's wort, kava, ephedra (ma hung), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto and ginseng; patients should stop using these herbal medications 7 days prior to first dose of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of other active invasive cancers that do not harbor CCNE1 amplificationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to cumulative doses of doxorubicin greater than 360 mg per square meter of body-surface area or its equivalentXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral ischemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXA recognized single pathogen cultured from 1 or more blood cultures; ORXx_NEWLINE_xXInpatient or outpatient with presence of indwelling CVC (ie, totally implantable port, tunneled or non-tunneled CVC, hemodialysis catheter, or peripherally inserted CVC) that has been in place for greater than5 days from which a bloodstream infection has been documented within 96 hours prior to enrollment (and from which an isolate of the baseline pathogen(s) is still available for analysis at the central laboratory) and demonstrates the protocol definition of CRBSI/CLABSI; NOTE: For the treatment arm only (MLT Arm and Control Arm), the CVC is expected to be in place through the end of treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who refuse to have their catheter removed or subjects for whom, in the Investigator's opinion, catheter retention for the duration of the study is reasonable or required;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects eligible for the Observation Arm must have had their central line removed and replaced within 96 hours of the qualifying blood culture (120 hours with Medical Monitor approval);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with septic shock that requires inotropic support or is unresponsive to fluid resuscitation;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking disulfiram or disulfiram-like drugs;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with prosthetic cardiac valves, vascular grafts, pacers, or other non-removable vascular foreign body, with the exception of coronary stents and peripheral stents;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with the presence of a deep-seated intravascular source of infection (eg, endocarditis [as evidenced by vegetations on an echocardiogram or clinical suspicion] or septic thrombosis);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with polymicrobial CRBSI/CLABSI caused by pathogens that would require multiple antibiotics to be used for adequate lock therapy treatment. For example, a subject with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli requiring treatment with vancomycin and meropenem would be excluded from the study. A subject with S. aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis, where both are identified as pathogens and where both could be treated with vancomycin, would be eligible;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have been previously randomized into the present study;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with short-term CVCs indwelling less than 5 days;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a central line-related mycobacterial infection; orXx_NEWLINE_xXEchocardiogram with normal ejection fractionsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal lung oxygen saturation by pulse oximeter, as determined by the Principal Investigator based on patient history and status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXArm C patients must have loco-regional recurrent head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (HNSCC), excluding endolaryngeal recurrence, meeting the following criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll HNSCC lesions should be in the head and neck region and suitable for intra-tumoral injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe total sum of Ad-p53 Injection Doses (mL) based upon the tumor volumes shown in Table 2 should be less than or equal to 25 mL as the MTD of Ad-p53 is 2.5 x1013 vp/treatment day.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo macroscopic intra-vascular invasion by tumors of the main portal vein, hepatic vein or vena cava.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive alcohol dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to any components of the treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active comorbidity, including any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXQTcb >470 msXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have tumors adjacent to vital structures such as carotid arteries.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent abuse of alcohol or illicit drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically-confirmed T1b, T2 or T3 gallbladder cancer discovered incidentally at the time of or following routine cholecystectomy for presumed benign diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXResectable disease at the time of enrollment based on high-quality, preoperative, cross-sectional imaging of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis (C/A/P)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable gallbladder cancer at the time of enrollment based on high-quality, preoperative, cross-sectional imaging of the C/A/PXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHPV-ASSOCIATED OROPHARYNX SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA: Carcinoma of the oropharynx associated with HPV as determined by p16 protein expression using immunohistochemistry (IHC) performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] approved laboratory; using p16 antibody obtained from Roche mtm laboratories AG (CINtec, clone E6H4) is recommendedXx_NEWLINE_xXHPV-ASSOCIATED OROPHARYNX SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA: Patients must not have evidence of extensive or “matted/ fixed” pathologic adenopathy on preoperative imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXHPV-ASSOCIATED OROPHARYNX SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA: Allergy to ciprofloxacin (or other quinolones), acetylsalicylic acidXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of homologous recombination deficiency defined by either; A) Inherited pathogenic variant of BRCA2, ATM, BRCA1, PALB2 by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) level germline assay or B) have evidence by somatic sequencing using a CLIA level assay of biallelic inactivation of BRCA1, BRCA2, PALB2, FANCA or biallelic inactivation or monoallelic inactivating mutation of ATM.  It is anticipated that the majority of patients will be germline carriers of a pathogenic variant of BRCA1, BRCA2 or ATM.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be candidates for radical prostatectomy and considered surgically resectable by urologic evaluation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to receive infusion of blood products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs that affect the CYP3A4 systems are allowed and essential for cancer patients, including anti-fungals but should be used with caution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with bladder CIS, or completely resected high grade Ta/T1 lesions that are BCG unresponsive; unresponsive is BCG refractory and/or BCG relapsing\r\n* BCG refractory: persistent high-grade disease at 6 months despite receiving at least 5-6 induction instillations and at least one maintenance (two of three instillations) in a 6 month period\r\n* BCG relapsing: recurrence of high-grade disease after achieving a disease-free state at 6 months after receiving at least 5-6 induction instillations and at least one maintenance (two of three instillations) in a 6 month periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo additional radiologic imaging while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is ineligible, declines, or is considered ineligible to undergo radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot hold instillation for 2 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXHas reached the age of majority in their countryXx_NEWLINE_xXFLT3-ITD mutant (> 3% FLT3-ITD/total FLT3) AML (primary AML or secondary to MDS) is ineligible for intensive induction chemotherapy by meeting at least 1 of the protocol-defined criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXsafety or well-being of the participant or offspringXx_NEWLINE_xXanalysis of resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXMeeting the protocol definition of TNmCRC assessed in the screening blood test.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healing wounds on any part of the body.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 40 mg/dL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA lesion that either:\r\n* Is intended to be accessed bronchoscopically OR\r\n* Is intended to be accessed with computed tomography (CT) guided transthoracic injection and in the estimation of the radiologist performing the procedure will not require transversing a bullae that significantly increases the risk of pneumothorax.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sensitizing EGFR mutations and/or ALK gene rearrangements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ allografts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active renal condition (infection, requirement for dialysis or any other condition that could affect subject's safety). Subjects with isolated proteinuria resulting from MM are eligible, provided they fulfill criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent corneal disease except for mild punctuate keratopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent corneal disease except for mild punctuate keratopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas MM positive for t(11;14).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of other active malignancies, including myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS), within the past 3 years (exceptions described in the protocol).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown meningeal involvement of MM.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent conditions as listed in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML or MDS relapse following allo-HSCT (morphological relapse, or MRD positive by flow cytometry, cytogenetics, molecular mutations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) grades II-IV; prior acute GVHD could have occurred but resolved at time of initiation of daratumumabXx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive chronic GvHD requiring ongoing immunosuppression with calcineurin inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXBcl2 inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically fit, as defined by treatment-related mortality (TRM) score ?13.1 calculated with simplified modelXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant illness associated with a likely survival of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values not within the protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal disease as defined in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of synovial sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of major blood vessel invasion/infiltrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on abiraterone and/or enzalutamide; there must be at least a 3-week washout period after stopping the most recent approved therapy for mCRPC (i.e., abiraterone, enzalutamide, Ra-223, sipuleucel-t); if applicable, patients should be weaned off steroids at least 1 week prior to starting treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe study will require that 50% of enrolled subjects have homozygous deletions, deleterious mutations, or both in one or more of the DNA damage response (DDR) genes; the other 50% of patients must have an intact DDR pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of disease that, in the opinion of the investigator, would put the patient at risk from testosterone therapy (e.g. femoral metastases with concern over fracture risk, spinal metastases with concern over spinal cord compression, lymph node disease with concern for ureteral obstruction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumor causing urinary outlet obstruction that requires catheterization for voiding; patients that require catheterization to void secondary to benign strictures or other non-cancer causes will be permitted to enrollXx_NEWLINE_xXPredominantly squamous cell histology NSCLC. Mixed tumors will be categorized by the predominant cell type; if small cell elements are present, the participant is ineligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any component of cisplatin, carboplatin, or pemetrexed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have never smoked, defined as smoking ?100 cigarettes in a lifetimeXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking ibrutinib and first took ibrutinib > 3 months agoXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a known ibrutinib resistance mutation at ? 4% variant allele frequency OR < 4% with two separate measurements at least 4 weeks apart with increasing variant allele frequencyXx_NEWLINE_xXGermline BRCA 1/2 Mutation PositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastasis apparent prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated survival ? 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of EWS translocation by FISH or RT-PCR or Next Generation Sequencing (NGS). If available, NGS sequencing report should be submitted to Gradalis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of allergies or sensitivities to gentamicin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with hypoxemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive retinal pigment epithelium (RPE)/photoreceptor disorders such as; retinitis pigmentosa, cone-rod dystrophies, Bests dystrophy, Stargardt disease (STGD), macular degeneration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXany active acute graft versus host disease (GvHD), grade 2- 4, according to the Glucksberg criteria or active chronic GvHD requiring systemic treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenstrom's macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of at least ONE or MORE of the following:\r\n* Biallelic inactivation of genes involved in homologous recombination repair in the tumor\r\n* Biallelic inactivation of other genes involved in homologous DNA recombination repair in the tumor may be included at investigator’s discretion\r\n* Homologous recombination repair deficiency by genomic signature in the tumor\r\n* Clearly pathogenic or likely pathogenic germline mutation in BRCA2, BRCA1 and/or ATM\r\n* (Note: the following are not alone sufficient for eligibility and require additional criteria to be met: germline variant of uncertain significance in BRCA1, BRCA2 and/or ATM; germline mutations in other HR genes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient's tumor must express specified biomarkers. Note: Patients who were previously screened for participation in other Immatics' sponsored clinical trials and whose biomarkers are positive for IMA202-101 based on IMA_Detect may enter IMA202-101 screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable IMA202 product passed all required release testsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition contraindicating leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient unable to tolerate lymphodepletion, low-dose IL-2 and/or IMA202 productXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate cell dose > 2.5x10^6 CD34+ cells/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior daratumumab or other anti-CD38 antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known moderate or severe persistent asthma within 2 years, or currently has uncontrolled asthma of any classification; (Note that subjects who currently have controlled intermittent asthma or controlled mild persistent asthma are allowed in the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high risk neuroblastoma according to COG risk classification at the time of study registration. Patients who were initially considered low or intermediate risk, but then reclassified as high risk are also eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on hemodialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients and/or families who are physically and psychologically unable to cooperate with the radiation safety isolation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient declines participation in NANT 2004-05, the NANT Biology StudyXx_NEWLINE_xXBisphosphonates and/or denosumab are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate hematologic parameters without ongoing transfusional support:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUrgent need of treatment to prevent acute neurologic deterioration, including urgent neurosurgery or radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic or untreated spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen < 2 X ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid exposing breast skin to natural or artificial sunlight (i.e. tanning beds) for the duration of study agent dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with skin diseases (psoriasis, eczema)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaken tamoxifen or other selective estrogen/progesterone receptor modulators (SERMs/SPRMs) within two years prior to entering study or been required to discontinue SERM therapy due to thromboembolic or uterine toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological diagnosis of metastatic squamous or non-squamous NSCLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking (cigarettes, cigars or pipes) must be discontinued at least 7 days prior to initiating study drug administration; smoking cessation products (transdermal nicotine patches or chewing gum may be used.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia (Hgb < 11g/deciliter) or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (< 100,000/µl)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave histologic confirmation of RCC with a clear cell componentXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of FLT3-ITD and/or D835 mutation(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo routine surveillance with breast ultrasound and/or mammographyXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant at time of or within prior year of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of SERMXx_NEWLINE_xXDCIS with focal invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen treated previously with 5-fluorouracil or imiquimod or other medications for high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of anticoagulant medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic findings consistent with\r\n* atypical endometrial cells or serious glandular-cell atypia (atypical glandular cells, favor neoplasia cytology diagnosis)\r\n* evidence of cervical carcinoma on Pap smear or biopsy\r\n* more than two cervical quadrants of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN 3) as visualized by colposcopy\r\n* nonvisual squamous columnar junction on colposcopy with no concurrent endocervical sampling performedXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven ccRCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of androgen deprivation including enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of exogenous testosteroneXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently enrolled in a Valor-sponsored IGN002 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDerived clinical benefit from IGN002, defined as CR, PR, or SD, in another Valor-sponsored IGN002-101 study (e.g., IGN002-101)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTolerated IGN002 therapy in the other Valor-sponsored IGN002 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiscontinued from another Valor IGN002 study due to an AE considered by the Investigator to be related to IGN002 treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have achieved CR/CRi with less than 2 induction regimens that contain cytarabine and anthracyclineXx_NEWLINE_xXResearchers think that any life-threatening illness, condition or organ system dysfunction can damage the safety of subjectsXx_NEWLINE_xXDonors will be selected from among the subject’s relatives, adult children preferredXx_NEWLINE_xXInfectious disease testing will be done per Hemacare policy and AAAB guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXIf patient is cytomegalovirus (CMV)-negative, donors who are CMV-negative will be preferred; CMV serology of the donor will be tested prior to the allogeneic cell donation; donations from CMV-positive donors to CMV-negative recipients will be given if no CMV negative donor is available, and CMV surveillance and pre-emptive treatment given as per guidelines belowXx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal or family history of severe sickle cell disease or variant (unless donor has tested negative); testing for the presence of hemoglobin S is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive infectious disease test as dictated by blood collection center’s standard operating procedure (SOP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn expansion cohort only: patient’s kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) mutational status must be known prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors to RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least two BCC tumors, preferably more; these tumors must be located in different body regions or alternatively, located > 10 cm apart at sites that can be reproducibly separated into red and blue illumination fieldsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have a performance status (Karnofsky score) of > 80 out of 100, i.e. can carry on normal activity with effort while showing some signs or symptoms of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory requirements: \r\n* If the patient has never had a skin biopsy to establish the histological diagnosis of BCC as part of his/her syndrome, then one lesion must be biopsied prior to entry into the trial\r\n* Any suspected BCC lesion of > 10 mm in diameter must be biopsied at the start of the trial, to establish the histological subtype of the BCC\r\n* Any presumed BCC lesion that fails to respond by the end of the trial must be biopsied to rule out an incorrect diagnosis as a reason for the lack of response\r\n* If a female patient suspects she is pregnant during the course of the trial, a serum pregnancy test will be administered and if positive, any further PDT treatments will be haltedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of a photosensitivity disease, such as porphyria cutanea tardaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a coexisting skin condition such as scleroderma, psoriasis, or eczema in the skin areas to be treated with PDT, that might interfere with response assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ? 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active ? Grade 3 anorexia, nausea or vomiting, and/or signs of intestinal obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPREREGISTRATION (STEP 0): Patient has pathologically-confirmed chronic phase-CML on a first line TKI and must meet the following criteria:\r\n* This diagnosis of chronic phase-CML must be confirmed by a bone marrow aspirate and/or biopsy with =< 10 % myeloid blasts within two weeks prior to registration; patients with diagnoses of accelerated or blast phase CML are not eligible\r\n* The patient has to be on first-line TKI therapy (the same TKI) for at least 2 years prior to pre-registration\r\n** Dasatinib: 50 – 180 mg per day\r\n** Imatinib: 200 – 800 mg per day\r\n** Nilotinib: 300 – 400 mg every 12-24 hours\r\n* Has been in MMR (i.e. MR^3) but still have detectable BCR-ABL transcript by a standard real-time quantitative polymerase chain reaction (RQ-PCR) assay with a limit of detection (sensitivity) of 4.5 for at least 12 months from the first documentation of the MMR\r\n* Patient has not achieved MR^4.5 (complete molecular remission [CMR]) within the time of initiation of TKI therapy and pre-registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPREREGISTRATION (STEP 0): Peripheral blood must be collected for submission to Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center for central assessment of the establishment of BCR/ABL status to confirm patient’s eligibility for registration to Step 1; Fred Hutchinson will forward results within 1-2 business days of receipt of the peripheral blood to the submitting institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION TO TREATMENT (STEP 1): Institution has received central BCR-ABL test results confirming MRD positive statusXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed germ cell tumour (non-seminoma or seminoma); or exceptionally raised tumour markers (alpha-fetoprotein [AFP] >= 1000ng/mL and/or human chorionic gonadotropin [HCG] >= 5000 IU/L) without histologic or cytologic confirmation in the rare case where pattern of metastases consistent with germ cell tumor (GCT), high tumour burden, and a need to start therapy urgentlyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary arising in testis, ovary, retro-peritoneum, or mediastinumXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate or poor prognosis as defined by International Germ Cell Cancer Consensus Classification (IGCCC) classification (modified with different lactate dehydrogenase [LDH] criteria for intermediate risk non-seminoma, and inclusion of ovarian primaries); see below\r\n* Primary site: Testis or retro-peritoneum or mediastinum\r\n** Histology: Non-seminoma\r\n*** Prognostic category: Intermediate\r\n**** Clinical Factors: Testes/retroperitoneal primary and no liver, bone, brain or other non-pulmonary visceral metastases and intermediate markers – any of:\r\n***** AFP >= 1000 ng/mL and =< 10 000 ng/mL\r\n***** HCG >= 5000 IU/L and =< 50 000 IU/L\r\n***** LDH >= 3.0 x upper limit of normal (ULN) and =< 10 x ULN\r\n*** Prognostic category: Poor\r\n**** Clinical Factors: Mediastinal primary or liver, bone, brain or other non-pulmonary visceral metastases or poor markers – any of:\r\n***** AFP > 10 000 ng/mL or\r\n***** HCG > 50 000 IU/L or\r\n***** LDH > 10 x ULN\r\n** Histology: Seminoma\r\n*** Prognostic category: Intermediate\r\n**** Clinical factors: Any primary site and liver, bone, brain or other non-pulmonary visceral metastases and normal AFP, any HCG, any LDH\r\n* Primary site: Ovary\r\n** Histology: Malignant germ cell tumour histology (any of yolk sac, choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, mixed malignant GCT)\r\n*** Prognostic category: Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO)/Children's Oncology Group (COG) stage IV\r\n**** Distant metastases involving liver/spleen parenchyma and/or extra-abdominal organs (including but not limited to inguinal lymph nodes and lymph nodes outside abdominal cavity, lungs, bone, brain) and/or pleural effusion with positive cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant co-morbid respiratory disease that contraindicates the use of bleomycinXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent illness, including severe infection that may jeopardize the ability of the participant to undergo the procedures outlined in this protocol with reasonable safetyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have stage 3 high-risk neuroblastoma or metastatic neuroblastoma (not 4S)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe minimum dose for peripheral blood stem cells is: PURGED PBSC: 2.0 x 10^6 viable CD34+ cells/kg; UNPURGED PBSC: 2.0 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg (immunocytology is not required for peripheral blood stem cells)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmuno-magnetically purged PBSCs are permitted, however a special exception protocol must be filed with the FDA and local IRB where patient will be infused to allow infusion of immunomagnetically purged PBSC; CD34+ selected cells are not permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPBSCs from identical twins are permitted, but no other allogeneic cells are allowed; sse of autologous stored umbilical cord blood stem cells is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients whose body weight exceeds ideal body weight (IBW) by more than 20%, adjusted body weight may be used for calculation of PBSC doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded if they have received total body irradiation (TBI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who can only receive pentamidine therapy for PCP prophylaxis are excluded, since this drug prolongs the QT intervalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other ongoing serious medical issues must be approved by the study chair prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients and/or families who are physically and psychologically unable to cooperate with the radiation safety isolationXx_NEWLINE_xXA patient weight that would require exceeding a maximum total allowable dose of 131I-MIBG at the assigned dose level; the study committee will discuss treating such patients at a lower dose level if six patients have not yet been treated at that lower dose levelXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed history of CD19-positivity by flow cytometry for malignant cells.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA) result.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations are not allowed throughout the study. These herbal medications include but are not limited to: St. John's wort, kava, ephedra (mahung), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto and ginseng. Patients should stop using these herbal medications 7 days prior to first dose of study treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAZD1775 should not be given to patients who have a history of Torsades de pointes unless all risk factors that contributed to Torsades have been corrected. AZD1775 has not been studied in patients with ventricular arrhythmias or recent myocardial infarction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions: Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations; Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA); Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%); No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids).Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of bisphosphonates, receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-? ligand (RANKL) antibody, and ovarian suppression is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of HSV-1 infection (e.g. herpetic encephalitis or keratitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires intermittent or chronic systemic (intravenous or oral) treatment with an antiherpetic drug (e.g. acyclovir), other than intermittent topical use; patients requiring anti-herpetic prophylaxis during chemotherapy are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for HSV 1 induced complications (immunosuppressed individuals, HIV positive individuals, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year) during talimogene laherparepvec treatment and through 30 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvecXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of adverse pathologic features at the time of prostatectomy (positive surgical margin, pathologic\r\nT?stage 3?4 disease, pathologic Gleason score 8?10 disease, presence of tertiary Gleason grade 5 disease) OR documentation of rising prostate?specific antigen on at least two consecutive draws, with the magnitude of\r\nprostate?specific antigen exceeding 0.03 ng/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cryosurgery, high-intensity focused ultrasound ablation (HIFU) or brachytherapy of the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXPre/perimenopausal women must be amenable to be treated with goserelin. All patients will be rendered post-menopausal secondary to concomitant administration of goserelin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1: be willing to engage in follow-up telephone calls with a research nurseXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1: have telephone access so they can be contacted by the research nurseXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: presence of fatigue as defined FACIT-F subscale of ? 34 on a 0 to 52 scale (in which 52 = no fatigue and 0 =worst possible fatigue)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: not currently taking methylphenidate, or have taken it within the previous 10 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: able to complete the baseline assessment formsXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: able to understand the recommendations for participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1: patients will be excluded if (1) have clinical evidence of cognitive failure as evidenced by Memorial Delirium Assessment Scale score of ? 13 at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: on monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, or clonidineXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: history of glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: patients with Cut Down, Annoyed, Guilty and Eye Opener-Adapted to Include Drugs (CAGE-AID) ? 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following indications for chemotherapy:\r\n* Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of or worsening anemia (? 11 g/dL) and/or thrombocytopenia (? 100 x 10^9/L) not due to autoimmune disease\r\n* Symptomatic or progressive lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly or hepatomegaly\r\n* One or more of the following disease-related symptoms:\r\n** Weight loss ? 10% within the previous 6 months\r\n** Extreme fatigue attributed to CLL\r\n** Fevers ? 100.4 degree Fahrenheit (F) for 2 weeks without evidence of infection\r\n** Drenching night sweats without evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have elected to undergo radical prostatectomy (RP) as treatment of choice and have to be a surgical candidate for RP; this determination will be made by the patient in conjunction with their treating urologist and is current standard of practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXStandard preoperative evaluation is performed and deemed satisfactory to proceed to surgery as per their treating urologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rectal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with convincing evidence of extraprostatic extension or T4 disease on digital rectal examination (DRE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXESCLATION COHORT: Patients must have a diagnosis of newly diagnosed and/ or relapsed/refractory AML with any of the following:\r\n* Confirmed translocation involving 11q23\r\n* Partial tandem duplication(PTD) of the MLL gene (on 11q23)\r\n* FLT3-ITD (internal tandem duplication)\r\n* Increased Fgf2 in serum (2 standard deviations above control serum samples)\r\n* HOX(A9/A10) over-expression in bone marrow ( 2 standard deviations above control values in CD34+ cells from normal subjects)\r\n* Note: Relapsed or refractory AML is defined as either: \r\n** Recurrence of disease after a complete remission (CR), or \r\n** Failure to achieve CR with initial therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior immunotherapy with checkpoint inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of peritonitis or diverticulitisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have had histologic verification of a malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse; all subjects with relapsed or refractory solid tumors are eligible, excluding CNS tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following adverse events at the time of enrollment are not eligible:\r\n*Grade ? 3 hyponatremia (serum Na ? 130 mmol/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dissemination (positive CSF cytology for malignancy or MRI findings consistent with CSF dissemination).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because ionizing radiation is a known teratogen, and temozolomide is a class D agent with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNursing mothers declining to discontinue breastfeeding are excluded because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with temozolomide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior receipt of cumulative RAI doses in excess of 1000 mCiXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent arterial thromboembolic event within the previous 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of and or medical condition (e.g. diverticular disease; aneurysm) that predisposes to risk of major hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one but no more than 5 discrete PSMA-avid metastases on baseline PSMA-PET scan; all PSMA-avid lesions must be amenable to SBRT in judgment of treating radiation oncologist; there are no restrictions on site of metastasis (e.g. bone, lymph node, visceral); equivocal lesions on PSMA PET scan that are not definitive for metastasis will not count towards the limit of metastases and will not undergo SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of visceral metastases (e.g. lung, liver) detectable on cross-sectional imaging or bone metastases requiring the use of opioid analgesic or focal radiation treatment at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal (e.g., saw palmetto) and non-herbal (e.g., pomegranate) products that may decrease PSA levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression or impending spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine kinase (CPK) =< 2.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically proven (either histologic or cytologic) diagnosis of urothelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neutropenic fever who have existing malignancy or have undergone hematopoietic stem cell transplantation; neutropenic fever is defined as the presence of neutropenia defined by: 1) absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 500 cells/mm^3 or has an ANC that is expected to decrease to < 500 cells/mm^3 within 48 hours of trial entry and fever defined as: 2) single oral temperature measurement of > 101 degree Fahrenheit (F) (38.3 degree Celsius [C]) or a temperature of > 100.4 degree F (38.0 degree C) sustained over a 1-hour periodXx_NEWLINE_xXFever suspected to be caused by a noninfectious cause (eg, fever related to drug or blood product administration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed fungal infection (eg, Pneumocystis jirovecii etiology in patients with pneumonia) that justifies adding additional empiric antimicrobial therapy (eg, antifungals)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed viral infection that justifies adding additional empiric antiviral therapy (eg, ganciclovir, foscarnet)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of immediately life-threatening disease, progressively fatal disease, or life expectancy of 3 months or less (eg, moribund or with shock unresponsive to fluid replacement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance of ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled immune hemolysis or thrombocytopenia (positive direct antiglobulin test in absence of hemolysis or history of immune-mediated cytopenias are not exclusions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a contraindication to administration of amoxicillin, ampicillin, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, gentamycin, penicillin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, and vancomycinXx_NEWLINE_xXHas contraindication to administration of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular exclusion criteria:\r\n* History or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy, retinal vein occlusion or neovascular macular degeneration\r\n* Patients will be excluded if they have the following risk factors for retinal vein occlusion: Uncontrolled glaucoma with intraocular pressure >= 21 mmHg. Serum cholesterol >= grade 2. Hypertriglyceridemia >= grade 2. Hyperglycemia (fasting) >= grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXRENAL & BLADDER COHORT: Consent to Monroe Dunaway (MD) Anderson laboratory protocol PA13-0291Xx_NEWLINE_xXBLADDER: Histological documentation of urothelial cancer either on outside transurethral bladder biopsy or on initial transurethral bladder biopsy at MD Anderson under PA13-0291Xx_NEWLINE_xXBLADDER: Patients must be considered to be an operative candidate by the urology service at MD Anderson Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXBLADDER: Subjects must be considered cisplatin ineligible as per treating physician due to renal dysfunction, hearing impairment, or co-morbiditiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has developed a rash or symptoms of a rash (cutaneous burning) characteristic of an EGFR inhibitor (health-care provider report of the rash with no other documentation is permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is willing to provide a skin biopsy for correlative research; Note: Can be waived with permission of study chair (documentation such as an email must be provided)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must complete baseline quality of life (QOL) packetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a current diagnosis of oral mucositisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pain and oral dysfunction associated with oral mucositis despite conventional therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with risk of broncho-aspiration based on documented swallowing test by a speech pathologist (if available)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known history of G6PD deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing any other experimental intervention for oral mucositisXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on supraphysiologic doses of steroids or use of such =< 6weeks prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with corneal epitheliopathy or any eye disorder that may predispose the patients to this condition as judged by an ophthalmologist\r\n* Note: Low grades of superficial punctate keratitis, within the range seen in the normal population, should not lead to the exclusion of the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed MGMT-promoter unmethylated statusXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known gliomatous meningitis, extracranial disease, or multifocal disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas an ongoing or previous history of spontaneous intratumoral hemorrhage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any drug with histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibiting activity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of valproate in any of its indications (epilepsy, mood disorder). Valproate, due to its HDAC inhibiting activity is contraindicated. For those patients on valproate, valproate will need to be discontinued and switched to a different anti-epileptic agent or psychotropic agent. A washout period of 4 days from valproate acid will be allowed prior to enrolling into the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requiring > 3 hospitalizations in the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior bowel fistula, ulcerations, or perforationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologic documentation of synovial sarcoma or myxoid liposarcoma with the diagnosis of advanced or recurrent disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of other NY-ESO-1 targeting immunotherapeutics.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo prisoners or children will be enrolled on this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented wild-type in KRAS and NRAS (codons 12, 13, 59, 61, 117, and 146) and in BRAF codon 600, based on tumor tissue taken from primary or metastatic site and tested for biomarkersXx_NEWLINE_xXAt sites in the Southeastern U.S., subject must have negative serum test for galactose-alpha-1,3-galactose IgE (Note: positive test result is predictive of immediate-onset anaphylaxis reaction during first exposure to cetuximab, which is prevalent predominantly in limited geographic region of the Southeastern U.S.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of drugs known to cause QT prolongation (Note: Ondansetron at doses ? 16 mg or less is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of cervical, anal, penile, vulvar, or vaginal cancer positive for HPV-16 and/or HPV-18 by the Cervista assay. Tumors may be positive for more than 1 HPV subtype as long as HPV-16 and/or HPV-18 is present. Note: for the first 6 patients, only cervical, vulvar, or vaginal cancers will be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors that are not curable by salvage approaches including resection and/or re-irradiation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has no significant valvular heart disease (trace or mild valvular stenosis or regurgitation is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is able to stay within 45 minutes driving time of an emergency room for 28 days after dosing with C. novyi-NTXx_NEWLINE_xXAspleniaXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation (Sp02) of less than 95% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXGlasgow Coma Score of less than 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with HRD identified by one of the following criteria: a) Tested positive for BRCA 1 or 2 germline deleterious mutation, b) Previously identified genetic aberrations that are associated with HRD (e.g., somatic BRCA mutation, PALB2, Fanconi anemia gene or RAD51 mutations), c) Patients with somatic ATM loss as identifiable with immunohistochemistry or with ATM mutation, d) Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC) patients with family history of 2 or more first-degree relatives with BRCA-associated cancers (stomach, breast, ovary) or 1 or more first-degree relative with PDACXx_NEWLINE_xXHas arterial vascular involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXConsented to genome sequencing and the database of genotypes and phenotypes (dbGaP)-based data sharing and has provided or will provide germline (PBMC) and tumor DNA/ribonucleic acid (RNA) samples of adequate quality for sequencing. (Acquisition of specimens for sequencing and the sequencing itself may be done as part of routine care or another research project.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBevacizumab will be allowed if given for symptomatic control of vasogenic edema and to avoid high dose of corticosteroids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs this study aims to assess the immunogenicity of various vaccine plus adjuvant combinations, no prior immunotherapy will be permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo candidate neoantigen identified during screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT: Pulmonary symptoms controlled by medication and pulse oximetry >= 92% on room air.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATION: Chronic corticosteroid dependence that is unable to be weaned to discontinue.Xx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT: Patients where the burden of pulmonary metastasis, location, or bulkiness of disease may cause high morbidity if localized swelling such as causing uncontrolled symptoms, oxygen dependence, or location near a major bronchi as determined by investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLocalized, muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma (T2-4, N0-1, M0) (mixed histology acceptable) ineligible for cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXUpper tract urothelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known distant metastases; clinically involved pelvic nodes (N1-N3) are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSigns of or symptoms of active graft versus host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate intensity regimen: 18 =< 65 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients > 45 to =< 65 years: Karnofsky >= 70 or ECOG 0-1 and non-age adjusted comorbidity index =< 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXShortening fraction > 26%Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent (prior 6 month) invasive fungal infection unless cleared by innovation and development (ID) consultXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: The minimum recommended CD34/kg cell dose is 1.7 x 10^5 CD34/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: A domestic backup unit must be identified and reserved prior to the start of the treatment plan for possible infusion in the unlikely event of poor post-thaw viability of the primary CB unitXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease that is amenable to serial biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening visceral disease or other severe concurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ? 3 months in the view of the PI or investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXEndocrine or acinar pancreatic carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed/refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCD30-positivity by immunohistochemistry of >= 1%Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable disease per modified Severity Weighted Assessment and/or Sezary countXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTransfusion dependent alpha- or beta-thalassemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXOther non-malignant hematologic disorders\r\n* Transfusion dependent or involve other potential life-threatening cytopenias, including but not limited to paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, severe congenital neutropenia and Shwachman-Diamond syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXCerebral adrenoleukodystrophy (cALD)\r\n* Diagnosis of adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) by abnormal plasma very long chain fatty acid (VLCFA) profile or ABCD1 gene mutation\r\n* Cerebral disease on MRI\r\n* Absence of a major functional disability (cortical blindness, loss of communication, wheelchair dependence) on the ALD Neurologic Function Scale\r\n* Performance intelligence quotient (IQ) of 70 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXOther inherited metabolic disorders\r\n* Any other inherited metabolic disorder for which alloHCT is indicated and for whom, in the opinion of the treating physician, the patient’s best treatment option is with a haploidentical donor following non-myeloablative conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk acute myeloid leukemia (AML) with predicted risk of relapse higher than 30%, which includes, but not limited to the following:\r\n* Patients in morphological remission (complete response 1 [CR1] or beyond) with minimal residual disease as quantified either by flow cytometry, or by cytogenetics or molecular markers.\r\n* Patients with the following karyotypes in morphological complete remission (CR) or complete remission with incomplete hematologic recovery (CRi): European LeukemiaNet (ELN)-Intermediate I, Adverse, ELN-Intermediate-II. (Examples include monosomal karyotype, complex karyotype, mutant p53, mutant RUNX1, mutant ASXL1, mutant FLT3-ITD, mutant DNMT3A, inversion 3, T(6:9), KIT mutated core binding factor AML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related AML and secondary AML in morphological remission (CR1 or beyond) with minimal residual disease as quantified either by flow cytometry, or by cytogenetics or molecular markersXx_NEWLINE_xXDONORS: Body weight of at least 40 kilogramsXx_NEWLINE_xXDONORS: In general good health as determined by the medical providerXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias of ambiguous lineageXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects between the ages of 12-18 years only, body surface area (BSA) must be >= 1.5 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior eribulinXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable or unwilling to stop the use of herbal supplements; the use of marijuana or its derivatives is allowed; the use of nutritional supplements may be allowed after review by a study pharmacist to confirm no significant risk of interaction with eribulin or radiationXx_NEWLINE_xXMonocytes >= 300/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following\r\n* Pregnant persons\r\n* Nursing persons\r\n* Persons of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of tuberculosis or positive purified protein derivative (PPD) testXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS)-revised (R) intermediate, high or very high risk diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo specific hematologic parameters for study entry are required; transfusion-dependent patients are eligible and platelet counts should be maintained greater than 10,000/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility of patients receiving any medications or substances known to affect or with the potential to affect the activity or pharmacokinetics of ibrutinib or ability to adhere to the Revlimid REMS program will be determined following review of their case by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute graft versus host disease (GVHD) or active chronic GVHD greater than grade 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen must have osseous metastases, but the presence of visceral metastases will not exclude patients from participation\r\n* Prior external beam radiation therapy (> 4 weeks prior to enrollment) for palliation of osseous metastatic disease is allowed, provided there is at least one osseous metastasis which has not been irradiated and which can be biopsiedXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived systemic therapy with radionuclides (e.g., strontium-89, samarium- 153, rhenium-186, or rhenium-188, or radium Ra 223 dichloride) for the treatment of bony metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II only: Patients with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the pancreas with genomic markers (signature) of homologous recombination deficiency (HRD) or BRCA1 or BRCA2 or PALB2 mutation, or HRD (non-BRCA, non-PALB) who have not received any systemic therapy in the metastatic setting\r\n* NOTE: In pancreatic cancer: exposure to irinotecan is only allowed in the neoadjuvant setting and no progressive disease < 3 months from last dose of irinotecanXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmologic conditions, including any of the following:\r\n* Current or past history of central serous retinopathy\r\n* Current or past history of retinal vein occlusion\r\n* Intraocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg or uncontrolled glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown human papillomavirus (HPV) status for oropharyngeal primary tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresolved partial or complete small or large bowel obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xX{Turnstile Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF < LLN on screening examXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active sepsis or pneumonitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency (DPD) deficiency (testing not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior apheresis of >= 3 million CD34+ cells/Kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be nursing due to the potential for congenital abnormalities and the potential of this regimen to harm nursing infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatocellular carcinoma cohort specific exclusion criteria:\r\n* A history of hepatic encephalopathy within the past 12 months; patients on stable doses of lactulose for prophylaxis or as a result of previous hepatic encephalopathy (more than 12 months ago) are allowed (for HCC cohort only)\r\n* A history of bleeding esophageal or gastric varices within the last 6 months prior to initiation of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXKi-67 >= 50%.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all study related procedures and therapy including swallowing capsules without difficulty.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR TISSUE COLLECTION TO ESTABLISH PDX (PART 1): Reasonable expectation that the patient can wait 3-6 months for generation of data for subsequent treatment selection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTHE PATIENT IS INELIGIBLE TO PARTICIPATE IN PART 2 IF ANY OF THE FOLLOWING OCCUR: PDX data are non-informative.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTHE PATIENT IS INELIGIBLE TO PARTICIPATE IN PART 2 IF ANY OF THE FOLLOWING OCCUR: Tumors do not engraft in the mice or do not respond to any of the selected agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTHE PATIENT IS INELIGIBLE TO PARTICIPATE IN PART 2 IF ANY OF THE FOLLOWING OCCUR: In Cohort 2, if disease progression occurs before Part 1 data are available, then they will be transferred to Cohort 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTHE PATIENT IS INELIGIBLE TO PARTICIPATE IN PART 2 IF ANY OF THE FOLLOWING OCCUR: Any other exclusion criteria set forth by individual treatment protocol of the active clinical trial(s) through which patients are going to be treated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) or chronic GVHD grade 2 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome-positive (Ph+) ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years, or currently has uncontrolled asthma of any classification. NOTE: subjects who currently have controlled intermittent asthma or controlled mild persistent asthma are allowed in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an AR-positive and PTEN-positive tumor as determined by using Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) compliant assays to identify AR-positive and PTEN-positive disease (AR positivity is defined as >= 1% of nuclear staining, PTEN positivity is defined as > 0% of nuclear staining).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor dose-escalation portion of study, patients must be refractory to or intolerant of existing therapies known to provide clinical benefit for their condition.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has any prior use of PI3K inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of noncompliance to medical regimens or is unable to grant consent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented deleterious BRCA1/2 or PALB2 mutation (germline or somatic) as assessed by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory; variants that are considered to be non-detrimental (“variants of uncertain significance”, “variants of unknown significance”, “variant, favor polymorphism” or “benign polymorphism” etc) are not sufficient for study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXActive drug or alcohol use or dependence that would interfere with study complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXExpression of AR-V7 is not required as expression of AR-V7 can occur during enzalutamide and contribute to resistance to enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of bipolar depression or psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic impairment as judged by clinical investigator or bilirubin > 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuicidal ideation or history of suicide attemptXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with angle-closure glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHispanic or Spanish speaking womenXx_NEWLINE_xX28 or more reported moderate-to-very severe hot flashes per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that preclude SGB or sham intervention (e.g., anatomic abnormalities of the anterior neck or cervical spine; goiter, cardiac/pulmonary compromise; acute illness/infection; coagulopathy or bleeding disorder; allergic reactions/contraindications to a local anesthetic or contrast dye); pregnancyXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not yet adults (infants, children, teenagers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of evaluable disease according to the 2014 Lugano classification.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven RMS (with fusion status) or undifferentiated sarcoma of the pelvis or abdomen, group 3 (as defined by the IRS, intergroup rhabdomyosarcoma study group staging system seen in addendum 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a minimum expected duration of survival of greater than 6 weeks as determined and documented by the attending surgeon or medical oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any systemic illness which precludes them from being an operative candidate as determined by anesthesia preoperative evaluation. This includes but is not limited to, sepsis, liver failure, renal failure, cardiovascular failure, pulmonary failureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have fully intact mental status and normal neurologic abilities. Intact mental status is defined by ‘the capacity to identify and recall one's identity and place in time and space. Assessment of mental status and documentation of fully intact mental status by pediatric criteria, will be completed using physical and mental exam by the referring doctor or oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be ineligible if they have disease outside of the abdominal cavity which is uncontrolled or PET avidXx_NEWLINE_xXIn cohort 1, must have EGFR S492R or other ectodomain mutation detected from circulating tumor DNA from plasma collected after progression to prior cetuximab; may have a concomitant mutation in KRAS, NRAS, or BRAF, if there is at least a 5-fold higher allele frequency of the most prevalent EGFR mutation than the most prevalent KRAS/NRAS/BRAF mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXIn cohort 2, must have one or more mutations found in KRAS exon 2, 3, or 4; NRAS exon 2, 3, or 4; BRAF codon 600; may have a concomitant EGFR ectodomain mutation, if the most prevalent EGFR ectodomain mutation does not have over a 5-fold higher allele frequency than the most prevalent KRAS/NRAS/BRAF mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXIn cohort 3, must not have EGFR ectodomain mutation or any mutations in KRAS, NRAS, or BRAFXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have consented to the MD Anderson ATTACC protocol prior to inclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages IIA –IIIC (American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] 2009)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-pregnant and not nursing; women of childbearing potential must take the pregnancy test and must commit to receive luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist Zoladex (goserelin) for two years starting from the commencement of the study medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with persistent LV dysfunction 90 days after discontinuation of trastuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of ischemic heart disease based on 2013 American College of Cardiology (ACC)/American Heart Association (AHA) guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of ischemic heart disease as determined by study cardiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant valvular disease; (aortic stenosis [AS] with aortic valve area [AVA] < 1.5 and severe aortic regurgitation [AR] and mitral regurgitation [MR])Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of familial cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented myocarditis within 2 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infiltrative cardiomyopathy or restrictive cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of left ventricular thrombus as documented by echocardiography or left ventriculogramXx_NEWLINE_xXInotropic dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable or life-threatening arrhythmiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMechanical or bioprosthetic heart valveXx_NEWLINE_xXAutomatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) placement within the last 30 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be willing to undergo protocol directed biopsies and blood draw for immune profilingXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of a biopsiable lesion as determined by radiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior immunotherapy with immune checkpoint inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with existing periorbital edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with creatine kinase > ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic or anaphylactic reaction to any therapeutic or diagnostic monoclonal antibody (IgG protein) or molecules made of components of monoclonal antibodies (e.g., Enbrel which is the Fc portion of an antibody or Lucentis which is a Fab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTolerate one test dose (15g) of ascorbateXx_NEWLINE_xXG6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring daily finger-stick blood glucose measurements unless approved by the IND medical monitor, IND sponsor, and the study PIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on warfarin and cannot have a drug substitution or who decline the drug substitutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamideXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate vein access: consider peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) or other central lineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors that score negative in the in vitro organoid bio-assay will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin < 2mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXAll types of urinary diversionsXx_NEWLINE_xXBulky lymphadenopathy (> 2 cm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for curative loco regional treatment and have progressed on or did not tolerate approved treatments of Erivedge (vismodegib, also known as GDC 0449) and Odomzo (sonidegib, also known as erismodegib or LDE225) and have progressed on did not tolerate or are unwilling to try other investigational agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving potassium wasting diuretics or amphotericin must be noted to have theoretically increased arrhythmia risks with arsenic trioxide (potassium wasting diuretics or amphotericin are not excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking systemic medications that would affect BCC tumors (oral retinoids) or metabolism of itraconazole (anti convulsants and corticosteroids); itraconazole should not be taken with cisapride (Propulsid), dofetilide (Tikosyn), oral midazolam (Versed), nisoldipine (Sular), pimozide (Orap), quinidine (Quinaglute), triazolam (Halcion), or levomethadyl (Orlaam), lovastatin (Mevacor), simvastatin (Zocor), or an ergot medication such as dihydroergotamine (Migranal), ergometrine or ergonovine (Ergotrate Maleate), ergotamine (Ergomar), or methylergometrine or methylergonovine (Methergine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of hyperthyroidism that would increase metabolism of itraconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXHas history of asthma, or other allergic-type reactions after taking aspirin or other NSAIDsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known serious hypersensitivity reactions to peg-interferon alfa-2b or interferon alfa-2bXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with carcinosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have a solitary central pelvic recurrence which can be curatively resectedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe regimen under study must constitute a reasonable therapeutic optionXx_NEWLINE_xXAs patients with ALL frequently have cytopenias, no hematologic parameters will be required for enrollment or to receive the first cycle of treatment; however, adequate recovery of blood counts will be required to receive subsequent cyclesXx_NEWLINE_xXPer good clinical practice, any toxicity related to prior therapies that, in the opinion of the investigator, would potentially be worsened with DA-EPOCH-A +/- imatinib (imatinib mesylate) +/- rituximab, should be resolved to grade 1 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMay not have prior malignancies unless the expected survival is at least 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with Philadelphia chromosome positive (Ph+) ALL, they must not have progressed within 3 months of receiving imatinib or have a documented ABL kinase mutation known to confer resistance to imatinib (e.g., T315I)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees to undergo a baseline and a follow-up 11C-alpha-methyl-L-tryptophan (AMT)-PET scan during immunotherapy (IMT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequired initial laboratory data (normal limits per treating institution; minor changes from the indicated laboratory guidelines will be allowed at the discretion of the treating team under special circumstances and reasons for the changes will be documented):Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,000/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 1.5 times normalXx_NEWLINE_xXNo other investigational agents, immunomodulating agents, or cancer chemotherapy are permitted for the duration and 12 months following the study IMT unless there is disease progression; radiotherapy is not permitted; appropriate antibiotics, blood products, antiemetics, fluids, electrolytes and general supportive care are to be used as necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with extracranial metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of arterial thromboembolic eventsXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiency requiring dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXMinor surgery, including insertion of an indwelling catheter, within 24 hours prior to the first bevacizumab infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo pharmacogenetic testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously diagnosis of alpha- or beta-thalassemia since these patients may have significantly higher PK levels than patients without these disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on a medication or herbal therapy known to inhibit cytochrome P450 (CYP)2A6, UGT1A9, or UGT2B7Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed, cytologically or histologically confirmed squamous cell carcinoma (and common variants, including poorly differentiated carcinoma; undifferentiated carcinoma; basaloid carcinoma) of the oropharynx; patients must have resectable oropharyngeal and nodal disease, including the following stages according to the American Joint Commission on Cancer Staging 7th edition:\r\n* T1N1-3\r\n* T2N1-3\r\n* T3N0-3\r\n* T4aN0-3; note: eligible T4a tumors may include deep/extrinsic tongue muscle invasion and must be judged resectable by transoral laser microsurgery (TLM) or transoral robotic surgery (TORS), according to the surgeon-investigator; patients with T4a tumors with clear radiologic mandibular, hard palate or medial pterygoid invasion are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCarcinoma must be HPV-associated, which is defined as positive for p16 protein by immunohistochemistry (IHC); p16 positivity is defined as >= 70% of tumor cells demonstrating diffuse cytoplasmic and nuclear staining for p16 by immunohistochemistry in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified pathology lab. p16 testing is standard at participating institutions and may be conducted locallyXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade >= 2 sensorineural hearing lossXx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwest Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status 0-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXSodium 136-146 mEq/LXx_NEWLINE_xXBicarbonate 21-31 mEq/LXx_NEWLINE_xXChloride 98-107 mmol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) 8-26 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXActive intracranial metastases; patients with previously resected intracranial disease and/or previously irradiated intracranial metastases that have been clinically stable for four weeks are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAutoimmune disease including, but not limited to, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematous, multiple sclerosis, or ankylosing spondylitisXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma patients must be intolerant of, or have disease that has proven refractory to approved therapies such as B-Raf proto-oncogene, serine/threonine kinase (BRAF) or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase 1 (MEK1) inhibitors for BRAF-positive metastatic melanoma and/or checkpoint blockade with either anti-programmed cell death 1 (PD1) or anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated protein 4 (CTLA-4) for metastatic melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo single lesion can be larger than 3 cm in maximal diameter; there may not be midline shift exceeding 5 mm or hydrocephalusXx_NEWLINE_xXIt will be at the Principal Investigator's (PIs) discretion to enroll a patient who has a small, asymptomatic brain hemorrhage, but patients who have had symptomatic hemorrhages will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma patients with large or symptomatic brain metastasis, and in whom neurosurgical removal is indicated will not be eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAML, any French- American- British (FAB) subtype except M3, with confirmed mutation in the NPM1 geneXx_NEWLINE_xXMinor surgical procedures must be completed >= 7 days prior to randomization with documentation of adequate recovery from associated complications to grade =< 1; these include (but are not limited to) laparoscopy, thoracoscopy, bronchoscopy, mediastinoscopy, endoscopic ultrasonography, skin biopsy, percutaneous needle biopsy, and routine dental procedures; as a precautionary measure, it is recommended, but not strictly required, that placement of a central venous access device, thoracentesis, or paracentesis be done 7 days before the initiation of protocol directed chemotherapy with documentation of adequate recovery from associated complications to grade =< 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) independently or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to comprehend and respond to questions using a telephone keypadXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrolled seizures; (Note: patients are eligible for the study if the seizures are well controlled with standard medications)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to eribulin mesylateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to Molecular Analysis for Therapy Choice (MATCH) to APEC1621C based on the presence of an actionable mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXAR expression detected by immunohistochemistry by central reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be in primary remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be HLA-A2 positive by central labXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) < 30 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least one positive DTH skin response (more than 5 mm) to test item challenge prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with glioblastoma mutated IDH by Immunohistochemistry (IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with concurrent conditions that would jeopardize the safety of the subject or compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Expansion Cohort: HCC patients only: HCC confirmed by biopsy OR diagnosed by clinical and radiologic criteria; all of the following criteria must be met or a biopsy is required:\r\n* Known cirrhosis or chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection\r\n* Hypervascular liver masses > 2 cm, and either serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) > 400 ng/ml\r\n* AFP > three times normal and doubling in value in the antecedent 3 months\r\n* In the expansion cohort, prior treatment with sorafenib as first-line therapy allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of certain concomitant medications due to mechanistic-based platelet toxicities from navitoclax: clopidogrel, ibuprofen, tirofiban and other anticoagulants, drugs or herbal supplements that effect platelet function; NOTE: antiplatelet use is prohibited during the use of navitoclax; subjects who have previously received aspirin therapy for thrombosis prevention may resume a low dose (i.e., maximum 100 mg QD) of aspirin if platelet counts are stable (>= 50,000/mm^3) through 6 weeks of navitoclax administration; all decisions regarding treatment with aspirin therapy will be determined by the principal investigator in conjunction with the medical monitorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cardiovascular disease (e.g., myocardial infraction [MI], thrombotic or thromboembolic event in the last 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFanconi anemia (FA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with treatment related myeloid neoplasms with cumulative anthracyclines greater than 230 mg/m^2 doxorubicin equivalentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed urothelial carcinoma of the bladder, ureter, urethra, or renal pelvis by the enrolling institution; patients with mixed histologies are required to have a predominant urothelial component as reviewed by the pathologist at the enrolling institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of radiographic stage as borderline resectable disease by real-time Alliance central radiographic reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXHas implanted medical device(s) that pose a high risk for colonization and/or cannot be easily removed (e.g., prosthetic joints, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s), bone graft(s), or other exogenous implant(s)). NOTE: More common devices and prosthetics which include arterial and venous stents, dental and breast implants, and venous access devices (e.g., Port-a-Cath or Mediport) are permitted. Sponsor must be contacted prior to consenting any subject who has any other device and/or implantXx_NEWLINE_xXStratum 2: Newly diagnosed DIPG patients (on-hold until pediatric recommended phase 2 dose [RP2D] has been established in Stratum 1)\r\n* Patients with diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas (DIPGs) will be eligible 6 to 14 weeks post-completion of radiation therapy if they do not have any evidence of progression; patients with newly diagnosed DIPGs, defined as tumors with a pontine epicenter and diffuse involvement of 2/3 or more of the pons, are eligible without histologic confirmation; patients with pontine tumors that do not meet these criteria or not considered to be typical intrinsic pontine gliomas will only be eligible if the tumors have been biopsied and (1) are proven to be an anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma multiforme, gliosarcoma, anaplastic mixed glioma or fibrillary astrocytoma or (2) have a histone mutation typically seen in DIPG; patients with disseminated disease are not eligible, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of spine must be performed if disseminated disease is suspected by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation as measured by pulse oximetry is > 93% on room air and no evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must have undergone expanded molecular profiling with a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified platform that evaluates, at a minimum, RAS, PIK3CA, PTEN and BRAF mutations statusXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence or retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity, or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuromuscular disorders associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK, e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, or spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior intolerance to a fluoropyrimidineXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO STEP ONE RANDOMIZATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO STEP TWO RANDOMIZATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (IDH1) mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to complete Quality of Life assessments during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAre candidates for and willing to receive intensive IC for their AML.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who had previously received an experimental agent for MDS may not be randomized until a washout period has elapsed since the last dose of that agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave immediate, life-threatening, severe complications of leukemia, such as uncontrolled bleeding, pneumonia with hypoxia or sepsis, and/or disseminated intravascular coagulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf WBC ?20,000/?L, cytoreduction with hydroxyurea is permitted prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClassified as high or very high risk according to the Revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) risk category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived any of the following within the specified time frame prior to administration of study medication:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the subject is on continuous dosing with enzalutamide prior to dosing start with GSK525762 plus enzalutamide on trial, then subject can start on combined dosing at end of screening period; Lead-in dosing period for abiraterone only will be required: if the subject has abiraterone discontinuation for more than 3 days prior to dosing start with GSK525762 plus abiraterone on trial, then abiraterone only lead-in dosing of 7 days is required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with neuroendocrine and/or small cell CRPCXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of high dose aspirin (doses up to 81 mg oral dose daily allowed) and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), except for where NSAIDs provide documented benefit over other analgesics, and then to be used with caution including concomitant use of proton pump inhibitors).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with symptomatic or impending cord compression unless appropriately treated beforehand and clinically stable and asymptomatic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have experienced a seizure or seizures within 6 months of study treatment or who are currently being treated with cytochrome P450 enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs for seizures (use of anti-epileptic drugs to control pain is allowed in subjects not suffering from seizures unless drug is excluded due to Cytochrome P450 3A4 induction - phenytoin, carbamazepine, Phenobarbital.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART 1 PATIENTS (SURGICALLY ELIGIBLE RECURRENT GBM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1 patients must be undergoing repeat surgery that is clinically indicated as determined by their care providersXx_NEWLINE_xXPART 2 PATIENTS (NEWLY DIAGNOSED GBM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 patients must have recovered from the immediate post-operative periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 patients must have tumor MGMT methylation status of unmethylated; results of routinely used methods for MGMT methylation testing (e.g. mutagenically separated polymerase chain reaction [MSPCR] or quantitative polymerase chain reaction [PCR]) are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 patients must show evidence of wild-type (WT) p53 as assessed by central deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequencingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED) are not eligible for treatment on this protocol; patients may be on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs or not be taking any anti-epileptic drugs; patients previously treated with EIAED may be enrolled if they have been off the EIAED for 10 days or more prior to the first dose of AMG 232Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs known to be CYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic windows (such as alfentanil, astemizole, cisapride, dihydroergotamine, pimozide, quinidine, sirolimus, or terfanide) or CYP2C8 substrates are not allowed; patients must be switched to alternative drugs at least 14 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232; those patients who cannot switch to alternative drugs will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant may be either previously untreated for KS or refractory to or intolerant of any one or more prior KS therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic diarrhea as defined by loose or watery stools occurring more than 3 times daily at baseline lasting more than 4 weeks or not abating on condition-appropriate therapy prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant had prior exposure to topotecan, irinotecan or any other topoisomerase I inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn case of women, both premenopausal and postmenopausal patients are allowed to be included in study; menopausal status is relevant for the requirement of LHRH agonist (examples for use in this study include but not limited to goserelin, leuprolide or locally available treatment) to be used concomitantly with alpelisib and letrozole/fulvestrantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is premenopausal defined as either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient had last menstrual period within the last 12 months orXx_NEWLINE_xXIf on tamoxifen or toremifene with in the past 14 days, plasma estradiol and FSH must be in the premenopausal range per local normal range, orXx_NEWLINE_xXIn case of therapy induced amenorrhea, plasma estradiol and/or FSH must be in the premenopausal range per local normal rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has histological and/or cytological confirmed ER+ and/or PgR+ aBCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of screening or past medical history of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 1 - patients must have pathologically documented, definitively diagnosed locally advanced or metastatic NSCLC with a RET rearrangement that was previously treated with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) that inhibits RET, such as cabozantinib, vandetanib, ponatinib, sorafenib and alectinib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 3 - patients must have pathologically documented, definitively diagnosed advanced MTC that has progressed within 14 months prior to the Screening Visit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has NSCLC with a targetable mutation in EGFR, ALK, or ROS1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have full activity or, if limited, must be able to walk and carry out activities such as light house work or office workXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with mature B-cell (Burkitt’s) ALL are excluded from study; mature B-cell is defined by the presence of surface immunoglobulin and/or the t(8;14)(q24;q32), t(8;22), or t(2;8) translocation and/or c-myc-gene rearrangement by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or polymerase chain reaction (PCR); (FISH/PCR testing for c-myc rearrangements is not required prior to study entry, but it is suggested for patients with surface immunoglobulin expression or L3 morphology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne prior regimen/line of a taxane-containing regimen for mCRPC or refusal or ineligibility of a taxane-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXStructurally unstable bone lesions suggesting impending fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort Inclusion Criteria - Group B: Subjects must have relapsed or refractory AML according to the WHO classification. For study purposes, refractory AML is defined as failure to ever achieve CR or recurrence of AML within 6 months of achieving CR; relapsed AML is defined as all others with disease after prior remission. (Group B is not currently recruiting. Expected to begin recruiting in 3rd quarter 2017.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has at least one of the following:\r\n* Pathologic N1-3\r\n* Pathologic T3\r\n* Neoadjuvant chemotherapy and did not achieve pathologic response at time of surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of auto-immune disease per physician discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or concurrent use of trastuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematological statusXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of intracerebral arteriovenous malformation, cerebral aneurysm, brain metastases or stroke.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma patients with an LDH ? 3 x ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown positive serology for hepatitis B (unless due to vaccination or passive immunization due to immunoglobulin therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight < 40 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary hemorrhage or hemoptysis > 2.5 ml blood within 6 weeks unless cause has been addressed and is medically resolved.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTo be eligible for the study all participants (Cohort 1 and 2) are required to provide genomic profiling data from assays performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified lab that demonstrate the following with respect to relevant biomarkers required for enrollment to the study as listed below; results from genomic profiling must be sent to the DFCI Coordinating Center prior to enrollment of the participant for central pathology review\r\n* Inactivation of CDKN2A/B or C in the tumor by homozygous deletion (evidence or more than single copy loss for any of the genes defined as array comparative genomic hybridization [CGH] log2 ratio of < 0.3 by array CGH; or from sequencing data with sufficient coverage for evaluation) AND\r\n* Validation of wild-type RB status (no deletion/losses more than single copy by copy number or sequencing data; and/or no inactivating mutations by sequencing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior evidence of 1p/19q co-deletionXx_NEWLINE_xXIDH1/2 mutation in any prior biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of herbal preparations/medications, including but not limited to: St. John’s wort, Kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, ginseng. Participants should stop using these herbal medications 7 days prior to first dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least 1 cutaneous, subcutaneous, or nodal lesion that is suitable for intralesional injection, with or without the use of ultrasound; lesions in mucosal surfaces (periocular, nasal, etc) are not eligible for injection because the area cannot be properly contained with an occlusive dressingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be able and willing to undergo serial biopsies of injected lesion(s) and, when applicable and clinically feasible, non-injected lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (e.g., herpetic keratitis or encephalitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who is unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for human herpesvirus 1 (HSV-1) induced complications such as immunosuppressed individuals, individuals known to have HIV infection, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year, during talimogene laherparepvec treatment and through 30 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvecXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to household contact with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of active lupusXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of active dermatomyositisXx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly-differentiated GEP-NEC based on local pathology reportXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiological documentation of disease progression:Xx_NEWLINE_xXWell-differentiated grade 3 neuroendocrine tumors; poorly-differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma of any origin (other than GEP-NEC); including NEC of unknown origin, adenocarcinoid, and goblet cell carcinoidXx_NEWLINE_xXPRRT administered within 6 months of the first dose.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCryoablation, radiofrequency ablation, or trans-arterial embolization of hepatic metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXAdenocarcinoma originating in the ampulla or appendix; (duodenal tumors that involve the ampulla but originate in the duodenum are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have a documented CMV infection in whole blood or plasma, with a screening value of greater than or equal to (>=) 2730 international units per milliliter (IU/mL) in whole blood or >= 910 IU/mL in plasma in 2 consecutive assessments, separated by at least 1 day, as determined by local or central speciality laboratory quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR) or comparable quantitative CMV DNA results. Both samples should be taken within 14 days prior to randomization with second sample obtained within 5 days prior to randomization. The same laboratory and same sample type (whole blood or plasma) must be used for these assessments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have a current CMV infection refractory or resistant to treatment. Refractory is defined as documented failure to achieve greater than (>) 1 log10 (common logarithm to base 10) decrease in CMV DNA level in whole blood or plasma after 2 or more weeks of continuous treatment with intravenous (IV) ganciclovir, oral valganciclovir, IV foscarnet, or IV cidofovir. This definition applies to the current CMV infection and the most recently administered anti-CMV agent. Resistant is defined as documented failure to achieve > 1 log10 (common logarithm to base 10) decrease in CMV DNA level in whole blood or plasma after 2 or more weeks of continuous treatment with IV ganciclovir, oral valganciclovir, IV foscarnet, or IV cidofovir. This definition applies to the current CMV infection and the most recently administered anti-CMV agent. AND Documentation of 1 or more CMV genetic mutations associated with resistance to ganciclovir, valganciclovir, foscarnet, or cidofovir.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe Investigator must be willing to treat the subject with at least one of the available anti-CMV drugs (ganciclovir, valganciclovir, foscarnet, or cidofovir). Note: Combination therapy with foscarnet and cidofovir is not permitted in the investigator-assigned anti-CMV treatment (IAT) arm due to the potential for serious nephrotoxicity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must weigh >= 35 kilogram (kg).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have all of the following results as part of screening laboratory assessments (results from either the central laboratory or a local laboratory can be used for qualification):Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire mechanical ventilation or vasopressors for hemodynamic support at the time of enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously received maribavir.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prosthetic heart valvesXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance of dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated MDS or CMML, defined as prior treatment with at least one hypomethylating agent (HMA; azacitidine and/or decitabine) for intermediate or high risk MDS or CMML whose disease progressed or relapsed as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject received HMA for at least 6 cycles and was still transfusion dependent (as defined in 5b below).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTransfusion dependence, defined as having had transfusion (in the setting of active disease) of 2 or more units of RBC or platelets within 8 weeks prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-study evaluation must include an ophthalmologic exam by an ophthalmologist (not optometrist) and should minimally include visual acuity testing, slit lamp examination, and funduscopic examination; follow up eye-exams will only be performed if subjects develop/report any visual impairment; visual impairment may include peripheral flashes (photopsia), blurred or double vision, floaters, color distortion and dimness, difficulties with light/dark accommodation, tunnel vision or other field defects, halos, apparent movement of stationary objects, and complex disturbances; follow up eye-exams will minimally include visual acuity testing, slit lamp examination, and funduscopic examination; additional testing will be based on symptoms, what is observed and ophthalmologist recommendationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be without evidence of visceral or bone involvement with metastatic cancer on physical exam or any diagnostic study; extensive nodal involvement is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of denosumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis/osteomyelitis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXActive dental or jaw condition that requires oral surgery, including tooth extractionXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healed dental/oral surgery, including tooth extractionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during the study (e.g., calcium, or vitamin D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple (? 2) separate enhancing tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled blood-sugar levels defined as HbA1c > 7%Xx_NEWLINE_xXIPSS (International Prostate Symptom Score) =< 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be available for follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of steroidal antiandrogens (megestrol acetate, cyproterone acetate), AR partial agonists, ketoconazole, chemotherapy, immunotherapy, estrogens, radiopharmaceuticals within 3 months before registration and during administration of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of non-steroidal anti-androgens (e.g., bicalutamide, flutamide, nilutamide) within 1 month before registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk group: Oral cavity, larynx, hypopharynx, or p16-negative oropharynx cancer, stage T1-2N2a-N3 or T3-4-N0-3 based on the following diagnostic workup:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMandatory submission of H&E and p16 stained slides for central review of p16 staining is required for oropharyngeal patients and H&E stained slide block (or punch biopsy of paraffin block) for PD-L1 expression analysis for all patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe trial is open to both gendersXx_NEWLINE_xXHave received either of the study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable or metastatic melanoma with known v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B (BRAF) mutation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uveal/ocular melanoma are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing toxic manifestations of previous treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHeme: Plt Ct ? 100 x 103/µL, ANC ? 1.5 x 103/µL, and Hemoglobin ? 9 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have two biopsy accessible lesions:Xx_NEWLINE_xX* one lesion must be ?10 mm and <100 mm in longest diameter, accessible for repeated intratumoral (IT) injection and accessible for baseline and on-treatment biopsies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXa second (distal) lesion must be accessible for baseline and on-treatment biopsy and must be distinct from the injected lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXtumors encasing major vascular structures (i.e., carotid artery or tumors close to other vital organs), are not considered appropriateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require local palliative measures such as XRT or surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant disease, other than that being treated in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot eligible for cytotoxic therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to Bcl-2 inhibitors, murine double minute 2 (MDM2) antagonists or prior exposure to experimental treatment targeting Raf, mitogen-activated protein kinase (MEK), or the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) RAS/RAF/MEK/ERK MAPK pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of symptomatic Clostridium difficile infection within 1 month prior to dosing Additional phase specific exclusion criteria: Phase Ib Dose Escalation Arm A (Venetoclax and Cobimetinib)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy (CSCR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXOATP1B1/3 substratesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/CSCR, RVO, or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF below institutional LLN or below 50%, whichever is lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical, radiographic or pathologic evidence of multicentric diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors in which the invasive component is present only as micro-invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant comorbidity associated with an estimation of < 5 remaining life yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPartial bladder or partial kidney removal (eg, partial cystectomy or partial nephrectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXIllicit drug or alcohol abuse within 12 months prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor peripheral venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of an abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: All patients achieving CR or complete remission with incomplete blood count recovery (CRi) will receive consolidation when fitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have achieved a CR or CRi (or morphologic leukemia-free state for those patients proceeding to Arm G transplant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have achieved a CR or CRi must have maintained peripheral blood evidence of a CR or CRiXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered reliable enough to comply with the medication regimen and follow-up, and have social support necessary to allow this complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to undergo myeloma genotyping for TP53 mutation, insertion, or deletion at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a malignancy that contains a non-synonymous mutation, insertion, or deletion in the TP53 gene determined prior to screening; TP53 mutation status at screening is NOT required prior to AMG-232 dosing; however, subjects found to have TP53 mutation and/or deletion from screening bone marrow biopsy as assessed by central deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequencing conducted at Dr. Jeffrey Sklar’s laboratory at Yale University Cancer Center, will be removed from study after C1 and continue on standard-of-care KRd aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXAll herbal medicines (e.g., St. John’s wort), vitamins, and supplements consumed by the subject within the 30 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232, and continuing use, if applicable, will be reviewed by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any known CYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic window (such as alfentanil, astemizole, cisapride, dihydroergotamine, pimozide, quinidine, sirolimus, or terfanide) within the 14 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232 is not permitted; other medications (such as fentanyl and oxycodone) may be allowed per investigator’s assessment/evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown homozygous DPD (dihydro pyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor expansion cohort patients, the profiling must reveal at least one mutation in the following selected DNA repair genes involved in cell cycle arrest signal transduction, BRCA1 pathway, Fanconi’s proteins pathway, and RAD51 pathway: (ATR, ATM, CHEK1, CHEK2, BRCA1, BAP1, BARD1, FANCD2, FANCE, FANCC, RAD50, FANCA, RAD51, BRCA2, PALB2, CDK12 [ENSG00000167258, also known as CRK7, CRKR, CRKRS], POLE, POLD1, BRAC2, PRKDC, ERCC2, POLQ, MRE11A, NBN [MBS1]), or at least one gene amplification in FANCD2, FANCE, FANCC, FANCA, C11orf30 (EMSY)\r\n*NOTE: Tissue or blood cell free DNA are allowed for genomic profiling of tumor; profiling should have been performed at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified lab =< 1 year prior to registration\r\n* NOTE: Patients in the dose escalation phase are not required to have such mutations; although genomic profiling is not required for dose escalation patients, it is encouraged in these patients prior to or after study registration if feasibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are not eligible who have received prior PARP inhibitors (including but not limited to veliparib, talazoparib, rucaparib, and olaparib)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had a prior severe infusion reaction to a monoclonal antibody are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologic diagnosis of osteosarcoma at original diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no history of exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94%Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an air leak ? 100 mL/min, as measured by a digital thoracic drainage system (DTDS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has air leak present on at least the 5th day following origination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has air leak only on forced exhalation or coughXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has sepsisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has pneumoniaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is not an appropriate candidate for, or unable to tolerate, flexible bronchoscopy proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a primary pneumothoraxXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has undergone a prior intervention (including pleurodesis, surgery, blood patch, and pneumoperitoneum) or valve placement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) =< 10 X ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with radiographic signs of excessive intracranial mass effect with associated rapid neurologic deterioration and/or spinal cord blockXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have contraindications to carboplatin, melphalan, or STSXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with oropharyngeal or unknown primaries: p16 determination by immunohistochemistry (defined as greater than 70% strong nuclear or nuclear and cytoplasmic staining of tumor cells), confirmed by central pathology review\r\n* Note: for patients with oral cavity, laryngeal, and hypopharyngeal primaries, analysis of p16 status prior to step 2 registration/randomization is not required (p16 status will be analyzed centrally post-hoc); step 2 registration for these patients can be completed after step 1 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXIf both of the following conditions are present, the patient is ineligible:\r\n* < 10 pack-year smoking history\r\n* p16-positive carcinoma of the oropharynx or unknown primary that are T0-3, N0-2b (AJCC 7th Edition)\r\n** Note: in the event that a registered patient has a p16-positive result on central review with the tumor and nodal stage T0-3, N0-2b (AJCC 7th Edition), then the site will be notified that the patient is ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory illness requiring hospitalization at the time of step 1 registration\r\n* Note: if the respiratory illness is resolved and the patient meets the eligibility status above, then the patient can be considered for the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically apparent jaundice and/or known coagulation defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have recovered from the immediate post-operative periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have tumor MGMT methylation status of unmethylated as determined by local pathologist using a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-approved diagnostic test; results of routinely-used methods for MGMT methylation testing (e.g. methylation-specific [MS]- polymerase chain reaction [PCR] or quantitative PCR) are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have received maximal debulking surgery and undergo radiotherapy concomitant with temozolomide (45-70 gray [Gy])Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has an implanted pacemaker, programmable shunts, defibrillator, deep brain stimulator, other implanted electronic devices in the brain, or documented clinically significant arrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is a prisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject requires or is likely to require more than a 2-week course of corticosteroids of > 4 mgXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of ability of a patient for immunological and clinical follow-up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known sensitivity to retinoic acid derivativesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must agree to provide fresh biopsy specimens and peripheral blood samples at the time of screening and during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active auto-immune disease requiring immunosuppressive medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active malignancies in addition to urothelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) documented by histology or cytology from brushing, washing, or needle aspiration of a defined lesion, but not from sputum cytology aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient re-enrollment: this study permits the re-enrollment of a participant who has discontinued the study due to pre-treatment failure (ie, participant has not been treated); if re-enrolled, the participant must be re-consentedXx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements; however they must still undergo pregnancy testing\r\n* Investigators shall counsel WOCBP and male participants who are sexually active with WOCBP on the importance of pregnancy prevention and the implications of an unexpected pregnancy; investigators shall advise on the use of highly effective methods of contraception, which have a failure rate of < 1% when used consistently and correctlyXx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males are exempt from contraceptive requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or individuals who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ALL or B-LL who have M2 morphology must have local confirmatory testing showing >= 5% blasts by flow cytometry, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) testing or other molecular methodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with and without Down syndrome are eligible and must have one of the following:\r\n* Second or greater relapse;\r\n* Primary refractory disease with at least 2 prior induction attempts;\r\n* First relapse refractory to at least one prior re-induction attempt\r\n* Any relapse after HSCT\r\n* First relapse with no prior re-induction attempt in setting of Down syndrome\r\n* Note: Patients with Down syndrome are eligible with any disease status including first relapse with no prior re-induction attempt; patients without Down syndrome are NOT eligible if in first relapse with no prior re-induction attemptXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any prior history of SOS irrespective of severityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been previously treated with inotuzumab ozogamicinXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed and histopathologically confirmed (by central pathology review) potentially resectable soft tissue sarcomas of the extremity and trunk of the following subtypes: liposarcoma (excluding myxoid liposarcoma), leiomyosarcoma and undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma\r\n* An incisional or core biopsy is the preferred method for diagnosis; fine needle aspiration is not acceptable\r\n* Sites permissible for biopsy include\r\n** Extremities: upper (including shoulder) and lower (including hip)\r\n** Trunk: body wallXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a sarcoma in the extremity or trunk in location, which is accessible to direct or ultrasound guided injectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with localized sarcomas that are not of the extremity or trunk wall (including head/neck, retroperitoneum, visceral organs, peritoneum, pelvis within the confines of the bony pelvis, and tumors arising in bone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with grade 1 non-rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue sarcomas (NRSTS) tumors of any size are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (e.g., herpetic keratitis or encephalitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for herpes simplex virus (HSV)-1 induced complications such as immunosuppressed individuals, individuals known to have HIV infection, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year, during talimogene laherparepvec (T-VEC) treatment and through 30 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvec (T-VEC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent, unresectable, or metastatic RCC or STS (any histologic type) for which pazopanib is an appropriate therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 (REGISTRATION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with oropharyngeal cancer only: the institution will do p16 testing, and if p16 is negative, this tissue must be submitted for central review for confirmation before Step 2 registration; note: if the institution finds that the patient is p16 positive, the patient is excluded from this trial on the basis of distinct biology, prognosis, and low- or intermediate-risk rather than high-risk statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with feeding tubes are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 (REGISTRATION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSodium < 130 mmol/L or > 155 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXHematology laboratory parameters within the Protocol specified rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXChemistry laboratory parameters within the Protocol specified rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating blasts < 20,000 (cytoreduction with hydroxyurea is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has clinical evidence of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known sensitivity to any of the components of the investigational product AGS67E:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAGS67EXx_NEWLINE_xXL-HistidineXx_NEWLINE_xX?-trehalose dihydrate orXx_NEWLINE_xXpolysorbate 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXFailure to achieve complete or partial response or hematological improvement after at least six 4-week cycles of azacitidine or either four 4-week or four 6-week cycles of decitabine ORXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse after initial complete or partial response or hematological improvement after six 4-week cycles of azacitidine or either four 4-week or four 6-week cycles of decitabine administered within the past 2 years For participants in Cohorts C1 and C2:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIPSS-R risk category of Intermediate, High, or Very High assessed at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom anthracycline, paclitaxel or antibody therapies are contraindicated: \r\n* Hypersensitivity reactions to any of the medications or to humanized monoclonal antibodies \r\n* History of congestive heart failure \r\n* Myocardial infarction within the past 12 months \r\n* Pre-existing peripheral neuropathy >= grade 2 \r\n* Prior anthracycline therapy with >= cumulative dose of 240 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: patients must have recurrent or refractory solid tumors or acute leukemia (limited to AML or ALL) or have been intolerant of prior therapies, confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI), e.g., solid tumors including rhabdomyosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma, soft tissue sarcomas; these may include primary neoplasms of the central nervous system, such as high-grade (World Health Organization [WHO] grade III-IV) glioma; patients with diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG) or optic pathway glioma are exempt from histologic verification; for DIPG typical magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings must be present which include hypo- or isointense on T1-weighted imaging, hyperintense on fluid attenuation inversion recovery (FLAIR) or T2-weighted imaging, epicenter in the pons in the face of a typical clinical presentation; optic pathway glioma are located in the optic pathway and are typically hypo- or iso-intense on T1 and hyperintense on T2-weighted imagesXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II temporarily suspended as requested by the FDA due to IND Safety Report of 07 October 2016Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: inoperable PN causing morbidity, such as (but not limited to) head and neck lesions that could compromise the airway or great vessels, brachial or lumbar plexus lesions that could cause nerve compression and loss of function, lesions that could result in major deformity (e.g., orbital lesions) or significant cosmetic problems, lesions of the extremity that cause limb hypertrophy or loss of function, and painful lesions in patients with NF1; histologic confirmation of PN tumor is not necessary in the presence of consistent clinical and radiographic findings, but should be considered if malignant degeneration of a PN is clinically suspected; a PN is defined as a neurofibroma that has grown along the length of a nerve and may involve multiple fascicles and branches; a spinal PN involves two or more levels with connection between the levels or extending laterally along the nerve; in addition to PN, all study subjects must have either positive genetic testing for NF1 confirmed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory or have at least one other diagnostic criterion for NF1 listed below (National Institutes of Health [NIH] Consensus conference):\r\n* Six or more café-au-lait macules (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in post pubertal subjects)\r\n* Freckling in axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors will not be eligible to participate in the phase II portion of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXoral, intra-vaginal or transdermal combined (estrogen and progestogen containing) hormonal contraception associated with inhibition for ovulationXx_NEWLINE_xXoral, injectable or implantable progestogen-only hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXintrauterine hormone-releasing system (IUS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXbilateral tubal occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXvasectomised partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has or is willing to have a central venous catheter (e.g. PICC, Port-A-Cath®, Hickman® catheter) for drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to steroids or H1/H2-antagonists.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAssessment of GD2 status is not required for NB or for other tumors known to express GD2 in 70% or more of cases: specifically osteosarcoma (GD2 expressed in 88%), spindle cell sarcoma (93%) and desmoplastic small round cell tumor (DSRCT) (70%); all other non-NB tumors will require confirmation of GD2 expression on cell surface by immunohistochemistry on fresh frozen tissue that will be performed at MSKCC; patients with suspected GD2-positive tumors (other than osteosarcoma, spindle cell sarcoma or DSRCT) will have their tumors assessed after obtaining a separate informed consent for this purposeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have newly diagnosed T-lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL) or T-lymphoblastic lymphoma (T-LLy) stages II-IV \r\n* Note: a diagnosis of T-ALL is established when leukemic blasts lack myeloperoxidase or evidence of B-lineage derivation (cluster of differentiation [CD]19/CD22/CD20), and express either surface or cytoplasmic CD3 or two or more of the antigens CD8, CD7, CD5, CD4, CD2 or CD1a, and are present either in peripheral blood or > 25% in the bone marrow; if surface CD3 is expressed on all leukemic cells, additional markers of immaturity, including terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT), CD34 or CD99 will be assessed for expression; cases with uncertain expression will receive additional review within the appropriate Children's Oncology Group (COG) reference laboratory\r\n* For T-LLy patients with tissue available for flow cytometry, the criterion for diagnosis should be analogous to T-ALL; for tissue processed by other means (i.e. paraffin blocks), the methodology and criteria for immunophenotypic analysis to establish the diagnosis of T-LLy defined by the submitting institution will be acceptedXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females who plan to breastfeedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have cluster of differentiation (CD)33 positivity of >= 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXIt is deemed ethical to provide an experimental drug (e.g., Mylotarg) that is associated with hepatotoxicity (veno-occlusive disease [VOD]) and myelosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of tuberculosis or history of tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring blood product supportXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent exposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to avoid household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiency 1 week after treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require anti-arrhythmic treatment with Amiodarone or any drug with a quinidine-like effect on the heart or who have history of a malignant ventricular arrhythmia unless they have a functioning Automatic Implantable Cardio Defibrillator (AICD) implantedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a history of noninfectious (toxic, autoimmune) hepatitis or alcoholismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a lifetime history of porphyria or psoriasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with documented glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a lifetime history of dermatitis as an allergic/toxic reaction to any medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT: Patients with a history or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED) or predisposing factors to RVO or RPED (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes), are ineligible to receive treatment with trametinib DMSO; visible retinal pathology (as assessed by ophthalmic exam) that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED includes evidence of new optic disc cupping or new visual field defects, or intraocular pressure > 21 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT: Patients who have received prior everolimus or other mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors or those with known intolerance or hypersensitivity to other rapamycin analogs (e.g., sirolimus, temsirolimus) would not be eligible to receive everolimus on study; if these patients have mutations of interest in pathways other than the phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase, catalytic subunit alpha (pI3K) pathway, they will be eligible to receive agents based on that mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT: Patients who have received prior mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitors would not be eligible to receive trametinib DMSO on study; if these patients have mutations of interest in pathways other than the rat sarcoma (RAS) pathway, they will be eligible to receive agents based on that mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT: Patients with active brain metastases or carcinomatous meningitis are excluded from this clinical trial; patients who have a history of seizures are not eligible to receive veliparib, but patients who have either not had seizures or who have been on stable doses of anti-seizure medicine and had no seizures for 4 weeks will be eligible for other study agents; enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants are contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with feeding tubes are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSodium < 130 mmol/L or > 155 mmol/L despite intervention to normalize levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to cetuximabXx_NEWLINE_xXARM A: Willingness to provide all biological specimens as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXARM A: Child Pugh Score A (patients with ascites must have paracentesis performed within scope of standard of care, to be able to successfully perform intratumoral injection procedure)Xx_NEWLINE_xXARM A: Predominant intrahepatic burden (> 75%) of disease (i.e. patients with widespread extrahepatic disease to organs other than the liver will not be included)Xx_NEWLINE_xXARM B: Willingness to provide all biological specimens as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be newly diagnosed with localized primary CNS NGGCT (Stratum 1) or localized primary CNS germinoma (Stratum 2); germ cell tumors located in the suprasellar, pineal, bifocal (pineal + suprasellar) and ventricles are eligible; tumors present in the above mentioned locations and with unifocal parenchymal extension are eligible\r\n* Stratum 1(NGGCT): Patients must have one of the following criteria:\r\n** Patients with serum and/or CSF hCGbeta > 100 mIU/mL or any elevation of serum and/or CSF alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) > 10 ng/mL or greater than the institutional normal are eligible, irrespective of biopsy results\r\n** Patients with any of the following elements on biopsy/resection are eligible, irrespective of serum and/or CSF hCGbeta and AFP levels: endodermal sinus tumor (yolk sac), embryonal carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, malignant/immature teratoma, and mixed GCT with malignant GCT elements\r\n* Stratum 2 (Germinoma): Patients must have both serum and CSF markers obtained (unless obtaining CSF is medically contraindicated) and must have one of the following criteria to be eligible:\r\n** Patients with institutional normal AFP (or =< 10 ng/mL if no institutional normal exists) in both serum and CSF (unless medically contraindicated) AND hCGbeta 5 to =< 50 mIU/mL in serum and/or CSF (unless medically contraindicated) (only 1 is required to be elevated) are eligible; no histologic confirmation required\r\n** Patients with bifocal (pineal + suprasellar) involvement or pineal lesion with diabetes insipidus (D1) AND hCGbeta =< 100 mIU/mL in serum and/or CSF AND institutional normal AFP (or =< 10 ng/mL if no institutional normal exists) in both serum and CSF (unless medically contraindicated) are eligible; no histologic confirmation required\r\n** Patients with histologically confirmed germinoma or germinoma mixed with mature teratoma and hCGbeta =< 100 mIU/mL in serum and/or CSF and institutional normal AFP (or =< 10 ng/mL if no institutional normal exists) in both serum and CSF (unless medically contraindicated) are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be in status, coma, or assisted ventilation prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors located outside the ventricles (basal ganglia, thalamus) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide the biologic specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXDose Escalation cohort only: Willingness to participate in the SPECT/CT imaging as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a pleural effusion with the ability to safely place an intrapleural catheter or have pre-existing intrapleural catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-measles immunity as demonstrated by serum immunoglobulin (Ig)G anti-measles antibody levels of >= 1.1 EU/ml as determined by BioPlex Measles IgG multiplex flow immunoassayXx_NEWLINE_xXCluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) count >= 200/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXAny ancillary therapy considered investigational (utilized for a non-Food and Drug Administration [FDA]-approved indication and in the context of a research investigation) or any other treatment specifically for treating the current malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with a person with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of tuberculosis or purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring ongoing blood product support at time of pre-registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXMale patients unless they are using condoms as contraception starting on the day of transplantation up until one week after infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior myeloablative allotransplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received yttrium (Y)-90 ibritumomab (Zevalin) or iodine (I)-131 tositumomab (Bexxar), as part of their salvage therapy are not eligible for myeloablative UCB transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with all degrees of renal dysfunction are allowed including patients on hemodialysis; patients with mild to severe hepatic dysfunction are allowed as defined below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with a recently placed biliary stent, patients should have consistent results within a hepatic group from two laboratory readings within 3 days apart, taken at least 10 days following biliary stent placement; for patients with a biliary stent placed over 2 months ago, no obstruction or blockage can have occurred within the last 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who received and progressed on the combination of carboplatin/paclitaxel will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable disease: a mass that can be reproducibly measured by physical examination and/or ultrasound and is at least 1 cm in sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXConsultations: all patients should be evaluated by a surgeon prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere uncontrolled malabsorption condition or disease (i.e. grade II/III diarrhea, severe malnutrition, short gut syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria < 1+ on dipstick testing (if 2+ seen on first test, retest >= 24 hours later)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs which have an increased risk for QTc prolongation should be avoidedXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with predisposition to hepatotoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXUnilateral or bilateral primary carcinoma of the breast, confirmed histologically by needle core biopsy; fine-needle aspiration is not sufficient; incisional/excisional biopsy is not allowed; in case of bilateral cancer, the investigator has to decide prospectively which side will be evaluated for the primary endpointXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE ESCALATION COHORT: Subjects who have received sirolimus, everolimus, temsirolimus, or any other agent for current malignancy that theoretically targets PI3K, AKT and / or mTORXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE ESCALATION COHORT: Subjects with clinical condition where subjects may not tolerate immune mediated hepatotoxicity; this includes extensive liver metastasis, excessive intake of alcohol (male > 4 drinks/day, female > 2 drinks/day), and the use of acetaminophen > 2 gms/day; per epacadostat investigator’s brochureXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE ESCALATION COHORT: Use of any UGT1A9 inhibitor from screening through follow-up period, including the following: diclofenac, imipramine, ketoconazole, mefenamic acid, and probenecidXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE ESCALATION COHORT: Subjects receiving monoamine oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) or drug which has significant MAOI activity (meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) within the 21 days before screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT: ALP ? 2.5 X ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT: Subjects who have received sirolimus, everolimus, temsirolimus, or any other agent for current malignancy that theoretically targets PI3K, AKT and / or mTORXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT: Subjects with clinical condition where subjects may not tolerate immune mediated hepatotoxicity; this includes extensive liver metastasis, excessive intake of alcohol (male > 4 drinks/day, female > 2 drinks/day), and the use of acetaminophen > 2 gms/day; per epacadostat investigator’s brochureXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT: History or presence of an abnormal ECG which, in the investigator's opinion, is clinically meaningful; screening QTcF interval > 480ms is excluded; subjects with left bundle branch block are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT: Use of any UGT1A9 inhibitor from screening through follow-up period, including the following: diclofenac, imipramine, ketoconazole, mefenamic acid, and probenecidXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT: Subjects receiving monoamine oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) or drug which has significant MAOI activity (meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) within the 21 days before screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo extra blood sampling for correlative studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously identified IDH1/2 mutations from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory can be enrolled on the trial, but must be verified in the central study laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with a predisposition to hepatotoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXOropharyngeal primaries have to be human papillomavirus (HPV) p16 negative, unless by American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 7th edition staging they are cT4a, cT4b, cN2 and/or cN3 tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary nasopharyngeal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known contraindications to radiotherapy, including inherited syndromes associated with hypersensitivity to ionizing radiation (e.g., ataxia-telangiectasia, Nijmegen breakage syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with solitary plasmacytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor abnormalities identified by electrocardiogram (ECG) or echocardiogram (ECHO), at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of aneurisms of the ascending aorta or aortic stressXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed breast cancer that overexpresses HER2 (defined by American Society of Clinical Oncology [ASCO]- College of American Pathologists [CAP] 2013 guidelines performed using Food and Drug Administration [FDA]-approved tests by laboratories with demonstrated proficiency) that is metastatic or unresectableXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious treatment with tocilizumab or other cytokine-targeted biologic disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (including adalimumab, certolizumab, etanercept, golimumab, infliximab, anakinra) within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or predisposing factors to RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with FAB M3 (t(15;17)(q22;q21)[PML-RARalpha]) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with bacteremia must have documented negative blood cultures prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects whose tumors express EGFR mutations on exons 19 and 21, ALK rearrangement, or ROS1 rearrangement who still have other Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved targeted agents available for treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs there is potential for hepatic toxicity with nivolumab, drugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in subjects treated with nivolumab-containing regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received at least 6 months fluorouracil (5-FU)- or gemcitabine-based treatments for pancreas cancer (fluorouracil, irinotecan hydrochloride, leucovorin calcium and oxaliplatin [FOLFIRINOX], fluorouracil, leucovorin calcium and oxaliplatin [FOLFOX], 5-FU+ nal-IRI [MM-398; nanoliposomal irinotecan], or 5-FU [including capecitabine], gemcitabine-based gemcitabine plus abraxane, gemcitabine monotherapy among others)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known ophthalmologic conditions, such as:\r\n* Current or past history of central serous retinopathy\r\n* Current or past history of retinal vein occlusion\r\n* Known intraocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg (or upper limit of normal [ULN] adjusted by age) or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of IOP); patients with controlled glaucoma and increased IOP who do not have meaningful vision (light perception only or no light perception) may be eligible after discussion with the study chair\r\n* Subjects with any other significant abnormality on ophthalmic examination (performed by an ophthalmologist) should be discussed with the study chair for potential eligibility\r\n* Ophthalmological findings secondary to long-standing optic pathway glioma (such as visual loss, optic nerve pallor or strabismus) or long-standing orbito-temporal plexiform neurofibroma (PN) (such as visual loss, strabismus) will NOT be considered a significant abnormality for the purposes of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had an R0/R1 resection of PDA following neoadjuvant chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave received at least 1 treatment of either fluorouracil, irinotecan hydrochloride, leucovorin calcium, and oxaliplatin (FOLFIRINOX) or gemcitabine/abraxane based regimens in the neoadjuvant setting; modifications of FOLFIRINOX including leucovorin calcium, fluorouracil, and oxaliplatin (FOLFOX), leucovorin calcium, fluorouracil, and irinotecan hydrochloride (FOLFIRI), fluorouracil (5FU) and capecitabine and modifications of gemcitabine/abraxane including single agents gemcitabine or abraxane are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be medically fit to undergo surgery determined by the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDeclared high-risk for anesthesia by attending anesthesiologist, cardiologist, or other physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of partial or total gastrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, or sociological condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete or partial intestinal obstruction at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of pulmonary fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of any psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule (such conditions should be discussed with the subject before study entry)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunction; patients can be on thyroid hormone replacement medication; asymptomatic patients with elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) with normal T4/T3 are allowed to enroll, and recommended to follow with routine thyroid function testXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients of previous allogeneic transplants who have rash involving more than 10% body surface area attributed to graft versus host disease (GVHD) (> grade 1 GVHD of skin); stem cell transplant recipients will be excluded if they are still receiving immunosuppression including steroids for GVHD or have active GVHD in any organ (except for grade 1 only of skin, not requiring treatment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGermline ABCB4 (CC) and ABCB11 (GG or GC) genotypes determined by pharmacogenomics analysis of peripheral blood mononuclear cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease amenable to biopsy via percutaneous approach or other minimally invasive procedures such as thoracoscopy, bronchoscopy, laparoscopy, or gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are concurrently receiving or requiring any of the following agents, which may increase the risk for mithramycin related toxicities, such as hemorrhage:\r\n* Thrombolytic agents\r\n* Aspirin or salicylate-containing products, which may increase risk of hemorrhage\r\n* Dextran\r\n* Dipyridamole\r\n* Sulfinpyrazone\r\n* Valproic acid\r\n* ClopidogrelXx_NEWLINE_xXResting baseline oxygen (O2) saturation by pulse oximetry of >= 92% at restXx_NEWLINE_xXHas more than three recurrences of high grade glioma; previous recurrences of low grade glioma is not consideredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the psychological ability and general health that permits completion of the study requirements and required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have a somatic PIK3CA gene mutation (i.e., R88Q in exon 1, N345K in exon 4, C420R in exon 7, E542K, E545X [E545A, E545D, E545G, and E545K], Q546X [Q546E, Q546K, Q546L, and Q546R] in exon 9, and M1043I, H1047X [H1047L, H1047R, and H1047Y], or G1049R in exon 20) in a representative primary or metastatic tumor sample confirmed by the Roche COBAS PIK3CA Mutation Test at Q^2 SolutionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as ‘non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have the following histologies: mucinous, squamous, sarcomas, carcinosarcomas, clear cellXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent diagnosis of pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2 (MTD) only: patient is thought to be a short- or long-term candidate for gemcitabine in the opinion of the treating oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2 (MTD) only: patient willing to undergo muscle biopsies at baseline and after 28 to 35 days of disulfiram/gemcitabine or gemcitabine/placebo therapy as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient willing to complete a medication diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to abstain from alcohol for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny signs, symptoms, and/or radiographic evidence of a complete or partial bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received hydroxyurea alone or have previously received “non-cytotoxic” therapies for myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) or myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) (e.g., thalidomide or lenalidomide, 5-azacytidine or decitabine, histone deacetylase inhibitors, low-dose Cytoxan, tyrosine kinase or dual tyrosine kinase [TK]/SRC inhibitors) will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xX>= 55 years of age with AML of any risk classification, or 18-54 years of age with high-risk AML disease based on one of the following:\r\n* Antecedent hematologic disorder including myelodysplasia (MDS)-related AML (MDS/AML) and prior myeloproliferative disorder (MPD)\r\n* Treatment-related myeloid neoplasms (t-AML/t-MDS)\r\n* AML with FLT3-ITD\r\n* Myeloid sarcoma\r\n* AML with multilineage dysplasia (AML-MLD)\r\n* Adverse cytogenetics (defined as -5/-5q; -7/-7q; abnormal 3q, 9q, 11q, 20q, 21q or 17p; t(6;9); t(9;22); trisomy 8; trisomy 13; trisomy 21; complex karyotypes (>= 3 clonal abnormalities); monosomal karyotypesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients 18-54 years of age with “good risk” AML defined as the presence of t(8;21), inv(16), or t(16;16) as diagnosed by morphologic criteria, flow cytometric characteristics, and rapid cytogenetics or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) (patients with t(8;21), inv(16), t(16;16) who are unable to receive anthracycline based induction will be allowed to enroll provided the medical reason they are unable to receive anthracyclines is clearly documented and provided they fulfill all other eligibility and criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTAGES 1 AND 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive, uncontrolled graft vs. host disease (GVHD) following allogeneic transplant for non-AML condition (e.g. MDS, lymphoid malignancy, aplastic anemia); patients with GVHD controlled on stable doses of immunosuppressants are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiency requiring hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of AML at original diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the status of CNS1 or CNS2 only, and no clinical signs or neurologic symptoms suggestive of CNS leukemia, such as cranial palsyXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrathecal cytotoxic therapy:\r\n* No waiting period is required for patients having received intrathecal cytarabine, methotrexate, and/or hydrocortisone\r\n* At least 14 days must have elapsed since receiving liposomal cytarabine (DepoCyte) by intrathecal injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received > 450 mg/m^2 daunorubicin equivalents; patients who relapse after receiving AAML0531/AAML1031 therapy will be eligible for this study, provided they have not received any additional anthracyclines; NOTE: for the purposes of determining eligibility for this protocol, the following cardiotoxicity multipliers will be used to determine daunorubicin equivalents:\r\n* Doxorubicin (doxorubicin hydrochloride): 1\r\n* Mitoxantrone: 3\r\n* Idarubicin: 3\r\n* Epirubicin: 0.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXChildren are excluded from this study, but will be eligible for future pediatric trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to gemcitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival >= 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 25 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXResting oxygen saturation (O2 sat) must be >= 92%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypermetabolic para-aortic disease identified on baseline 18-FDG-PET-CTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) are excluded; pre-registration testing for G6PD is at the investigator’s discretion and is not required for study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with melanoma of mucosal or ocular primaryXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) resulting in (or as evidenced by) declining platelet or hemoglobin (Hgb) levels within the 4 weeks prior to first dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of transfusion-dependent thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to ibrutinib or other ITK inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to pomalidomide or HDAC inhibitors is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to receive adequate thromboprophylaxis in combination with pomalidomideXx_NEWLINE_xXCytomegalovirus colitis or enteritis as defined by cytomegalovirus (CMV) shell vial or culture positivity from endoscopic biopsy the discretion of the treating physician based upon PCR positivity, clinical presentation and histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory insufficiency with oxygen requirement > 4 L nasal cannulaXx_NEWLINE_xXMulti-organ failureXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Capable of undergoing leukapheresis, have adequate venous access, and be willing to undergo insertion of a central catheter should leukapheresis via peripheral vein be inadequateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have had a prior anti-angiogenic agent in the recurrent setting; prior use of bevacizumab in the upfront or upfront maintenance setting is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunction and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment affecting the VEGF/VEGFR pathway or the angiopoietin pathway in the recurrent setting, including but not limited to thalidomide, bevacizumab, sunitinib, sorafenib, pazopanib, cediranib, nintedanib, and trebananib; bevacizumab used in the upfront setting in conjunction with chemotherapy and/or as maintenance to treat newly diagnosed disease will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of PARP-inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction or signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction within 3 months prior to starting study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXDependency on IV hydration or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical significant peripheral vascular disease or vascular disease (aortic aneurysm or aortic dissection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not use any complementary or alternative medicines including natural herbal products or folk remediesXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of acid reducing agents (e.g., proton pump inhibitors, histamine 2 (H2) receptor antagonists, antacids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hepatocellular carcinoma are eligible for this trial; hepatocellular carcinoma is defined as having at least one of the following:\r\n* Biopsy proven hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC); or\r\n* A discrete hepatic tumor(s) as defined by the Barcelona criteria – for cirrhotic patients, > 1 cm with arterial hypervascularity and venous or delayed phase washout on computed tomography (CT) or MRIXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 40 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXTolerate a 15 g ascorbate infusion (screening dose)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitizing EGFR mutations or ALK gene rearrangement; if patient’s biopsy did not allow EGFR or ALK gene analysis (e.g., inconclusive, not enough tissue, etc.), the patient is considered eligible for study; enrollment on this clinical trial after progression on targeted therapy is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXActive hemoptysis within 1 week of screening (more than 1/2 teaspoon per day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActively receiving insulin at time of ascorbate infusion (unless an exception is granted by the Investigational New Drug [IND] sponsor, medical monitor, and the principal investigator [PI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXG6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamideXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be on a prophylactic regimen for pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, or agree to begin such treatment, if CD4+ cell counts are observed to be =< 200/ul in peripheral bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of a vaccine for HIV-1 or any prior gene modified cell product, at any timeXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated AML and the presence of FLT3 mutation (Cohort A only); untreated AML patients > 60 years who are not candidates for intensive chemotherapy and patients with relapsed or refractory FLT3-mutated AML may enroll to Cohort BXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with core-binding factor AML (inv[16], t[8;21]) or t(15;17) (Cohort A only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of platelet alloimmunizationXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions suspected to be at higher-risk for bleeding such as bowel involvement with tumor that invades into the bowel wall or involves the intraluminal component of bowel by imaging or direct visualization or central pulmonary lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXUlcerated skin lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXMGMT promoter methylation testing will be performed by an institutional Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-approved laboratory using a methylation specific polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay to detect deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) methylation within the promoter region of the MGMT gene\r\n* Participants with an MGMT promoter that is unmethylated will be enrolled to cohort 1a, while those with tumor MGMT promoter that is methylated, partially methylated, indeterminate or unknown will be enrolled to cohort 1bXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to undergo MR imaging because of non-compatible devices can be enrolled, provided CT scans are obtained and are of sufficient quality; patients without non-compatible devices may not have CT scans performed to meet this requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXADDITIONAL CRITERIA FOR COHORTS 1A AND 1B PARTICIPANTS ONLY: Cohort 1b: MGMT promoter methylated, partially methylated, indeterminate or unknownXx_NEWLINE_xXNo new or worsened existing acute medical condition that would require a dose hold or delayXx_NEWLINE_xXNo dexamethasone (or other corticosteroid bioequivalent) within one week of vaccination initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors primarily localized in the infratentorial compartment or spinal cord – tumors with limited infratentorial compartment or spinal cord involvement are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic or cytologic evidence of diffuse leptomeningeal extension - tumors with limited subependymal involvement are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions attributed to any vaccine therapy for the prevention of infectious diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients will be previously or simultaneously enrolled in the natural history ECD protocol #11-HG-0207, “Clinical and Basic Investigations into Erdheim Chester disease”; eligible patients must have been diagnosed with Erdheim Chester disease, confirmed by pathological evaluation of the affected tissue with adequate staining; affected tissue must harbor the BRAF V600E or V600K mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have BRAFV600E or BRAFV600K mutations, identified by a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified lab; if test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be provided; (FDA approved tests for BRAF V600 mutations in melanoma include: THxID BRAF Detection Kit and Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of rat sarcoma (RAS) mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study; Note: RAS testing and absence of RAS mutation are required for eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCentral serous retinopathy (CSR) including presence of predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, or a history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes); or visible pathology (e.g., evidence of optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects on automated perimetry, or intraocular pressure > 21 mmHg as measured by tonography) as assessed by ophthalmic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with wild type BRAF gene molecular results on ECD affected tissueXx_NEWLINE_xXAuto-immune hemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to undergo up to 90 minutes of PEM imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPeripheral bilateral edema requiring active medical managementXx_NEWLINE_xXHyponatremia (serum sodium value less than 130 mEq/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic oral chronic graft-versus-host disease (sensitivity score >= 4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSensitivity score =< 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to tolerate intraperitoneal (IP) port placement and IP treatment administration in the opinion of the enrolling investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)s and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRIs) within the last 4 weeks or history of serotonin syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant systemic treatment with corticosteroids, anti-histamine or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs except in association with preparative regimen and NK cell infusion; any cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 inhibitors are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A9 (UGT1A9) inhibitor including: diclofenac, imipramine, ketoconazole, mefenamic acid, and probenecid from screening through follow-up periodXx_NEWLINE_xXA minimum of any one of the following constitutional symptoms: Unintentional weight loss >10% within the previous 6 months prior to screening Extreme fatigue (unable to work or perform usual activities) Fevers of greater than 100.5?F for ?2 weeks without evidence of infection Night sweats without evidence of infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of anemia or thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXMassive (i.e., >6 cm below the left costal margin), progressive or symptomatic splenomegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXMassive nodes or clusters (i.e., >10 cm in longest diameter) or progressive lymphadenopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive lymphocytosis with an increase of >50% over a 2-month period, or an anticipated doubling time of less than 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAutoimmune anemia or thrombocytopenia that is poorly responsive to corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXA treatment regimen containing cytotoxic agents (eg, fludarabine, pentostatin, cladribine, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, bendamustine) ANDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients ?18 year oldXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving chronic or acute warfarin treatment are not excluded, but should be monitored very closely or considered for switch to other therapies. P1446A-05 is both highly protein bound and a competitive inhibitor of CYP2C9 at higher concentrations and thus may potentiate the action of warfarin in patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled immune hemolysis or thrombocytopenia (positive direct antiglobulin test in absence of hemolysis is not an exclusion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known Richter's transformation which is progressive and is deemed to require immediate chemotherapy (history of Richter's transformation is not an exclusion); patients with prolymphocytic leukemia (prolymphocytes in blood >55%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMDS classified as Low-risk or Int-1 risk or Int-2 risk according to International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) classification; in addition, patients should never have been classified as High-risk since their MDS was diagnosed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory to 8- to 12-week course of ESA (erythropoiesis stimulating agent) administered within the past 2 years before enrollment, or erythropoietin (EPO) level ? 500 mU/mL and off ESA for at least 8 weeks before Screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing clinically significant anemia due to factors such as iron, vitamin B12, or folate deficiencies, auto-immune or hereditary hemolysis, or gastrointestinal bleeding.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypoplastic MDS (cellularity < 10%).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHyponatremia (defined as serum sodium value of < 130 mEq/L).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNew onset seizures (within 3 months prior to the first dose of rigosertib) or poorly controlled seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor gynecologic cancer cohort only recurrent or progressive disease within 30 days of the last dose of weekly paclitaxel or nab-paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is unable to tolerate placement of a stereotactic head frameXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior chemotherapy, including targeted therapy such as v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions attributed to any vaccine therapy for the prevention of infectious diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXMucosal melanoma and uveal melanoma are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny concomitant medications that are known to be associated with Torsades de Pointes or QT elongationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking metformin or digoxinXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to vandetanibXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment or randomization in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUp to 2 prior relapses allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXEighteen years old or olderXx_NEWLINE_xX1 week for non-cytotoxic agents, such as interferon, tamoxifen, & cis-retinoic acidXx_NEWLINE_xXDiseases or conditions that obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (? 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thromboembolic episodes =< 3 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must have one of the following stages: stage IA (T1NO); IB (T2NO), II & IIIA (N2 negative); IIIA (N2+), IIIB (N3+)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have stable disease at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive antinuclear antibody (ANA) lab resultXx_NEWLINE_xXMini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) >= 18 prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) to adjacent lesion such that planning target volume would have received more than 12 GyXx_NEWLINE_xXBrain metastasis or resection cavity volume < 3 cm or 14 cc or > 6 cm or 113 ccXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases to brain stem, midbrain, pons, or medulla or within 5 mm of the optic apparatus (optic nerves and chiasm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk acute myeloid leukemia in CR1 with any of the following features:\r\n* Complex karyotype (>= 3 clonal chromosomal abnormalities)\r\n* Any of the following high risk chromosomal abnormalities: \r\n** Monosomal karyotype (-5, 5q-, -7, 7q-)\r\n** t(11q23), t(9;11), inv(3), t(3;3) t(6;9) t(9;22)\r\n** Normal karyotype with FLT3-internal tandem duplication (ITD) mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychosocial circumstances that preclude the patient being able to go through transplant or participate responsibly in follow up careXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Capable of undergoing leukapheresis, have adequate venous access, and be willing to undergo insertion of a central catheter should leukapheresis via peripheral vein be inadequateXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages T1c-T3c (American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC] sixth edition)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a baseline American Urological Association (AUA)/International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) score of < 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: patients with mature B-cell (Burkitt's) ALL are excluded from study; mature B-cell is defined by the presence of surface immunoglobulin and/or the t(8;14)(q24;q32), t(8;22), or t(2;8) translocation and/or c-myc-gene rearrangement by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or polymerase chain reaction (PCR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of CD established by referring physician(s) and confirmed by our review of the clinical presentation, clinical course, endoscopic and imaging findings, and histology of mucosal tissue specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXAn adverse prognosis, documented by persistent signs and symptoms of CD that have failed to respond satisfactorily to medical and surgical therapies in the past, including but not limited to systemic immune suppressive drugs and biopharmaceuticals; to be considered as refractory to medical and surgical therapy, there must be clinical, endoscopic, and histologic evidence of active inflammatory Crohn's Disease that has either persisted or recurred despite exhaustive treatment with available pharmaceutical and surgical therapies; exhaustive treatment is defined as prior exposure to the following, without durable improvement:\r\n* Systemic glucocorticoids at or above a prednisone equivalent of 40 mg/day for at least 2 weeks, or until drug toxicity or intolerance develops\r\n* Methotrexate (25 mg per week for at least 3 months, or until drug toxicity or intolerance develops) and/or a thiopurine antimetabolite (either 2.5 mg/kg azathioprine or 1.5 mg/kg 6-mercaptopurine in patients homozygous wild-type for the thiopurine-S-methyltransferase [TPMT] gene, or either 1.5 mg/kg azathioprine or 1 mg/kg 6-mercaptopurine in patients heterozygous for TPMT, or doses of these drugs capable of producing a 6-thioguanine nucleotide level of 230-400 without producing a 6-methylmercaptopurine nucleotide level above 5700 for at least 3 months, or until drug allergy, intolerance or toxicity develops); if a patient is homozygous mutant for the TPMT gene, thiopurines would be contraindicated and their use would not be a requirement for enrollment in this protocol\r\n* Use of at least two anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha therapies, that is, infliximab (at least 5 mg/kg every 8 weeks for at least 3 months, or until drug allergy, toxicity or intolerance or anti-infliximab antibodies develop) and/or adalimumab (at least 40 mg subcutaneously [SQ] every 2 weeks for at least 3 months, or until drug allergy, toxicity or intolerance develops) and/or certolizumab pegol (at least 400 mg SQ every 4 weeks for at least 3 months, or until drug allergy, toxicity or intolerance develops)\r\n* Due to the serious risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) and the reluctance of some patients to agree to therapy that carries such risk, prior exposure to natalizumab is not required to meet the definition of exhaustive pharmaceutical treatment; neither will use of natalizumab among patients who are John Cunningham (JC) virus antibody seronegative be an exclusionary criterion\r\n* Exhaustive surgical treatment will be defined as indicated operations for complications of Crohn's Disease up to the point where the risks of surgery (for example, mortality or post-operative morbidity such as short bowel syndrome or extensive adhesions with high risk for inadvertent enterotomy) are deemed by patients and their physicians to be unacceptably high; indicated operations for complications of Crohn's Disease include, but are not limited to, surgical resection of involved intestine, stricturoplasty, drainage, curettage, or adhesiolysis of tissues affected by Crohn's disease\r\n* Exposure of patients to investigational drug therapies for Crohn's Disease, that is, to drugs that are not Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved for this indication, will not be a criterion for either inclusion or exclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXEndoscopic and histologic evidence of active intestinal inflammation consistent with CD; in the event that the involved mucosa cannot be readily reached by endoscopic biopsy, an imaging test that shows typical changes of CD in the intestinal tract will suffice as evidence of active intestinal inflammation; the presence of intestinal stomas does not exclude the patient from studyXx_NEWLINE_xXA current complication of CD that would jeopardize survival after hematopoietic cell transplantation, including but not limited to the following: \r\n * Abscess, phlegmon, necrotizing skin lesion, or inflammatory fistula\r\n * Intestinal fibrotic stricture and intestinal obstruction\r\n * Uncontrolled mucosal, organ, or systemic infection with a bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic organism\r\n * Sclerosing cholangitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXOrgan dysfunction or disease that would jeopardize survival after hematopoietic cell transplantation, including but not limited to the following: \r\n * Renal insufficiency as defined by an estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) < 60 mL/minute\r\n * Cardiac dysfunction as defined by symptomatic coronary artery disease, congestive heart failure, valvular heart disease, cardiomyopathy, uncontrolled arrhythmia(s), or left ventricular ejection fraction < 50%\r\n * Pulmonary dysfunction that poses a risk of mortality after transplant, defined as pulmonary disease-moderate, using pre-transplant pulmonary function testing per the Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center (FHCRC) Standard Practice Manual\r\n * Necroinflammatory or fibrotic liver disease with evidence of liver dysfunction, including but not limited to jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, or portal hypertension\r\n * Marrow dysfunction that poses a risk of peri-transplant mortality, defined as an absolute neutrophil count or lymphocyte count below the lower limit of normal, or a platelet count below 50,000/mm^3\r\n * Poorly controlled hypertension despite appropriate therapy, defined as a diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg while on therapy\r\n * Neurologic dysfunction that affects activities of daily living and medical care\r\n * Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, defined as persistent hyperglycemia despite therapy or recurrent hypoglycemia while on therapy\r\n * Extreme protein-calorie malnutrition defined by body mass index < 18 kg/m^2 and unintentional weight loss (3 kg in the last month or 6 kg in the last 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of smoking either tobacco or other herbal products in the last 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated lack of compliance with prior medical careXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: HIV seropositivity or presence of HBV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) in the serumXx_NEWLINE_xXpStat3+ upon central testing of archival tumor specimen\r\n* Cohort A: pStat3 score of >= 5 by central testing\r\n* Cohort B: pStat3 score of 3-4 by central testing (Note, Cohort B will only open if there are at least 2 objective responses observed in the first stage of Cohort A)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling not to smokeXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to complete a pill diary each dayXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormalities of the cornea based on history (e.g., dry eye syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome), congenital abnormality (e.g., Fuchs' dystrophy), abnormal slit-lamp examination using a vital dye (e.g., fluorescein, Bengal Rose), and/or an abnormal corneal sensitivity test (Schirmer test or similar tear production test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is able to lie flat for up to 45 minutes for imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has cavitating pulmonary lesion(s) or a pulmonary lesion abutting or encasing a major blood vesselXx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapy or concurrent evidence of intraluminal tumor involving the trachea and esophagusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with stage I or smoldering myeloma, isolated plasmacytoma, or benign monoclonal gammopathy are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXKidney: 500 cGyXx_NEWLINE_xXLungs: 500 cGyXx_NEWLINE_xXAn estimated progression-free survival of less than one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease specific therapies within 1 week of starting conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Determination of histocompatibility will be made by deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) oligotyping (low resolution for class I antigens and high resolution for class II antigens)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWithin or touching the zone of proximal bronchial tree defined as a volume 2 cm in all directions around the proximal bronchial tree (carina, right and left main bronchi, right and left upper lobe bronchi, intermedius bronchus, right middle lobe bronchus, lingular bronchus, right and left lower lobe bronchi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny co-morbid condition that is in the view of the attending physician renders the patient at high risk from treatment complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed, previously untreated: (1) M0 medulloblastoma with > 1.5 cm^2 residual; (2) M+ medulloblastoma; patients with diffusely anaplastic medulloblastoma are eligible regardless of M-stage or residual tumor\r\n* As of amendment # 2, enrollment of patients with supratentorial PNET has been discontinued\r\n* All patients with M4 disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLumbar cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cytology examination must be obtained pre-operatively or within 31 days following surgery; the optimal time for obtaining CSF is prior to surgery or 1-3 weeks following surgery; ventricular CSF (either pre- or post-op) may be used only if a post-operative spinal tap is contraindicated; if a spinal tap is contraindicated and there is no ventricular CSF available, then CSF cytology can be waived for patients with supratentorial tumors or if there is documentation of spinal subarachnoid metastases (M3); patients who are categorized as M1 must have either an intra-operative positive CSF (via lumbar puncture at the end of the procedure) or a positive lumbar CSF obtained > 7 days post-operativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXCYP450 3A4 stimulators or inhibitors should be avoided or used with great caution when taking cyclophosphamide; aprepitant should also be used with caution with etoposide or vincristine chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXCisplatin should be used with caution with nephrotoxic drug; aminoglycoside should be avoided or used with caution during or shortly after cisplatin administration and concomitant use with amphotericin B should probably also be avoided; patients receiving cisplatin and other potentially ototoxic drugs such as aminoglycoside or loop diuretics concomitantly should be closely monitored for signs of ototoxicity\r\n* Plasma levels of anticonvulsant agents should be monitored and doses adjusted during therapy with cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent grade 3 or 4 glioma, including astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma or mixed glioma with histologic confirmation at initial diagnosis or recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-measles virus immunity as demonstrated by immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-measles antibody levels of >= 1.1 EU/ml as determined by enzyme immunoassayXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to provide biologic specimens as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of tuberculosis or history of purified protein derivative (PPD) positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring blood product supportXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected communication between ventricles and resection cavity as a result of surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown BRCA1/2 status is not required for study entry; however patients known to have a germline deleterious BRCA1/2 mutation should be encouraged to consider a preoperative trial specifically designed for BRCA1/2 carriers, if availableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be willing to undergo mandatory research biopsy and blood draw; prior to biopsy procedures patients must be able to be off medications that could increase the risk of bleedingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior non-taxane or platinum containing chemotherapy will be allowed if the prior exposure was at least 5 years ago and the exposure is thought not to potentially interact with the primary outcome of the trial or put the patient at undue risk, and should be reviewed with study principle investigator (PI) on a case by case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant hearing loss that would prevent cisplatin administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal dysfunction for which exposure to cisplatin would be unsafe or require cisplatin dose modificationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medications required on dosing days that increase risk of torsades de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high-risk neuroblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSinusoidal obstruction syndrome (SOS) if present, must be stable or improving clinicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xX=< grade 2 hypercalcemia (applicable only for dose levels that include cis retinoic acid [RA])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other ongoing serious medical issues must be approved by the study chair prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a paraben allergy cannot take isotretinoin preparations containing this compound (i.e. Accutane, Sotret) but are eligible if they can take an alternate preparation without paraben; (applicable only for entry onto dose levels receiving isotretinoin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient declines participation in NANT 2004-05; unless the institution has been granted special exemption from mandatory enrollment on NANT 2004-05 by the NANT Operations CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXHas primary ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion of ECP in the treatment of any patient is contraindicated with any of the following:\r\n* Unstable hemodynamics requiring vasopressors or other support measures not amenable to or medically appropriate for continuation during the procedure\r\n* Uncontrolled infection\r\n* Inability to maintain acceptable venous access\r\n* Uncontrolled or uncorrectable coagulopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of a light-sensitive cutaneous diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with aphakiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary metastasis permissible; appropriate candidates with lung lesions may be considered for ablative hypofractionation using stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic metastasis permissible; appropriate candidates with metastasis to liver may be considered for ablative hypofractionation using SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xX> 85 years of age must be approved by principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any kind of non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC) histology documented by histology or cytology from bronchial brushing or washing, or needle aspiration of a defined lesion but not from sputum cytology aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are allergic to micafungin and/or voriconazole or any of their ingredientsXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) resulting in (or as evidenced by) declining platelet or hemoglobin (Hgb) levels within the 4 weeks prior to first dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of transfusion-dependent thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving the following drugs that are contraindicated with NFV will be excluded: antiarrhythmics amiodarone, quinidine), antimycobacterial (rifampin), ergot derivatives (dihydroergotamine, ergonovine, ergotamine, methylergonovine), herbal products (St. John’s wort), 3-hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitors (lovastatin, simvastatin), neuroleptic (pimozide), proton pump inhibitors, sedatives/hypnotics (midazolam, triazolam)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving the following drugs will be clinically evaluated as to whether dosage/medication can be changed to permit patient on study: anti-convulsants (carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin), anti-mycobacterial (rifabutin), PDE5 inhibitors (sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil), HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin), immunosuppressants (cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus), narcotic analgesic (methadone), oral contraceptive (ethinyl estradiol), macrolide antibiotic (azithromycin), Inhaled/nasal steroid (fluticasone), antidepressant (trazodone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of nodal disease greater than or equal to 15 mm in short axis as these findings are concerning for metastases that would not be targeted with radium-223 alone (Arm B); however, lymph nodes with short axis measurements between 1.5-3 cm that have not enlarged more than 5mm (to account for reader variability) over the last 6 months and which are not inducing symptoms, causing obstruction, or in the opinion of the investigator pose a risk of impending obstruction of any structures, will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary nodules > 10 mm\r\n* Pulmonary nodules > 10 mm that have been stable for > 6 months and are not clearly metastatic disease per the treating investigator are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of local recurrence in the prostate bedXx_NEWLINE_xXHad involvement in the planning and/or conduct of the study by association with the sponsor, study drug supplier(s) or study center or was previously enrolled in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects using certain medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPretreatment electrocardiography (EKG).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fully resected stage IIb through IV melanoma, with melanoma validated by histology or cytology, who have NOT received prior therapy\r\n* Patients may have had primary cutaneous, mucosal, or ocular melanoma or metastasis from an unknown primary site\r\n* Tissue should be submitted for evaluation of NY-ESO-1 expression and T-cell infiltrates; however, availability of tissue and/or positivity for NY-ESO-1 is not mandatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXVaccinations other than those given as part of this research study (with the exception of influenza vaccine) are prohibited throughout the duration of study participation\r\n* NOTE: Influenza vaccination (inactivated) is permitted during the flu season; the preferred time is 7 to 14 days after CDX-1401 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with histologically or cytologically proven lung or esophageal cancers, thymic or mediastinal germ cell tumors, malignant pleural mesotheliomas, or primary thoracic sarcomas, as well as patients with sarcomas, melanomas, germ cell tumors, or epithelial malignancies metastatic to the lungs, mediastinum, or pleura that have no clinical evidence of active disease (NED) or minimal residual disease (MRD) not readily accessible by non-invasive biopsy or resection/radiation following standard therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other cardiac diseases may be excluded at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI) following consultation with cardiology consultantsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects willing for repeat oral dosing and follow-up, including pharmacokinetic\n             samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXFor the Diabetes Expansion Cohort - Subjects who currently require insulin,\n             thiazolidinediones, dual proliferator-activated receptors (PPAR) agonists,\n             glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1) analogues, dipeptidyl peptidase (DPP-IV) inhibitors or\n             have received the same in the 4 weeks prior to screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known complications of diabetes like diabetic nephropathy or diabetic\n             retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXIf an ovarian cancer patient has a different histology than HGSC, but has a known germline BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation and meets all other criteria listed, that patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo current dependency on intravenous (IV) hydration or total parental nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo current or active dermatologic diagnoses that would preclude interpretation of skin toxicities of BKM120 and BYL719Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 2 or higher proteinuria and hematuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of NF2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of vestibular schwannomasXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progressive increase in vestibular schwannoma size or worsening hearing\n             loss due to vestibular schwannomaXx_NEWLINE_xXReliable venous access suitable for weekly study drug infusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen-vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be assigned to S1400BXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not require daily supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also be offered participation in banking for future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 TO GDC-0032 RE-REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impaired decision-making capacity are eligible as long as their neurological or psychological condition does not preclude their safe participation in the study (e.g., tracking pill consumption and reporting adverse events to the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xX-  Documented evidence of an exon 20 insertion activating mutation in the EGFR geneXx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable pacemaker or implantable cardioverter defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXResting bradycardia less than 55 beats/minXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unknown primary melanoma (Tx) who present with cutaneous, subcutaneous, nodal and/or lung metastases that are completely surgically resected with free margins are allowed; these patients are allowed even if they don’t fit the strict staging criteria; for stage IV patients LDH within the institutional ULN must be documented within 4 weeks prior to randomization (M1c is not eligible) \r\n* NOTE: all subjects should be classified as IIIB, IIIC, M1a or M1b including subjects with disease recurrence after adequate surgical excision of the original primary melanoma; that is the treating team/physician investigator should review an overall TNM status (that includes primary tumor presentation and disease recurrence status) and provide a designation of IIIB, IIIC, M1a or M1bXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should be carefully screened for depression at baseline and if there are indications or a history of depression it is strongly recommended that these patients be closely followed together with behavioral health or psychiatric medical support; patients with an established diagnosis of depression that, in the assessment of the investigator may make the administration of interferon (IFN)-alfa or ipilimumab hazardous, should not be enrolled on this protocol; the risks and benefits of being treated with standard adjuvant IFN-alfa should be weighed very carefully in consultation with behavioral health or psychiatryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have had any infectious disease vaccination (e.g., standard influenza, H1N1 influenza, pneumococcal, meningococcal, or tetanus toxoid) within 4 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXMonoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS) or smoldering myelomaXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood transfusion will be allowed for patients with hemoglobin less than 9 g/dl and filgrastim (G-CSF) is allowed for neutropenic patients at time of enrollment; chemotherapy treatment can only be administered 48 hours post G-CSF therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are ineligible to receive cisplatin:\r\n* Creatinine clearance of less than 60 mL/minute, hearing loss of 25 decibels (dB) at two contiguous frequencies, grade 2 or higher peripheral neuropathy, or New York Heart Association class III or higher heart failure\r\n* Hearing test will not be routinely done, it will only be done if patients report hearing loss at baseline or during treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or emphysema or interstitial lung disease currently on home supplemental oxygen; patients with NSCLC with stable COPD or emphysema not requiring supplemental oxygen are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with low risk (stage IA or IIA) nodular lymphocyte predominant histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: Patients who would be excluded from treatment on this protocol strictly for laboratory abnormalities can be included at the principal investigator’s discretion after consultation with the membership of the Texas Children's Cancer Center (TXCCC) Lymphoma TeamXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient eligibility will be based on a diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma or PNET by institutional pathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors arise in the dural and intra-dural soft tissues of the cranium and spine are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pathologic diagnoses other than Ewing sarcoma will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPeripheral lung nodule =< 2 cm on preoperative CT scan and presumed to be lung cancer; the center of the tumor, as seen on CT, must be located in the outer third of the lung in either the transverse, coronal or sagittal plane; patients with pure ground glass opacities or pathologically confirmed N1 or N2 disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic confirmation of NSCLC (if not already obtained)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of N0 status by frozen section examination; right sided tumors require that node levels 4, 7, and 10 be sampled and diagnosed as negative on frozen section; left sided tumors require that node levels 5 or 6, 7 and 10 be sampled and diagnosed as negative on frozen section; levels 4 and 7 nodes may be sampled by mediastinoscopy, endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS) and/or endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), or at the time of thoracotomy or VATS exploration; nodes previously sampled by mediastinoscopy (or EBUS and/or EUS) either immediately prior to or within 6 weeks of the definitive surgical procedure (thoracotomy or VATS) do not need to be resampledXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with M0 classic, non-desmoplastic medulloblastoma (R1) with radiographically measurable residual disease < 1.5 cm^2 are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluation of lumbar CSF cytology (cytospin preparation for microscopic evaluation) must be performed either pre-operatively or at least 10 days after definitive surgery unless contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry > 94% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXHold trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) on the day of high-dose methotrexate (HDMTX) infusion and continue to hold until the methotrexate level is less than 0.1 micromolar (1 x 10-7 M)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvoid probenecid, penicillins, cephalosporins, aspirin, proton pump inhibitors and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDS) on the day of methotrexate and continue until the methotrexate level is less than 0.1 micromolar (1 x 10-7 M) as renal excretion of methotrexate is inhibited by these agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXAvoid IV contrast media, urinary acidifiers, phenytoin, and fosphenytoin on the day of methotrexate and until the methotrexate level is less than 0.1 micromolar (1 x 10-7 M)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of enzyme inducing anticonvulsants (e.g. phenytoin, phenobarbital, and carbamazepine) should be avoidedXx_NEWLINE_xXActive disease per International Workshop on Chronic Lymphocytic (IWCLL) 2008 criteria, as defined as one of the following:\r\n* Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of, anemia and/or thrombocytopenia\r\n* Massive (i.e., at least 6 cm below the left costal margin) or progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly\r\n* Massive nodes (i.e., at least 10 cm in longest diameter) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy\r\n* Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of more than 50 percent over a two-month period or lymphocyte doubling time (LDT) of less than six months; LDT can be obtained by linear regression extrapolation of absolute lymphocyte counts obtained at intervals of two weeks over an observation period of two to three months; in patients with initial blood lymphocyte counts of less than 30 x 10^9/L (30,000/L), LDT should not be used as a single parameter to define a treatment indication; in addition, factors contributing to lymphocytosis or lymphadenopathy other than CLL (e.g., infection) should be excluded\r\n* Autoimmune anemia and/or thrombocytopenia that is poorly responsive to corticosteroids or other standard therapy\r\n* Constitutional symptoms, defined as any one or more of the following disease-related symptoms or signs: \r\n** Unintentional weight loss of 10 percent or more within the previous six months\r\n** Significant fatigue (i.e., ECOG performance scale [PS] 2 or worse; inability to work or perform usual activities) \r\n** Fevers higher than 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit (F) or 38.0 degrees Celsius (C) for two or more weeks without other evidence of infection\r\n** Night sweats for more than one month without evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the opinion of the investigator do not require rapid cytoreduction due to bulky disease (e.g. painful lymphadenopathy or organomegaly, or impending end-organ dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor MGMT methylation status must be available; results of routinely used methods for MGMT methylation testing (e.g. methylation-specific polymerase chain reaction [MSPCR ] or quantitative polymerase chain reaction [PCR]) are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXArm 1 patients must have not received bevacizumab previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXArm 2 patients must have progressed/recurred on bevacizumab as the most recent regimen; patients on arm 2 should continue on bevacizumab as clinically necessary to control brain edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have known sensitivity to TRC102 or any formulation excipientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED) are not eligible for treatment on this protocol; patients may be on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs or not be taking any anti-epileptic drugs; patients previously treated with EIAED may be enrolled if they have been off the EIAED for 10 days or more prior to the first dose of TRC102Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no limit to the number of prior chemotherapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with eribulin are allowed to participate in the microdialysis portion of the study onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXIf corticosteroids are required for controlling cerebral edema, patients must be on a stable dose of at least 1 week prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUnited Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) stage T1, T2, or T3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXExtrahepatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXImaging evidence of common bile duct obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious sphincterotomy or bilio-enteric anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant hepatic arterial to portal vein shunting in the area to be treatedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindications to treatment with LC Bead device (e.g. patients with large diameter arteriovenous shunts or patients with a right-to-left shunt)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitive or intolerant to any component of the study drug(s) formulationXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving growth factors (filgrastim, XM02-filgrastim, peg-filgrastim, plerixafor, etc) or undergoing apheresis < 7 days prior to the start of treatment on protocol (day -7)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTotal bilirubin =< 3.0 x the upper limits of normal (ULN) (biliary stenting or percutaneous biliary drainage are allowed for cancer related biliary obstruction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumor must be HER2-positive and retinoblastoma (RB)-proficient; RB-proficiency is determined by tumor biopsy demonstrating RB normal and cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A (p16in4a) low by immunohistochemistry; RB proficiency means that there is an intact RB pathway indicative of responsiveness to PD-0332991; RB staining is scored on an absent (no nuclear staining), weak (nuclear staining less than observed in endothelial cells and stromal cells surrounding the tumor), positive (nuclear staining at or above surrounding tissue) (0, 0.5, 1 respectively); p16ink4a is a routine clinical stain that is scored using absent, weak, positive, strong (0, 1, 2, 3 respectively); tumors will be scored using (p16)/(RB), where a score of less than 3 is required for inclusion; RB loss is expected to occur in less than 15% of cases; RB – proficiency will be done locally as standard of care and made available for central review at later time points in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with measureable or non-measureable disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo diagnosed psychosocial conditions that would hinder study compliance and follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be on a prophylactic regimen for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, or agree to begin such treatment, if the CD4 counts are < 200 cells/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must complete the filgrastim (G-CSF)/plerixafor mobilization of peripheral blood progenitor cells and must have collected at least 7.5 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg, sufficient for preparation of both, a back-up of 2.5 x 10^6 CD34+ cells and the research productXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch product must pass all release testsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny AIDS-related opportunistic infection occurring within the past year and for which treatment has been unsuccessful would be considered exclusionary, but this is done on a case-by-case basis as determined by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXActive cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis or other active CMV-related organ dysfunction; patients with a history of treated CMV infection are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active malignancies other than skin cancers are ineligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation on room air > 92 % by pulse oximetry; (patients on intermittent or continuous supplemental oxygen are not allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have adenocarcinomas of the ampulla, distal bile duct, and duodenumXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery within 4 weeks of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with radiographic ascites that is apparent on physical exam or requiring medical intervention (medication or procedures) in the 2 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known or suspected hypersensitivity to GM-CSF, hetastarch, corn, dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO), fetal bovine serum, or trypsin (porcine origin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPediatric patients with progressive DIPGXx_NEWLINE_xXConsensus following presentation of the case at the multidisciplinary Pediatric Neuro-Oncology conference, which includes participation of neuro-oncology, neurosurgery, radiation oncology, interventional neuroradiology and neurologyXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented severe allergic reaction to intravenous (IV) iodinated contrast, specifically bronchospasm and anaphylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with lymphomas are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening visceral disease or other severe concurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated patient survival under 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHIGH RISK PATIENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf recent mold infection (e.g. aspergillus) must have minimum of 30 days of therapy and responsive disease and be cleared by infectious diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious irradiation that precludes the safe administration of an additional dose of 200 cGy of TBIXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate or high grade NHL, mantle cell NHL, and Hodgkins disease that is progressive on salvage therapy; stable disease is acceptable to move forward provided it is non-bulkyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following:\r\n* Pregnant persons\r\n* Nursing persons\r\n* Persons of childbearing potential who are unwilling to employ adequate contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must have a Ki-67 index greater than 20% and/or > 20 mitotic figures/10 high-power fieldsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of rifampin or ketoconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be assigned to S1400DXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have had any prior exposure to any agent with FGFR inhibition as its primary pharmacologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any of the following ophthalmological criteria: current evidence or previous history of retinal pigmented epithelium detachment (RPED); previous laser treatment or intra-ocular injection for treatment of macular degeneration; current evidence or previous history of dry or wet age-related macular degeneration; current evidence or previous history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO); current evidence or previous history of retinal degenerative diseases (e.g. hereditary); or current evidence or previous history of any other clinically relevant chorioretinal defectXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also be offered participation in banking for future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 TO AZD4547 RE-REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any of the following ophthalmological criteria: current evidence or previous history of retinal pigmented epithelium detachment (RPED); previous laser treatment or intra-ocular injection for treatment of macular degeneration; current evidence or previous history of dry or wet age-related macular degeneration; current evidence or previous history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO); current evidence or previous history of retinal degenerative diseases (e.g. hereditary); or current evidence or previous history of any other clinically relevant chorioretinal defect; patients must have an eye exam performed within 28 days prior to Step 2 re-registration; patients with uncontrolled glaucoma or intra-ocular pressure >= 21 mm Hg at screening should be referred for ophthalmological management and the condition controlled prior to crossover registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impaired decision-making capacity are eligible as long as their neurological or psychological condition does not preclude their safe participation in the study (e.g., tracking pill consumption and reporting adverse events to the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with resected primary tumors who have documented metastases are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have a heart rate >= 100 beats per minute (bpm) or =< 45 bpm determined by the ECG recorder’s algorithm on the screening ECGXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with corneal epitheliopathy or any eye disorder that may predispose the subjects to drug-induced corneal epitheliopathy, or may interfere with diagnosis of treatment-emergent corneal epitheliopathy at the discretion of the investigator in consultation with the ophthalmologist/optometrist; low grades of superficial punctate keratitis, within the range seen in the normal population, should not lead to the exclusion of the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have previously received anetumab ravtansineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be assigned to S1400CXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also be offered participation in banking for future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 PALBOCICLIB RE-REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impaired decision-making capacity are eligible as long as their neurological or psychological condition does not preclude their safe participation in the study (e.g., tracking pill consumption and reporting adverse events to the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be willing and able to take pazopanib with a low-fat meal every day as specified in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAny concurrent health condition that in the view of the treating physician would pose excessive risk to the patient if enrolled in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) levels of > 1,000 IU per milliliter or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXHCV genotype 1, 2, 3, 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the patient is determined to be cirrhotic (based on criteria outlined earlier), the patient must have an ultrasound done within 6 months prior to enrollment with no evidence of hepatocellular carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphomas of other histologies other than the ones listed in inclusion aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an adequately functioning bladder after thorough evaluation by a urologist and have undergone as thorough a transurethral resection of the bladder tumor as is judged safely possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s comprehensive metabolic panel (CMP) must be done no more than 6 weeks prior to informed consent and the CMP levels must be within acceptable institutional limits or to the discretion of the treating physician, which may be the principal investigator of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients judged not to be candidates for radical cystectomy; patients with pN+ or T4b disease are considered to have unresectable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any stage of pathologically confirmed cluster of differentiation (CD)3+ acute, lymphoma, chronic, or smoldering subtypes of ATLLXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of HTLV infection (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay [ELISA]) in individual with confirmation of HTLV-1 infection (by immunoblot or polymerase chain reaction [PCR]) or a consistent clinical picture (including two of the following: 1) CD4+ leukemia or lymphoma, 2) hypercalcemia, and/or 3) Japanese, Caribbean or South American birthplace)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) =< 8%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a score >= 12 on the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ)-9 questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient selects a response of “1, 2 or 3” to question number 9 on the PHQ-9 questionnaire regarding potential for suicidal thoughts or ideation (independent of the total score of the PHQ-9)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with normal, mild or moderate hepatic dysfunction are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pacemaker or an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring anticonvulsants known to activate the cytochrome p450 system, in particular anticonvulsants such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, and phenobarbital, are not eligible; benzodiazepines and gabapentin are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXALL patients who cannot receive any asparaginase products (E. Coli, PEG-asparaginase, or Erwinia asparaginase) on this study (eg, due to prior severe pancreatitis, stroke or other toxicity) are not eligible; patients with clinically significant prior allergies to PEG-asparaginase are eligible if Erwinia L-asparaginase can be substitutedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible; infections controlled on concurrent anti-microbial agents are acceptable, and anti-microbial prophylaxis per institutional guidelines are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adverse-risk AML defined as poor-risk karyotype (complex, monosomal or other known poor risk cytogenetic abnormality), poor-risk mutations/fusion genes or known history of antecedent hematologic disorder, or treatment related AML, or be >= 60 years of ageXx_NEWLINE_xXCytogenetics, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or mutational analysis confirming adverse risk features must have been done within 90 days prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBreastfeeding mothers must agree to discontinue nursing if the mother is treated with selinexorXx_NEWLINE_xXAML with favorable risk cytogenetic abnormalities including t(15;17), t(8;21) or inv(16)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area >= 1.4 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented disease progression at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to be off prednisone or other immunosuppressive medications for at least 3 days prior to NK cell infusion (excluding preparative regimen pre-medications)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must be staged T1-4, N2b-3, M0 (human papillomavirus positive [HPV]+ or HPV negative [-]); patients with HPV+ tumors should have at least one high risk feature such as T4, N3, or smoking history of > 10 pack yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria =< +1 on dipstick or =< 1 gram/24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of distance metastases (M1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication; the following medications or non-drug therapies are prohibited: the concurrent use of all herbal supplements is prohibited during the study (including, but not limited to, St. John’s wort, kava, ephedra [ma huang], ginkgo biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], yohimbe, saw palmetto, or ginseng)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of visual loss syndromes, including but not limited to retinal vein occlusion (RVO), retinal detachment, macular degeneration, or visual migraine headachesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with history of acute within one year of study entry or past medical history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny Gleason score > 3 + 4 or Gleason score 3 + 4 with the secondary pattern exceeding 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) criteria of IV or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXUnfit for minimal sedation anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of coumadin or any other anticoagulant, unless anticoagulation can be temporarily reversed or stopped for a window of at least 7 days peri-procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate abscess, chronic or acute prostatitis, or neurogenic bladderXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of prior trans-urethral surgery requires cystoscopy for evaluation before study entry to rule out strictureXx_NEWLINE_xXRectal fissure, fibrosis, stenosis, or other anatomic abnormality precluding insertion of transrectal deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinary tract or rectal fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious urethral sling, artificial urinary sphincter or penile prosthesis surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXNo psychosocial conditions that would hinder study compliance and follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must complete the filgrastim (G-CSF)/plerixafor mobilization of peripheral blood progenitor cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have collected at least 5 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg by apheresis after cycle 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny AIDS-related opportunistic infection occurring within the past year and for which treatment has been unsuccessful would be considered exclusionary, but this is done on a case-by-case basis as determined by the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis or other active CMV-related organ dysfunction; patients with a history of treated CMV infection are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of HIV-associated encephalopathy; dementia of any kind; seizures in the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent malignant gliomasXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases detected below the tentorium or beyond the cranial vaultXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions or intolerance to any of the required agents on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas had a successful peripheral blood stem cell collection with G-CSF (filgrastim) +/- plerixafor (Mozobil) only; the target cell dose is >= 2.0 x10^6 CD34+ cells/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate size < 60 cc on transrectal ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-enrollment biopsy parameters (as per H.L. Moffitt C.C. review)\r\n* Minimum of 10 biopsy cores\r\n* Gleason score 6 or 7\r\n* Unilateral cancer (only right-sided or left-sided, not bilateral)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically unfit for anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMen who have received any hormonal manipulation (antiandrogens; luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone [LHRH] agonist; 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors) within the previous 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients’ AML must carry mutations in isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (IDH1) or IDH2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine =< 2mg/dXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXMammogram or ultrasonography (USG) performedXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of distant metastases documented clinically or radiographically with the exception of ipsilateral supraclavicular nodesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high risk or intermediate risk disease, defined below; staging evaluation should be determined by imaging studies and complete head and neck exam in accordance with the American Joint committee on Cancer Staging Manual, 7th edition\r\n* High risk patients must meet one of the following criteria: \r\n** Unresectable oral cavity\r\n** Larynx: T4 any N; T2-3 and >= N2a\r\n** Hypopharynx and p16(-) oropharynx: stage III-IVb except T1N1\r\n** p16(-) Oropharnyx: stage III-IVb except T1N1\r\n* Intermediate risk, p16(+) oropharynx patients must meet one of the following criteria:\r\n** T3 or >= N2a AND >= 10 pack-years tobacco exposure \r\n** T4 disease, irrespective of smoking status\r\n** N3 disease, irrespective of smoking status\r\n*** Note: for oropharyngeal patients, p16 status must be known, and can be performed at the local site; p16-positive disease is defined as >= 70% of tumor cells demonstrating diffuse nuclear and cytoplasmic staining by p16 immunohistochemistry (IHC); a positive test for human papilloma virus (HPV)-16 by in-situ hybridization (ISH), if this is the local site preference for assessing HPV status, may substitute for p16 IHC testing; p16 staining is not required for non-oropharyngeal sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors are excluded, with the exception of patients with bilateral tonsil cancers or patients with T1-2, N0, M0 resected differentiated thyroid carcinoma, who are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior severe infusion reaction to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant dermatological disease including but not limited to, skin drying and fissuring, paronychial inflammation, infectious sequelae (eg. blepharitis, cheilitis, cellulitis, cyst)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening, visceral metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one “target” lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1: REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must provide their personal smoking history prior to registration; the lifetime cumulative history cannot exceed 10 pack-years; the following formula is used to calculate the pack-years during the periods of smoking in the patient’s life; the cumulative total of the number of pack-years during each period of active smoking is the lifetime cumulative history\r\n* Number of pack-years = (frequency of smoking [number of cigarettes per day] x duration of cigarette smoking [years])/20 \r\n* Note: twenty cigarettes is considered equivalent to one pack; the effect of non-cigarette tobacco products on the survival of patients with p16-positive oropharyngeal cancers is undefined; cigar and pipe tobacco consumption is therefore not included in calculating the lifetime pack-years; marijuana consumption is likewise not considered in this calculation; there is no clear scientific evidence regarding the role of chewing tobacco-containing products in this disease; investigators are discouraged from enrolling patients with a history of very sustained use (such as several years or more) of non-cigarette tobacco products aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2: RANDOMIZATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 (REGISTRATION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCancers considered to be from an oral cavity site (oral tongue, floor mouth, alveolar ridge, buccal or lip), or the nasopharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx, even if p16 positive, or histologies of adenosquamous, verrucous, or spindle cell carcinomasXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically matted nodes, defined as 3 abutting nodes with loss of the intervening fat planeXx_NEWLINE_xXSupraclavicular nodes, defined as nodes visualized on the same axial imaging slice as the clavicleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be candidates for curative locoregional treatments; patients with recurrent locoregional disease following surgery and/or radiation for who a resection is unacceptably morbid and unlikely to be curative are eligible; patients must be reviewed at the Moffitt Cutaneous Tumor Board prior to enrolling on trial to verify unresectabilityXx_NEWLINE_xXClear BCMA expression must be detected on greater than 50% of malignant plasma cells from either bone marrow or a plasmacytoma by flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry; these assays must be performed at the National Institutes of Health; it is not required that the specimen used for BCMA determination comes from a sample that was obtained after the patient’s most recent treatment; BCMA expression will need to be documented on the majority of malignant plasma cells at some time after the original anti-BCMA CAR T-cell infusion in all patients undergoing a second anti-BCMA CAR T-cell infusion; if paraffin embedded unstained samples of bone marrow involved with MM or a plasmacytoma are available, these can be shipped to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) for BCMA staining, otherwise new biopsies will need to be performed for determination of BCMA expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 5% plasma cells in the peripheral blood leukocytesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on any anticoagulants except aspirin are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have active hemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I STUDY -- ARM A (DOSE LEVEL 1) AND ARM B (DOSE LEVEL 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED PHASE II STUDY -- ARMS C AND DXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patients must NOT have received prior Wee1 inhibitors or AZD1775Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patients with biliary stents are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: The patient is participating in the trial at an institutional which has agreed to perform the imaging research studies, completed the American College of Radiation Imaging Network (ACRIN) defined scanner qualification procedures and received ACRIN approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: The patient has consented in writing to participate in one of the imaging research studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT EXPANSION PHASE: Histological or cytopathological diagnosis of advanced/metastatic unresectable colorectal cancer with known rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (RAS) mutational status; patients with known B-Raf proto-oncogene, serine/threonine kinase (BRAF) mutations will not be eligible for the expansion cohort; all patients must have received and progressed or be intolerant of an oxaliplatin-containing regimen and an irinotecan-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown ophthalmological conditions as follows: intra-ocular pressure > 21 mmHg, or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of intra-ocular pressure); current or past history of central serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hyponatremia (sodium < 130 mmol/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with mixed small cell and non-small cell histologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently using metformin (metformin hydrochloride), other oral hypoglycemic agents or insulinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any history of allergic reaction to paclitaxel or other taxanes or carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of chronic kidney disease or lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with >= 10% weight loss within the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients enrolled on the study must be evaluable for hematologic toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 28%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area (BSA) of >= 0.53 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: \r\n* Patients with refractory or recurrent solid tumors (excluding central nervous system [CNS] tumors) and patients with unresectable translocation positive renal cell carcinoma (tRCC) are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse\r\n* The diagnosis of translocation morphology or transcription factor E (TFE) renal cell carcinoma is established by having characteristic morphology AND either a) strong nuclear TFE3 or TFEb staining on immunohistochemistry OR b) cytogenetic studies of the tumor demonstrating a TFE translocation OR c) fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) demonstrating a TFE translocationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have recovered from any VEGF blocking drug-related toxicity (proteinuria, hypertension, hepatotoxicity, and pancreatic toxicity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior sensitivity or intolerance to PI3K inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease-related: meeting one of the following diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology review by the study institution is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNon compliance to medications or medical instructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of appropriate caregiversXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all available anti-microbial drugs or intolerance to IV hydration due to pre-existing pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED); patients may be on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs or not be taking any anti-epileptic drugs; patients previously treated with EIAED may be enrolled if they have been off the EIAED for 10 days or more prior to the first dose of MLN0128Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of herbal supplements and other non-traditional medications; all herbal supplements and other non-traditional medications must be stopped before time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any of the following within 6 months prior to start of MLN0128:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant ST depression of >= 1.5 mm in 2 or more leads and/or T wave inversions in >= 2 leadsXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch blockXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block + left anterior hemiblock (bi-fascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement of inotropic support (excluding digoxin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAngina pectoris =< 12 months prior to starting drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPlacement of a pacemaker for control of rhythmXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled asthma or oxygen (O2) saturation < 90% by ABG (arterial blood gas) analysis or pulse oximetry on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXOther concomitant active malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (for Parts A, B and C): \r\n* Patients must have a body surface area (BSA) of >= 0.42 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: \r\n* Phase 1 (Part A)\r\n** Solid tumors (Part A1): patients with relapsed or refractory solid tumors including central nervous system (CNS) tumors without bone marrow involvement are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)\r\n** Ewing sarcoma or peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET) (Part A2): patients with relapsed or refractory Ewing sarcoma or peripheral PNET without bone marrow involvement will be eligible for Part A2 if there are no available slots on Part A1; these patients will be enrolled at one dose level below the dose level at which patients on Part A1 are actively enrolling, or at the starting dose level (dose level 1) if dose escalation has not yet occurred; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse\r\n* Phase 2 (Part B)\r\n** Ewing sarcoma or peripheral PNET: patients with relapsed or refractory Ewing sarcoma or peripheral PNET are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse\r\n* Phase 2 (Part C)\r\n** Acute lymphoblastic leukemias (ALL): patients must have 2nd or greater relapse of pre-B ALL or T-cell ALL; patients may not have refractory disease\r\n** Patients with ALL must have had histologic verification of the malignancy at the most recent relapse, including immunophenotyping to confirm diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients enrolled on Part A of the study must be evaluable for hematologic toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight >= 15 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum total bilirubin < 2 mg/dl; patients with Gilbert’s syndrome are excluded from the requirement of a normal bilirubin and patients will not be excluded if liver enzyme elevation is due to tumor involvement; NOTE: adult values will be used for calculating hepatic toxicity and determining eligibility, as is standard on Pediatric Oncology Branch (POB) phase I trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuropathic pain =< grade 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXResponse to first infusions:\r\n* Subjects who had a PR, or SD with clinical benefit may elect to receive a second infusion of cells; subjects that initially had a CR may only receive a second dose if evaluable disease recurs; clinical benefit is indicated by an improvement in the subject’s health status (eg, improved performance status or quality of life, decreased pain, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 60 days must have passed since the first cell infusion and the subject must not have experienced a dose limiting toxicity (DLT) in this timeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will NOT receive a second infusion of GD-2 CAR T cells if >= 5 % of the circulating T cells are GD2-CAR positive by flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXAn adequate number of cryopreserved GD2-CAR cells must be available, or an adequate number of cryopreserved PBMC from the original apheresis must be available to generate a second dose of GD2-CAR T cells; post-GD2 CAR apheresis will not be used to harvest peripheral blood mononuclear cell (PBMC) cells for the transduction for the second infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe cell dose (based on CAR transduced cells) for the second infusion shall not be greater than the current dose level completed or the MTD if this has been determined and not less than the first dose level of this study (1 x 10^5/kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be candidates for SRS and planning to undergo SRSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be candidates for ipilimumab as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be neurologically asymptomatic, or very minimally symptomatic, as judged by the treating physiciansXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine < 2.0 milligrams per deciliterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require WBRT or surgery at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive pulmonary disease requiring oxygen supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of spontaneous pneumothoraxXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of sinus or ear surgery, excluding myringotomy or ear tubesXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of SCCHNXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to cisplatin chemotherapy or plans to alter or reduce cisplatin therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have results from the determination of BAF250a immunohistochemistry (IHC) status and must have a BAF250a expression status that is currently open to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on, be ineligible for, or have declined participation in GOG-0254 provided that protocol is actively accruing patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe concomitant use of histamine (H)2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) with dasatinib is not recommended; the use of antacids should be considered in place of H2 blockers or proton pump inhibitors in patients receiving dasatinib therapy; if antacid therapy is needed, the antacid dose should be administered two hours before or after the dose of dasatinib; patients who cannot tolerate discontinuation of H2 blockers or PPIs are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXTherapeutic anticoagulation is not contraindicated, but for those patients on therapeutic anticoagulation, alteration in coagulation parameters is expected following initiation of dasatinib; for patients on therapeutic anticoagulation, coagulation parameters should be assessed weekly for the first cycle following initiation of dasatinib, weekly for the first cycle following a dose reduction, and weekly for a minimum of two weeks after stopping dasatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose circumstances do not permit completion of the study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically euthyroid; note: patients are permitted to receive thyroid hormone supplements to treat underlying hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior anti-cancer treatment with MLN9708 (ixazomib), histone deacetylase (HDAC), deacetylase (DAC), heat shock protein (HSP)90 inhibitors or valproic acidXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior participation in a randomized controlled study that included MLN9708 (ixazomib) in one of the treatment arms independent of whether assigned to MLN9708 (ixazomib) or notXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A9 (UGT1A9) inhibitor including: acitretin, amitriptyline, androsterone, cyclosporine, dasatinib, diclofenac, diflunisal, efavirenz, erlotinib, estradiol (17-beta), flutamide, gefitinib, gemfibrozil, glycyrrhetinic acid, glycyrrhizin, imatinib, imipramine, ketoconazole, linoleic acid, mefenamic acid, mycophenolic acid, niflumic acid, nilotinib, phenobarbital, phenylbutazone, phenytoin, and probenecid propofol, quinidine, ritonavir, sorafenib, sulfinpyrazone, valproic acid, and verapamil; patients must avoid UGT1A9 inhibitors from the screening period through active treatment with INCB024360 and for one week after discontinuation of INCB024360Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who had, within the past 6 months, a cardiovascular accident (CVA) or at risk for arterial thrombus such as severe peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and carotid artery disease (CAD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTherapy with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRIs) within the last 4 weeks or history of serotonin syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXLow-dose Coumadin (1 mg) is acceptable; however, doses that increase INR are not permitted; if an alternative to Coumadin-based anticoagulants cannot be used, the INR should be monitored weekly after initiation of therapy and upon discontinuation of INCB024360, until INR normalizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be newly diagnosed and have a confirmed histologic diagnosis of nodular desmoplastic (ND) medulloblastoma or medulloblastoma with extensive nodularity (MBEN) from rapid central pathology screening review; please note: patients with Gorlin syndrome are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have negative lumbar cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cytology (lumbar CSF must be obtained unless medically contraindicated); CSF cytology for staging should be performed preferably no sooner than 14 days post operatively to avoid false positive CSF, ideally, CSF should be obtained between day 14 and day 21 to allow for final staging status before enrollment onto the study; Note: patients with positive CSF cytology obtained prior to 14 days after surgery may have cytology repeated to determine eligibility and final CSF statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is allergic to 5-FC, leucovorin, or 5-FUXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be tolerating oral intakeXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic or untreated spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED):\r\n* History of RVO or RPED, or predisposing factors to RVO or RPED (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed localized high grade (G3) transitional cell carcinoma (urothelial carcinoma) of the bladder that is stage Ta, T1, and/or carcinoma in situ (CIS) confirmed by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI) 90 days prior to study entry; this can be obtained at an outside hospital prior to entry into the study or at the NCI; however, all outside pathology specimens will require that the formalin-fixed paraffin embedded tissues be re-read by the Laboratory of Pathology, NCI; for patients enrolled at collaborating trial sites, diagnosis must be confirmed by the Department of Pathology at the institution where the patient is enrolled on the trial; pathology can also be reviewed by the Laboratory of Pathology at the NCI if the participating trial site prefers another pathologic evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have failed at least one previous induction course of intravesical BCG, defined as histologically confirmed persistent or relapsing tumor present on post-BCG endoscopic evaluation; all BCG failures will be considered for inclusion into the study, including BCG-refractory, -resistant, and -relapsing; for the purposes of the study, “BCG-refractory” and “BCG-resistant” subjects will be considered to have “BCG-persistent” diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAltered immune function, including immunodeficiency or history of immunodeficiency; eczema; history of eczema, or other eczematoid skin disorders; or those with acute, chronic or exfoliative skin conditions (e.g. atopic dermatitis, burns, impetigo, varicella zoster, severe acne, or other open rashes or wounds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczematoid skin disorders, or (d) immunocompromised individuals, such as those with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExcisional biopsy or lumpectomy performed prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrinsic lung disease resulting in dyspneaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees that intravenous (IV) bisphosphonates will be withheld during the first 8 weeks of dasatinib therapy due to risk of hypocalcemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities indicative of arrhythmia (at the discretion of the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking drugs that are generally accepted to have a high risk of causing torsades de pointes including: quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide, amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide, erythromycins, clarithromycin, chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide, cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazine, ranolazine, and St. John’s wortXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require chronic oxygen therapy for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or pleural effusions (malignant or benign)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring comedication with potent P-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitors (including cyclosporine, azithromycin, erythromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, quinidine, phenobarbital salt with quinidine, ritonavir, valspodar, verapamil) or inducers (including rifampicin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTotal bilirubin >= 1.5 mg/dL (> 26 mol/L, International System of Units [SI] unit equivalent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED):\r\n* History of RVO or RPED, or predisposing factors to RVO or RPED (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mmHgXx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility of subjects receiving any medications or substances with the potential to affect the activity or pharmacokinetics of BMN 673 will be determined following review by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) up to 4 times ULN if thyroxine (T4) is normalXx_NEWLINE_xXT4 within normal limits; if abnormal and patient is receiving thyroid replacement therapy, the thyroid medication may be adjusted and the T4 may be re-testedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must express human leukocyte antigen (HLA) -A1+, -A2+, or -A3+ (80% of patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactate dehydrogenase (LDH) < 5 × upper limits of normal\r\n* (NOTE: these criteria will select against patients with bulky disease and will select for patients with less disease and earlier disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe following will not be exclusionary:\r\n* Resolved ipilimumab associated inflammatory disease\r\n* The presence of laboratory evidence of autoimmune disease (e.g., positive antinuclear antibody [ANA] titer) without associated symptoms\r\n* Subjects with vitiligo, thyroiditis, or atopic dermatitis, but otherwise not meeting this criterion may be enrolled; individual cases can be discussed with the sponsorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) that has required surgical or percutaneous intervention or documented PVD that requires medical management with medications such as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) + clopidogrel; patients with diabetes that is not well controlled are excluded from participation; not well controlled is defined as a hemoglobin (Hgb) A1C of greater than 7.5%Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A9 (UGT1A9) inhibitor including: acitretin, amitriptyline, androsterone, cyclosporine, dasatinib, diclofenac, diflunisal, efavirenz, erlotinib, estradiol (17-beta), flutamide, geftinib, gemfibrozil, glycyrrhetinic acid, glycyrrhizin, imatinib, imipramine, ketoconazole, lineoleic acid, mefenamic acid, mycophenolic acid, niflumic acid, nilotinib, phenobarbital, phenylbutazone, phenytoin, probenecid propofol, quinidine, ritonavir, Sorafenib, sulfinpyrazone, valproic acid and verapamil from screening through follow-up periodXx_NEWLINE_xXLow-dose Coumadin (1 mg) is acceptable; however, doses that increase INR are not permitted; if an alternative to Coumadin-based anticoagulants cannot be used, the INR should be monitored weekly after initiation of therapy and upon discontinuation of INCB024360, until INR normalizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measurable and histologically or cytologically confirmed thyroid cancer with a BRAF V600E or V600K (c. 1799 T to A and c.1799_1800TG>AA) mutation that is not considered curable by surgery; confirmation will be done at Memorial Sloan Kettering (MSK); only tumors with a BRAFV600E or BRAFV600K mutation will be eligible for the clinical study; BRAF status will be assessed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory; BRAF status may also be tested with any Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test (such as Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe tumor is considered to be radioactive-iodine refractory by any of the following criteria:\r\n* Total lifetime dose of radioactive iodine > 600 mCi\r\n* Absent or insufficient radioactive iodine uptake in either all lesions or an index lesion which has never been resected or received external beam radiation therapy as documented on a radioactive iodine scan (insufficient uptake must be confirmed by either an endocrinologist or nuclear medicine physician)\r\n* Progression of disease (by imaging or thyroglobulin) within 6 months of radioactive iodine treatment\r\n* Fludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG)-avid lesion (standard uptake variable maximum [SUVmax] >= 3) on a FDG-positron emission tomography (PET) scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of RAS mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study; Note: prospective RAS testing is not required; however if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have BRAFV600E or BRAFV600K mutations, identified by a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory (lab); if test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be providedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of rat sarcoma (RAS) mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study; Note: prospective RAS testing is not required; however, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST version 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are allowed to receive, but are not required to receive, one additional cytotoxic regimen for management of recurrent or persistent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have mucinous, squamous, sarcomas, or carcinosarcomasXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high or intermediate risk disease, defined as follows:\r\n* High risk: non-oropharyngeal subsite including larynx or hypopharynx (p16 status not required) or human papilloma virus (HPV)/p16- oropharynx subsite\r\n* Intermediate risk: HPV/p16+ oropharyngeal squamous cell cancer with: >= 10 pack (pk)-year (yr) smoking history and >= N2 nodal disease, or the presence of T4 tumor or N3 nodal disease, irrespective of smoking statusXx_NEWLINE_xXA cell block or core biopsy must be submitted for central review and analysis of SMAD4 status as soon as possible following step 1 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXCancer antigen 19-9 (CA19-9); NOTE: in the event that a stent has been placed and biliary obstruction has been relieved, the CA19-9 should be drawn post stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than one primary lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drug(s) involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION STEP 1: INITIAL RANDOMIZATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with non-secretory MM or known primary amyloidosis are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered participation in specimen submission for translational medicine studies and banking; with patient consent, specimens must be submittedXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION STEP 2: CROSSOVERXx_NEWLINE_xXAccording to current guidelines, patients must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after MLN8237 administration; these guidelines may change pending results from an ongoing food effects studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to MLN8237, including but not limited to established allergic reaction to benzodiazepines, or romidepsin; agents that alter gastric pH may change MLN8237 absorption are not permitted; proton pump inhibitors need to be stopped 4 days prior to the first dose of MLN8237; histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists are not permitted from the day prior (day -1) through to the end of MLN8237 dosing; antacid preparations are not permitted for 2 hours before or 2 hours after administration of MLN8237Xx_NEWLINE_xXEjection fraction (EF) < 40% or myocardial infarction (MI) within the past 3 months; known history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygen; or any conditions that could result in excessive toxicity associated with the benzodiazepine-like effects of MLN8237Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor, H2 antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous autologous or allogeneic HCT are allowed to enrollXx_NEWLINE_xXWith active infectious disease requiring deferral of conditioning, as recommended by an infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within institutional normal range – patients with thyroid disease are eligible if euthyroid on suppressive or replacement therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXRe-enrollment: Received at least 3 intravenous doses of ALT-803 with no dose-limiting toxicity (DLT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPost-transplant lymphoproliferative diseases (often referred to as Epstein-Barr virus [EBV]-associated lymphomas)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing active acute or chronic GVHD requiring immunosuppressive therapy or signs of acute (a)GVHD or chronic (c)GVHD requiring treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma, presently on chronic medications (a history of mild asthma not requiring therapy is eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS that has evolved to AML must be in remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be eligible for full ablative regimens by the attending physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have a psychosocial evaluation prior to transplant as per COH SOPXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS evolved into AML that is not in remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myeloproliferative neoplasmsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergies to clofarabine, melphalan, sirolimus or tacrolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have elevated calcitonin levels, greater than 8 pg/mL in females and 16 pg/mL in malesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with minimal or no disease related-symptoms (minimal symptoms will include those that do not affect activities of daily living or pain that does not require regularly scheduled narcotics)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo brain metastasis, history of seizures, encephalitis, or multiple sclerosisXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have no evidence of immune dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pericardial masses > 1 cm or thoracic lesions larger than 2 cm will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHypomethylating agent (azacitidine and/or decitabine) failure, defined as lack of response, disease progression, loss of response, or intolerance as deemed by the study investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXIndirect hyperbilirubinemia due to Gilbert’s disease or hemolysis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (WNL); supplementation is acceptable to achieve a TSH WNL; in patients with abnormal TSH however free T4 and free thyroxine index (FTI) are normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical or radiographic evidence of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven adrenocortical carcinoma (ACC) with the majority of disease confined to the peritoneal cavity and resectable or amenable to radiofrequency ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand their disease and the exploratory nature of combining surgery and HIPEC for this histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXChilds B or C cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of severe portal hypertension by history, endoscopy, or radiologic studies\r\n* Note: any diagnosis of portal hypertension or clinical stigmata of such including but not limited to gastric or esophageal varices, umbilical vein varices or telangiectasiasXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight < 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk neuroblastoma with persistent or relapsed diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oxygen (Ox) >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have autologous transduced activated T-cells with >= 20% expression of GD2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo rapidly progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven WM with relapsed/refractory symptomatic disease are eligible for\n             enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic disease, as defined by the IWWM, includes the following criteria:\n             Hemoglobin less than 10 g/dL, platelet count less than 100,000 uL, bulky adenopathy\n             or organomegaly, symptomatic hyperviscosity syndrome, severe neuropathy, amyloidosis,\n             cryoglobulinemia, cold agglutinin disease, or evidence of transformation high-grade\n             non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma must be documented to contain a BRAFV600 mutation by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in any previous study involving sipuleucel-TXx_NEWLINE_xXAny infection requiring parenteral antibiotic therapy or causing fever (temperature > 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F] or 38.1 degrees Celsius [C]) within 1 week prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not a candidate for an unrelated donor allogeneic HSCT based on the current institutional BMT program clinical practice guidelines; organ function criteria will be utilized per the current institutional BMT program clinical practice guidelines; there will be no restriction to study entry based on hematological parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing a total body irradiation (TBI)-based conditioning regimen (TBI 1200 cGy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have never received trastuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on warfarin (patients on injectable blood thinners, such as Lovenox, are able to continue those)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of these drugs at baseline and for the duration of digoxin administration (if randomized to receive it):\r\n* The calcium channel blockers diltiazem or verapamil\r\n* Cardiac arrhythmic agents (such as quinidine, amiodarone)\r\n* Other cytochrome P450 (P450) inducer/inhibitors\r\n* NOTE: patients already receiving digoxin are also excluded; patients who take calcium carbonate antacids (e.g., Maalox, Tums, Rolaids) or antidiarrheal adsorbents (kaolin and pectin) should avoid taking these at the same time as the digoxin doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with group classification A disease, or group classification B stage I or II disease with normal lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level AND tumor mass less than 7 cm; NOTE: Patients who would be excluded from treatment on this protocol strictly for laboratory or performance status abnormalities can be included at the principal investigator’s discretion after consultation with the members of the Texas Children's Hospital (TXCH) Lymphoma TeamXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of >= 10 pack-years of smoking cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment (or assignment) in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXCharlson index of comorbidity score =< 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of pelvic irradiation for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a matched or partially matched UCB unit with >= 2.5 x10^7 nucleated cells/kg of recipient weight at the time of cryopreservationXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere hypoxemia with room air pulmonary arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) < 70, supplemental oxygen dependence, or DLCO < 50% predictedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking other insulin secretagogues and/or insulinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of pancreatitis, cholelithiasis, alcoholism, or fasting hypertriglyceridemia (> 2 x ULN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic assessment of the mediastinum to document involved nodal stationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AND II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ureteral obstruction (i.e., hydronephrosis identified on CT imaging) must undergo stent or nephrostomy tube placement prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have an audiogram at baseline, and patients with pre-existing hearing loss or hearing loss during treatment should be assessed frequently during cisplatin therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have circumstances that will not permit completion of this study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal abnormalities, such as pelvic kidney, horseshoe kidney, or renal transplantation, that would require modification of radiation fieldsXx_NEWLINE_xXDue to the possible effect of treatment with ipilimumab on the immunologic response to infectious disease vaccines, patients must not have had any infectious disease vaccination (e.g, standard influenza, H1N1 influenza, pneumococcal, meningococcal, tetanus toxoid) within 4 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a complete cytogenetic response (CCyR) OR must have been on nilotinib for a minimum of six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe dose of nilotinib for patients receiving the drug in the second line setting due to failure of a first line TKI is generally 400 mg PO BID; in addition, if a patient is unable to tolerate second line nilotinib at 400 mg PO BID their dose may be decreased to 300 mg PO BID; in both instances they will be eligible for phase IXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are in accelerated phase or blast phase CMLXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal granulocytes of 1000 per mcL or moreXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a positive screening Epstein Barr virus (EBV) antibody titre on screening test as this is required to protect against EBV infection during the time of lymphodepletionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with antibiotic allergies per se are not excluded; although the production of TIL for adoptive transfer includes antibiotics, extensive washing after harvest will minimize systemic exposure to antibioticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received ipilimumab in the past are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAs patients with steroid refractory acute GvHD are quite ill with multiple abnormal labs and organ dysfunction, there are no explicit laboratory values or degree of organ dysfunction that specifically preclude enrollment on this study; baseline lab studies will be obtained and followed throughout this trial as the standard of care for patients with GvHDXx_NEWLINE_xXVasopressor requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known antibodies to immunoglobulin (Ig)AXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hyperlipidemia (total cholesterol > 350 or triglycerides > 300)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically confirmed diagnosis of B-NHL, T-NHL, or HL; only patients with classical HL must have documented histologic demonstration of CD45+ cells adjacent to the Reed Sternberg cells; patients must have received at least one prior standard systemic therapy with documented recurrent or refractory disease; patients with mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), T-NHL, or other high-risk malignancies may be enrolled/transplanted in complete remission (CR)/first partial remission (PR1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients eligible for therapeutic study must have a minimum of >= 2 x 10^6 CD34/kg autologous hematopoietic stem cells harvested and cryopreservedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an expected survival of > 60 days and must be free of major infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA), to be determined before each infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwest Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status >= 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXEndometrial cancer:\r\n* Patients with the following histologic features are eligible for pelvic radiation therapy without weekly cisplatin:\r\n** < 50% myometrial invasion, grade 3 adenocarcinoma without uterine serous carcinoma (USC) or clear cell histology\r\n** >= 50% myometrial invasion, grade 1-2 adenocarcinoma without USC or clear cell histology\r\n* Patients with the following histologic features may be treated with pelvic radiation with or without weekly cisplatin; the decision to add weekly cisplatin for these patients is at the treating physician’s discretion:\r\n** >= 50% myometrial invasion, grade 3 including USC and clear cell carcinoma\r\n** International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) 2009 stage II endometrial cancer of any grade including USC and clear cell carcinoma\r\n** FIGO 2009 stage IIIC1 (pelvic lymph node positive only, para-aortic nodes sampled and negative if removed) including USC and clear cell carcinoma; Note: if para-aortic nodes are not removed, CT abdomen or PET CT must demonstrate no evidence of lymphadenopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXCervical cancer:\r\n* Patients with the following pathology findings may be treated with pelvic radiation with or without weekly cisplatin at the treating physician’s discretion; the decision to add weekly cisplatin for these patients is at the treating physician’s discretion\r\n** Patients with intermediate-risk features including two of the following histologic findings after radical hysterectomy:\r\n*** 1/3 or more stromal invasion\r\n*** Lymph-vascular space invasion\r\n*** Large clinical tumor diameter (> 4 cm)\r\n** Patients with cervical cancer treated with a simple hysterectomy with negative margins\r\n* Patients with any of the following criteria following radical hysterectomy are eligible for this study and must receive weekly cisplatin:\r\n** Positive resected pelvic nodes and para-aortic nodes negative if removed: Note: if para-aortic nodes are not removed, CT abdomen or PET CT must demonstrate no evidence of lymphadenopathy\r\n** Microscopic parametrial invasion with negative marginsXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to complete the bowel and urinary domains of the EPIC prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXMental status changes or bladder control problems that make the patient unable to comply with bladder-filling instructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking history < 10 pack-year or equivalent (including cigarettes, cigars, pipes, chewing tobacco, and/or marijuana); one cannabis joint is equivalent of 5 cigarettes; smoking status definitions (National Health Interview Survey and Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System):\r\n* Smokers: smoking now every day or some days in past month\r\n* Quitters: at least 100 cigarettes/lifetime and not smoking in the past 1-12 months\r\n* Former smoker: at least 100 cigarettes/lifetime and not smoking > 12 months\r\n* Never smokers: < 100 cigarettes (or equivalent)/lifetimeXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocyte > 1500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with immune deficiency are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal granulocytes of 1000 per mcL or moreXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a positive screening Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) antibody titre on screening testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with antibiotic allergies per se are not excluded; although the production of TIL for adoptive transfer includes antibiotics, extensive washing after harvest will minimize systemic exposure to antibioticsXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular AML-risk group is less-than-favorable as defined by any of the following criteria:            \r\n* The absence of good-risk karyotype t(8;21), inv(16), t(16;16), or t(15;17)identified by metaphase karyotype\r\n* The absence of t(8;21), inv(16), t(16;16), or t(15;17) identified by fluorescent in situ hybridization(FISH)\r\n* The absence of the corresponding fusion transcripts, AML1-eight-twenty-one corepressor (ETO), core-binding factor, beta subunit (CBF?)-smooth muscle myosin heavy chain (SMMHC), or progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)-retinoic acid receptor alpha (RARa), identified by reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)\r\n* Patient does not have acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL, French-American-British [FAB] M3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCumulative lifetime dose of anthracycline chemotherapeutic > 80 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart C: Patients must have a body surface area (BSA) >= 1.07 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXParts A and B: Patients who are able to swallow liquid or use a nasogastric or gastrostomy (G) tube are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a CD19-expressing B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) or lymphoma and must have relapsed or refractory disease after at least one standard chemotherapy and one salvage regimen; in view of the principal investigator (PI) and the primary oncologist, there must be no available alternative curative therapies and subjects must be either ineligible for allogeneic stem cell transplant (SCT), have refused SCT, or have disease activity that prohibits SCT at this timeXx_NEWLINE_xXCD19 expression must be detected on greater than 15% of the malignant cells by immunohistochemistry or greater than 30% by flow cytometry in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) approved test in the Laboratory of Pathology, Center for Cancer Research (CCR), National Cancer Institute (NCI), National Institutes of Health (NIH) or from the referring institution or reference laboratory; the choice of whether to use flow cytometry or immunohistochemistry will be determined by what is the most easily available tissue sample in each patient; in general immunohistochemistry will be used for lymph node biopsies, flow cytometry will be used for peripheral blood and bone marrow samplesXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 15 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate absolute CD3 count estimated to be required to obtain target cell dose based on discussion with Department of Transfusion Medicine (DTM) apheresis and Cell Processing Section, DTMXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or refractory ALL limited to isolated testicular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperleukocytosis (>= 50,000 blasts/uL) or rapidly progressive disease that in the estimation of the investigator and sponsor would compromise ability to complete study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBulky disease by CT, defined as any single mass > 10 cm in its greatest diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline BNP > 2 x IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior IPHC/HIPECXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with carcinoid tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior HIPECXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of more than one antihypertensive medication.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 12 months prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, or vitamin D deficiency, or\n             clinical evidence of other conditions known to associated with hypocalcemia,\n             including:, hypoalbuminemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypomagnesemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCluster of differentiation (CD)4 count > 400 cells/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive autoimmune disease, chronic inflammatory condition, conditions requiring concurrent use of any systemic immunosuppressants or steroids; mild-intermittent asthma requiring only occasional beta-agonist inhaler use or mild localized eczema will not be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically significant oral cGVHD after allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) with severity score of at least 2 on erythema subset and/or at least 1 on ulceration subset and a composite score >= 20 of the OMRS scale confirmed by the principal investigator (PI), clinical study chair (CSC), or lead associate investigator (LAI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the ability and willingness to come to Clinical Center for bi-weekly follow-up appointmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not be taking any herbal supplements during the study (including but not limited to St. John’s wort, kava, ephedra [ma huang], gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], yohimbe, saw palmetto, or ginseng); if a potential patient is taking any herbal supplements, s/he must discontinue prior to beginning study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xX< Grade 2 hypo/hyperkalemiaXx_NEWLINE_xX< Grade 3 hypo/hypercalcemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide mandatory blood samples for pazopanib drug level assessments required for dosage adjustments, as well as for required pharmacogenomic studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving a medication with known risk of torsades de pointes; the following medications are specifically prohibited: amiodarone, arsenic trioxide, bepridil, chloroquine, chlorpromazine, cisapride, clarithromycin, disopyramide, dofetilide, dolasetron, droperidol, erythromycin, halofantrine, haloperidol, ibutilide levomethadyl, mesoridazine, methadone, pentamidine, pimozide, procainamide, quinidine, sotalol, sparfloxacin, and thioridazine; patients should be watched carefully for indications of torsades de pointes, such as syncope; performing additional electrocardiograms (EKGs) on subjects who must take one or more of these medications is not required; however, additional investigations, including EKGs, may be performed as per the treating physician’s judgmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of coronary artery bypass grafting or angioplasty will receive a cardiology evaluation and be considered on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be excluded at the discretion of the PI/LAI if it is deemed that allowing participation would represent an unacceptable medical or psychiatric riskXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of T790M mutation in EGFR following disease progression on the\n             first single agent EGFR TKI.Xx_NEWLINE_xX-Xx_NEWLINE_xXApproval for hydroxychloroquine treatment by an eye doctor, based on a screening eye exam; examples of disqualifying baseline conditions may include macular degeneration and other retinal disease such as cataracts that would interfere with required funduscopic examinations, or severe baseline visual impairment, retinopathy or visual field changes; all patients must undergo a screening eye exam prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic patients requiring insulin for glucose control at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have psoriasis or porphyriaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have retinal or visual field changes from prior 4-aminoquinoline compound useXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory or relapsed HL patients that are also candidates for ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 10% of the cells obtained from lymph node, or extranodal sites must react with anti-CD25 (anti-Tac) on immunofluorescent or immunoperoxidase staining; patients with CD25-positive infiltrating T cells will be eligible even if their Hodgkin’s (Reed-Sternberg) cells are CD25-negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled on another therapeutic studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with serum human anti-human antibody (HAHA) against daclizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients with a history of tamoxifen or raloxifene use within two years of current DCIS diagnosis are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum estradiol level assay (required for patients < 55 years of age and one year or more of amenorrhea) < 20 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treated with other secondary hormonal therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women and members of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 25%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be tested for human leukocyte antigen A0201 (HLA-A0201) as determined by flow cytometry followed by molecular analysis of a peripheral blood specimen; however this result will not be an inclusion criterionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny acute medical problems requiring active interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who at the discretion of the investigator are deemed to have rapidly progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must agree to submit tissue (i.e., the original haematoxylin/eosin [H/E]-stained slides and immunohistochemistry studies) for central pathology review post-registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cranial irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to any of the study drugs involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete blood count, differential and platelet count must be within normal limits (WNL) or verified by the study chair to be related to conditions not interfering with normal health statusXx_NEWLINE_xXAccessible for follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral prophylactic mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting non-malignant disease that would preclude the administration of pasireotideXx_NEWLINE_xXTamoxifen or other preventive measures within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol misuse/abuse within the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXGall bladder disease or bile duct diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cholecystitis without cholecystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrolyte abnormalities (particularly hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of syncope or family history of idiopathic sudden deathXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant disease(s) that could prolong QT such as autonomic neuropathy (caused by diabetes, or Parkinson's disease), human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), cirrhosis, uncontrolled hypothyroidism or cardiac failureXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of complete or partial bowel obstruction or other unable to take oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXPre- or post-menopausal women with stage I and II breast cancer, triple negative tumors (upper limit of positivity < 10% for estrogen receptors, < 20% for progesterone receptors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphopenia, cluster of differentiation (CD)4 lymphopenia, leukopenia, and anemia will not render patients ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFanconi anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: History of medical illness that in the estimation of the PI or DTM/NMDP physician poses prohibitive risk to donation including, but not limited to, stroke, hypertension that is not controlled with medication, or heart disease; individuals with symptomatic angina or a history of coronary bypass grafting or angioplasty will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one of the following indicators of poor risk disease:\r\n* >= 3 risk factors by the Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index, or 2 risk factors by the Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index and at least one bulky mass or lymph node > 6 cm in size \r\n* Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index (FLIPI score):\r\n** Age > 60 years\r\n** Involvement of > 4 nodal sites\r\n** Stage III-IV disease\r\n** Hemoglobin < 12.0 g/dL\r\n** Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > upper limit of normal (ULN)\r\n*** 0-1 of the above risk factors: low risk\r\n*** 2 risk factors: intermediate risk\r\n*** >= 3 risk factors: poor riskXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,000/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXIn subjects between 65 and 75 years of age, physiologic age and co-morbidity will be thoroughly evaluated before enrolling; specifically, any history of cardio-vascular pathology or symptoms, not clearly fitting the exclusion criteria will prompt an evaluation by a Clinical Center Cardiologist and eligibility will be considered on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cerebro-vascular accident within 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of documented pulmonary embolus within 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of coronary artery bypass grafting or angioplasty will receive a cardiology evaluation and be considered on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of childbearing age who are unwilling to practice contraception or other means of avoiding pregnancyXx_NEWLINE_xXCertain medications that are associated with a risk for QTc prolongation and/or torsades de pointes, although not prohibited, should be avoided or replaced with medications that do not carry these risks, if possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis within 30 days of registration; Note: patients who have minimal bleeding from the mouth, which is clearly not related to a source in the lungs, i.e., surgery such as a non-lung biopsy, are eligible only after good hemostasis has been documentedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drug(s) involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of a high-grade malignant glioma is required; histologic diagnoses include, but are not limited to, anaplastic astrocytoma and glioblastoma multiforme; patients with DIPG are exempt from histologic verification if they have typical MRI findings of DIPG (i.e. hypo- or isointense on T1-weighted imaging, hyperintense on fluid-attenuated inversion recovery [FLAIR] or T2-weighted imaging, epicenter in the pons, > 50% of pons involved) in the face of a typical clinical presentationXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed patients may need to be on steroids due to surgery or control of neurologic symptoms; patients on steroids postoperatively or for control of tumor-related edema are eligible, but attempts to keep patients on the lowest dose necessary to control symptoms should be madeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an HGG that was completely resected with good marginsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body surface area (BSA) =< 0.4 m^2 are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had a thromboembolic event that is not line-related are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients identified as needing spinal radiation at diagnosis (e.g. spinal metastasis or malignant cells identified on cerebrospinal fluid [CSF] cytology) are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) >= 18 prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXRecursive partitioning analysis (RPA) class I (KPS >= 70, primary cancer controlled, age < 65, metastases in brain only) or class II (lack of one or more of class I criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRPA class III (KPS < 70)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo metastases to brain stem, midbrain, pons, or medulla or within 7 mm of the optic apparatus (optic nerves and chiasm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have experienced at least one and at most two relapses prior to study enrollment; patients with primary refractory disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHypertension must be well controlled (=< 95th percentile for age and height if patient is =< 17 years) on stable doses of medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a known thrombophilic condition (i.e. protein S, protein C or antithrombin III deficiency, Factor V Leiden, Factor II G20210A mutation, homocysteinemia or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome); testing is not required in patients without thrombophilic historyXx_NEWLINE_xXAfter surgery, a pathological diagnosis of malignant glioma (WHO Grade III or IV) will need to be establishedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immunodeficiency (e.g., human immunodeficiency virus [HIV]) or autoimmune disease (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, vasculitis, polymyositis-dermatomyositis, scleroderma, multiple sclerosis, or juvenile-onset insulin-dependent diabetes) that may be exacerbated by immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed primary adenocarcinoma of the esophagus that involves the mid (up to 25 cm), distal, or esophagogastric junction; the cancer may involve the stomach up to 5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXEndoscopy with biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cervical esophageal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T1N0 disease, T4 disease, and proximal esophageal cancers (15-24 cm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior anthracycline or taxaneXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of tracheoesophageal fistula or invasion into the trachea or major bronchiXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindications to esophagectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drugs involved in this protocol or to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXAll stages of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent radiation, with or without steroids, or steroids alone for emergency conditions secondary to lymphoma (i.e. cord compression, etc.) will be permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival < 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cutaneous or mucocutaneous reactions, or diseases in the past, due to any cause, severe enough to cause hospitalization or an inability to eat or drink for > 2 days; this exclusion relates to the long-term possibility of severe cutaneous or mucocutaneous reactions to rituximab that might occur at increased frequency in participants who have had severe skin disease or reactions in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of zidovudine or cobicistat as part of the HAART regimen (a drug substitution at the time of study entry is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive staining of the most recently resected tumor tissue with antibodies to 1 or more of the following: human melanoma black (HMB) 45 for glycoprotein (gp) 100, NY-ESO-1, and/or melanoma-associated antigen recognized by T cells (MART)-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1,500 cells/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500 cells/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal (=< upper limit of normal) levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), free T4, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), morning AM cortisol, amylase and lipase are required for entry to cohorts 4, 5 and 6 (AM cortisol testing may be taken up to 5 pm per Moffit Cancer Center guidelines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with an anti-PD-1, anti-programmed death-ligand (PD-L)1, anti-PDL-2, or anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA-4) antibody (or any other antibody targeting T cell co-stimulation pathways)\r\n* In the fourth cohort at 3 mg/kg of BMS-936558, ten patients will be accrued that have had prior anti-CTLA-4 antibody at 3 or 10 mg/kg, and have not had any dose limiting immune-related adverse events (irAE) as defined in this protocol, i.e. none, or grades 1 or 2 non-dose limiting toxicity\r\n* In an additional fifth cohort, also at 3 mg/kg of BMS-936558, twenty patients will be accrued that have had prior anti-CTLA-4 antibody at 3 or 10 mg/kg, and may have had a dose limiting irAE of grades 3 or 4 as defined in this protocol\r\n* After amendment 9, grade 4 hepatotoxicity, skin toxicity or pancreatic enzyme elevations that did not require infliximab, mycophenolic acid, or any immune suppressive treatment beyond steroids will be allowed; those who experienced grade 4 colitis, hypophysitis, neurologic changes or any other grade 4 side effect other than liver, pancreatic or skin related will still be excluded from this cohort; after amendment 12, those with grades 3-4 side effects that required treatment with any immune suppressive in addition to steroids will be allowed in cohort 5; those with grade 4 side effects other than GI, endocrine, skin, liver and pancreatic will still be excluded from entry to cohort 5\r\n* In the sixth cohort at 3 mg/kg of BMS-936558, an extension cohort of sixty patients will be accrued that have had prior anti-CTLA-4 antibody at 3 or 10 mg/kg, and have not had any dose limiting irAE as defined in this protocol, i.e. they would have had none, or grade 1 or grade 2 non-dose limiting toxicity from ipilimumab\r\n* Within cohort 6, up to ten patients may be included that have four or fewer untreated brain metastases, with no lesion larger than 2 cm, and no evidence of cerebral edema requiring steroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have collecting duct or medullary carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have pre-existing thyroid abnormality with thyroid stimulating hormone that cannot be maintained at less than or within the normal range with medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll potential subjects should be evaluated for whether breast cancer (BRCA)1-2 testing is medically appropriate; individuals who have a 10% or higher risk of having a BRCA1-2 mutation (Myriad tables at www.myriad.com) are encouraged (but not required) to have mutation testing and results known; information regarding mutation status (positive [including specific mutation], negative, or unknown) and projected risk of having a mutation (as determined by Myriad tables) will be collected at the time of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of complete or partial bowel obstruction or other unable to take oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologic proof of active AML at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with and without FLT3 mutations will be eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior azacitidine, decitabine, or midostaurinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an abnormal chest X-ray and/or any pulmonary infiltrate including those suspected to be of infectious origin; in particular, patients with resolution of clinical symptoms of pulmonary infection but with residual pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray are not eligible until pulmonary infiltrates have completely resolvedXx_NEWLINE_xXInstitutions must seek additional patient consent for the banking and future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not be receiving any medication that may markedly affect renal function (e.g., vancomycin, amphotericin, pentamidine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have had clinically significant hemoptysis, defined as greater than 1 tablespoon of bright red blood, within one year prior to registration; although hemoptysis has not been associated with cediranib, it may be a class effect for anti-angiogenic agents and therefore a risk factor for this experimental agentXx_NEWLINE_xXAutologous graft with a minimum of >= 3.0 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg; not CD34 selectedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is, at the time of signing informed consent, a regular user (including \recreational use\) of any illicit drugs, substance abuse or had a recent history (within the last year) of drug or alcohol abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly-controlled DMXx_NEWLINE_xXMyocardial infarction (MI) with ASCT or developed dilated cardiomyopathy with ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be entered between 1 and 12 weeks after initial surgery performed for the combined purpose of diagnosis, staging and cytoreductionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirements specifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXCTEP CTCAE version 4.0, grade 2 or higher peripheral ischemia (brief [< 24 hours (hrs)] episode of ischemia managed non-surgically and without permanent deficit)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and who require parenteral hydration or nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXUnintentional weight loss >= 5% of body weight within the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior severe infusion reaction to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of liver confined hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) confirmed by histology or American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases (AASLD) guidelines\r\n* Lesions < 1 cm in diameter have a low likelihood of being malignant and should be followed; lack of growth over 1-2 years suggests it is not HCC\r\n* Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) > 200 and radiological evidence (arterial hypervascularity) of lesion > 2 cm does not require biopsy\r\n* Two imaging modalities (triphasic computed tomography [CT], MRI, ultrasound, angiography) demonstrating “arterial hypervascularity” in the background of cirrhosis does not require biopsy\r\n* One imaging modality with a lesion with arterial hypervascularity with wash out in early or delayed venous phase, does not require a biopsy\r\n* Atypical appearances on imaging requires a biopsy\r\n* Non-conclusive biopsy requires closer monitoring \r\n* For non-cirrhotics (by biopsy or imaging findings), diagnosis of HCC requires biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo segmental, lobar or main portal vein thrombosis as evidence by cross sectional imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXChilds score of A or BXx_NEWLINE_xX* Phase 1 (Part A2) - COMPLETE: Patients with confirmed ALK fusion proteins, ALK mutations, ALK amplification (defined as greater than 4-fold increase in the ALK signal number as compared to reference signal number on chromosome 2q arm) or MET proto-oncogene, receptor tyrosine kinase (MET) mutation or amplification; testing to confirm the presence of ALK fusion proteins, ALK mutations, ALK amplification or evidence of MET mutation or amplification for eligibility purposes must be performed as a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified assay; ALK immunohistochemistry can be used as a surrogate for fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) for patients with inflammatory myofibroblastic tumors (IMT) or ALCLXx_NEWLINE_xX** Note: Evidence for MET mutation or amplification is defined as:\r\n*** Positive for c-Met amplification by FISH; or\r\n*** Positive for known c-Met kinase domain activating mutations including V1110L, H1112L, H1112Y, H1124D, M1149T, T1191I, V1206L, L1213V, V1238I, M1268T, P1009S, T1010I, R988C, V941L, but excluding Y1248C, Y1248H, Y1248D, and Y1253D; or\r\n*** Chromosomal translocations that lead to altered transcriptional regulation of c-Met and/or hepatocyte growth factor (HGF) including metastatic alveolar soft part sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, or translocation associated renal cell carcinoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xX* Phase 1 (Part A3) - COMPLETE: Patients with relapsed or refractory neuroblastoma, with or without bone marrow involvement, who are not eligible for Part A1 or A2 or cannot enroll on Part A1 because of stratum suspension or lack of available slots (these patients will be enrolled at one dose level below the dose level at which patients on Part A1 are actively enrolling)Xx_NEWLINE_xX* Phase 2 (Part B): Patients with ALK+ relapsed or refractory neuroblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xX* Phase 2 (Part C): Patients with ALK+ relapsed or refractory ALCL (excluding patients with primary cutaneous ALCL)Xx_NEWLINE_xX* Phase 2 (Part A2): Patients with diagnoses other than neuroblastoma or ALCL with confirmed ALK fusion proteins, ALK mutations, ALK amplification (defined as greater than 4-fold increase in the ALK signal number as compared to reference signal number on chromosome 2q arm) or MET mutation or amplification; testing to confirm the presence of ALK fusion proteins, ALK mutations, ALK amplification or evidence of MET mutation or amplification for eligibility purposes must be performed as a CLIA-certified assay; ALK immunohistochemistry can be used as a surrogate for FISH for patients with IMTXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of acute or lymphomatous ATL by flow cytometry of blood or immunohistochemistry of biopsy tissue, confirmed by National Cancer Institute (NCI) Laboratory of Pathology, and previously treated unless the patient is ineligible for or refuses other protocols or treatments for ATLXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or prior features of acute (corrected calcium [Ca]++ > 2.73 or lactate dehydrogenase [LDH] > 2-fold above ULN) or chronic (LDH 1.5-2-fold above ULN or absolute lymphocyte count > 4 x 10^9/L with T-cells > 3.5 x 10^9/L) ATL; patients with smoldering ATL (no acute or chronic features) and symptomatic ATL skin lesions are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo concomitant use of alternative complimentary therapies or over the counter (OTC) agents allowed without prior approval of the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not candidates for HDR brachytherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that compromises compliance with the objectives and procedures of this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocyte >= 1500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nasopharyngeal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXAT TIME OF PROCUREMENT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEBV seropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXEBV-seropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAT TIME OF PROCUREMENT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically confirmed diagnosis of B-NHL, T-NHL, or HL; CD45 antigen expression must be documented on tumor specimens in all cases except HL, in whom histologic demonstration of CD45+ cells adjacent to the Reed Sternberg cells is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients eligible for therapeutic study must have a minimum of >= 4 x10^6 CD34/kg autologous hematopoietic stem cells harvested and cryopreserved and divided into 2 aliquots of at least >= 2 x10^6 CD34/kg each; patients with a history of prior autologous hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT) are only required to have >= 2x10^6 CD34/kg storedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an expected survival of > 60 days and must be free of major infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA), to be determined before each infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of circulating lymphoma cells by morphology or flow cytometry (> 0.1%) at or near the time of peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) collection if unpurged/unselected PBSC are to be used (patients with cryopreserved stem cells which are negative [=< 0.1% involved] by flow cytometry will also be considered eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwest Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status >= 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to perform self-care during radiation isolationXx_NEWLINE_xXOR non-measurable disease only, with rising serum cancer antigen (CA)15-3 or CA 27.29 or carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) documented by two consecutive measurements taken at least 14 days apart with the most recent measurement being within 42 days prior to registration; the second CA 15-3 or CA 27.29 or CEA value must have at least a 20% increase over the first and for CA 15-3 or CA 27.29 be greater than or equal to 40 units/mL or for CEA be greater than or equal to 4 ng/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familiar, sociological or geographical conditions which would not permit compliance with the study protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown contraindication to dexamethasone (allergic reaction or systemic fungal infection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable autologous transduced peripheral blood T-cells with >= 15% expression of CD19CAR determined by flow-cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should be found unresectable by a preliminary Ear, Nose, and Throat (ENT) evaluation or have refused surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects should be willing and able to take folic acid and vitamin B12 supplementation and should interrupt aspirin or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents for a 5-day period (8-day period for long acting agents such as piroxicam) before entering the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nasopharyngeal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of third space fluid which cannot be controlled by drainageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pre-existing medical conditions or other factors that renders them at high risk for regimen related toxicity or ineligible for a conventional myeloablative HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Aplastic anemia and Fanconi anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fungal pneumonia with radiological progression after receipt of amphotericin formulation or mold-active azoles for greater than 1 month will not be eligible for this protocol (either regimen A or B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDonors: Identical twinXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoblastic lymphoma \r\n* All patients will be eligible in second or greater complete remission (CR) or first or subsequent partial remission (PR)\r\n* Patients with any high-risk features will be eligible in first complete remission \r\n* High risk features include: \r\n** Stage IV\r\n** Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 2 x normal\r\n** >= 2 extranodal sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXDiffuse large B-cell lymphoma\r\n* All patients will be eligible in >= second complete remission (CR2) or >= first partial response (PR1)\r\n* Patients with a high intermediate or high International Protein Index (IPI) (>= 2 for age-adjusted IPI or >= 3 for IPI) at diagnosis will be eligible in first CRXx_NEWLINE_xXBurkitt’s/Burkitt’s like\r\n* All patients except localized lymphoma will be eligible anytime after initial therapy (after achievement of first complete remission), or in partial remission if they fail to achieve CR\r\n* Patients with localized (stage I or Ziegler stage A) will be eligible only if they fail to achieve CR1 or after relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with resistant disease (initial or at relapse): those who fail to achieve an objective partial response to three cycles of combination non-cross resistant chemotherapy will be ineligible for transplant in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any high-risk features will also be eligible, including those who:\r\n* Fail to achieve complete remission with initial combination chemotherapy\r\n* Patients with bulky disease after initial therapy (chemotherapy or radiation) defined as residual mediastinal mass >= 5 cm or other residual mass >= 10 cm accompanied by other features of persisting disease (e.g., Gallium or positron emission tomography (PET) scan positive; high LDH; enlarging on serial x-rays or biopsy positive) will be eligible; if possible, persistent disease should be proven by biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients eligible for any higher priority transplant protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathological evidence of CD25+ HCL confirmed by the National Institutes of Health (NIH) pathology department; this will require a monoclonal population of peripheral malignant lymphocytes that are CD25 positive by fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS) with anti-CD25 antibody; positive expression in a FACS assay is defined as more than 2 times the mean fluorescence intensity (MFI) of the control antibody by FACS; HCLv (HCL variant) is usually CD25 negative, and eligibility would require CD25+ HCLvXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum that neutralizes =< 75% of the activity of 1 ug/mL of LMB-2 using a bioassayXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-associated lymphoproliferative disease\r\n* At any point after diagnosis, including upfront therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative disorders\r\n* Idiopathic myelofibrosis\r\n* Polycythemia vera\r\n* Essential thrombocytosis\r\n* Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia\r\n* Patients with myeloproliferative disorders must be end-stage, which is primarily defined as disease severity refractory to splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum total bilirubin < 2.5 mg/dl; values above these levels may be accepted, at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI) or lead associate investigator (LAI), if such elevations are thought to be due to liver involvement by malignancy or GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate central venous access potentialXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR:\r\n* History of psychiatric disorder which may compromise compliance with transplant protocol, or which does not allow for appropriate informed consent\r\n* History of hypertension that is not controlled by medication, stroke, autoimmune disease, or severe heart disease (donors with symptomatic angina will be excluded); donors with a history of coronary artery bypass grafting or angioplasty who are symptom free will receive a cardiology evaluation and be considered on a case-by-case basis\r\n* History of prior malignancy; however, cancer survivors who have undergone potentially curative therapy may be considered for stem cell donation on a case-by-case basis; in addition, donors with localized cancer such as prostate cancer that are on a watch-and-wait management due to the low-risk of disease progression may also be considered for stem cell donation on a case-by-case basis; the risk/benefit of the transplant and the possibility of transmitting viable tumor cells at the time of transplantation will be discussed with the patient\r\n* Donors must not be pregnant (unknown effect of filgrastim on fetus); donors of childbearing potential must use an effective method of contraception\r\n* Anemia (hemoglobin [Hb] < 11 gm/dl) or thrombocytopenia (platelets < 100,000 per ul); however, potential donors with Hb levels < 11 gm/dl that is due to iron deficiency will be eligible as long as the donor is initiated on iron replacement therapy and the case is individually approved by NIH or Hackensack Blood BankXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary amyloidosis (AL) or myeloma complicated by amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of ET or PV shall be made in accordance with the World Health Organization (WHO) (2008) criteria as shown below (Values below are at the time of diagnosis, not study entry):\r\n* Polycythemia Vera (2 major criteria required)\r\n** Hemoglobin (Hb) > 18.5g/dl (male) or 16.5g/dl (female) or \r\n** Hematocrit (HCT) > 99 percentile reference range or \r\n** Elevated red cell mass (> 25% above mean predicted value) or \r\n** Hb > 17g/dl (male) or 15g/dl (female) if associated with a sustained rise from baseline with no apparent cause (e.g. treated iron deficiency)\r\n** Presence of JAK2V617F\r\n* Essential Thrombocythemia (all 4 major criteria required)\r\n** Platelets count >= 450 x 10^9/L\r\n** Megakaryocyte proliferation with large and mature morphology; no significant increase or left shift of neutrophil granulopoiesis or erythropoiesis\r\n** Not meeting WHO criteria for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), PV, myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) or other myeloid neoplasms\r\n** Demonstration of JAK2V617F, clonal cytogenetic marker or no evidence of reactive thrombocytosis\r\n** May participate in study without presence of JAK2V617FXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high risk disease as defined below:\r\n* High risk PV ANY ONE of the following:\r\n** Age > 60 years\r\n** Previous documented thrombosis, erythromelalgia or migraine (severe, recurrent, requiring medications, and felt to be secondary to the myeloproliferative neoplasm [MPN]) either after diagnosis or within 10 years before diagnosis and considered to be disease related\r\n** Significant (i.e. > 5 cm below costal margin on palpation) or symptomatic (splenic infarcts or requiring analgesia)\r\n** Platelets > 1000 x 10^9/L\r\n** Diabetes or hypertension requiring pharmacological therapy for > 6 months\r\n* High risk ET ANY ONE of the following:\r\n** Age > 60 years\r\n** Platelet count > 1500 x 10^9/L\r\n** Previous documented thrombosis, erythromelalgia or migraine headaches (severe, recurrent, requiring medications, and felt to be secondary to the MPN) either after diagnosis or within 10 years before diagnosis and considered to be disease related\r\n** Previous hemorrhage related to ET\r\n** Diabetes or hypertension requiring pharmacological therapy for > 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXIn addition patients must EITHER be intolerant or resistant to hydroxyurea according to previously modified established criteria as follows:\r\n* Any ONE of the following:\r\n** Platelet count > 600 x 10^9/L after 3 months of at least 2g/day of hydroxyurea or maximally tolerated dose (MTD) of hydroxyurea (2.5 g/day in patients with a body weight greater than 80 kg)\r\n** White blood cell (WBC) < 2.5 x 10^9/L or Hgb < 11g/dl at any dose of hydroxyurea not to exceed 2g/day (for a period of at least 2 months)\r\n** Progressive splenomegaly or hepatomegaly (> 5cm from initiation of hydroxyurea) or the appearance of new splenomegaly or hepatomegaly while on maximum tolerated dose (MTD) of hydroxyurea\r\n** Not achieving a Hct < 45% in order to eliminate the need for supplemental phlebotomies after 3 months of at least 2g/day MTD of hydroxyurea\r\n** Not achieving a WBC of < 10 x 10^9/L after 3 months of at least 2g/day MTD of hydroxyurea\r\n** Having a platelet count < 100 x 10^9/L on hydroxyurea at any dose without eliminating the need for supplemental phlebotomy or having progressive splenomegaly as defined above\r\n** Development of a major thrombotic episode (cerebral vascular accident [CVA], myocardial infarction, severe migraines requiring medication, abdominal vein thrombosis, deep vein thrombosis) while being treated with maximal tolerated doses of hydroxyurea\r\n** Presence of leg ulcers or other unacceptable hydroxyurea-related-nonhematological toxicities, such as unacceptable mucocutaneous manifestations, gastrointestinal symptoms, pneumonitis or fever at any dose of hydroxyurea\r\n* OR have Splanchnic Vein Thrombosis (SVT) (includes Budd-Chiari, abdominal vein thrombosis, portal vein thrombosis, splenic vein thrombosis); for these patients the following additional inclusion/exclusion criteria apply:\r\n** > 3 months since onset of SVT\r\n** SVT treated with oral anticoagulants but no aspirin\r\n** Liver enzymes not > 2 times the normal value\r\n** Absence of encephalopathy, refractory or infected ascites, esophageal varicose of grade > 1 at time of trial entry\r\n** Bone marrow biopsy confirmed diagnosis of PV or ET\r\n** JAK2-V617F present\r\n** These patients may have a normal blood count at trial entryXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in associated correlative science biomarker studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any life-threatening co-morbidityXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindications to pegylated or non-pegylated interferonXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of autoimmune disorder (e.g. hepatitis; idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura [ITP]; scleroderma; severe psoriasis affecting > 10% of the body, rheumatoid arthritis requiring more than intermittent nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAID] for management)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of severe retinopathy (e.g. cytomegalovirus [CMV] retinitis, macular degeneration) or clinically relevant ophthalmological disorder (e.g. due to diabetes mellitus or hypertension)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or other evidence of chronic pulmonary disease associated with functional limitationXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid dysfunction not adequately controlledXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of JAK2 exon 12 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo previous exposure to any formulation of interferonXx_NEWLINE_xXNo detectable PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria) clone where testedXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent hormonal contraceptive useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented presence of an EGFR exon 19 deletion or exon 21 (L858R) substitution mutation; T790M mutation or other molecular abnormality will be allowed as long as it accompanies one of the mutations listed above; EGFR testing must be performed using a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test or in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate-2/ high-risk disease as per Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) (DIPSS) criteria OR intermediate-1 risk disease with one of the following additional unfavorable features known to impact the survival adversely\r\n* Red cell transfusion dependency\r\n* Unfavorable karyotype\r\n* Platelet count < 100 x 10^9/lXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or laboratory evidence of cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xX> 20% blast in the PB or BM prior to hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT) or had leukemic transformation (> 20% blasts in PB or BM any time prior to HCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegistration of patients who have not yet undergone Oncotype DX screening must occur no later than 56 days after definitive surgery; (for all patients, Step 2 Registration must occur within 84 days after definitive surgery); if the Oncotype DX Breast Cancer Assay has not been performed, patients must be willing to submit tissue samples for testing to determine the Recurrence Score value; a representative block or unstained sections from the representative block are sent directly to Genomic Health for Oncotype DX Breast Cancer Assay which will be performed according to the standard commercial process\r\n* If the Oncotype DX Recurrence Score is already known and is 25 or less, the patient must be registered to Step 2 immediately following Step 1 registration; if the Oncotype DX Recurrence Score is already known and is greater than 25, the patient is ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXThe Quality of Life and Economic Substudy is permanently closed to accrual effective 12/1/12; patients who consented to QOL prior to 12/1/12 should continue to complete QOL forms per their expectation report; patients who are able to complete a questionnaire in English must be offered the opportunity to participate in the Quality of Life and Economic Substudy; (The Quality of Life and Economic Substudy is available to U.S. INSTITUTIONS ONLY); patients who are not able to complete a questionnaire in English are registered to S1007 without participating in the Quality of Life and Economic Substudy\r\n* Patients who consent to participate in the Quality of Life and Economic Substudy and who do not yet know the results of their Oncotype DX screening must agree to complete the S1007 Health-Related Quality of Life Questionnaire: Enrollment between 14 days prior to and 7 days after Step 1 Registration\r\n* Patients who consent to participate in the Quality of Life and Economic Substudy and who do already know their Oncotype DX Recurrence Score (and it is 25 or less) will proceed to Step 2 Registration without completing the S1007 Health-Related Quality of Life Questionnaire Enrollment Form (but will complete the S1007 Health-Related Quality of Life Questionnaire: Randomized Study Form)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrence score (RS) by Oncotype DX must be =< 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients randomized to either arm may also co-enroll in phase III trials that compare local therapies, or compare systemic therapies (such as chemotherapy, if randomized to Arm I of S1007)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe Quality of Life and Economic Substudy is permanently closed to accrual effective 12/1/12; patients at U.S. INSTITUTIONS who consent to participate in the Quality of Life and Economic Substudy must agree to complete the S1007 Health-Related Quality of Life Questionnaire: Randomized Study Form after Recurrence Score results and randomized treatment status are known but before treatment has been initiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis < 3 years prior to entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPolycythemia Vera (2 major criteria required)\r\n* Hemoglobin (Hb) > 18.5g/dl (male) or 16.5g/dl (female) or \r\n* Hematocrit (HCT) > 99 percentile reference range or \r\n* Elevated red cell mass (> 25% above mean predicted value) or \r\n* Hb > 17g/dl (male) or 15g/dl (female) if associated with a sustained rise from baseline with no apparent cause (e.g. treated iron deficiency)\r\n* Presence of JAK2V617FXx_NEWLINE_xXEssential Thrombocythemia (all 4 major criteria required)\r\n* Platelets count >= 450 x 10^9/L\r\n* Megakaryocyte proliferation with large and mature morphology; no significant increase or left shift of neutrophil granulopoiesis or erythropoiesis\r\n* Not meeting WHO criteria for chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), PV, myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS) or other myeloid neoplasms\r\n* Demonstration of clonal cytogenetic marker or no evidence of reactive thrombocytosis\r\n* May participate in study without presence of JAK2V617FXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high risk disease as defined below:\r\n* High risk PV ANY ONE of the following:\r\n** Age >= 60 years\r\n** Previous documented thrombosis, erythromelalgia or migraine (severe, recurrent, requiring medications, and felt to be secondary to the myeloproliferative neoplasm [MPN]) either after diagnosis or within 10 years before diagnosis and considered to be disease related\r\n** Significant splenomegaly (> 5 cm below the left costal margin) or symptomatic splenomegaly (splenic infarcts or requiring analgesia)\r\n** Platelets > 1000 x 10^9/L\r\n** Diabetes or hypertension requiring pharmacological therapy for > 6 months\r\n* High risk ET ANY ONE of the following:\r\n** Age >= 60 years\r\n** Platelet count > 1500 x 10^9/L\r\n** Previous documented thrombosis, erythromelalgia or migraine headaches (severe, recurrent, requiring medications, and felt to be secondary to the MPN) either after diagnosis or within 10 years before diagnosis and considered to be disease related\r\n** Previous hemorrhage related to ET\r\n** Diabetes or hypertension requiring pharmacological therapy for > 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNever treated with cytoreductive drugs except hydroxyurea for up to 3 months maximum (phlebotomy, aspirin allowed, anagrelide allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in associated correlative science biomarker studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria) cloneXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindications to pegylated interferon or hydroxyureaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any life-threatening co-morbidityXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of severe retinopathy (e.g. cytomegalovirus [CMV] retinitis, macular degeneration) or clinically relevant ophthalmological disorder (e.g. due to diabetes mellitus or hypertension)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or other evidence of chronic pulmonary disease associated with functional limitationXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid dysfunction not adequately controlledXx_NEWLINE_xXJAK2 exon 12 mutation: PV that lacks the JAK2V617F mutation but is characterized by the exon 12 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo previous exposure to any formulation of pegylated interferonXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo testing for gBRCA.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of allergic reaction to Cremophor-paclitaxel, carboplatin, Azo-Colourant Tartrazine (also known as FD&C Yellow 5 or E102), Azo-Colourant Orange Yellow-S (also known as FD&C Yellow 6 or E110) or known contraindications to any study supplied drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be excluded on the basis of sex, racial or ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled viral, bacterial, or fungal infections (currently taking medication and with progression of clinical symptoms or findings); patients with symptoms consistent with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), influenza A, B, or parainfluenza at the time of enrollment will be assayed for the above viruses and if positive are not eligible for the trial until they are no longer symptomatic (patients may have continued assay positivity for a period of time post resolution of symptoms secondary to the nature of the assay)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have full activity or, if limited, must be able to walk and carry out activities such as light house work or office workXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uveal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXA woman must agree not to donate eggs (ova, oocytes) for the purposes of assisted reproduction during the study (including during dose interruptions), and for 4 weeks following discontinuation of lenalidomide, and if receiving daratumumab, for 3 months after the last doseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years or currently has uncontrolled asthma of any classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave, at entry, confirmed by a pathology report: Carcinoma in situ (CIS) only; Ta/T1 high-grade disease with concomitant CIS; or Ta/T1 high-grade disease without concomitant CISXx_NEWLINE_xXAre \BCG Unresponsive\ which refers to patients with high-grade NMIBC who are unlikely to benefit from and who will not receiving further intravesical BCG. The term \BCG unresponsive\ includes patients who did not respond to BCG treatment and have a persistent high-grade recurrence within 12 months after BCG was initiated, and those who despite an initial complete response (CR) to BCG, relapse with high-grade CIS within 12 months of their last intravesical treatment with BCG or relapse with high-grade Ta/T1 NMIBC within 6 months of their last intravesical treatment with BCG. The following criteria define the patients who may be included in the study:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave received at least 2 previous courses of BCG within a 12 month period - defined as at least 5 of 6 induction BCG instillations and at least 2 out of 3 instillations of maintenance BCG, or at least two of six instillations of a second induction course, where maintenance BCG is not givenXx_NEWLINE_xXException: those who have T1 high-grade disease at first evaluation after induction BCG alone (at least 5 of 6 doses) may qualify in the absence of disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of tumor recurrence, patients with CIS alone or high-grade Ta/T1 with CIS should be within 12 months of last exposure to BCG and patients with Ta/T1 without CIS should be within 6 months of last exposure to BCGXx_NEWLINE_xXNo maximum limit to the amount of BCG administeredXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable for the whole duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of concomitant upper tract urothelial carcinoma or urothelial carcinoma within the prostatic urethra. Freedom from upper tract disease (if clinically indicated) as indicated by no evidence of upper tract tumor by either intravenous pyelogram, retrograde pyelogram, computed tomography (CT) scan with or without urogram, or MRI with or without urogram performed within 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate lab valuesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of lymphovascular invasion and/micropapillary disease as shown in the histology of the biopsy sampleXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic urinary tract infection or bacterial cystitis (once satisfactorily treated, patients can enter the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot hold instillation for 1 hourXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anti-drug antibodies, severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other infusion-related reaction to a previous biologic agentXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of peripheral venous or central venous access or any condition that would interfere with drug administration or collection of study samplesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to any CSF1R pathway inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be optimally or suboptimally debulked after surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown brain/leptomengial involvement of the disease, active neurological disease, dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated first hematologic relapse is defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have achieved a CR/CRi/CRp (criteria as defined by [Cheson et al, 2003], see Section 5.3) with first line treatment and has hematologic relapse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is positive for FLT3 mutation in bone marrow or whole blood as determined by the central lab. A subject with rapidly proliferative disease and unable to wait for the central lab results can be enrolled based on a local test performed after completion of the last interventional treatment. Subjects can be enrolled from a local test result if they have any of the following FLT3 mutations: FLT3 internal tandem duplication (ITD), FLT3 tyrosine kinase domain (TKD)/D835 or FLT3- TKD/I836.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is suitable for oral administration of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXdocumented as surgically sterile (at least 1 month prior to Screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 1 (5HT1R) or 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 2B (5HT2BR) or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an FLT3 mutation other than the following: FLT3-ITD, FLT3-TKD/D835 or FLT3-TKD/I836.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have measurable disease and be a candidate for intralesional therapy administration into cutaneous, subcutaneous, or nodal lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have active herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection and must not require intermittent or chronic treatment with an antiherpetic drug (eg, acyclovir), other than intermittent topical use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed GCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology confirmation of GCT histology at Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) or a collaborating treating institution; in exceptional circumstances, patients without pathological diagnosis may be included in the study following discussion with national principal investigator, Dr. Feldman, (or national Co-principal investigator [PI] or MSKCC Co-PI if the national PI is unavailable) if they meet the one of the following criteria:\r\n* Patients with testicular mass (detected clinically and/or by ultrasound), and/or mediastinal or retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy or pineal tumor AND elevated serum tumor markers (human chorionic gonadotropin [HCG] and/or alpha-fetoprotein [AFP]); patients with elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) only will not be included without pathological confirmation of GCT since LDH is a nonspecific marker for GCT and could potentially be elevated in other malignancies such as lymphomas\r\n* Initial treatment without biopsy confirmation is usually recommended and tissue confirmation may be obtained after initiating therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be classified as having intermediate or poor-risk germ cell tumor, as follows:\r\n* Intermediate-risk (modified*)\r\n** Testis or retroperitoneal primary non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCT) with lymph node and/or lung metastasis but without non-pulmonary visceral metastasis AND any of the following pretreatment serum tumor marker (STM) values:\r\n*** Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) from 3 to < 10 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (*this differs from the original International Germ Cell Cancer Collaborative Group [IGCCCG] criteria which includes patients with LDH from 1.5 to 10 x ULN)\r\n*** Serum human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) from 5,000 to < 50,000 MIU/mL\r\n*** Serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) from 1,000 to < 10,000 ng/mL\r\n** Seminoma histology regardless the primary site or serum tumor markers with any non-pulmonary visceral metastasis (liver, bone, brain, etc)\r\n* Poor-risk (any of the following):\r\n** Testis or retroperitoneal NSGCT primary with non-pulmonary visceral metastasis (liver, bone, brain, etc) regardless the STM values\r\n** Mediastinal NSGCT primary site of disease regardless the presence/absence of visceral metastasis or STM values\r\n** Testis or retroperitoneal NSGCT primary without non-pulmonary visceral metastasis but with poor-risk STM values:\r\n*** LDH >= 10 x ULN\r\n*** HCG >= 50,000 MIU/mL\r\n*** AFP >= 10,000 ng/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant ongoing immunologic rejection based on pathology and clinical diagnosis (from time of transplant until randomization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of alemtuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of direct acting antivirals for hepatitis C virus (HCV) recurrence, with the exception of sofosbuvir and ledipasvir/sofosbuvirXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fibrolamellar HCC, cholangiocarcinoma, and combined HCC-cholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of direct acting antivirals for HCV recurrence\r\n* Sofosbuvir and ledipasvir/sofosbuvir are not excluded therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of T-cell depleting agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of alemtuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been assigned to S1400IXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also be offered participation in banking for future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a documented local diagnostic pathology of original biopsy confirmed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) or equivalent laboratory certificationXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic (Coagulation Factors):Xx_NEWLINE_xXFibrinogen ?0.75 LLNXx_NEWLINE_xXHas evaluable disease as defined as lesions that can be accurately measured at least in one dimension by radiographic examination or physical examination and other lesions such as bone lesions, leptomeningeal disease, ascites, hepatosplenomegaly from disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXATRTXx_NEWLINE_xXMRTXx_NEWLINE_xXRTKXx_NEWLINE_xXSelected tumors with rhabdoid featuresXx_NEWLINE_xXEpithelioid sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXExtraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal medullary carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXOther INI1-negative malignant tumors (e.g., dedifferentiated chordoma) with Sponsor approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXSynovial sarcoma with SS18-SSX rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with synovial sarcoma only, the following test results must be available: Morphology consistent with synovial sarcoma, and cytogenetics or FISH and/or molecular confirmation (e.g., DNA sequencing) of SS18 rearrangement t(X;18)(p11;q11) For Dose Expansion Only:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 1 - ATRTXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2 - MRT/RTK/selected tumors with rhabdoid featuresXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 3 - INI-negative tumors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEpithelioid sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXExtraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal medullary carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXChordoma (poorly differentiated or de-differentiated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther INI1-negative malignant tumors (e.g., dedifferentiated chordoma) with Sponsor approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with INI1-negative tumors only - have the following test results available:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMorphology and immunophenotypic panel consistent with INI1-negative tumors, andXx_NEWLINE_xXLoss of INI1 confirmed by IHC, orXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with synovial sarcoma with SS18-SSX rearrangement (in Cohort 4 only) - have the following test results available:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMorphology consistent with synovial sarcoma, andXx_NEWLINE_xXCytogenetics or FISH and/or molecular confirmation (e.g., deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] sequencing) of SS18 rearrangement t(X;18)(p11;q11)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown urinary tract obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXTarget PopulationXx_NEWLINE_xXSteroids for physiological replacement are allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTarget Disease ExceptionsXx_NEWLINE_xXBrain lesions >3 lesions which were previously treated with SRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical and Laboratory Test FindingsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the late induction group, patients must have had no more than 30 days of prior castration (medical or surgical) for metastatic prostate cancer prior to registration; the start date of medical castration is considered the day the patient first received an injection of a LHRH agonist/antagonist (or orchiectomy), not an oral antiandrogen\r\n* If the method of castration was luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists (i.e., leuprolide or goserelin), the patient must be willing to continue the use of LHRH agonist and add bicalutamide or TAK-700 (according to randomization) during protocol treatment\r\n* If the patient was on an antiandrogen (e.g. bicalutamide, flutamide), the patient must be willing to switch over to bicalutamide or TAK-700 (according to randomization); there is no limit on how many days a patient may have been on an antiandrogen (e.g. bicalutamide, flutamide) or a five alpha reductase inhibitor (e.g. finasteride or dutasteride) prior to going on study and no washout is required\r\n* If the method of castration was LHRH antagonists (i.e. Degarelix), the patient must be willing to switch to an LHRH agonist during protocol treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXA dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan must be obtained within 2 years prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known history of primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not be known to have hypersensitivity to TAK-700, to TAK-700 metabolites, to bicalutamide, or to LHRH agonistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future use to include translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the OPEN registration process, the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have clinically evident recurrent disease for the purpose of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThis criterion applies only to the patients enrolled before August 29, 2011 and those enrolled after this date electing to receive bevacizumab; patients must have a urine protein-to-creatinine ratio (UPCR) < 1.0 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have met the pre-entry requirements as specifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whom have already undergone secondary cytoreduction for recurrent disease are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require parenteral hydration or nutrition and have evidence of partial bowel obstruction or perforationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with concurrent severe medical problems unrelated to the malignancy that would significantly limit full compliance with the study or expose the patient to extreme risk or decreased life expectancyXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors that are amenable to serial biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic strontium-89, samarium-153, rhenium-186, or rhenium-188 for bone metastases within 24 weeks prior to initiation of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUnmanageable fecal incontinenceXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of the FLT3-ITD activating mutation in bone marrow or peripheral blood (allelic ratio as determined by a central laboratory with a cutoff of ?3% FLT3-ITD/total FLT3). If a specimen has been sent for FLT3-ITD testing at the central laboratory but the subject requires treatment for AML before the central FLT3-ITD test result is available, a local test result may be acceptable for randomization after consultation with the Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to receive infusion of blood products according to the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn a heterosexually active woman of childbearing potential, unwillingness or inability to use a highly effective contraceptive method for the entire study treatment period and for at least 3 months after study treatment completion. Additionally, for women randomized to chemotherapy, unwillingness to adhere to the restrictions in the respective locally established guidelines and local approved label (prescribing information, Summary of Product Characteristics, or US product insert) from the manufacturer and the Patient Information Leaflet (package insert) as instructed by the Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects in the UK only: Refusal of permission to allow the subject's General Practitioner to be notified of their participation in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed non-small cell lung cancer with documented EGFR mutation in tumor deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) or complete/partial response to first line EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors with > or = to 6 months duration of response in patients who do not have a confirmed EGFR mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no lytic lesions on skeletal surveys and no hypercalcemia (i.e., >= 11 mg/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or concurrent use of erythropoietin is disallowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate laboratory values;Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients enrolling in the four expansion cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC patients must meet criteria for amplification of the MET gene locus, defined MET mutations, or rearrangements involving the AXL or MET gene locus or;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumor types such as HNSCC, papillary renal carcinoma, gastric adenocarcinoma, and other solid tumors must meet criteria for amplification of the MET gene locus, defined MET mutations, or rearrangements involving the AXL or MET gene locusXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised subjects;Xx_NEWLINE_xXType of Participant and Target Disease CharacteristicsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to a pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD)-based drug, or known hypersensitivity to rovalpituzumab tesirine or excipient contained in the drug formulation, unless undergoing retreatment with rovalpituzumab tesirine in the context of this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOr known cases of hepatobiliary diseases (e.g., primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, history of immune-mediated cholangitis);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with cholangitis attributed to infectious etiology (e.g., ascending cholangitis, bacterial cholangitis) are eligible if the infection has been fully resolved prior to the screening visit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOr known cases of drug-induced hepatobiliary toxicities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant received previous chemotherapy with a cumulative dose of >900 mg per meter squared (mg/m^2) of epirubicin or >400 mg/m^2 of doxorubicin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant experienced any arterial thromboembolic event within 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has either of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant experienced any Grade 3 or 4 venous thromboembolic event that is not adequately treated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDIPSS intermediate-2 or high risk MFXx_NEWLINE_xXActive symptoms of MF as demonstrated by a symptom score of at least 5 points (on a 0 to10 scale) on at least one of the symptoms or a score of 3 or greater on at least 2 of the symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have received previous systemic anthracycline (intravesical anthracycline is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a clinically relevant hearing impairment > grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be known to have hypersensitivity to cisplatin, gemcitabine (gemcitabine hydrochloride), doxorubicin (doxorubicin hydrochloride), vinblastine (vinblastine sulfate), methotrexate or filgrastim/pegfilgrastimXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to participate in the translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of Institutional Review Board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXTesting for MSI Status (by an accredited lab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with microsatellite instability high (MSI-H) tumors will enroll in the MSI-H Cohort (mStage and cStage groups), the C3 Cohort, and the C5 Cohort.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with phenotypes that are non-microsatellite instability high (non-MSI-H) will enroll in the non- MSI-H Safety Cohort and the C6, C4 Cohorts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be assigned to S1400G; S1400G biomarker eligibility defined as homologous recombination repair deficiency (HRRD) positive is as follows\r\n* Biomarker-positive group\r\n** HRRD by FMI\r\n*** Homologous recombination repair deficiency by Foundation Medicine Inc., criteria\r\n* Alteration type\r\n** Truncating mutation, frameshift deletions, indels missense and nonsense mutations predicted to have functional consequence in any of the specified genes\r\n* Eligible alteration\r\n** Mutation in any one of the following critical HRR pathway genes: ATM, ATR, BARD1, BRCA1, BRCA2, BRIP1, CHEK1, CHEK2, FANCA, FANCC, FANCD2, FANCF, FANCM, NBN (NBS1), PALB2, RAD51, RAD51B (RAD51L1), RAD54L, RPA1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to have blood specimens submitted for pharmacokinetic analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXCancer arising from one of the following primary sites: paranasal sinus, nasopharynx, salivary gland, skinXx_NEWLINE_xXAny non-squamous subtypeXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a HCC diagnosis confirmed by radiology, histology or cytology (fibrolamellar and mixed hepatocellular/cholangiocarcinoma subtypes are not eligible).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPortal vein invasion at the main portal (Vp4), inferior vena cava, or cardiac involvement of HCC based on imaging.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate lung functionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has undergone more than 2 debulking surgeriesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior positive test for EGFR mutation or ALK gene rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject (when applicable, parental/legal representative) must understand and voluntarily provide permission to the ICF/IAF prior to conducting any study-related assessments/procedures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysiologic dosing of hydrocortisone is permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale subjects, as appropriate to age and the discretion of the study physician:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from enrollment:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a history of well-documented prior veno-occlusive disease (VOD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCIS (with or without papillary disease) ORXx_NEWLINE_xXAny grade T1 papillary disease ORXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have received adequate BCG treatment defined as at least 2 courses of BCG, i.e., at least one induction and one maintenance course or at least 2 induction courses. The initial induction course must be at least 5 treatments within a 7-week period. The second course (induction or maintenance) must be at least 2 treatments within a 6-week period. The \5+2\ doses of BCG must be given within approximately 1 year (i.e., the start of one course to start of the second course within 12 months ±1 month) and for the same disease episode for which the subject is enrolling. Treatment must be considered \full-dose\ BCG (see Section 10). If additional doses or courses of BCG above the minimum \5+2\ are given, these do not have to be within the same approximate 12 month timeframe. Subjects who were unable to receive at least 5 doses of BCG in a first course and at least 2 doses of BCG in a second course due to intolerance are not eligible. Subjects who began their initial course of BCG with \full-dose\ BCG and required dose-reductions due to adverse events but are still able to tolerate at least \5+2\ doses of BCG are considered to meet the requirement for \adequate BCG.\ Subjects who received less than \full dose\ BCG (e.g., 1/3rd dosing) as a standard regimen and not due to dose reductions because of AEs are not eligible. The BCG may have been given in combination with interferon. When BCG is given simultaneously in combination with interferon, 1/3rd dosing of BCG is acceptable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject's disease is refractory or has relapsed following adequate BCG treatment. Refractory disease is defined as disease which persists at the first evaluation following adequate BCG. Relapsed disease is defined as having a complete response to adequate BCG but recurs at a subsequent evaluation. Subjects will enroll into one of three cohorts based on their type of disease and the time to refractory/relapsed disease following their last dose of BCG as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with hydronephrosis, except for those subjects where hydronephrosis has been longstanding (i.e., predates the diagnosis of the CIS, Ta or T1 by more than 2 years) and diagnostic evaluation at Screening shows no evidence of tumor. Subjects with hydronephrosis that is unequivocally unrelated to upper tract malignancy may be considered eligible with Sponsor approval.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive, uncontrolled impairment of the urogenital, renal, hepatobiliary, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, neurologic or hematopoietic systems which, in the opinion of the Investigator, would predispose the subject to the development of complications from the administration of intravesical therapy and/or general anesthesia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score 6 (3+3) andXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have received abiraterone and/or enzalutamide. Subject must have received either abiraterone or enzalutamide for ?12 weeks. Other second generation CYP17 inhibitors/androgen receptor antagonists including but not limited to TAK-700 (orteronel), TOK-001 (galeterone) may have been taken in place of abiraterone and ARN-509 (apalutamide) may have been taken in place of enzalutamide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXANC ?1,500/µlXx_NEWLINE_xXActive diverticulitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMaintenance of castrate conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled co-morbiditiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have documented IDH1 R132 gene-mutated advanced hematologic malignancy based on local or central evaluation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have ECOG PS of 0 to 2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have undergone hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) within 60 days of the first dose of AG-120, or subjects on immunosuppressive therapy post HSCT at the time of screening, or with clinically significant graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). (The use of a stable dose of oral steroids post HSCT and/or topical for ongoing skin GVHD is permitted.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with immediately life-threatening, severe complications of leukemia such as uncontrolled bleeding, pneumonia with hypoxia or shock, and/or disseminated intravascular coagulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales must abstain from breastfeeding during study participation and 3 months after IP discontinuation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from enrollment into the Induction and Maintenance parts of the study (except if specified at study entry only):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed diagnosis of non-small cell lung cancer with either EGFR exon 19 deletion mutation, EGFR exon 21 L858R point mutation, exon 18 G719X, and exon 21 L861Q; other rare EGFR mutations may be eligible after discussion with the overall principal investigator; mutations detected at outside laboratories are acceptable for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of potent phospho-glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitors (including cyclosporine, erythromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, quinidine, phenobarbital salt with quinidine, ritonavir, valspodar, verapamil) and potent P-gp inducers (including St John's wort, rifampicin) must be avoided during treatment with afatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to consent to the use of specimens for future researchXx_NEWLINE_xXThe lymphoma must express the cluster of differentiation (CD)20 antigen by either flow cytometry using anti-CD20 antibodies or by immunoperoxidase staining of paraffin sections; a report providing confirmation of CD20 expression must be submittedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following tests must be performed within 42 days prior to registration either for diagnosis/staging or to obtain baseline values:\r\n* White blood cells (WBC)\r\n* Hemoglobin\r\n* Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)\r\n* Hepatitis B-surface antigen (Ag) and anti-core antibody (Ab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have completed 3 cycles of R-CHOP with no evidence of disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXInterim PET/CT scans must have been submitted for centralized reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXIf PET-negative based on the returned results from centralized review, patients must be planning to begin further treatment within 35 days of the start of cycle 3 of R-CHOP; if PET-positive based on the returned results from centralized review, it is important for patients to start IFRT as soon as possible after the end of cycle 3 of R-CHOP; they should be planning to initiate IFRT followed by yttrium-90 ibritumomab tiuxetan within 35 days of the start of cycle 3 of R-CHOPXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with anthracyclines at cumulative doses of 450 mg/m² or more for doxorubicin or 900 mg/m² or more for epirubicinXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically suspected Grades II to IV acute GVHD as per MAGIC guidelines, occurring after allo-HSCT with any conditioning regimen and any anti-GVHD prophylactic program.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with steroid-refractory acute GVHD, defined as any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas received more than 1 allo-HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with evidence of relapsed primary disease, or subjects who have been treated for relapse after the allo-HSCT was performed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresolved toxicity or complications (other than acute GVHD) due to previous allo-HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere organ dysfunction unrelated to underlying GVHD, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort A: Has experienced a seizure or seizures within 6 months of study start or is currently being treated with cytochrome P450 enzyme (CYP) inducing anti-epileptic drugs for seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort C: Has a history of loss of consciousness within 12 months of the screening visitXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with Grade IV GBM, recurrent disease at the time of the first or second recurrence or progression. For patients with Grade III anaplastic gliomas, recurrent disease at the time of at least a first recurrence but no more than a fourth recurrence or progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1: solid tumors or lymphomas, or hematologic malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXParts 1 and 3: 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXParts 2 and 4: 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid pregnancy or fathering childrenXx_NEWLINE_xXHbA1c of ? 8% (all subjects will have HbA1c test at screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulation panel within protocol-specified parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiologic evidence of new and/or progressive parenchymal brain metastasis, spinal cord metastases (intramedullary), or leptomeningeal disease (LMD) by magnetic resonance (MR) imaging of the brain and/or spine, or CSF cytology evidence of new LMD or persistent LMDXx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible to receive treatment with auto-SCT due to age (?65 years old) or any significant coexisting medical condition (cardiac, renal, pulmonary or hepatic dysfunction), likely to have a negative impact on tolerability of auto-SCT. Participants <65 years of age who refuse auto-SCT are not eligible for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas lactose intolerance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPMBCL:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas relapsed after autologous stem cell transplant (auto-SCT) or has failed to achieve a Complete Response or Partial Response within 60 days of auto-SCT. Participants may have received intervening therapy after auto-SCT for relapsed or refractory disease, in which case they must have relapsed after or be refractory to their last treatment. ORXx_NEWLINE_xXRS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically measureable disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with other immune modulating agents within fewer than 4 weeks prior to the first dose of REGN2810. Examples of immune modulating agents include blockers of CTLA-4, 4-1BB (CD137), OX-40, therapeutic vaccines, or cytokine treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within Protocol-defined rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have received prior immune checkpoint inhibitors or an IDO inhibitor (except select Phase 2 cohorts evaluating I/O relapsed or I/O refractory MEL). Subjects who have received experimental vaccines or other immune therapies should be discussed with the medical monitor to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXOcular MELXx_NEWLINE_xXRetinal disease or a history of retinal disease or detachmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCorneal defects, corneal ulcerations, keratitis, keratoconus, history of corneal transplant, or other known abnormalities of the corneaXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters within protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 2 expansion cohorts: Subjects with NSCLC, melanoma (checkpoint inhibitor naïve, primary refractory melanoma, relapsed melanoma), transitional cell carcinoma of the GU tract, SCCHN, ovarian cancer, MSI high CRC, RCC, DLBCL, and TNBC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: MelanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of V600E-activating BRAF mutation status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanoma is excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: Transitional cell carcinoma of the GU tractXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: SCCHNXx_NEWLINE_xXBorderline, low-malignant-potential epithelial carcinoma per histopathology is excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: Relapsed or refractory DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: TNBCXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed as triple negative, source documented, defined as both of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: RCCXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with histological or cytological confirmation of clear cell RCC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: MSI high CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 expansion: HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have progressed on, refused, or were intolerant of sorafenib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe following are excluded: Subjects with liver transplants, clear invasion of the bile duct or main portal branch(es), or hepatorenal syndrome, or subjects who have required esophageal variceal ablation within 28 days of starting study treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMonoamine oxidase inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected deleterious or deleterious BRCA1 and/or BRCA2 germline mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of allergic reaction to cremophor-paclitaxel, carboplatin, Azo-Colourant Tartrazine (also known as FD&C Yellow 5 or E102), Azo-Colourant Orange Yellow-S (also known as FD&C Yellow 6 or E110) or known contraindications to any study supplied drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not candidates for or have declined an allograftXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute myelofibrosis are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have failed prior allograftXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-malignant disorders deemed curable by allogeneic transplantation: a. primary immune deficiencies, b. severe aplastic anemia not responding to immune suppressive therapy, c. osteopetrosis d. selected cases of erythroid disorders such as ?0 ?0 thalassemia major, sickle cell disease, Diamond-Blackfan anemia. e. congenital/hereditary cytopenia, including Fanconi Anemia before any clonal malignant evolution (MDS, AML). Note: Subjects will be eligible if they meet either item 5 OR item 6.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA minimum genotypic identical match of 5/10 is required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGreater than active Grade II acute GvHD or chronic extensive GvHD due to a previous allograft at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a dose of unpurged peripheral blood stem cells is 2.0 x 106 viable CD34+ cells/kg available.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThey can't cooperate with the special precautions that are needed for this trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other ongoing serious medical issues must be approved by the study chair prior to registration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on hemodialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of histologically or cytologically confirmed diagnosis of metastatic NSCLC (Stage IV, AJCC v7.0) that carries an ALK rearrangement, as determined by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved FISH assay (Abbott Molecular Inc) or by Immunohistochemistry (IHC) (Ventana Inc), or a ROS1 rearrangement as determined by FISH or RT PCR or Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) via a local diagnostic test (LDT). All patients (ALK positive and ROS1 positive) must have archival tissue sample available and collected prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease Status Requirements: Phase 1: ALK-positive NSCLC and ROS1-positive patients must either be treatment naïve in the advanced setting or have had disease progression after at least 1 previous ALK/ROS1 inhibitor therapy(ies). Phase 2: ALK-positive NSCLC patients must either be or have had:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumor Requirements: All Patients must have at least one measurable target extracranial lesion according to RECIST v1.1. In addition patients with asymptomatic CNS metastases (including patients asymptomatic by means of stable or decreasing doses of steroids within the last 2 weeks prior to study entry) will be eligible. Patients who have leptomeningeal disease (LM) or carcinomatous meningitis (CM) are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of a deleterious, suspected deleterious, or pathogenic germline BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation from Myriad Genetics or other laboratory approved by the SponsorXx_NEWLINE_xXNot a candidate for treatment with at least 1 of the treatments of protocol-specific physician's choice (ie, capecitabine, eribulin, gemcitabine, vinorelbine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of primary or associated amyloidosis (AL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical laboratory values within acceptable ranges within 72 hours prior to study dayXx_NEWLINE_xXKeyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing renal dialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT).Xx_NEWLINE_xXA morbidity (per the prescribing information) that would require starting a patient at a reduced dose of axitinib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are allowed to receive, but are not required to receive, two additional cytotoxic regimens for management of recurrent or persistent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have normal baseline thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH); patients with elevated TSH level (between 4.5-10 mU/L in the absence of symptoms of hypothyroidism) must have a normal free thyroxine (T4); TSH that is 10 mU/L or higher is exclusionary\r\n* A history of hypothyroidism and/or hyperthyroidism is allowed, as long as the patient has stable well-controlled thyroid function for a minimum of 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible patients will have locally advanced cervical cancer suitable for primary treatment with chemoradiation with curative intent, in addition to:            \r\n* Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) 2008 stage IB1 & node positive, IB2, IIA, IIB, IIIB, or IVA diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to be transfused to treat low hemoglobin levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of results from testing of human papilloma virus (HPV) status for oropharyngeal cancer.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCarcinoma of the nasopharynx, salivary gland, unknown primary origin, or nonsquamous histologies as primary tumors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of all ages.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy confirmation of GVHD is not required. Enrollment should not be delayed for biopsy or pathology results unless local institutional practice mandates biopsy confirmation to make a GVHD treatment decision.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCollection of a 5 ml blood sample (red top for serum) from the patient for Ann Arbor Scoring and ready to be shipped immediately after randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent (within 7 days) episode of transplant associated microangiopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA clinical presentation resembling de novo chronic GVHD or overlap syndrome developing before or present at the time of enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on dialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on mechanical ventilation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe hepatic sinusoidal obstruction syndrome who in the judgment of the treating physician are not expected to have normalized bilirubin by Day 56 after enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving any concurrent anticancer therapy or investigational agents with the intention of treating gastric/GEJ cancer; previously received trastuzumab as part of a regimen in the metastatic setting with evidence of progression; 89Zr-trastuzumab use as imaging agent for 89Zr-trastuzumab PET permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon epithelial tumors or ovarian tumors with low malignant potential (ie, borderline tumors) or mucinous tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXparticipant must have received trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1) in any disease settingXx_NEWLINE_xXmust have received a taxane in any disease settingXx_NEWLINE_xXhave visceral crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded from the Induction Phase and the Maintenance Phase if administration of their chemotherapy would be inconsistent with the current local labelling (SmPC) (e.g., in regard to contraindications, warnings/precautions or special provisions) for that chemotherapy. Investigators should check updated labelling via relevant websites at the time of entry into the Induction Phase and the Maintenance PhaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of other NY-ESO-1-targeting immunotherapeutics.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF at least 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent anthracycline useXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to discontinue ado-trastuzumab emtansine or lapatinib useXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible for this trial either at initial presentation of their melanoma or at the time of the first detected nodal, satellite/in-transit, distant metastases, or recurrent disease in prior lymphadenectomy basin or distant site; nodal, satellite/in-transit metastasis, distant metastases or disease in a prior complete lymphadenectomy basin must have been confirmed histologically by hematoxylin and eosin (H & E) stained slidesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multiple regional nodal basin involvement are eligible; gross or microscopic extracapsular nodal extension is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking as outlinedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to have blood draws for PK/ADA analysis as outlined, should the patient be randomized to the MK-3475 armXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXNo tests or exams are required to be repeated for step 2 registration (randomization); however, patients who are known to have a change in eligibility status after step 1 registration are not eligible for step 2 registration; for example, ANC is not required to be repeated between step 1 and step 2 registration, but the most recent ANC performed before step 2 registration is required to be >= 1,500 mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have evaluable disease by RECIST v1.1 for patients without glioma or by RANO or RANO LGG criteria for patients with gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have ECOG PS of 0 to 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have expected survival of ?3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an active severe infection that required anti-infective therapy or with an unexplained fever >38.5°C during screening visits or on their first day of study drug administration (at the discretion of the Investigator, patients with tumor fever may be enrolled)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking medications that are known to prolong the QT interval unless they can be transferred to other medications within ?5 half-lives prior to dosing, or unless the medications can be properly monitored during the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a diagnosis of Waldenström's disease, or other conditions in which IgM M protein is present in the absence of a clonal plasma cell infiltration with lytic bone lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory pediatric B-cell ALL:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny BM relapse after allogeneic SCT and must be > 6 months from SCT at the time of CTL019 infusion ORXx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for allogeneic SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a minimum level of pulmonary reserve defined as ?Grade 1 dyspnea and pulse oxygenation > 91% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAge 3 at the time of initial diagnosis to age 21 at the time of initial diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extra-medullary disease relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of Grade 2 to 4 acute or extensive chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe following medications are excluded:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTyrosine kinase inhibitors and hydroxyurea must be stopped > 72 hours prior to CTL019 infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following drugs must be stopped > 1 week prior to CTL019 infusion and should not be administered concomitantly or following lymphodepleting chemotherapy: vincristine, 6-mercaptopurine, 6-thioguanine, methotrexate < 25 mg/m2, cytosine arabinoside < 100 mg/m2/day, asparaginase (non-pegylated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPegylated-asparaginase must be stopped > 4 weeks prior to CTL019 infusion e. CNS disease prophylaxis:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCNS directed radiation must be completed > 8 weeks prior to CTL019 infusion g. Anti T-cell Antibodies: Administration of any T cell lytic or toxic antibody (e.g. alemtuzumab) within 8 weeks prior to CTL019 is prohibited since residual lytic levels may destroy the infused CTL019 cells and/or prevent their in vivo expansion. If such an agent has been administered within 8 weeks prior to CTL019, contact the Sponsor, consider consultation with an pharmacology expert, and consider measuring residual drug levels, if feasible, prior to CTL019 infusion Women of child-bearing potential (defined as all women physiologically capable of becoming pregnant) and all male participants, unless they are using highly effective methods of contraception for a period of 1 year after the CTL019 infusion. Highly effective contraception methods include:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of IUDs are excluded due to increased risks of infection and bleeding in this population. However, IUD inserted prior to consent may remain in place, and a second method of contraception is mandatedXx_NEWLINE_xXDemographics show age < 11Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician report/letterXx_NEWLINE_xXOperative report or other source documentation in the patient recordXx_NEWLINE_xXDischarge summaryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received treatment with the following hypomethylating agent and/or chemo therapeutic agent for for an antecedent hematologic disorder (AHD) (Subjects may have been treated with other agents for AHD i.e., Myelodysplastic syndrome [MDS])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has history of Myeloproliferative Neoplasm (MPN).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has favorable risk cytogenetics as categorized by the National Comprehensive Cancer Network Guidelines Version 2, 2014 for AML.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has t(8;21), inv(16), t(16;16) or t(15;17) karyotype abnormalities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a history of other malignancies .prior to study entry, with the exception of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the dose-escalation phase, a phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase, catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA) mutation is also required; Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) or outside documentation is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to discontinue all herbal preparations/medications at least 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug and throughout the study; these include, but not limited to, St. John's wort, Kava, ephedra (ma huang), ginkgo biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginsengXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny significant ophthalmologic abnormality. The use of contact lenses is not recommended during the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological diagnosis of HCC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecovery to from toxicities related to any prior treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFibrolamellar carcinoma or mixed hepatocellular cholangiocarcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have pathologically confirmed renal cell carcinoma with a clear cell component; pure papillary and chromophobe histologies are excluded; there must be pathologic confirmation of metastatic disease in the resected metastasectomy specimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have undergone nephrectomy or partial nephrectomy to remove primary renal cell carcinoma (at any time in the past)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients presenting with tumors within the kidneys (multiple synchronous or single/multiple metachronous) are not eligible if there are no extrarenal sites of disease (i.e. potential multifocal primary disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have no active peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIf a subject has de novo DLBCL, the diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy and is immunohistologically characterized as de novo germinal center B-cell-like (GCB) DLBCL or de novo non-GCB DLBCL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the subjects has Richter's Syndrome (RS), the diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy and is immunohistologically characterized as transformation to DLBCL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of PMBCL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is scheduled for elective open, laparoscopic or robot assisted surgery involving the creation of a circular stapled anastomosis created within 10cm from the anal verge.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProcedure involving Total Mesorectal Excision by an abdominal or transanal approach.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a known dysfibrinogenemia, hypofibrinogenemia or a fibrinogenemia, without preoperative correction of fibrinogen levels.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject participating in studies involving approved drug or device will be enrolled only following a mutual consideration of the investigator together with the Sponsor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with American Society of Anesthesiology (ASA) status higher than 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who has undergone a prior pelvic anastomosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has peritoneal carcinomatosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires additional unrelated anastomosis during the surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExcessive bleeding (above 500cc) identified prior to anastomosis formation with the need for intra-operative blood transfusion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years or uncontrolled asthma of any classification.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDISEASE RELATED CRITERIA: Patients must have pathologically confirmed KRAS mutation (at codon 12, 13 and 61) positive non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) that is stage IV or recurrent; the specific subtype of KRAS mutation must be known; KRAS mutation testing must have been performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory; CLIA certified commercially available tests are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR/CONCURRENT THERAPY CRITERIA: The concurrent use of all herbal supplements is prohibited during the study (including but not limited to St. John’s Wort, kava, ephedra [ma huang], ginko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], yohimbe, saw palmetto, or ginseng)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICAL/LABORATORY CRITERIA: Patients must not have untreated or unresolved retinopathy or have a history (or current evidence) of retinal vein occlusion determined by an ophthalmology exam within 42 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSPECIMEN SUBMISSION CRITERIA: Patients must be offered optional participation in banking of specimens for future researchXx_NEWLINE_xXREGULATORY CRITERIA: As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have an option for any treatment with proven clinical benefit for CD25-positive AML or CD25-positive ALL at current state of disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary relapse (i.e., testicular, CNS).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of a cerebral vascular eventXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have ? 1 of the following high-risk prognostic factors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of 17p del by central laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of 11q del by central laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA score higher than 6 on the Cumulative Illness Rating Scale-Geriatric.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a minimum level of pulmonary reserve defined as ? Grade 1 dyspnea and pulse oxygenation > 91% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have an apheresis product of non-mobilized cells accepted for manufacturingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for and consenting to ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following medications are excluded:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCNS disease prophylaxis must be stopped > 1 week prior to CTL019 infusion (e.g. intrathecal methotrexate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to the excipients of the CTL019 cell productXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active neurological auto immune or inflammatory disorders(e.g. Guillain Barre Syndrome, Amyptrophic Lateral Sclerosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has identified PIK3CA statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of screening or a past medical history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant does not have:Xx_NEWLINE_xXcirrhosis (any degree) and a history of hepatic encephalopathy or clinically meaningful ascites resulting from cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave received more than one prior antiangiogenic agent (that is, bevacizumab, sorafenib, sunitinib) for TCC of the urothelium.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of other NY-ESO-1-targeting immunotherapeuticsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther immunosuppressive medications such as methotrexate, cyclosporine, azathioprine (antihistamines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin permitted) or conditions such as common variable hypogamma-globulinemia or exposures such as large field radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor melanoma: Uveal melanoma or LDH >1.1 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXAssociated with symptoms and/or findings; ORXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable candidate for single agent nab-paclitaxel as assessed by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has the following laboratory values at screening:Xx_NEWLINE_xXWBCs ? 2000/uL,Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has resting baseline oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry of ? 92% at rest.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a history of peripheral artery disease (eg, claudication, Leo Buerger's disease).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has persistent diarrhea, malabsorption, or known sub-acute bowel obstruction ? NCI CTCAE Grade 2, despite medical management.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has active hepatitis B or C. Subject with hepatitis in medical history may be eligible if infection considered cleared, ie core Ab+, surface Ab+, surface Ag- for hep B and Ab+/DNA- for hep C.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is currently using or use within 6 months of illicit drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have tested positive for FLT3-ITD and/or other FLT3 activating mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0 - 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than disease under study within 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXRCC (clear cell), urothelial carcinoma (transitional cell), gastric or gastro-esophageal junctional (GEJ) adenocarcinoma, or K-RAS or N-RAS wild-type EGFR expressing CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXFor RCC:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor CRC:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor all cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor all cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKaposi sarcoma (KS) (following prior KS-specific therapy (Cohorts 1-3)\r\n* (KS) impacting physical and/or psychological wellbeing and not amenable to local therapy and one or more of the following: \r\n** Stable KS despite 6 or more cycles of liposomal doxorubicin or paclitaxel or other active cytotoxic agents (i.e. etoposide, bleomycin, anthracyclines, vincristine [vincristine sulfate], vinblastine); or\r\n** Progressive disease despite 3 or more cycles of liposomal doxorubicin or paclitaxel or other active cytotoxic agents (i.e. etoposide, bleomycin, anthracyclines, vincristine, vinblastine); or\r\n** Patient who received a cumulative lifetime dose of anthracycline of >= 550 mg/m^2; or\r\n** Recurrent or progressive KS after completion of prior first line chemotherapy\r\n** Intolerant of or refuses further cytotoxic chemotherapy\r\n** No KSHV-associated multicentric Castleman disease in past 5 years\r\n** For KS patients, the following laboratory values supersede values below:\r\n*** Platelets > lower limit of normal\r\n*** Hemoglobin > 10 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment naive Kaposi sarcoma impacting physical and/or psychological wellbeing and not amenable to local therapy. (Cohort 4)\r\n* On antiretroviral therapy (ART) with suppressed HIV viral load for > 3 months (Note: an extended washout period is needed to avoid treatment during the period of risk for the highly toxic and often fatal “Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS)”\r\n* No KSHV-associated multicentric Castleman disease in past 5 years\r\n* No prior systemic chemotherapy \r\n* No symptomatic pulmonary KS or chest X-rays positive for un-evaluated abnormalities \r\n* Disease evaluable by AIDS Clinical Trial Group (ACTG) KS response criteria\r\n* CD4+ T-cell count >= 100 cells/uL \r\n* For KS patients, the following laboratory values supersede values below:\r\n** Platelets > lower limit of normal\r\n** Hemoglobin > 10 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine kinase < 5 X institutional ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with 1-3 brain metastases, each < 3 cm by contrast MRI, with stable systemic disease and ECOG score of 0-2, who would otherwise be eligible for SRS/stereotactic radiation therapy (SRT) alone should not be enrolled into this study unless WBRT is recommended due to any medical reasons or logistic limitations as determined by the treating physician; patients who develop recurrence post-SRS/SRT or surgery alone and are recommended WBRT will be eligible for the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of diffuse leptomeningeal carcinomatosis (focal/localized involvement is acceptable), > 1 cm mid-line shift, uncal herniation or significant hemorrhage/hydrocephalous (small intra-lesional hemorrhage is acceptable); patients with seizure at presentation who have been started on levetiracetam and have been stable for 48 hours prior to study registration are eligible at the discretion of treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known diagnoses that are associated with germline DDR defects such as Li Fraumeni syndrome and ataxia telangiectasia are excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXExpression of CD30Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary oropharynx HNSCC must be HPV (-) according to local institutional definition using either p16 immunohistochemistry or HPV testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on tacrolimus or any other immunosuppressants with significant interaction with cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXDefinitive clinical or radiographic evidence of distant metastasis or adenopathy below the claviclesXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of renal AML > 3 cm confirmed on pre-enrollment DCE-MRI; a previous diagnosis or treatment of a different AML lesion is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC must harbor at least one of the following EGFR activating mutations: Exon 21 L858R, Exon 19 deletion, Exon 18 G719X, Exon 21 L861Q or for EGFR Exon 20 insertion expansion cohort D, NSCLC must harbor an EGFR Exon 20 insertion performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified testXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Expansion Cohort B: patient must 1) have progression of disease on a 3rd generation EGFR-TKI such as AZD9291, rociletinib, HM61713, 2) be treatment naive to an EGFR monoclonal antibody, and 3) have a biopsy of tumor taken after progression on last EGFR-TKI that indicates loss of EGFR-T790M (EGFR-T790M negative) confirmed by central testing prior to treatment (if EGFR-T790M status is unknown, patients may consent for trial and for biopsy, and testing for EGFR T790M will be performed as part of initial biopsy for trial)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Expansion Cohort C: patient must 1) have progression of disease on a 3rd generation EGFR-TKI such as AZD9291, rociletinib, HM61713, 2) be treatment naive to an EGFR monoclonal antibody, 3) have a biopsy of tumor taken after progression on last EGFR-TKI that indicates preservation of EGFR-T790M post-progression on 3rd generation EGFR-TKI with biopsy confirmation by central testing prior to treatment (if EGFR-T790M status is unknown, patients may consent for trial and for biopsy, and testing for EGFR T790M will be performed as part of initial biopsy for trialXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Expansion Cohort D: patient must 1) tumor that harbors an EGFR Exon 20 insertion by a CLIA certified test, and 2) have progressive disease on or after platinum based chemotherapy, and 3) be treatment naive to both EGFR-TKI and EGFR monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXChest radiographXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least one lesion amenable to biospyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXExcessive alcohol intake should be avoided (occasional use is permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of ipsilateral DCIS are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is fit to receive the randomization options for which he is being consideredXx_NEWLINE_xXHematology/biochemistry (as dictated by local hospital practice) should indicate fitness for randomization options and parameters should be in line with considerations specified in the summary of product characteristics; hematological parameters should not be supported by transfusion to enable entry into the trial; liver function and renal function tests must form part of the pre-treatment assessment for patients who may be randomized to receive paclitaxel, ifosfamide, and cisplatin (TIP) chemotherapy e.g. patients with impaired renal function may not be considered for arms B and C of InPACT-neoadjuvant but may be considered for arm AXx_NEWLINE_xXPure verrucous carcinoma of the penisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of nonresectable or metastatic soft tissue sarcoma; the following histologies are excluded: embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, Ewing tumors, primitive neuroectodermal tumors, gastrointestinal stromal tumors, dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans, inflammatory myofibroblastic sarcoma, and mixed mesodermal tumors of the uterusXx_NEWLINE_xXNotes: subjects may not have had a transfusion within 7 days of screening assessments; concomitant elevation of bilirubin and AST/ALT above the IULN is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage; Note: lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels (contiguous tumor and vessels) are excluded; however, the presence of a tumor that is touching but not infiltrating (abutting) the vessels is acceptable (CT with contrast is strongly recommended to evaluate such lesions); large protruding endobronchial lesions in the mail or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, endobronchial lesions in the segmented bronchi are allowed; lesions extensively infiltrating the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, minor infiltrations in the wall of the bronchi are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXWT TP53 statusXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation profileXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cancers likely to be Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)-positive such as cervical cancers, oropharyngeal cancers or anal cancers must undergo additional screening to determine eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired use of medications predominantly cleared by hepatobiliary transporters within 48 hours of study drug infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Escalation:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort Expansion:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther concomitant malignancies (with some exceptions per protocol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe previous induction regimen may have been a SCT with intent to induce a CR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related AML, except if it is associated with favorable cytogenetics (e.g., inversion 16, t(16;16), t(8;21), t(15;17)).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe previous induction regimen may have been a SCT with intent to induce a CR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related AML, except if it is associated with favorable cytogenetics (e.g., inversion 16, t(16;16), t(8;21), t(15;17)).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML with antecedent hematological disease (e.g., myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), myelofibrosis, polycythemia vera, etc.) and not a candidate for SCT in their current disease state.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is oxygen-dependent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II only:\r\nArms 1 and 2: disease must be determined to be HPV-unrelated; HPV-unrelated SCCHN is defined as either p16-negative oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC) or non-OPSCC (larynx, hypopharynx, oral cavity) or p16-negative unknown primary SCC presenting with a level 2 or 3 neck node; p16 will be assessed by IHC; a specimen showing any staining will be considered p16-positive\r\nArm 3: disease must be HPV-related SCCHN (defined as OPSCC or unknown primary presenting with a neck mass that is either p16 positive or HPV in situ hybridization [ISH] or polymerase chain reaction [PCR] positive)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled electrolyte disorders that can compound the effects of a QTc-prolonging drug (e.g., hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed High Grade Serous Ovarian Cancer, and positive nuclear immunohistochemical (IHC) staining for p53Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to cumulative doses of doxorubicin >400 mg/m2 or epirubicin >720 mg/m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the Monotherapy MET Amplified cohort only: MET amplification by prospective screening assay from peripheral blood; the amplification score must be “strongly positive” (++ or +++), which is defined as amplification present at a level that is observed in the upper 50th percentile of samples with amplificationsXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious radiation treatment for head and neck mucosal primary cancers within the past 5 years (i.e. oropharynx, nasopharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, and oral cavity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious TransOral Robotic Surgery (TORS) to the oropharynxXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of appendiceal or colorectal neoplasm with peritoneal mucinosis or metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be planning to undergo complete cytoreduction of all peritoneal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of endometrial cancer are eligible only if they presented with a stage lower than 1A and if the histology was a subtype other than poorly differentiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with classical carcinoidXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors of low malignant potentialXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of coronary artery disease may be included if they have had a normal stress test within 60 days of enrollment and/or were cleared by Memorial Sloan Kettering (MSK) cardiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXRestrictive or obstructive pulmonary disease that would limit study compliance or place the patient at unacceptable risk for participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cerebrovascular disease that would limit study compliance or place the patient at unacceptable risk for participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of extensive intraperitoneal adhesions at the time of surgery which prohibits intraperitoneal therapy, as determined by the operating surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of an oral medication, lacking a suitable non-oral substitute, that if held for up to ten days, would be felt an unacceptable risk by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven diagnosis of primary systemic light chain amyloidosis (AL amyloidosis) according to the following standard criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistochemical diagnosis of amyloidosis, as based on tissue specimens with Congo red staining with exhibition of an apple-green birefringenceXx_NEWLINE_xXIf clinical and laboratory parameters insufficient to establish AL amyloidosis or in cases of doubt, amyloid typing may be necessary.Xx_NEWLINE_xXObjective, measurable major (cardiac or renal) organ amyloid involvement as defined as follows (amyloid involvement of at least 1 required):Xx_NEWLINE_xXRenal involvement is defined as proteinuria (predominantly albumin) >0.5 g/day in a 24-hour urine collection. Note: Amyloid involvement of other organ systems is allowed, but not required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGiven that the physician may select from an offered list of regimens to treat a specific participant, the participant may be refractory to an agent/s listed within the list of offered treatment choicesXx_NEWLINE_xXMust meet criteria for 1 of the following AL Amyloidosis Risk Stages (as defined by N-terminal proBNP [NT-proBNP] cut-off of < 332 pg/mL and troponin T cut-off of 0.035 ng/mL as thresholds):Xx_NEWLINE_xXStage 3: both NT-proBNP and troponin T over threshold (but NT-proBNP < 8000 pg/mL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosis due to mutations of the transthyretin gene or presence of other non-AL amyloidosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have baseline efficacy images with measurable target tumors in the liver according to RECIST 1.1 using standard imaging techniques taken within 28 days prior to randomization. Images must be taken after, or at the time of completion of first line chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresentation of pulmonary insufficiency or clinically evident chronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIntervention for, or compromise of, the Ampulla of VaterXx_NEWLINE_xXWhile patients randomized to the standard arm (Arm B, 30-33 fractions) may receive concurrent chemotherapy with carboplatin/taxol at their treating physician’s discretion, patients enrolled to the experimental arm (Arm A, 15 fractions) cannot be treated with concurrent chemoradiation and must not have plans for concurrent chemoradiation therapy; sequential chemotherapy (prior to or after radiotherapy) is allowed for either armXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all required pretreatment evaluationsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant bladder urothelial carcinoma is acceptable if it is organ confined and surgically resectableXx_NEWLINE_xXHas high risk bone metastases that are asymptomatic or minimally symptomatic (not requiring opioids). High risks metastases are defined as: 1. bulkiest sites of osseous disease >= 2 cm, 2. disease involving the hip (acetabulum, femoral head, femoral neck), shoulder (acromion, glenoid, humeral head), or sacroiliac joints 3. disease in long bones with 1/3-2/3 cortical thickness (humerus, radius, ulna, clavicle, femur, tibia, fibula, metacarpus, phalanges) 4. disease in junctional spine (C7-T1, T12-L1, L5-S1) and/or disease with posterior element involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXComplicated bone metastases including clinical or radiological evidence of spinal cord compression or impending pathological fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematologic status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable blood sugar control:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOral, implantable or injectable contraceptives for 3 consecutive months before the baseline/randomization visit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTotal abstinence from sexual intercourse (? 1 complete menstrual cycle before the baseline/randomization visit).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDouble barrier method (condoms, sponge, diaphragm or vaginal ring with spermicidal jellies or creamXx_NEWLINE_xX>2 previous systemic anti-neoplastic regimens for CCA.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking Coumadin or Coumadin derivatives.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to receive weekly cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXMen or women the age of majority in their countryXx_NEWLINE_xXIs suspected to have certain other protocol-defined diseases based on imaging at screening periodXx_NEWLINE_xXsafety or well-being of the participant or offspringXx_NEWLINE_xXanalysis of resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with documented diagnosis of primary Myelofibrosis, post polycythemia Vera Myelofibrosis or post-essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenic irradiation within 12 months prior to screening, or prior splenectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of any of the following hematologic malignancies:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating sperm, as outlined for each specific treatment armXx_NEWLINE_xXRetinal disease (e.g. retinitis pigmentosa including Mertk mutations), retinal hemorrhage or any disorder which may inhibit follow up for retinal toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing current treatments for other cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXProliferative disease (WBC > 30 x 109 /L) (confirmed at time of study entry prior to first dose)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within the Protocol-defined rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented low-grade serous carcinoma; confirmation must occur by prospective pathology review prior to study entry; the prospective pathology review can be done on tissue from the recurrent carcinoma or from original diagnostic specimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have received prior MEK, v-Ki-ras2 Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS), or v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) inhibitor therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication; the following medications or non-drug therapies are prohibited:\r\n* Patients may not be receiving any other anti-cancer or investigational agents\r\n* The concurrent use of all herbal supplements is prohibited during the study (including, but not limited to St. John’s wort, kava, ephedra [ma huang], gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], yohimbe, saw palmetto, or ginseng)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must NOT be taking metformin or have been on metformin in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of Ewing sarcoma translocation by FISH or RT-PCR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of MDS.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAge of 12 years or older (patient must weigh ? 40 kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAchieved less than a partial response (<PR) following at least 4 cycles and are without evidence of progression disease (PD). ORXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression following an initial confirmed response of MR or better to the combination (according to IMWG response criteria).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must not have primary refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas measureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXA clinical-pathologic stage - estrogen/grade (CPS-EG) score of ?3, or score 2 if nodal status at surgery is ypN+, calculated using local estrogen receptor status and grade assessed on either core biopsies taken before start of neoadjuvant treatment or surgical specimen (see chapter 21.1).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled electrolyte disorders (eg, hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, hypo¬magnesemia).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent (within the past year) or active suicidal behavior.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior histologic diagnosis of GBM or gliosarcoma at first occurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst or second recurrence of GBM or gliosarcoma considered to be surgically resectableXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of any systemic autoimmune disease (e.g. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis) and/or any history of primary or secondary immunodeficiency, and no immunosuppressant therapy (with the exception of dexamethasone as noted below) for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of >= 4 clinical vials of HSPPC-96Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXNo serious, non-healing wounds or ulcersXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical deterioration at the time of registration/randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have more than 10% weight loss in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a history of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution’s identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with HNSCC:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCarcinomas of the nasopharynx, salivary gland, or nonsquamous cell histology are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with melanoma:Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters not within the protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received X4P-001Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a pre-existing condition that is contraindicated includingXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-secretory or oligo-secretory MMXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenström's macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to EGFR inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior intracerebral agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for urgent palliative intervention for primary disease (e.g., rapidly increasing intracranial pressure, impending herniation, uncontrolled seizures).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematology: ANC < 1.5 x109/L; Plt < 100 x109/L Hgb < 9.0 g/dL within 7 days prior to enrollment. The use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve Hb ? 9 g/dL is acceptable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXT.Bili. ? 1.5 x ULN (except in patients diagnosed with Gilbert's disease).Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn the absence of therapeutic intent to anticoagulate the patient: INR > 1.5 or PT > 1.5 xULN or aPTT > 1.5 xULN Therapeutic anticoagulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUsed any prescription medication during the prior 2 weeks that the investigator judges is likely to interfere with the study or to pose an additional risk to the patient in participating, specifically inhibitors or inducers of cytochrome P450 (CYP)3A4 (refer to Appendix 5). A stable regimen (? 4 weeks) of antidepressants of the selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI) class is allowed (common SSRIs include escitalopram oxalate, citalopram, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, and fluoxetine).Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any drugs associated with torsades de pointes or known to moderately or severely prolong the QTc(F) intervalXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score ? 3 + 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for general anesthesia (ASA category ? 3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProstate calcifications > 1 cm in largest diameter, on Baseline UltrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute unresolved Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInterest in future fertilityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of ulcerative colitis or other chronic inflammatory conditions affecting rectum (includes rectal fistula, anal stenosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of urethral and bladder outlet disorders, including urethral stricture disease, urethral diverticulae, bladder neck contracture, urethral fistulae, urethral stenting, urethral sling, urethroplasty or chronic indwelling urethral catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with artificial urinary sphincter or any penile implantXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere neurogenic bladderXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated bladder stonesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute urinary retention within the last 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive untreated gross hematuria for any causeXx_NEWLINE_xXPost Void Residual (PVR) bladder volume > 250 mLXx_NEWLINE_xXObstructing median lobe enlarged out of proportion to the rest of the prostate and protruding significantly into the bladder, sometimes referred to as \ball valve\ median lobe, determined on Baseline MRIXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Parkinson's disease or multiple sclerosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent unilateral or bilateral hydronephrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in the USA: GlucagonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in Canada and Europe: Buscopan (Hyoscine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been assigned to S1400AXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also be offered participation in banking for future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impaired decision-making capacity are eligible as long as their neurological or psychological condition does not preclude their safe participation in the study (e.g., tracking pill consumption and reporting adverse events to the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXbe intolerant of sorafenib (defined as Grade 2 drug-related adverse event which 1) persisted in spite of comprehensive supportive therapy according to institutional standards AND 2) persisted or recurred after sorafenib treatment interruption of at least 7 days and dose reduction by one dose level (to 400 mg once daily) AND/OR Grade 3 drug-related adverse event which 1) persisted in spite of comprehensive supportive therapy according to institutional standards OR 2) persisted or recurred after sorafenib treatment interruption of at least 7 days and dose reduction by one dose level (to 400 mg once daily); OR must have documented refusal of sorafenib;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has been previously treated with mogamulizumab;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXRefrain from sperm and blood donation for at least 90 days after the final dose of durvalumab 8. For Cohort A subject must be transplant non-eligible (TNE) and meet at least one of the following high risk factors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCytogenetic abnormalities finding in malignant myeloma clone with t(4; 14); and / or del(17p); and / or 1q amplification; and / or t(14:16);orXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a post-transplant response as Partial response (PR) or better at the time of enrollment to this study;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave one of the following high risk factors at the time of NDMM diagnosis;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCytogenetic abnormalities finding in malignant myeloma clone with t(4; 14); and / or del(17p); and / or 1q amplification; and / or t(14; 16); orXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum LDH > 2 x ULN; c. Minimal residual disease (MRD) positive (defined as more than 1 malignant cell in 105 cells) measured by ClonoSIGHT NGS assay of a BMA sample) at the time of enrollment to this study; BMA sample collected at the time of multiple myeloma diagnosis, prior to induction therapy available for central MRD assessment by ClonoSIGHT NGS assayXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from enrollment:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary AL (immunoglobulin light-chain) amyloidosis and myeloma complicated by amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with vitiligo or alopecia;Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf central pathology review indicates a diagnosis other than ATC, the participant may continue treatment with lenvatinib per standard of care, at the discretion of the treating investigator. Participants deemed to have another diagnosis (not ATC) will be taken off this study and replaced for the purpose of efficacy analyses.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDifferentiated thyroid carcinoma (DTC) with focus loci of ATC is allowed. If a participant has pathology showing a small focus of ATC arising out of DTC and the measurable disease is not fully consistent with ATC, confirmation of ATC by biopsy is required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have had external beam radiotherapy or locoregional therapies such as radiofrequency ablation must show evidence of subsequent progressive disease (substantial size increase of ? 20%) to be deemed a target lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDifferentiated thyroid cancer (DTC) or MTC. However, ATC arising out of DTC is allowed, as long as the measurable disease is clinically consistent with ATC i.e., rapidly progressive and/or 18F fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG)-avid.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of major blood vessel invasion/infiltration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre currently totally abstinent (as their preferred and usual lifestyle), and who do not agree to be totally abstinent during the study period and for 30 days after study drug discontinuation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to bromodomain (BET) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHBsAg positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of high grade esophageal or gastric varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Escalation:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort Expansion:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther concomitant malignancies (with some exceptions per protocol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires urgent palliative intervention for primary disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas predominantly squamous cell histology NSCLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any component of cisplatin, carboplatin or pemetrexed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs a regular user (including \recreational use\) of any illicit drugs or had a recent history (within the last year) of substance abuse (including alcohol).Xx_NEWLINE_xXInaccessible tumors or for whom biopsy is contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire parenteral nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny immunodeficiency disease or immune-compromised stateXx_NEWLINE_xXValvular heart disease that requires antibiotic prophylaxis for prevention of endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOIs) or a drug which has significant MAOI activity (meperidine, linezolid, methylene blue) within the 21 days before screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHas implanted medical devices that pose high risks for colonization and cannot be easily removedXx_NEWLINE_xXCT scans or MRIs used to assess disease at baseline must be submitted for central reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXSites must seek additional patient consent for the future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXAre at least:Xx_NEWLINE_xXadult Phase 1 Part A and Phase 2: ?16 years old at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXpediatric Phase 1 Part B: 2 to <16 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously completed or withdrawn from this study or any other study investigating LY3039478 or other Notch inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs able to take medications orally (ie, no feeding tube).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas previously received TAS-102.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAge < 55 years and one year or more of amenorrhea, with an estradiol assay < 20 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute and chronic, active infectious disorders and non malignant medical illnesses that are uncontrolled or whose control may be jeopardized by the complications of this study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory pediatric B-cell ALL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for allogeneic SCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a minimum level of pulmonary reserve as ? Grade 1 dyspnea and pulse oxygenation > 91% on room air.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extra-medullary disease relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of grade 2 to 4 acute or extensive chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe following medications are excluded:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGVHD therapies: Any drug used for GVHD must be stopped > 4 weeks prior to CTL019 infusion (e.g. calcineurin inhibitors, methotrexate or other chemotherapy drugs, mycophenolyate, rapamycin, thalidomide, or immunosuppressive antibodies such as anti-CD20 (rituximab), anti-TNF, anti-IL6 or anti-IL6R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti T-cell therapy: Administration of any T cell or toxic agent is strongly discouraged since residual lytic levels may destroy the infused CTL019 cell or prevent their in vivo expansion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than disease under study within 5 years prior to D1 of C1Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor relapsed/refractory subjects only:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically eligible to receive MECXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically eligible to receive \7+3\ cytarabine/idarubicinXx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft versus host disease (GVHD) ? Grade 2 or extensive chronic GVHD requiring immunosuppressive therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSolid tumors with documented ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroendocrine tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC with documented ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXk-RAS wild-type CRC with documented NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXOther solid tumors with documented ROS1, NTRK1, NTRK2, or NTRK3 rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXHematological malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXQTcF values higher than 450 ms at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXBe eligible for commercial receipt of therapy to be used in this study in combination with RTA 408 (i.e., ipilimumab or nivolumab in the Phase 1b portion and nivolumab only in the Phase 2 portion);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must not have primary ocular or mucosal melanoma, or history or evidence of melanoma associated with immunodeficiency states (eg, hereditary immune deficiency, organ transplant, or leukemia).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must not have evidence of clinically significant immunosuppression or active herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) infection (eg, herpetic keratitis or encephalitis) and must not require intermittent or chronic systemic treatment with an antiherpetic drug (eg, acyclovir), other than intermittent topical use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of other NY-ESO-1-targeting immunotherapeutics.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther immunosuppressive medications such as methotrexate, cyclosporine, azathioprine (antihistamines, non-steroidal anti- inflammatory drugs and aspirin permitted) or conditions such as common variable hypogammaglobulinemia or exposures such as large field radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAssociated with symptoms and/or findings; ORXx_NEWLINE_xXNo CVA21 neutralising antibody (? 1:16)Xx_NEWLINE_xXT2N1-2 or T3N0-2b tumors at =< 14 cm from the A-V margin (below the peritoneal reflection) or the rectosigmoid junctionXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with a lumen sufficient to allow the positioning of the rectal applicator (standard probe/scope) confirmed by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors of less than 4 cm thickness from the rectal mucosa documented at the time of staging imagesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of signet ring involvement on histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of necrotic or > 1.5 cm in diameter pelvic (iliac/inguinal) nodesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is pacemaker dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2, Cohort 1: For subjects with only PAM pathway alterations, subjects must have only PAM alterations, excluding Akt2 activating mutations or amplifications, and no other genomic alterations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2, Cohort 2: Histologically confirmed local laboratory testing (immunohistochemistry 3+ staining and/or fluorescence in situ hybridization ratio >= 2.0) HER2+ metastatic breast cancer subjects who are resistant to trastuzumab-containing treatment and progressed on trastuzumab, pertuzumab, a taxane, and/or trastuzumab emtansine. There is no limit regarding the number of prior lines of therapy. Subjects may be enrolled regardless of whether or not their tumor harbors a PAM pathway alteration (documentation of PAM pathway alteration for this cohort is not required).Xx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the ingredients of the investigational product AGS15EXx_NEWLINE_xXHas ocular conditions such as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMonocularityXx_NEWLINE_xXContact lens dependent (if using contact lens, must be able to switch to glasses during the entire study duration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled glaucoma (topical medications allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled or evolving retinopathy, wet macular degeneration, uveitis, papilledema, or optic disc disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values within protocol -defined parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory tests must meet minimum safety requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXMen and women of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave acquired, hereditary or congenital immunodeficiencies including cellular immunodeficiencies, hypogammaglobulinemia and dysgammaglobulinemia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a prior history of a documented hemolytic event.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a known history of HIV are excluded due to the possibility that Gemcitabine or NPC-1C(NEO-102) may worsen their condition and the likelihood that the underlying condition may obscure the attribution of adverse events with respect to Gemcitabine or NPC-1C(NEO-102).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor institutions that have Phase 3 or Phase 4 protocols studying idelalisib (Zydelig®) ; individuals with malignancies being studied in these protocols must have failed screening in the respective idelalisib protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing or recent hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing alcohol or drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXAML with inv(16), t(8;21), t(16;16), t(15;17), or t(9;22) or molecular evidence of such translocationsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of malignant disease within the previous 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a documented diagnosis of MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXMust agree to follow pregnancy precautions as required by protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown clinically significant anemia due to iron, vitamin B12, or folate deficiencies, or autoimmune or hereditary hemolytic anemia, or gastrointestinal bleedingXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal coagulation parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal kidney function test resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXSouth Western Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXFasting triglycerides =< 5 x time the upper limit of normal; patients above this level may be eligible with permission of the study chair; triglycerides may be \normalized\ prior to study entry with use of an antilipemic agent (atorvastatin, fenofibrate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior fenretinide oral capsules is allowed; please consult study chair if prior history of intravenous fenretinide emulsion (allowable if drug stopped due to hypertriglyceridemia); prior 13-cis, 9-cis or all-trans retinoic acid are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of concomitant antioxidants, such as vitamin C or E, is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertriglyceridemia with triglyceride levels > 200 mg/dl; patients with triglyceride levels < 200 receiving treatment for hypertriglyceridemia or hyperlipidemia are considered eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high-risk uterine leiomyosarcoma (LMS), Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage I (confined to corpus +/- cervix); patients with known uterine serosa involvement are not eligible; patients should have had, at least, a complete hysterectomy (including removal of the cervix); bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is not required \r\n* Institutional pathology review calls the uterine leiomyosarcoma “high grade”\r\n* Additionally, if the pathology report indicates a mitotic rate, the mitotic rate should be greater than or equal to 5 mitoses/10 high-power field\r\n* All patients must be no longer than 12 weeks (3 months) from surgical resection of cancer at the time of enrollment on study; if a patient requires a second operation to complete her surgery, i.e., trachelectomy to remove the cervix and/or bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy (BSO), the 12 weeks may be counted from the time of the second operation\r\n* Patients who had a “morcellation” hysterectomy procedure that involved morcellation within the peritoneal cavity are eligible IF a second operation is performed and biopsies from the second procedure show no evidence of leiomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirements specifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent uterine LMSXx_NEWLINE_xXNo or minimal disease-related symptoms not affecting patient daily activities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown deleterious germline mutation of BRCA1/2 (Patients in Cohorts A and A1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive prior RT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or concurrent malignant disease unless cured for more than five years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelevant diseases or clinical situations which may increase patient's risk: History of cardiac disease. Moderate breathing difficulties or oxygen requirement Active uncontrolled infection. Unhealed wound or presence of any external drainage. Chronically active viral hepatitis. Immunocompromised patients, including those known to be infected by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Known muscular disease or functional alterationXx_NEWLINE_xXImpending need for immediate RT for symptomatic relief.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason 8 or higher scoreXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) > 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastases (M1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accident within one year from consultation, or other major vascular risk factor which would prevent a patient from receiving appropriate androgen deprivation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be appropriate for reduced intensity regimen, according to the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXBefore starting therapy the patient should be able to maintain adequate oral nutrition of >= 1500 calories estimated caloric intake per day and be free of significant nausea and vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXConsultation, agreement, and documentation in the patient’s chart by a radiation oncologist that patient is suitable to receive radiotherapy per this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with non-adenocarcinomas, adenosquamous carcinomas, islet cell (neuroendocrine) tumors, cystadenomas, cystadenocarcinomas, carcinoid tumors, duodenal carcinomas, distal bile duct, and ampullary carcinomas; patients with tumors that are largely IPMN with a minimal or minor component of invasive carcinoma are not eligible; patients with acinar carcinomas are not eligible; patients with IPMN’s that contain some secondary (minor) foci of adenocarcinoma are also not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients managed with a total pancreatectomy, a distal pancreatectomy, or central pancreatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to cetuximabXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement of at least one nail with a Paronychia Severity Grading score of 1 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are willing to not start any new products OTC or prescription treatments for Paronychia and discontinue any treatment the investigator feels may interfere with the evaluation of the test productsXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are already on antibiotics as prescribed by oncologist for any condition except paronychiaXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are willing to avoid using cosmetic products, creams, salves, or ointments to the treatment area(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHER-2/neu negative or, if HER-2/neu positive, disease must have previously progressed on treatment with trastuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with inaccessible tumors or for whom biopsy is contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have implanted medical devices that pose high risks for colonization and cannot be easily removed (e.g. artificial heart valves, pacemakers, prosthetic joints, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s)) if infection occurs. Other common devices such as venous access devices (e.g. Port-a-Cath or Mediport) may be permitted as well as arterial and venous stents and dental and breast implants that were placed more than 3 months prior to first dose of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed following, or refractory to, previous ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXDid not achieve at least a partial response (PR) to a standard salvage regimen (e.g., R-ICE; rituximab, ifosfamide, carboplatin, etoposide, or R-DHAP; rituximab, dexamethasone, cytarabine, cisplatin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for intensification treatment due to failure to mobilize an acceptable number of hematopoietic stem cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXTransformed disease is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXBe vasectomized, orXx_NEWLINE_xXProgesterone only oral contraception, where inhibition of ovulation is not the primary mode of action.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical history, current alcohol (ethanol), or illicit drug use which, in the judgment of the investigator, will interfere with the subject's ability to comply with the dosing schedule and protocol-specified evaluations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegular alcohol consumption averaging more than seven drinks/week for women and 14 drinks/week for men within 6 months of screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXallow bilirubin up to 2.5 times ULN if elevation is not associated with other signs of liver toxicity or can be explained by mechanical obstruction - requires clinical research physician approval.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to the cumulative doses of anthracyclinesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation, or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for greater than (>) 2 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have received prior irinotecan-based chemotherapy (e.g. irinotecan hydrochloride, leucovorin calcium, fluorouracil, and oxaliplatin [FOLFIRINOX] or FOLFIRI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future useXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSeizures occurrence or the requirement of escalation (or addition) of anti-epileptic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multiple or multifocal GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXActive GI bleeding, as evidenced by hematemesis, hematochezia or melena in the past 3 months without evidence of resolution documented by endoscopy or colonoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXCoronary/peripheral artery bypass graftXx_NEWLINE_xXFor both cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXhas achieved menarche at some pointXx_NEWLINE_xXAML secondary to prior MDS, orXx_NEWLINE_xXFor both cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to azacitidine, decitabine or prior exposure to the investigational oral formulation of decitabine, or other oral azacitidine derivative.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThrombopoiesis-stimulating agents (eg, romiplostim, eltrombopag, Interleukin-11)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of malignancies, (except MDS for AML subjects), unless the subject has been free of the disease for ? 2 years. However, subjects with the following history/concurrent conditions are allowed:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with vitiligo or alopecia;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with hypothyroidism (eg, following Hashimoto syndrome) stable on hormone replacement for ? 3 months prior to signing the ICF; orXx_NEWLINE_xXOther investigational mAbs within 6 months prior to first dose of IP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling or unable to complete subject reported outcome assessments without assistance or with minimal assistance from trained site personnel and/or caregiver.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of, anemia and/or thrombocytopenia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMassive or progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMassive nodes or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConstitutional symptoms, defined as any one or more of the following disease-related symptoms or signs:Xx_NEWLINE_xXunintentional weight loss of 10% or more within the previous 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXfevers higher than 100.5°F or 38.0°C for >=2 weeks without other evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXnight sweats for > 1 month without evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically quantifiable disease burden defined as at least one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXeither ALC >10 000/µL, orXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible and able to secure sourcing for ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXHas active cerebral/meningeal disease, active cytomegalovirus (CMV) colitis, or signs and symptoms of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) or any history of PML.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs undergoing transplant for the treatment of nonmalignant hematological disorders (for example: aplastic anemia, sickle cell anemia, thalassemias, Fanconi anemia).Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerant of ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all required evaluations and procedures in this study protocol including swallowing capsules without difficulty.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has disease amenable to biopsy and is agreeable to undergo a biopsy; NOTE: under unusual circumstances, submission of ascites material may be acceptable if a biopsy is not possible; this exception will require approval by one of the study principal investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to tolerate thromboembolic prophylaxis while on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIs a current smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of NSCLC with EGFR mutation or an EGFR activating mutation that has had a clinical response to erlotinib, afatinib, or gefitinib in the patient being enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in Cohort A may have asymptomatic LM detected by MRI. (Subjects with symptoms or signs attributed to LM will be enrolled in Cohort B whether or not they have brain metastases)Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG Score ?2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo coexisting medical problems of sufficient severity to limit compliance with the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any medication known to moderately or severely inhibit the CYP3A4 isozyme or any drugs that are CYP3A4 inducers (including anti-epileptic agents such as phenytoin). A stable regimen (? 4 weeks) of antidepressants of the SSRI class is allowed (common SSRIs include escitalopram oxalate, citalopram, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline, and fluoxetine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any drugs associated with torsades de pointes or known to moderately or severely prolong the QTc(F) intervalXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed non-keratinizing differentiated NPC or undifferentiated NPCXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinalysis with < 2+ proteinuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-nuclear antibody (ANA) negative or low-positive institutional range, as determined within 28 days from registration. Intermediate values (usually defined by a titer of ?1:80, or as indicated by institutional range) are acceptable if there are, in the opinion of the Investigator, no early signs of an autoimmune disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic thyroid disease, unless negative for thyroid antibodies (TSH receptor, TPO, thyroglobulin).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown fibrolamellar HCC, sarcomatoid HCC, or mixed cholangiocarcinoma and HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXHematological function, as follows, without transfusion support:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMF PATIENTS: Patients must be intermediate I risk or beyond and meet the following:\r\n* In need of treatment\r\n* Intolerant or refractory to ruxolitinib (or other investigational Janus kinase [JAK]-inhibitors) OR unlikely to benefit from ruxolitinib\r\n* Ineligible or refusal to undergo stem cell transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXMF PATIENTS: PT and PTT =< 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received prior administration of an Aurora A kinase targeted agent (including alisertib) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a known history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness (such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or requirement for supplemental oxygen) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a requirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor, histamine-2 (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes are not eligible; intermittent usage of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of common EGFR mutation (Del 19 and/or L858R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of other intratumoral immunotherapeuticsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther immunosuppressive medications such as methotrexate, cyclosporine, azathioprine or conditions such as common variable hypogammaglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of significant adverse or allergic reaction to any component of G100 and, if enrolled in Part 2, anti-PD1 antibodies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of clinically significant hemorrhagic or thrombotic event within the past 6 months, not including uncomplicated catheter-associated venous thrombosis; patients on anti-coagulation are not permitted to be on any oral formulations (warfarin, rivaroxaban, dabigatran, etc.) due to concern for drug-drug interactionXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: History of intolerance to capecitabine at doses =< 1000 mg/m^2 BID, as defined by documented >= grade 3 hand-foot syndrome, documented severe diarrhea requiring hospitalization, or other documented severe adverse events (AEs) attributable to capecitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: History of intolerance to capecitabine at doses below 1000 mg/m^2 BID, as defined by documented >= grade 3 hand-foot syndrome; documented severe diarrhea requiring hospitalization; or other documented severe AEs attributable to capecitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 months must have elapsed from the use of tamoxifenXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 6 months must have elapsed from the use of fulvestrantXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of tumors involving spinal cord or heartXx_NEWLINE_xXNo current evidence of visceral crisis or lymphangitic spreadXx_NEWLINE_xXNo tumors involving spinal cord or heartXx_NEWLINE_xXNo visceral crisis, lymphangitic spread or known brain metastases: visceral crisis is not the mere presence of visceral metastases, but implies severe organ dysfunction as assessed by symptoms and signs, laboratory studies, and rapid progression of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented germline mutation in Breast Cancer susceptibility genes: BRCA1 and/or BRCA2 that is predicted to be deleterious or suspected deleterious (known or predicted to be detrimental/lead to loss of function)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBRCA 1 and/or BRCA2 mutations that are considered to be non detrimentalXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown presence of osteonecrosis of jaw.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphangitic carcinomatosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXFludarabine or Campath within 12 months prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of estrogens or 5-? reductase inhibitors or AR inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to use dexamethasone mouthwash as directedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior eribulin useXx_NEWLINE_xXNoncompliant with oral medication and/or dexamethasone mouth washXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria: Subjects must have histologically or cytologically confirmed metastatic\n        cutaneous or mucosal melanoma, Able to swallow and retain orally administered medication,\n        Adequate hematological, renal, hepatic, and coagulation laboratory assessments Exclusion\n        Criteria: Clinically significant bleeding within 4 weeks of screening, Current use of\n        warfarin, factor Xa inhibitors, and direct thrombin inhibitors, Infection requiring\n        anti-infective treatments within 1 week of study enrollment, Anti-tumor therapy, Major\n        surgery within 28 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXIn France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent hemoptysisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitivity reaction to the active pharmaceutical ingredient or any of the capsule components, including Labrasol, butylated hydroxyanisole, and butylated hydroxytoluene;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received daratumumab or other anti-CD38 therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, persistent asthma, or a history of asthma within 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients BRAF mutation status must be knownXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded if they have any prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded if they have known significant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded if they have symptomatic peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded if they have a history of hemoptysis (bright red blood of 1/2 teaspoon or more per episode) within 3 months prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded if they have current or recent (within 10 days of enrollment) use of aspirin (> 325 mg/day) or chronic use of other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded if they use medications that inhibit platelet function (e.g., dipyridamole, epoprostenol, eptifibatide, clopidogrel, cilostazol, abciximab, ticlopidine, and ibuprofen and related compounds) unless subject has been off treatment for at least 2 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATION (STEP 0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZATION (STEP 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart B: NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of known translocation or inversion events involving the ALK gene locus (resulting in EML4-ALK fusion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically measureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically measureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically measureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to swallow a whole tablet and take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach (defined as no food for two hours before and one hour after abiraterone acetate ingestion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent spironolactone useXx_NEWLINE_xXHave known HCC with fibro-lamellar or mixed histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of histologically documented r/r Grades 1 to 3a FL, or r/r DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy (or recombinant antibody-related fusion proteins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men, agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement to the collection of serial fresh lesion samples (required, if feasible, for entry into Escalation Cohorts 4 and Expansion Cohorts A & B and optional, but encouraged in Escalation Cohorts 2 & 3 and Expansion Cohort C)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor participants to be enrolled into the vemurafenib+cobimetinib+ atezolizumab cohorts: history of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment/central serous chorioretinopathy, retinal vein occlusion, or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate organ function as follows: Hematologic system: Absolute neutrophil count (ANC), Lab values - >=1.5 X 10^9/L; Hematologic system: Hemoglobin, Lab values - >=9.5 grams/deciliter (g/dL) (subjects that required transfusion or growth factor need to demonstrate stable haemoglobin for 7 days of 9.5 g/ g/dL); Hematologic system: Platelets, Lab values - >=100 X 10^9/Liter [L] ); Hematologic system: Prothrombin time /International normalized ratio and partial thromboplastin time, Lab values - <=1.5 X upper limit of normal (ULN). Renal system: Creatinine, lab values - <=1.5 X ULN; or Renal system: Calculated creatinine clearance [calculated by Cockcroft Gault formula], lab values - >=50 milliliter (mL)/minute (min); or Renal system: 24-hour urine creatinine clearance>=50 mL/min; Hepatic system: total Bilirubin <=1.5 X ULN (isolated bilirubin >1.5 X ULN is acceptable if bilirubin is fractionated and direct bilirubin <35% or subject has a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) >=2.5 x ULN. Cardiac system: Ejection fraction, lab values - >=lower limit of normal (LLN) by Echocardiogram (ECHO) (minimum of 50%); Cardiac system: Troponin ( T), lab values - <=ULN; Cardiac system: Potassium, lab values - >=LLN and <=ULN; Cardiac system: Magnesium, lab values - >=LLN. Thyroid system: thyroid stimulating hormone, lab values >=LLN and <=to ULN. Reproductive /endocrine system: testosterone <50 nanogram (ng)/dL (only for subject with CRPC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication or requires any of these medications during treatment with the investigational drugs (details will be available in the protocol). This includes excluding current medications known or suspected to be associated QT prolongation. In addition, any subject who may require a QT prolonging medication while on trial should not be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBesylate Sub-Study only: unable or unwilling to eat the FDA recommended high-fat high-calorie breakfast (two eggs fried in butter, two strips of bacon, 4 ounce [oz]) of hash brown potatoes and 8 oz of whole milk) within the recommended 30 minutes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFanconi AnemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMales must agree to take appropriate precautions to avoid fathering a child from screening until 3 months after their last dose of study medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must have been completely resected; in patients with tumor adherent to adjacent structures, en bloc R0 resection must be documented in the operative report or otherwise confirmed by the surgeon; near or positive radial margin are NOT exclusions as long as en bloc resection was performed; positive proximal margin or distal margin is an exclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are ineligible if they plan on regular use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) at any dose more than 2 times per week (on average) or aspirin at more than 325 mg at least three times per week, on average; low-dose aspirin not exceeding 100 mg/day is permitted; patients who agree to stop regular NSAIDs or higher dose aspirin are eligible and no wash out period is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology confirmed by treating institution’s pathology departmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAll disease stagesXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious concomitant medical illnesses that would jeopardize the patient's ability to receive the regimen with reasonable safetyXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically operableXx_NEWLINE_xXThymic carcinoidXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history and/or current evidence of endocrine alteration of calcium-phosphate homeostasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or current evidence of ectopic mineralization/ calcification including but not limited to the soft tissue, kidneys, intestine, myocard and lung with the exception of calcified lymphnodes and asymptomatic coronary calcificationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of corneal disorder/ keratopathy incl. but not limited to bullous/ band keratopathy, corneal abrasion, inflammation/ulceration, keratoconjunctivitis etc., confirmed by ophthalmologic examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have documented iron deficiency; all patients must have documented marrow iron stores; if marrow iron stain is not available, the transferrin saturation must be > 20% or a serum ferritin > 100 ng/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have proliferative (WBC >= 12,000/mcL) chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML); WBC must be < 12,000/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have prior history of desquamating rash from thalidomide at time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a history of thrombo-embolic events within 3 years prior to study randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a known allergic reaction to epoetin alfa (Procrit) or human serum albuminXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must show failure to achieve MER (major erythroid response) or have achieved MER but relapsed on Arm AXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed patients must have achieved a complete remission (CR) or CR with incomplete blood count recovery (CRi) lasting < 6 months with their last induction regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have achieved CR; patients who achieved only CRi or PR, and patients who relapse from CR before this registration are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSGOT (AST) =< 3.0 x IULN and SGPT (ALT) =< 3.0 x IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled on the expansion portion of the study will consist of two cohorts: those patients who are triple-negative, BRCA-mutant positive and those patients who have triple-negative, non-BRCA mutated breast cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions attributed to the following: \r\n* Camptothecin derivatives (e.g., topotecan [topotecan hydrochloride], irinotecan, or exatecan [exatecan mesylate]) \r\n* Any ingredients contained within the liquid irinotecan solution (e.g., sorbitol) or\r\n* Any antiemetics or antidiarrheals appropriate for administration with study therapy (e.g., loperamide or dexamethasone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to reliably tolerate and/or receive oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged >= 50 and < 75 years (yrs) with CMML, or previously untreated MDS or MPDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged < 50 yrs at high risk for regimen related toxicity using standard high dose regimens; factors considered high risk include pre-existing conditions such as a chronic disease affecting kidneys, liver, lungs, or heart or previous failed HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients < 12 yrs of age must be discussed on a case by case basis with the primary investigator (PI) of the protocol prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXMPD: Patients with polycythemia vera with persistent thrombotic or hemorrhagic complications despite conventional therapy, or who have progressed to postpolycythemic marrow fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXMPD: Patients with essential thrombocythemia with persistent thrombotic or hemorrhagic complications despite conventional therapy, or who have progressed to myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXMPD: Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis with peripheral blood cytopeniasXx_NEWLINE_xXParoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH): Patients with the non-aplastic form of PNH (cellular bone marrow) who have had a history of life-threatening complications of their disease including thrombotic events, severe hemolysis or Budd Chiari syndrome are eligible; other patients may be considered following approval at PCC and approval by the Principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of >= 5% circulating leukemic blasts (in the peripheral blood) detected by standard pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of fertile age who refuse contraception for a twelve month period post-transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere psychological illness such as major psychosis (e.g. schizophrenia), major bipolar depression, or suicidal situational depressionXx_NEWLINE_xXUveal or ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXTreated with eculizumab for PNH for at least 6 months prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXLDH level ? 1.5 × ULN at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPNH diagnosis confirmed by documented by high-sensitivity flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight < 40 kilogramsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have untreated, histologically proven high-risk DLBCL defined by IPI 3 to 5 and/or Double-hit or higher or double protein expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXFemales who are pregnant or breastfeeding or planning to become pregnant or breastfeed while receiving blinatumomab and for an additional 48 hours after the last treatment dose of blinatumomab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible 19 years and older in South KoreaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has been permanently discontinued from ribociclib (LEE011) in the parent protocol for any reason.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to a pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD)-based drug, prior participation in a rovalpituzumab tesirine clinical trial, or known hypersensitivity to rovalpituzumab tesirine or excipient contained in the drug formulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a documented local diagnostic pathology of original biopsy confirmed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) or equivalent laboratory certificationXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: Molecular evidence of BAP1 loss of function mutation present on local pathology, e.g., lack of nuclear BAP1 staining by immunohistochemistry (IHC) or evidence of loss of function by gene sequencingXx_NEWLINE_xXpatients must have high intermediate or high risk diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate study baseline laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable (target) disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematological:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit ?30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXAST (SGOT) and ALT (SGPT): ?2.5xULN OR ?5xULN for subjects with liver metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulation:Xx_NEWLINE_xXO2 saturation < 92% (on room air).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe trial is open to both gendersXx_NEWLINE_xXAs there is potential for hepatic toxicity with nivolumab, drugs with a predisposition to hepatotoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than SCLC within 5 years prior to randomization, with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have documented ALK rearrangement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived glembatumumab vedotin (CR011-vcMMAE; CDX-011) or other MMAE-containing agents previously.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe MMAE component of glembatumumab vedotin is primarily metabolized by CYP3A. Patients taking strong CYP3A inhibitor and inducers are excluded in Phase I (the dose escalation portion), to minimize the effect of these modulators on exposure, tolerability and dose selection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of positive serum human ADA.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have completed at least 4 months of adjuvant chemotherapy (i.e., FOLFOX, CapeOx, or other, such as 5-fluorouracil, leucovorin, oxaliplatin (FLOX), 5-fluorouracil/leucovorin (5FU/LV), capecitabine).Xx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated, distant, or non-contiguous intra-abdominal metastases, even if resected.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGastroduodenal ulcer(s) determined by endoscopy to be active.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral ischemia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of immune modulators and/or any immunosuppressive drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient willing to consider HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior formal search was institutedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor MDS; International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS)-revised criteria of high or very high at diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentification of a drug target/targets through molecular profiling performed as a part of routine clinical care and treatment recommendation by the Mayo Clinic Genomics Tumor Board (GTB); NOTE: If profile matches more than 1 treatment arm, final decision for treatment arm assignment to be made by patients treating physician; it will be required for the genomic aberration to be identified through a test in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) workflow; assays used will range from single gene abnormalities (e.g. fluorescent in situ hybridization [FISH] for human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 [ERBB2] amplifications) to next generation sequencing based gene panels (Foundation One®) to more comprehensive assays such as whole exome sequencing; the Mayo Clinic GTB will serve as the centralized point of data synthesis to allow for assessment of molecular profiling accomplished through a heterogeneous array of testsXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-PROTOCOL AIM A: Confirmation of advanced cancer with mTOR pathway aberrations as determined through routine clinical care using pathway aberrations performed in a CLIA certified laboratory; cancer genomic profiling tests incorporating next generation sequencing from archival formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tissue (FFPE) are validated with sensitivities and specificities of 99% and 99%, respectively; in the assay, hybrid-capture–selected deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) libraries are sequenced to depths targeting > 500 × coverage by non-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) duplicate read pairs, with > 99% of exons at coverage > 100 ×); multiplatform profiling may include immunohistochemistry and in situ hybridization methods with previously established negative/positive cutoffs performed in a CLIA certified lab; at least one pathway aberration must be identified; these must be confirmed in a CLIA certified lab; the potential mTOR aberrations that could be identified are listed below, please note that this list is not all inclusive; if a CLIA validated report lists an mTOR pathway inhibitor as a target drug for a genetic aberration, then it can be considered eligible for the purposes of this study; v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT1), MTOR, phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase, catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA), tuberous sclerosis (TSC)1, TSC2, retrovirus-associated DNA sequence (Ras) homolog enriched in brain (RHEB), serine/threonine kinase 11 (STK11), neurofibromin (NF)1/2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-PROTOCOL AIM A: Serum cholesterol =< 350 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-PROTOCOL AIM A: Serum triglyceride =< 300 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-PROTOCOL AIM A: Previously treated patients who have failed, unable to tolerate, or refused other available active therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-PROTOCOL AIM A: Patients with a history of alcoholism, drug addiction or psychotic disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-PROTOCOL AIM A: Patients who required therapeutic doses of anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neuroendocrine or small cell features are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior use of hormonal therapy, including:\r\n* Gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GNRH) agonists or GNRH antagonists (e.g., leuprorelin, degarelix)\r\n* Antiandrogens (e.g., bicalutamide, flutamide, nilutamide)\r\n* Novel androgen-directed therapies (e.g., abiraterone, enzalutamide)\r\n* Any estrogen containing compounds\r\n* 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (e.g., finasteride, dutasteride)\r\n* PC-SPES or PC-x products; other herbal therapies or supplements will be considered by the principle investigator on a case by case basis based on their potential for hormonal or anti-cancer therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on anti-platelet agents including clopidogrel and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors; aspirin is allowed, but should be held before surgery according to standard practicesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating sperm for at least 3 months after the last dose of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown CD20-negative status at relapse or progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with metastatic RCC who have failed 2 or 3 prior systemic regimens, one of which includes a VEGFR TKI other than sorafenib or tivozanib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is fit for leukapheresis and has adequate venous access for the cell collection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnintended weight loss >10% in 6 months preceding study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiotherapy that involves the lung or mediastinum within 3 months prior to chemotherapy. (Note: there is no washout period for palliative radiation to non-target organs other than the lung or mediastinum. If radiation was to an intended target lesion within 3 months of baseline imaging studies, and the lesion is progressing within this time frame it may be considered as a target lesion after review and discussion with the Sponsor.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 1 (5HT1R) or 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 2B (5HT2BR) or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute Lymphocytes ?800/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal clinical assessment of pulmonary functionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo positive Hep C serology or active Hep B infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of uncontrollable supraventricular arrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of recurrent or metastatic SCCHN (oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must not have primary refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent analgesic therapies have failed, the subject is not a candidate for, OR the subject is not experiencing adequate pain relief from current pain therapies (e.g. radiation, analgesics)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe 'worst pain' in the last 24 hours must be reported to be 4 or above on a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (pain as bad as subject can imagine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent participation in other studies that could affect the primary endpointXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may have been operated for recurrence. If operated: residual and measurable disease after surgery is required;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known proliferative and/or vascular retinopathy;Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnequivocally confirmed diagnosis of SCLC by histology or cytology, preferably including the presence of neuroendocrine features by immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXHPV- negative SCCHN tumor as determined per institutional standard (eg, p16 IHC; multiplex nucleic acid sequence based amplification [NASBA] or other polymerase chain reaction [PCR]-based assays).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDifficulty swallowing capsules.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of two co-existing primary cancers are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMay have undergone prior treatment with pomalidomide if patient is not refractory to pomalidomide and has previously achieved a response of MR or better to pomalidomide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be on a stable dose of octreotide (Sandostatin) long-acting release (LAR) or lanreotide for 3 months prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant proteinuria at baseline (>= 500 mg/24 hours [h])Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood sample sent for free IGF-1 testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who only present with localized diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXrelapsed and/or refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXrefrain from breastfeeding and donating blood or oocytesXx_NEWLINE_xXMales (if sexually active with a FCBP) mustXx_NEWLINE_xXrefrain from donating blood or spermXx_NEWLINE_xXbe able to understand the reason for complying with the special conditions of the pregnancy prevention risk management plan and give written acknowledgement of this.Xx_NEWLINE_xXprimary refractory DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXa history of \double/triple hit\ geneticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of malignancies other than DLBCL, unless the patient has been free of the disease for ?5 years prior to screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will be enrolled under protocol amendment # 2 must have previously received bevacizumab, either discontinued due to intolerability, or progressed after at least 2 cycles of bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXWeekly paclitaxel for recurrent or persistent disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and who require parenteral hydration and/or nutrition.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular or uveal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of carcinomatosis meningitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of auto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented IDH1R132-mutant tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prognostic Index score ? 2 or DLBCL with double-positive for BCL2 and c-MYC by IHC (immunohistochemistry) or FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization) based on local pathology lab assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive and/or anti-HBc positive and detectable viral DNAXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are HBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive, and/or anti-HBc positive, but viral DNA negative are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected hypersensitivity to azacitidine or mannitol or any other ingredient used in the manufacture of oral azacitidine (see the current azacitidine IB).Xx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary mediastinal DLBCL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate eye disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXA valid cobas PIK3CA mutation result by central testing is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must have histologic evidence of G4 MG (including glioblastoma and gliosarcoma) and radiographic evidence of recurrence or disease progression (defined as either a greater than 25% increase in the largest bidimensional product of enhancement, a new enhancing lesion, or significant increase in T2 FLAIR).Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of CNS hemorrhage on baseline MRI or CT scan (except for post-surgical, asymptomatic Grade 1 hemorrhage that has been stable for at least 3 months for subjects enrolled prior to Amendment 2 and for at least 4 weeks in subjects enrolled after Amendment 2 is approved).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny comorbid condition that confounds the ability to interpret data from the study as judged by the Investigator or Medical Monitor. BEV-Specific Concerns (Note: These exclusion criteria apply to the Phase 2 portion of the study even though BEV is not administered so that the patient populations between Phase 1 and Phase 2 are similar):Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria < traceXx_NEWLINE_xXHave clinically acceptable laboratory screening results within certain limits specified below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolling onto Arm A (Gemcitabine with nab-Paclitaxel) are allowed to have prior mFOLFIRINOX in combination with BBI608 in the metastatic setting.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolling onto Arm B (mFOLFIRINOX) are allowed to have prior Gemcitabine with nab-Paclitaxel in combination with BBI608 in the metastatic setting.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neuroendocrine neoplasms will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of other active malignancies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients enrolling onto Arm B (mFOLFIRINOX) or Arm C (FOLFIRI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients enrolling onto Arm D (MM-398 with 5-FU and leucovorin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented diagnosis of any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave stable renal function without dialysis for at least 2 months prior to Investigational Product (IP) administration defined by:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales of childbearing potential (FCBP) may participate, providing the subject meets the following conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent abuse of alcohol or drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXSoft-tissue progression defined as an increase ? 20% in the sum of the longest diameter (LD) of all target lesions based on the smallest sum LD since treatment started or the appearance of one or more new lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on abiraterone and/or enzalutamide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been previously treated with a taxane except in cases of contraindication (e.g. poor performance status, age or patient choice)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the ability to understand, and have signed an approved ICFXx_NEWLINE_xXSoft-tissue progression defined as an increase ? 20% in the sum of the diameter (SOD; short axis for nodal lesions and long axis for non-nodal lesions) of all target lesions based on the smallest SOD, or the appearance of one or more new lesions, since the onset of the most recent prior therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of the following medications within 6 months prior to EC1169 administration: amiodarone, disopyramide, dofetilide, dronedarone, flecanamide, ibutilide, quinidine, or sotalolXx_NEWLINE_xXCarmustine ? 600 mg/m² received as part of the pre-transplant conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of known human anti-chimeric antibody (HACA) positivity; this does not have to be checked prior to enrollment unless clinically indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) resulting in (or as evidenced by) declining platelet or hemoglobin (Hgb) levels within the 4 weeks prior to first dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of transfusion-dependent thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had a local MGMT testing that is unmethylated are not allowed to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation by central pathology review of WHO grade IV glioblastoma or gliosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXProgression: patients deemed to have progressive disease based on clinical deterioration after chemoradiation or radiographic progression outside of the radiation field are not eligible; patients deemed to have pseudoprogression are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior cumulative exposure to >= 300 mg/m^2 cisplatin, area under the curve (AUC) of 18 of carboplatin, or their combined equivalent within one year prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a severe concurrent disease, infection, or comorbidity that would make the subject inappropriate for enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCD30 immunohistochemical staining using the anti-CD30 Becton Dickinson monoclonal (BerH2) antibody must be available on the most recent biopsy specimen; during dose escalation, patients can be either CD30 positive or CD30 negative; during dose expansion, 15 patients must be CD30 positive and 15 patients must be CD30 negativeXx_NEWLINE_xXPresent or history of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation on room air > 92 % by pulse oximetry; (subjects on intermittent or continuous supplemental oxygen are excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated for metastatic colorectal cancer or progression on any first line fluorouracil (5-FU) containing regimen (such as leucovorin calcium, fluorouracil, oxaliplatin [FOLFOX] or irinotecan, fluorouracil, leucovorin calcium [FOLFIRI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a pathologically confirmed diagnosis of PMF as per the WHO diagnostic criteria or post ET/PV MF;Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate-1, intermediate -2, or high risk disease according to the IWG -MRT Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring SystemXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not be candidates for ruxolitinib based on EITHER:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDirect bilirubin ? 1.5 x ULN; or ? 2x ULN (if upon judgment of the treating physician, it is believed to be due to EMH related to MF);Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to Cremophor EL, paclitaxel or its componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ventricular tachycardia or supraventricular tachycardia that requires treatment with a class Ia antiarrhythmic drug or class III antiarrhythmic drugXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of medications that have been linked to the occurrence of torsades de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch block (LBBB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum cardiac troponin (cTn) level ? 99% percentile of the upper reference limitXx_NEWLINE_xXRadioimmunotherapy (e.g., 131I-tositumomab, 90Y-ibritumomab tiuxetan) less than 6 weeks before the first dose of CPI-0610Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the patient has been diagnosed with MDS, disease of patient must be classified as Int-1, Intermediate-2 (Int-2) or High-risk, according to International Prognosis Scoring System (IPSS) classification. Note: Only Int-2 or High-risk patients will be enrolled at French site.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOff all other treatments for MDS, CMML, or AML including an erythropoiesis-stimulating agent (ESA), for at least 4 weeks prior to Screening. Filgrastim (G-CSF) is allowed before and during the study, as clinically indicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHyponatremia (defined as serum sodium value of < 130 mEq/L).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNew onset seizures (within 3 months prior to Screening) or poorly controlled seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with RAEB-t/non-proliferative AML (as defined by 20-30% BMBL, WBC ? 25,000 x 10^9/L and stable for at least 4 weeks without intervention) are not eligible to participate in the Phase II Part 1 RPTD component of the study and patients with CMML will not be eligible for Phase II Part 2 of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have evidence of MET expression by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), MET immunohistochemistry (IHC) score of 2-3+, reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) or a mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has, or accepts to have, an acceptable infusion device for infusion of melflufenXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious psychiatric illness, active alcoholism, or drug addiction that may hinder or confuse follow-up evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment on protocol for collection of PBMC/T cells may occur for the following patients with CD19+ B-ALL\r\n* Patients whose disease meets one of the following 3 criteria:\r\n** Very high-risk (VHR)\r\n** Patients in first (1st) or subsequent marrow relapse (isolated or combined), at the time of relapse, during retrieval therapy, or after achievement of complete remission (CR)\r\n** Refractory disease\r\n** Definitions of VHR B-ALL include the following:\r\n*** National Cancer Institute (NCI) high risk (HR)-acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and age >= 13 years at diagnosis\r\n*** Overt central nervous system disease (CNS-3) leukemia at diagnosis\r\n*** Day 29/end of induction bone marrow (BM) minimal residual disease (MRD) > 0.01%\r\n*** Induction failure (M3 BM at day 29/end of induction)\r\n*** Hypodiploidy (n < 44 chromosomes and/or a deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] index < 0.81)\r\n*** t(9;22) ALL (Philadelphia chromosome/Ph+ ALL) or Ph-like ALL\r\n*** t(17;19) ALL\r\n*** MLL gene rearrangement\r\n*** IKAROS family zinc finger 1 (Ikaros) (IKZF1) deletions\r\n*** Intrachromosomal amplification of chromosome 21 (iAMP21)\r\n* Please note patients that only meet the criteria for collection/storage of PBMCs will need to re-consented prior to infusion of genetically modified T-cellsXx_NEWLINE_xX> 90% oxygen saturation on room air by pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION FOR COLLECTION OF T CELLS/PBMCS: Patients with any concurrent active malignancies as defined by malignancies requiring any therapy other than expectant observationXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION FOR TREATMENT: Preceding and/or ongoing organ dysfunction or other co-morbidity including but not limited to uncontrolled infection that would impair the patient’s ability to endure known side effects of cytokine release syndrome or neurologic toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXBone lesions: lytic or mixed (lytic + sclerotic) in the absence of measurable disease as defined above.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStandard 12-lead ECG values defined as the mean of the triplicate ECGs and assessed by the central laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXResting heart rate 50-90 bpmXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed and untreated Ph+ CML CP or Ph+ CML CP or AP resistant or intolerant to either imatinib or dasatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pancreatitis or chronic pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXApplicable disease and eligible for myeloablative SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient physiological reservesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for concomitant medications that strongly induce or inhibit CYP3A4/5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors adjacent to a vertebral body are eligible as long as all gross disease can be encompassed in the radiation boost field; the boost volume must be limited to < 50% of the ipsilateral lung volumeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with weight loss =< 10% over the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have recovered from exploratory thoracotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXExudative, bloody, or cytologically malignant effusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXExamination by an ENT or Head & Neck Surgeon including laryngopharyngoscopy prior to entering the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an EKG and ECHO or MUGA scan prior to entering the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with simultaneous primaries or bilateral tumors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic insufficiency resulting in clinical jaundice and/or Coagulation defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) based upon current CDC definitionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with non-secretory MM or known amyloidosis are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have baseline skeletal survey (whole body x-ray) to document lytic lesions, osteopenia or compression fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to angiography and selective visceral catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any of the following: Rifampicin, St. John's Wort, phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any substrate agents for CYP 2B6 (bupropion, cyclophosphamide, efavirenz, ifosfamide, methadone, paclitaxel, amodiaquine, repaglinide)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any UGT 1A1 and UGT 1A9 substrates (e.g. irinotecan)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking P-Gp substrates (e.g. Digoxin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntervention for, or compromise of, the Ampulla of VaterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with AML or RAEB 2 High Risk MDS who are newly diagnosed according to the WHO 2008 Classification and previously untreated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML patients include de novo AML, AML evolving from MDS or other AHD and AML after previous cytotoxic therapy or radiation (secondary AML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXBefore enrolling a patient, the institution must verify the availability of an adequate supply of methotrexate for a full course of therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with non-gestational choriocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose circumstances at the time of study entry do not permit completion of the study or required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXSTRATUM II:\r\n* MDD >= 1% and MRD negative (< 0.01%) on day 8 in T-lymphoblastic lymphoma \r\n* Bone marrow involvement microscopically present at diagnosis in B-lymphoblastic lymphoma \r\n* Any CNS involvement: CNS-3 status (i.e., >= 5 WBC/uL of CSF with blasts or cranial nerve palsy), CNS-2 status (< 5 WBC/uL of CSF with blasts) or traumatic LP (> 10 RBC/uL of CSF with blasts) but does not fulfill the criteria of stratum 3 \r\n* Overt testicular involvement (evidenced by ultrasonogram) but does not fulfill the criteria of stratum 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of other malignancies treated curatively greater than one year prior to enrollment and without evidence of relapse at the time of enrollment are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) do not have to have objectively measurable disease at entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDLBCL-2 cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have progressed following or have been unable to tolerate at least one prior anthracycline or alkylating agent containing regimen (with or without anti-CD20).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor PCNSL cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor glioblastoma multiforme (GBM-2) cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary GBM or gliosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be Pomalidomide naïve.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent diarrhea or malabsorption ? NCI CTCAE grade 2, despite medical management.Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch, or bifasicular block.Xx_NEWLINE_xXQTcF > 460 msec on screening Electrocardiography (ECG) (mean of triplicate recordings).Xx_NEWLINE_xXTroponin-T value > 0.4 ng/ml or BNP >300 pg/mL. ° Subjects with baseline troponin-T >Upper Limit of Normal (ULN) or B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) >100 pg/mL are eligible but must have cardiologist evaluation prior to enrollment in the trial for baseline assessment and optimization of cardioprotective therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubmission of original biopsy for review by hematopathologist at local institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients age >= 55 years with AML OR patients age < 55 years with AML, who also through pre-existing medical conditions or prior therapy are considered to be at high risk for serious toxicities associated with a conventional, high-dose preparative regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly patients with Relapse Risk Score > 0 (“high risk”) will be enrolled during Part 1; patients with all Relapse Risk Scores will be enrolled during Part 2 (low risk group terminated August 2014)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML French-American-British (FAB) M3 in first complete remission (CR1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of circulating leukemic blasts in the peripheral blood detected by standard morphologyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe FHCRC principal investigator (PI) of the study must approve enrollment of all patients with pulmonary nodulesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe addition of cytotoxic agents for “cytoreduction” with the exception of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (such as imatinib mesylate), cytokine therapy, hydroxyurea, low dose cytarabine, chlorambucil, or Rituxan will not be allowed within three weeks of the initiation of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXB-ALL patients must be enrolled on AALL08B1 or APEC14B1 (if open for the classification of newly diagnosed ALL patients) prior to treatment and enrollment on AALL0932\r\n* Note: B-LLy patients are not eligible for AALL08B1, and can enroll directly onto AALL0932Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have newly diagnosed National Cancer Institute (NCI) Standard Risk B-ALL or B-LLy Murphy stages I or II; patients with Down syndrome are also eligible\r\n* Note: for B-LLy patients with tissue available for flow cytometry, the criterion for diagnosis should be analogous to B-ALL; for tissue processed by other means (i.e. paraffin blocks), the methodology and criteria for immunophenotypic analysis to establish the diagnosis of B-LLy defined by the submitting institution will be acceptedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and NCI requirements for human studies must be metXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete supportive and palliative care will continue to be provided to ameliorate signs and symptoms that were pre-existing or may arise while on study and which do not interfere with the objectives of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with porphyria are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with wild-type or mutant Kirsten rat sarcoma 2 viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) metastatic colorectal cancer (mCRC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must be capable of swallowing multiple capsulesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with irinotecan-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected defect in the function of the urea cycle.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdenocarcinoma of the prostate treated primarily with radical prostatectomy\r\n* Any type of radical prostatectomy will be permitted, including retropubic, perineal, laparoscopic, or robotically assisted; there is no time limit for the date of radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of a local recurrence in the prostate fossa based on a digital rectal examination (DRE) within 60 days prior to step 1 registration\r\n* Patients with equivocal or questionable DRE findings should have an MRI of the pelvis to exclude the presence of a prostate fossa mass\r\n* Patients with equivocal or questionable exam findings by DRE or MRI are eligible if a biopsy of the lesion is negative for tumorXx_NEWLINE_xXThe EPIC-26 must be completed in full and entered within 10 business days after step 1 registration; NRG Oncology Statistical and Data Management Center has 3 business days to score the results and send a notification to the site to proceed to step 2 randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drugs involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically-confirmed epithelial or biphasic MPM; biphasic tumors must have a predominantly (?50%) epithelial componentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior immunotherapy with CRS-207 or any other Listeria-based agent, therapeutic cancer vaccine, or adoptive T cell immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted medical devices that pose high risks for colonization and cannot be easily removed (e.g., artificial heart valves, pacemakers, prosthetic joints, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s)) if infection occurs. Other common devices such as venous access devices (e.g., Port-a-Cath or Mediport) may be permitted as well as arterial and venous stents and dental and breast implants that were placed more than 3 months prior to first dose of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior rectal surgery preventing insertion of the TRUS probe.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical signs or symptoms of gastrointestinal obstruction or requirement for routine parenteral hydration, parenteral nutrition, or tube feedingXx_NEWLINE_xXAppendiceal adenocarcinoma basket\r\n* Complete or partial bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXEpstein-Barr virus-associated nasopharyngeal carcinoma basket:\r\n* NoneXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman papilloma virus-associated cancers basket\r\n* NoneXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroendocrine tumors, pancreatic basket:\r\n* Grade 3, poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma\r\n* Large cell or small cell histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroendocrine tumors, extrapancreatic basket:\r\n* Grade 3, poorly differentiated neuroendocrine carcinoma\r\n* Large cell or small cell histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPeritoneal mesothelioma basket:\r\n* NoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPleural mesothelioma basket:\r\n* NoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine phosphokinase (CPK) ? 2.5 × ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant diseases/conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyopathy > grade 2 or any clinical situation that causes significant and persistent elevation of CPK (> 2.5 × ULN in two different determinations performed one week apart).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have full activity or, if limited, must be able to walk and carry out light activities such as light house work or office workXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically proven diagnosis of endometrioid endometrial adenocarcinoma by endometrial curettage or biopsy within 8 weeks prior to registration; central pathology review will be required as part of the study but not for registration purposesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with predominant (> 30%) non-endometrioid histology (such as serous, clear cell, or carcinosarcoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of thrombophlebitis within the past 2 years or ongoing thromboembolic disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be currently taking or have ever taken vorinostat (Zolinza, Merck), panobinostat (Farydak, Novartis) or romidepsin (Istodax, Gloucester Pharmaceuticals)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) low risk or intermediate-1 risk MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate iron stores, defined as transferrin saturation greater than 20 percent (%) and serum ferritin greater than 400 nanogram per Milliliter (ng/mL), measured within the screening period, or adequate iron stores as demonstrated by recent (within 12 weeks prior to first dose) bone marrow examination with iron stainXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets inferior to 75 000 cells per µL if inferior to 50% of bone marrow (BM) nucleated cells are plasma cells, and inferior to 30 000 cells per µL if superior or equal to 50% of BM nucleated cells are plasma cells. Platelet transfusion is not allowed within three days before the screening visit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute neutrophils count inferior to 1000 per ?L (1 x 10E9/L). The use of G-CSF is not allowed to reach this level.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitivity to dexamethasone, sucrose histidine (as base and hydrochloride salt), and polysorbate 80 or any of the components of study therapy that are not amenable to premedication with steroids, or H2 blockers that would prohibit further treatment with these agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-/peri-menopausal women can be enrolled if amenable to be treated with the luteinizing-hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist, goserelin. Individuals must have commenced treatment with goserelin or an alternative LHRH agonist at least 4 weeks prior to first dose of study drug. If individuals have received an alternative LHRH agonist prior to study entry, they must switch to goserelin on or before Cycle 1 Day 1 (C1D1) for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to any bromodomain (BET) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunotherapy within 6 months of C1D1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of high grade esophageal or gastric varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500 cells/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXknown glaucoma or other pre-existing ocular conditions that may put the patient at risk for ocular toxicities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPNH diagnosis confirmed by documented by high-sensitivity flow cytometry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of 1 or more of the following PNH-related signs or symptoms within 3 months of Screening: fatigue, hemoglobinuria, abdominal pain, shortness of breath (dyspnea), anemia (hemoglobin <10 g/dL), history of a major adverse vascular event (including thrombosis), dysphagia, or erectile dysfunction; or history of pRBC transfusion due to PNH.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLDH level ? 1.5 × ULN at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight < 40 kilograms.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-epithelial, including malignant mixed Mullerian tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXOvarian tumors with low malignant potential (i.e. borderline tumors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known auto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for >= 2 weeks prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be in need of therapy as evidenced by at least one of the following criteria: \r\n* Bulky disease defined as:\r\n** A nodal or extranodal (except spleen) mass > 7 cm in its greater diameter or,\r\n** At least 3 nodal or extranodal sites >= 3 cm in diameter\r\n* Presence of at least one B symptom:\r\n** Fever (> 38 C) not due to infectious etiology\r\n** Night sweats\r\n** Weight loss > 10% in the past 6 months\r\n* Fatigue due to lymphoma\r\n* Splenomegaly (> 13 cm)\r\n* Compression syndrome (ureteral, orbital, gastrointestinal)\r\n* Any of the following cytopenias due to lymphoma:\r\n** Hemoglobin =< 10 g/dL\r\n** Platelets =< 100 x 10^9/L\r\n** Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 1.5 x 10^9/L\r\n* Pleural or peritoneal effusion\r\n* Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > upper limit of normal (ULN) or beta-2 microglobulin > ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired baseline laboratory data as outlined in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated or not clinically stableXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than NSCLC within 5 years prior to enrollment, except for those curatively treated with negligible risk of metastasis or deathXx_NEWLINE_xXNo indication of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXcholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXThymic carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have normal or clinically insignificant ECG at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCorneal epitheliopathy or any eye disorder that may predispose the subjects to drug-induced corneal epitheliopathy, or may interfere with diagnosis of treatment-emergent corneal epitheliopathy at the ophthalmologist's or the investigator's discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence ofXx_NEWLINE_xXbiliary cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXmalignant biliary obstruction unless the bile flow to the gastrointestinal tract is maintained by a fully operational biliary stentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave QTc >450 ms or heart rate ?100 bpm or ?45 bpm at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor CYP2D6 metabolizers based on the screening test for genetic polymorphisms in CYP2D6 metabolizing capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXStudy Arm 1:Xx_NEWLINE_xXStudy Arm 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll Study Arms:Xx_NEWLINE_xXStudy Arm 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXStudy Arm 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll Arms:Xx_NEWLINE_xXhave experienced any arterial thromboembolic event within 6 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXhave a history of GI perforation and/or fistulae within 6 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xX5. Subject who is willing and able to undergo biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who has documented active relapsed or refractory disease requiring therapeutic intervention.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who fulfills the laboratory requirements as per protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXArms C only: bendamustineXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who has active auto-immune disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening clinical laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlacement of a pacemaker for control of rhythm;Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled asthma or oxygen saturation <90% by arterial blood gas analysis or pulse oximetry on room air;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant valvular disease; severe regurgitation or stenosis by imaging independent of symptom control with medical intervention; or history of valve replacement;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with agents that target Phosphatidylinositide 3-kinases (PI3K), Protein kinase B (AKT), or mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR). Participants with known hypersensitivity to everolimus or rapamycin derivatives are also excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable CD34+ stem cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or any components of the study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther active serious illnessesXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for immunological and clinical follow-up assessments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave adequate biliary drainage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales and females are sterile, postmenopausal, or compliant with a highly effective contraceptive method.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave uncontrolled metabolic disorders or other nonmalignant organ or systemic diseases or secondary effects of cancer that induce a high medical risk and/or make assessment of survival uncertain.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort 2: has an HCC diagnosis confirmed by radiology, histology, or cytology (fibrolamellar and mixed hepatocellular/cholangiocarcinoma subtypes are not eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas portal vein invasion at the main portal (Vp4), inferior vena cava, or cardiac involvement of HCC based on imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXAchlorhydria or use of antacids, proton-pump inhibitors, or other drugs known to raise gastric pH within 2 weeks before study drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas fulfilled the following additional requirements regarding prior treatments for recurrent ovarian cancer (ROC) depending on the cohort participant is to be enrolled. Each participant must have documented evidence of clinical response or disease stabilization to the last regimen received.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas symptoms of bowel obstruction in the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of unstable systemic disease (e.g., visceral crisis or rapid progression) in the judgment of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of recurrence of chest wall with or without distant metastasis diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complication of herpes simplex virus (HSV)-1 infections (e.g. herpetic encephalitis or keratitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to E. coli derived products or known sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to filgrastim, pegfilgrastim, or other G-CSF products in clinical development within 12 months prior to the administration of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any number of prior therapies with anti-angiogenic agents or immunotherapy with the exception of any previous anti-CTLA-4 directed agents are allowed; a 2 week washout period is required for all agents, except for bevacizumab where a 4 week washout is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated symptomatic spinal cord compressionsXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically suspected Grades IIB to IVD acute GVHD as per modified MN-CIBMTR criteria, occurring after allo-HSCT with any conditioning regimen and any anti-GVHD prophylactic program.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may, but are not required to, have previously received corticosteroids for acute GVHD:Xx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate recovery from toxicity and/or complications from the prior allo-HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires open spinal procedure or a percutaneous procedure without the use of image guidanceXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to tolerate general anesthesia and prone positionXx_NEWLINE_xXEPd Cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEN Cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMorphologically confirmed diagnosis of MDS or nonproliferative CMML (that is, with white blood cells [WBC] <20,000 per microliter [/mcL]) or low blast AML based on 1 of the following: French American British (FAB) Classifications:Xx_NEWLINE_xXVery high (>6 points),Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh (>4.5 to 6 points), orXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study required blood sampling (that is, including pharmacokinetic (PK) and biomarker sampling).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre existing hepatic impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease surgically resectable with curative intentXx_NEWLINE_xXinvolvement of pterygopalatine fossa, maxillary sinus, or facial skin;.Xx_NEWLINE_xXpterygoid plate erosion;Xx_NEWLINE_xXdirect extension to involve prevertebral fascia;Xx_NEWLINE_xXextension to superior nasopharynx or Eustachian tube;Xx_NEWLINE_xXdirect extension into the neck with involvement of the deep neck musculature (neck node fixation);Xx_NEWLINE_xXsuspected invasion (encasement) of the common or internal carotid arteries. Encasement will be assessed radiographically and will be defined as tumor surrounding the carotid artery 270º or greater;Xx_NEWLINE_xXdirect extension of neck disease to involve the external skin;Xx_NEWLINE_xXdirect extension to mediastinal structures;Xx_NEWLINE_xXregional metastases to the supraclavicular neck (low level IVB or VB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDistant metastases (M1 disease).Xx_NEWLINE_xXStroke or other symptoms of cerebral vascular insufficiency within the last 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRB statusXx_NEWLINE_xXDiffuse Intrinsic Pontine Glioma (DIPG) Patients with newly diagnosed diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas (DIPGs), defined on neuroimaging as tumors with a pontine epicenter and diffuse intrinsic involvement of the pons, are eligible without histologic confirmation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with brainstem tumors that do not meet these criteria or not considered to be typical intrinsic pontine gliomas will only be eligible if the tumors are biopsied and proven to have + RB and be the following according to the 2016 World Health Organization classification of tumors of the central nervous system: an anaplastic astrocytoma (IDH mutant, IDH wildtype, or NOS), glioblastoma (IDH mutant, IDH wildtype or NOS), diffuse midline glioma, H3 K27M mutant or H3 K27M negative, diffuse astrocytoma (IDH mutant, IDH wildtype or NOS).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Patients with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, pilomyxoid astrocytoma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma with or without anaplasia, gangliogliomas, or other mixed gliomas without anaplasia are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBi-thalamic tumors, biopsied and noted to have intact RB. Bi-thalamic tumors that are not biopsied will be eligible to enroll on the DIPG/bi-thalamic non-biopsied arm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-grade Glioma (HGG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologically verified the following according to the 2016 World Health Organization classification of tumors of the central nervous system: anaplastic astrocytoma (IDH mutant, IDH wildtype, or NOS), glioblastoma multiforme (IDH mutant, IDH wildtype, or NOS), diffuse astrocytoma (IDH mutant, IDH wildtype or NOS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAND RB positive noted on immunohistochemistry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary spinal cord tumors are eligible. Patients with multi-focal disease within the cerebrum are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of oligodendroglioma or oligoastrocytoma are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with DIPG: any variances in the radiotherapy dose within 10% of the current standard dose (54 Gy) will be discussed with the Sponsor-Investigator to confirm eligibility prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with HGG: any variances in the radiotherapy dose within 10% of the current standard dose (59.4 Gy) will be discussed with the Sponsor-Investigator to confirm eligibility prior to study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with primary spinal tumors any variances in the radiotherapy dose within 10% of the current standard dose (54 Gy) will be discussed with the Sponsor-Investigator to confirm eligibility prior to study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with disseminated disease to the spine are not eligible, and MRI of spine must be performed prior to enrollment if the treating physician suspects disseminated disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients 2-17 years of age must have a blood pressure that is ? 95th percentile for age, height and gender at the time of enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: If a BP reading prior to enrollment is above the 95th percentile for age, height and gender, it is to be rechecked and documented to be ? 95th percentile for age, height and gender prior to patient enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedications that have a narrow therapeutic window and are predominantly metabolized through CYP3A4/5Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations/medications, dietary supplements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of serious allergic reactions including anaphylaxis and toxic epidermal necrolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXSensitive CYP2D6 substrates or CYP2D6 substrates with NTIXx_NEWLINE_xXSelected dual substrates of CYP3A4/5 and CYP2C8Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelected dual substrates of CYP3A4/5 and CYP2D6Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelected dual substrates of OATP and CYP450Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelected dual substrates of CYP3A4/5 and P-gpXx_NEWLINE_xXNTI P-gp substratesXx_NEWLINE_xXQT prolonging drugs with a known risk to induce TdPXx_NEWLINE_xXProton pump inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations/ medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of advanced or metastatic NSCLC. Group A must be ALK negative NSCLC and Group B must be ALK positive NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup B any number of prior regimens.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must fall into one of the two populations below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must consent to bank whole blood, serum, plasma for future unspecified studies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior systemic radiotherapy with strontium-89, samarium-153, rhenium-186 or rhenium-188.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny neuroendocrine differentiation including small cell carcinoma on histology or cytology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score 7;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo direct evidence of regional or distant metastases after appropriate staging studies;Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternation Prostate Symptom Score score must be ? 15 (alpha blockers allowed);Xx_NEWLINE_xXCT scan or Ultrasound-based volume estimation of prostate gland ? 100 grams;Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score > 7Xx_NEWLINE_xXUltrasound or CT estimate of prostate volume > 100 gramsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active co-morbidityXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown peripheral neuropathy > grade 1 (absence of deep tendon reflexes as the sole neurological abnormality does not render the patient ineligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing hearing impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXActive auto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSECOND COURSE PHASE (RETREATMENT PERIOD FOR POST-COMPLETE RESPONSE RELAPSE ONLY)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may be eligible to receive MK-3475 in the second course phase of this study if the study remains open and the subject meets the following conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXStopped initial treatment with MK-3475 after attaining an investigator-determined confirmed response according to RECIST1.1 response criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived at least four treatments with MK-3475 beyond the date when the initial complete response (CR) was declaredXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has received daratumumab or other anti-cluster of differentiation 38 (anti-CD38) therapies previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXCLL/SLL cells must demonstrate one or more of the following high-risk genomic features:\r\n* Del17p13.1(tumor protein p53 [TP53]) as detected by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH)\r\n* Del11q22.3(ataxia telangiectasia mutated [ATM]) as detected by FISH\r\n* Complex karyotype (>= 3 cytogenetic abnormalities on stimulated karyotype)\r\n* Unmutated immunoglobulin variable region heavy chain (IgVH) ( >= 98% sequence homology compared with germline sequence)\r\n* Zeta-chain (TCR) associated protein kinase 70kDa (ZAP-70) gene promoter hypomethylation < 20%Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsented to genome sequencing and database of genotypes and phenotypes (dbGaP)-based data sharing and has provided or will provide germline (peripheral blood mononuclear cell [PBMC]) and tumor DNA/ribonucleic acid (RNA) samples of adequate quality for sequencing; (acquisition of specimens for sequencing and the sequencing itself may be done under this study or as part of routine care or another research project)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBevacizumab will be allowed if given for symptomatic control of vasogenic edema and to avoid high dose of corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo candidate neoantigen identified during screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one “target” lesion to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline laboratory values as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNYHA ? Class 2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of other active invasive cancers. 13. Psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cancer immunotherapy, specifically indoleamine 2,3-dioxygenase (IDO) or tryptophan 2,3-dioxygenase (TDO) inhibitors, T-cell costimulatory receptor agonist antibodies, or checkpoint inhibitors among certain participantsXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) >=7.5 percent (%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy (or recombinant antibody-related fusion proteins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior irradiation to lung fieldsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny abnormal laboratory values as specified in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for any excluded medication as specified in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHave good performance score (0-1).Xx_NEWLINE_xXA pathologically confirmed (histology or cytology) malignant neoplasm with at least one target lesion that is confirmed by conventional imaging and is determined to express somatostatin receptors by 68Ga-DOTATOC (TATE) PET within 120 days prior to treatment with 90Y-DOTATOCXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of Norfolk Quality of Life QuestionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior PRRT with 90Y-DOTATOC (tyr3-octreotate [TATE]) or 177Lu-DOTATOC (TATE) or 131I-metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) therapy for this malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny subject for whom, in the opinion of their physician, a 12-hour discontinuation of somatostatin analogue therapy represents a health risk; also subjects who have received long-acting somatostatin analogue in the past 28 days or long-acting lanreotide within the past 16 weeks are excluded; subjects may be maintained on short acting octreotide during the time from last injection of long-acting somatostatin analogue until 12 hours (hrs) prior to injection of study drug; known antibodies to octreotide, lanreotide, or DOTATOC or history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to 90Y-DOTATOCXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject weighs more than 450 pounds; (subjects who weigh more than 450 pounds will not be able to fit inside the imaging machines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroendocrine (carcinoid, islet cell) or acinar pancreatic carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXER/PgR negativity to follow local guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following laboratory values during screening and on Day 1 predose:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly (<6 months) diagnosed RCC (histological/cytological verification is optional) with at least one (1) CT-verified metastasis ?10mm for which complete metastasectomy is not planned. US patients must have verified clear-cell tumor histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate hematological parameters, i.e:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cardiomyopathy and/or clinical significant abnormal ECG findings at Screening disqualifying the patient from nephrectomy and from subsequent sunitinib treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing thyroid abnormality with thyroid function that cannot be maintained in the normal range with medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXActivated Partial Thromboplastin Time (APTT) patients beeing treated with anticoagulants are excluded if teh coagulation parameters are outside the therapeutic intervals as described in the SmPC/USPI for the administered treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown major adverse reaction/event in connection with previously made vaccination (e.g. asthma, anaphylaxis or other serious reaction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStage IIIC colorectal cancer (T4a, N2a, M0) or (T3-4a, N2b, M0), or (T4b, N1- N2, M0) (per AJCC 7th ed).Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete Metabolic Profile (CMP) within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHas local or distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired pulmonary functionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive coronary artery disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with phaeochromocytoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny congenital or acquired condition leading to compromised ability to generate an immune responseXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for continual immune suppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of meningeal carcinomatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any medications that induce, inhibit, or are substrates of CYP450 3A4Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any drugs with a known risk of causing torsades de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence or history of thromboembolic, venous, or arterial events within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any investigational, non-United States Food and Drug Administration (US FDA) approved drugXx_NEWLINE_xXThose have a narrow therapeutic window and are predominantly metabolized through CYP3A4/5.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations/medications, dietary supplements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of MF (either primary or post essential thrombocythemia/polycythemia vera) requiring therapy, including those previously treated and relapsed or refractory, or if newly diagnosed, with intermediate-1 or -2 or high risk according to International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated with ruxolitinib (unless not a good candidate for ruxolitinib therapy in the judgment of treating physician)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegaly or hepatomegaly of more than or equal to 5 cm below left or right, respectively, costal margin on physical examXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease-free of other malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high grade upper tract urothelial carcinoma proven by one of the following:\r\n* Biopsy;\r\n* Urinary cytology with a 3-dimensional upper urinary tract mass on cross-sectional imaging; or\r\n* Urinary cytology and a mass visualized during upper urinary tract endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a history of allergy or hypersensitivity to methotrexate, vinblastine, doxorubicin (doxorubicin hydrochloride), cisplatin, gemcitabine (gemcitabine hydrochloride), carboplatin or filgrastim or pegfilgrastimXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with concomitant primaries of the bladder/urethra are allowed, as long as these sites are surgically resected and non-invasive cancers (< cT1N0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have known psychological or sociological conditions, addictive disorders or family problems, which would preclude compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have known allergic reactions to GM-CSF or the tetanus vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to undergo two leukapheresis procedures; if patients are unable to undergo the leukapheresis procedures, then a 200-cc blood draw (green heparinized tubes) is permitted in place of the leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with medical conditions precluding leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 1A: no specific restrictionXx_NEWLINE_xXHBV viral load (VL) <200 IU/mL (approximately 1000 cps/mL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects HCV-positive after successful treatment (defined as sustained virologic response [SVR] 12 or SVR 24) are allowed as long as 4 weeks have passed between completion of HCV therapy and start of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXActive and ongoing steroid use, except for non-systemically absorbed treatments (such as inhaled or topical steroid therapy for asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD], allergic rhinitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave clinical evidence of concomitant infectious conditions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than NSCLC within 5 years prior to randomization, with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to provide a sufficient biopsy sample to the central pathologist for histopathologically confirmed, transitional cell (urothelial) carcinoma. Urothelial tumors with mixed histology (but with <50% variant) are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have either Cis or Cis with Ta and/or T1 disease at enrollment or in the past. For those patients with only Ta or T1 disease at enrollment AND with no history of Cis, they must haveXx_NEWLINE_xXdisease recurrence within 18 months of BCG maintenance ORXx_NEWLINE_xXdisease recurrence within 24 months of BCG inductionXx_NEWLINE_xXT1 patients need to have evidence of muscle included in their latest biopsy; and if not a re-TURBT has to be done prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXRadical cystectomy has been declined by the patient in a signed special section of the informed consent, whereby there is a clear explanation by the investigator to the subject that a delay of cystectomy may increase his/her chance of disease progression, the results of which may lead to serious and life threatening consequences.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPT/INR, PTT, and fibrinogen within institutional acceptable limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible patients must have appropriate staging studies identifying them as specific subsets of the revised International Association for the Study of Lung Cancer (IASLC) stage IA based on the following combination of Tumor Node Metastasis (TNM) staging: T1a,N0,M0 or T1b,N0,M0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary tumors > 3 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXCannot achieve acceptable stereotactic ablative radiation therapy (SABR) planning to meet minimal requirement of target coverage and dose-volume constraints of critical structuresXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease (defined as the participant not being a candidate for curative surgery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEpithelial typeXx_NEWLINE_xXHave any history of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently have mesothelioma of the sarcomatous type, mixed histologic disease, or have malignant peritoneal mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with refractory cancer pain who are seen by the supportive care or pain medicine teams, and who either (1) are on appropriate opioid therapy at the time of consultation, or (2) who undergo an initial consultation and at least 2 clinical follow-up evaluations by these servicesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with endometrial disorders, including evidence of endometrial hyperplasia, dysfunctional uterine bleeding or cystsXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenström macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXLocally documented EGFR mutation L858R and/or ex19del, or a characterized de novo EGFR T790M mutation (or other rare activating mutations that confer sensitivity to 1st and 2nd generation EGFR inhibitors (e.g. L861Q, G719X, S768I)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II Group 1 (EGFRmut, any T790M, any c-MET, 2/4L antineoplastic, EGFR TKI resistant) only: Patients demonstrated a documented clinical benefit (CR (any duration), PR (any duration), or SD for at least 6 months) on prior EGFR TKI (e.g. erlotinib, gefitinib or afatinib, and subsequently demonstrated progression according to RECIST v1.1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II Group 2 (EGFRmut, de novo T790M, any c-MET, 1/3L antineoplastic, EGFR TKI naïve) only: Advanced NSCLC patients who have not been previously treated with any therapy known to inhibit EGFR and harbor de novo T790M mutation .Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ib:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II Group 1 (EGFRmut, any T790M, any c-MET, 2/4L antineoplastic, EGFR TKI resistant):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II Group 2 (EGFRmut, de novo T790M, any c-MET, 1/3L antineoplastic, EGFR TKI naïve):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious treatment with an investigational or marketed agent that inhibits EGFR. EGFR inhibitors include (but not limited to) all generations of EGFR TKI (e.g.erlotinib, gefitinib, afatinib, AZD9291, CO-1686, ASP8273, EGF816) or other anti-EGFR or EGFR monoclonal antibody therapy or dual TKI inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II Group 3 (EGFRmut, T790M negative, any c-MET, 1L antineoplastic):Xx_NEWLINE_xXDe novo EGFR T790M mutation identified by central assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II Group 4 (EGFRmut, any T790M, any c-MET, 1/3L antineoplastic):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have out of range laboratory values defined asXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any polymorphism in UGT1A1 other than *1 or *28 (e.g., *6)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of active GVHD and off immunosuppression; subjects on tapering prednisone will be eligible if their dose is 0.25 mg/kg or less and being actively tapered; we suggest a 28 day waiting period off of immunosuppression but some subjects with rapidly progressive disease may need to be treated before 30 days and will still be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to adhere to medically accepted form of birth control to prevent pregnancy (includes: complete abstention from intercourse, condoms, diaphragms, cervical cap, intra-uterine device, history of surgical sterility – tubal ligation or vasectomy in patient or partner, or oral contraceptive)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for active immunosuppression to treat GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a contraindication to administration of ampicillin or trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas implanted medical device(s) that pose a high risk for colonization and/or cannot be easily removed (e.g., prosthetic joints, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s), bone graft(s), or other exogenous implant(s)). NOTE: More common devices and prosthetics which include arterial and venous stents, dental and breast implants, and venous access devices (e.g., Port-a-Cath or Mediport) are permitted. Sponsor must be contacted prior to consenting any subject who has any other device and/or implant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 1; ECOG 0 indicates that the patient is fully active and able to carry on all pre-disease activities without restriction; and, ECOG 1 indicates that the patient is restricted in physically strenuous activity but is ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary natureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed or refractory AML\r\n* Patients without a response after two cycles of a 10-day course of decitabine\r\n* Patients with primary refractory AML (persistent disease after standard induction with 7+3) or relapsed AML\r\n* Patients who have relapsed post-allogeneic transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Positive or reactive test results for Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-mandated relevant communicable diseases (HIV, hepatitis B [hep B], hepatitis C, human T-cell lymphotropic virus [HTLV], Syphilis, Trypanosoma [T.] cruzi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) OR moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave baseline clinical and laboratory parameters that are consistent with the requirements prescribed in respective labels and are suitable for consideration of treatment with capecitabine (or 5-FU) and cisplatin (for example, dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has:Xx_NEWLINE_xXResting baseline oxygen (O2) saturation by pulse oximetry of >= 92% at restXx_NEWLINE_xXHas more than three recurrences of high grade gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHas anaplastic oligodendrogliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHas prior allergic reaction to bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically proven diagnosis of glioblastoma or gliosarcoma prior to registration by pathology reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be registered within 35 days of completion of chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 30 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXDefinitive clinical or radiologic evidence of progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior placement of Gliadel wafer or local brachytherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic insufficiency resulting in clinical jaundice and/or coagulation defects; note, however, that laboratory tests for additional liver function tests and coagulation parameters are not required for entry into this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXActive connective tissue disorders, such as lupus or scleroderma, which in the opinion of the treating physician may put the patient at high risk for immunologic toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced, symptomatic, visceral spread that are at risk of life threatening complication in the short termXx_NEWLINE_xXHave unresectable malignant mesothelioma (any histology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; patients who use continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or bilevel positive airway pressure (BIPAP) at night and have controlled sleep apnea syndrome are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor, histamine 2 (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of an aurora A kinase-targeted agent, including alisertibXx_NEWLINE_xXPersons who are incarcerated at time of enrollment (e.g., prisoners) or likely to become incarcerated during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medications causing prolonged QT which cannot be discontinued or changed to a different medication prior to initiating studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentified deleterious mutation in BRCA 1 or 2 genes (this does not include variants of uncertain significance)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric disorders or other conditions rendering the subject incapable of complying with the requirements of the protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot consenting to participate in LAB00-099Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is premenopausal or perimenopausal at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a minimum level of pulmonary reserve defined as =< grade 1 dyspnea and pulse oxygen > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in complete remission with no evidence of evaluable disease by radiologic imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXWBC ? 2500/?LXx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin ? 9 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current immunodeficiency disease, splenectomy or splenic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to parenteral administered recombinant protein productXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of antithrombotic agents with the exception of platelet inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeigh >55 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with PNHXx_NEWLINE_xXHereditary complement deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of meningococcal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo vaccination against N. meningitidis types A, C, W, Y and B (administered as two separate vaccinations), Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine or Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine 23 (PCV13 or PPSV23, respectively) and Haemophilus influenzae Type B (Hib) vaccination within 2 years prior to Day 1 (Visit 2) dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe diagnosis of mCRC will be based on histologic or cytologic confirmationXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum bicarbonate >= 20 mEq/LXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known renal tubular acidosis with serum bicarbonate < 20 mEq/LXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the phase II portion, patients must be newly diagnosed or imatinib treatment naive in the advanced/metastatic setting; prior adjuvant imatinib therapy is allowed as long as disease recurrence was documented >= 90 days after last dose of imatinib and imatinib has not yet been restartedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor phase I, prior intolerance to imatinib at a dose of 400 mg dailyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have a history or current evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or major predisposing factors to CSR or RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension) in the opinion of the study ophthalmologistXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXActive corneal disorder or keratopathy (e.g. corneal abrasion, bullous keratopathy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or current evidence of uncontrolled endocrine alterations of calcium/phosphate homeostasis, e.g., parathyroid disorders, history of parathyroidectomy, tumor lysis, tumoral calcinosis, etcXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible patients must have histopathologically confirmed myxoid liposarcoma with confirmation of DDIT3 rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXECG abnormalities as defined by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies or hypersensitivities to monoclonal antibodies, BMS-986012 or related compounds, including fucosyl-GM1 vaccine and NivolumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHave initiated bisphosphonates or approved receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L) targeted agents <7 days prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to behavioral counseling, nicotine gum, patch, or lozenge and unable to complete study procedures as determined by eligibility screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to ingest oral medications (crushing and administering via percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy [PEG] tube is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCaution should be taken with the use of hydroxychloroquine and any drugs known to interact with it; it is important to regularly consult a frequently-updated list; medical reference texts such as the Physicians’ Desk Reference may also provide this informationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that are on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one \target lesion\ to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1 (Section 8.1). Tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as \non-target\ lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLipid panel:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirements specified in Section 7.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXTotal abstinence or;Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown severely impaired lung function, including: • CTCAE grade 2 (or greater) hypoxia (decreased oxygen saturation with exercise [e.g., pulse oximeter <88%]; intermittent supplemental oxygen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to follow concomitant medication restrictions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse caution when co-administered with moderate CYP3A4/PgP inhibitors (e.g., amprenavir, fosamprenavir, aprepitant, erythromycin, fluconazole, verapamil, diltiazem).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSt. John's Wort may decrease everolimus exposure unpredictably and should be avoided.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following risk factors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXblood transfusion(s) prior to 1990,Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent or prior IV drug users,Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent or prior dialysis,Xx_NEWLINE_xXhousehold contact with hepatitis B infected patient(s),Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent or prior high-risk sexual activity,Xx_NEWLINE_xXbody piercing or tattoos,Xx_NEWLINE_xXhistory suggestive of hepatitis B infection, e.g., dark urine, jaundice, right upper quadrant pain.Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent or prior IV drug users,Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent or prior dialysis,Xx_NEWLINE_xXhousehold contact of hepatitis C infected patient(s),Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent or prior high-risk sexual activity,Xx_NEWLINE_xXbody piercing or tattoos. At the discretion of the investigator, additional patients may also be tested for hepatitis C.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with LM: Confirmed diagnosis of LM by positive CSF cytology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with LM and/or BM, CNS complications that require urgent neurosurgical interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intracranial haemorrhage which is unrelated to tumourXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stages T1b – T3aXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate volume by transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS) < 55 ccXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) 20 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted device or apparatus which obstruct visibility of the implanted sources on fluoroscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets < 100000/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immunization with LL37Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll metastases not resected must be amenable to SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must meet ONE of the three following criteria:\r\n* 3-4 radiographically distinct metastases of any distribution in the allowed anatomical sites OR\r\n* 2 radiographically distinct metastases that must be anatomically close (i.e., with less than or equal to 5 cm of normal tissue between them) OR\r\n* 3 or 4 distinct metastasis, 2 or 3 to be treated with SBRT and the other (s) having been surgically removedXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases with indistinct borders making targeting not feasibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastases located within 3 cm of the previously irradiated structures:\r\n* Spinal cord previously irradiated to > 40 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Brachial plexus previously irradiated to > 50 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Small intestine, large intestine, or stomach previously irradiated to > 45 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Brain stem previously irradiated to > 50 Gy (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Whole lung previously irradiated with prior volume 20 Gy (V20Gy) > 30% (delivered in =< 3 Gy/fraction)\r\n* Primary tumor irradiated with SBRT\r\n* Metastasis irradiated with SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin >=9 g/dL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressive disease defined as at least one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with small cell or neuroendocrine tumours.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive alcohol or active drug abuse as judged by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly for patients entering phase Ib dose escalation and phase II cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have received prior enzalutamide in any setting will not be eligible. Exclusion criterion only for patients entering phase Ib expansion cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be willing to undergo biopsies as specified by the protocol; the biopsy requirement can only be waived if deemed unsafe by the patient’s treating physician or the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have confirmed Cushing's disease that is persistent or recurrent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with de novo Cushing's disease can be included only if they are not considered candidates for surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with risk factors for QTc prolongation or Torsade de Pointes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with compression of the optic chiasm due to a macroadenoma or patients at high risk of compression of the optic chiasm (tumor within 2 mm of optic chiasm).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Cushing's syndrome due to ectopic ACTH secretion or ACTH-independent (adrenal) Cushing's syndrome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not euthyroid as judged by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with moderate to severe renal impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will be unable to complete the entire study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or suspected Gilbert’s disease (testing not required if presence is not suspected)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable or unwilling to discontinue use of ketoconazole or St John’s wort; use of phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, rifampin and rifabutin is discouraged, but not contraindicated; if patients require phenytoin, carbamazepine or phenobarbital monitoring of drug levels is suggested during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule; those conditions should be discussed with the patient before registration in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MOCA) score of 22 or lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXSatisfactory completion of dosing & efficacy assessments in ISIS 420915-CS2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP I INITIAL REGISTRATION: BRAFV600E TESTING:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have BRAFV600E mutant status documented by a Clinical Laboratory Improvements Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory on a pathology report prior to Step 2 registration; use of an Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test is preferred although other BRAF tests at a CLIA-certified laboratory will also be accepted \r\n* If a BRAFV600E mutation is known, then the patient must be registered to Step 2 Randomization immediately following Step 1 Initial Registration\r\n* If testing has not been performed locally, BRAFV600E testing must be completed by the central laboratory (lab) prior to Step 2 Randomization; if the specimen does not have a BRAFV600E mutation, the patient is ineligible for Step 2 RandomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown KRAS or NRAS mutations:\r\n* All patients must have molecular testing performed in a clinical lab which includes codon 12 and 13 of KRAS; patients with any mutation in codon 12 and 13 of KRAS are not eligible for the protocol\r\n* Testing for additional codons in KRAS or testing for NRAS is not required; however, if such testing has been performed in a clinical lab and any mutation in codons 61 or 146 in KRAS, or codons 12, 13, 61, or 146 in NRAS is detected, the patient is not eligible for the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 RANDOMIZATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known BRAF mutation must be registered to Step 2 Randomization immediately following Step 1 Initial RegistrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have BRAFV600E mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 3 CROSSOVER REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented disease progression while on Arm 1 of this protocol; the follow-up tumor assessment form documenting disease progression must be submitted to Southwestern Oncology Group (SWOG) prior to Step 3 Crossover RegistrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSarcomatoid malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) histology which is known in the literature to not express mesothelin; biphasic MPM is also excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXDetermined to have detectable mutations in codons 12 or 13 of the kirsten rat sarcoma (KRAS) oncogene by an investigational assay at the study JPBK central laboratory. A KRAS positive mutation result in codons 12 or 13 of the KRAS oncogene from tumor tissue per local laboratory will be permitted in no more than 10% of randomized participants.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot currently be taking tomato carotenoid dietary supplements or “alternative” products (e.g., lycopene supplements, Lyc-O-Mato, saw palmetto); vitamin A and beta-carotene supplements are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXNot be allergic to tomatoes or tomato productsXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to have prostate biopsy blocks provided to the study for evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to consume a standardized vitamin and mineral supplement and avoid other nutrition, dietary, or alternative medications/supplements for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to follow a low lycopene and phytoene dietXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of uncontrolled pituitary hormone diseases that currently require varying doses of supplemental hormonal administration (thyroid hormones, adrenocorticotropic hormone [ACTH], growth hormone) or other endocrine disorders requiring varying doses of hormone administration with the exception of diabetes and osteoporosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAre planning to start certain medications after the trial enrollment; no new finasteride (Proscar) or other hormonal agents for chemoprevention/treatment of benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH); utilizing new prescription medications for urinary outlet obstructive symptoms will result in discontinuing participation in this study; the use of new non-prescription substances to improve urinary tract symptoms will also result in discontinuing participation (i.e. saw palmetto, other herbal, alternative products); men who are currently taking finasteride or medications (meds) for urinary outlet obstructive symptoms may enroll in the study as long as there is no plan to change the dose in the weeks prior to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHave significant loss of gastrointestinal organs, except for appendix, due to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR sensitizing mutation and/or ALK translocationXx_NEWLINE_xXIs, at the time of signing informed consent, a regular user (including \recreational use\) of any illicit drugs or had a recent history (within the last year) of substance abuse (including alcohol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of predisposition to retinal vein occlusion or central serous retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have achieved a response (partial response [PR] or better based on investigator's determination of response by the IMWG criteria) to at least 1 prior regimen in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXHas received daratumumab or other anti-CD38 therapies previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXIs intolerant to VELCADE (ie, discontinued due to any adverse event while on VELCADE treatment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior regorafenib use with disease progression (expanded cohort only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior failure to tolerate regorafenib at 120 mg/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive or other pulmonary disease with hypoxemia (requires supplementary oxygen, symptoms due to hypoxemia or oxygen [O2] saturation < 90% by pulse oximetry after a 2 minute walk or in the opinion of the investigator any physiological state likely to cause systemic or regional hypoxemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown significant or active coronary artery disease (CAD) or peripheral vascular disease (PVD) or cardiovascular disease (CVD) defined as abnormal stress test, symptoms, or requiring medication for the prevention of symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindication to oral agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known history of keratitis, ulcerative keratitis or severe dry eye.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUveal or ocular MELXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled thyroid dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled thromboembolic or hemorrhagic disorders.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gross hemoptysis within 2 months of study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGood candidate for treatment per protocol in the judgement of the principle investigator (PI) and/or treating physician follow stimulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausal statusXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, or dermatomyositisXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of a coexisting medical condition which limits life expectancy to < 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPaget's disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXUnsatisfactory breast for HG-PBI as determined by the treating physician; for example, if there is little breast tissue remaining between the skin and pectoralis muscle after surgery, treatment with HG-PBI is technically problematicXx_NEWLINE_xXPartial mastectomy so extensive that the cosmetic result is fair or poor prior to HG-PBI as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXTime between final definitive breast procedure to HG-PBI simulation is greater than 8 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol requirements and/or follow-up procedures; those conditions should be discussed with the participant before trial entryXx_NEWLINE_xXNY-ESO-1 positive malignancy by immunohistochemistry (IHC) utilizing commonly available NY-ESO-1 antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo restriction based on prior treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to accept two leukapheresis proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B or C seropositivity with evidence of ongoing liver damage, which would increase the likelihood of hepatic toxicities from the chemotherapy conditioning regimen and supportive treatments; if there is a positive result in the infectious disease testing that was not previously known, the patient will be referred to their primary physician and/or infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria level =< 2+Xx_NEWLINE_xXTarget PopulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPS 0 to 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPS 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXTarget Disease ExceptionsXx_NEWLINE_xXProhibited Treatments and/or Restricted TherapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with coagulopathies, including thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXAML without complete remission (CR/CRc/CRi) after at least 2 induction therapies OR AML that has relapsed within 6 months after obtaining a CR OR AML that has relapsed more than 6 months after obtaining a CR, and has treatment failure (TF) or progressive disease (PD) following at least 1 re-induction regimen OR AML that has relapsed post-allogeneic transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating blast count >= 10,000/uL by morphology or flow cytometry (cytoreductive therapies including leukapheresis or hydroxyurea are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternational prognostic index (IPI) score must be 2-5Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to receive any of the individual components of CHOP, rituximab or obinutuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or anticipated use of enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or anticipated need for treatment with proton pump inhibitors (PPI); patients on proton pump inhibitors who can be switched to histamine receptor H2 (H2)-blockers before the start of the study are still eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related mortality (TRM) score =< 6.9 as calculated with simplified modelXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant illness associated with a likely survival of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXDeleterious or pathogenic germline BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any hepatitis (e.g. alcohol or non-alcohol steatohepatitis (NASH), drug- related, autoimmune)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute diverticulitis, or current chronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer disease even if asymptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXIs able to take medications orallyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known DPD deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas had prior gastrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known sensitivity to capecitabine or metabolitesXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematological status (without hematologic supportXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown past or current coagulation defects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of intracerebral arteriovenous malformation, cerebral aneurysm, brain metastases or stroke.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology (unless due to vaccination or passive immunization due to Ig therapy) for hepatitis BXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an index lesion between 1 and 5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegaly at least 5 cm below the left costal marginXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of PMF or post-PV/ET MFXx_NEWLINE_xXClassified as high risk OR intermediate-2 risk as defined by the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) for PMF, or intermediate-1 risk (IPSS) associated with symptomatic splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, anemia (hemoglobin < 10.0 g/dL), and/or unresponsive to available therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXOn an LHRH agonist for at least 28 days, if pre-/peri-menopausal, and willing to switch to goserelin (Zoladex ®) at time of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigator considers rituximab monotherapy appropriate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are at a risk for a thromboembolic event and are not willing to take prophylaxis for it.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically confirmed diagnosis of B-NHL, T-NHL, or HL; only patients with classical HL must have documented histologic demonstration of CD45+ cells adjacent to the Reed Sternberg cells; patients must have received at least one prior standard systemic therapy with documented recurrent or refractory disease; patients with mantle cell lymphoma (MCL), T-NHL, or other high-risk malignancies may be enrolled/transplanted in complete remission (CR)/first partial remission (PR1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients eligible for therapeutic study must have a minimum of >= 2 x10^6 CD34/kg autologous hematopoietic stem cells harvested and cryopreservedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an expected survival of > 60 days and must be free of major infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA), to be determined before each infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwestern Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status >= 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) (Epithelioid or biphasic subtype for Phase II patients; epithelioid subtype only for Phase III patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II patients with sarcomatoid subtype MPM or Phase III patients with biphasic or sarcomatoid subtype MPMXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of cavitary or necrotic tumours or local invasion of major blood vessels by MPMXx_NEWLINE_xXGermline BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation; patients with unknown BRCA status who meet NCCN BRCA screening criteria will be screened for BRCA mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously treated low or intermediate-1 risk MDS by the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have one of the following: elevated beta (b)2-microglobulin levels (defined as 2 times compared to normal), carry a Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) mutation, or presence of phosphorylated p65 nuclear factor kappa-light-chain-enhancer of activated B cells (NF-kB) component in at least 5% of bone marrow cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated low or intermediate-1 risk MDS patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must meet criteria for treatment as defined by IWCLL 2008 guidelines which includes at least one of the following criteria:\r\n* Evidence of marrow failure as manifested by the development or worsening of anemia or thrombocytopenia (not attributable to autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia)\r\n* Massive (>= 6 cm below the costal margin), progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly\r\n* Massive nodes (>= 10 cm) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy\r\n* Autoimmune anemia and/or thrombocytopenia that is poorly responsive to standard therapy\r\n* Constitutional symptoms, which include any of the following:\r\n** Unintentional weight loss of 10% or more within 6 months\r\n** Significant fatigue\r\n** Fevers > 100.5 degrees F for 2 weeks or more without evidence of infection\r\n** Night sweats > 1 month without evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any history of Richter’s transformation or prolymphocytic leukemia (prolymphocytes in blood > 55%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with documented c-v-kit Hardy-Zuckerman 4 feline sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KIT) mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking medications that inhibit platelet function (i.e., aspirin, dipyridamole, epoprostenol, eptifibatide, clopidogrel, cilostazol, abciximab, ticlopidine, and any non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking one or more of the following drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes:\r\n* Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n* Amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide\r\n* Erythromycins, clarithromycin\r\n* Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n* Cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXTolerate one test dose (15 g) of ascorbateXx_NEWLINE_xXG6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients actively receiving insulin are excluded unless approved by the IND medical monitor, the IND sponsor, and the treating radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with wounds that have not fully healed are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T1, N0M0 disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate stage for protocol entry, including no clinical evidence for distant metastases, based upon the following minimum diagnostic workup:\r\n* History/physical examination, including breast exam and documentation of weight and Karnofsky performance status of 80-100% at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight >= 100 lbsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have active systemic lupus erythematosus, or any history of active scleroderma, or dermatomyositis with active rashXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of or current active drug/alcohol dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXNo patients being decisionally impairedXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI < 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight < 100 lbsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnintentional weight loss >= 10% in the last 3 months (mos)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTwo or more breast cancers not resectable through a single lumpectomy incisionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive systemic lupus erythematosus, or any history of active scleroderma, dermatomyositis with active rashXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of steroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive drug/alcohol dependence or abuse historyXx_NEWLINE_xXDecisionally impaired patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeoplastic mast cells must express CD30 by immunohistochemistry or flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ASM and MCL with or without an AHNMD are required to have at least one of the eligible organ damage findings as defined by the international consensus response criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the FIP1L1-PDGFRalpha fusion even with resistance to imatinib (such patients are no longer defined as systemic mastocytosis by the WHO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to tolerate high-dose cyclophosphamide, fludarabine and high-dose IL-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to tolerate high-dose cyclophosphamide, fludarabine, and high-dose IL-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXCommercially available, molecularly targeted therapies (e.g., dabrafenib, trametinib, vemurafenib, imatinib) taken within 7 days prior to lymphodepletionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other significant medical or psychological conditions that would make the patient unsuitable candidate for cell therapy at the discretion of the PIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has EITHER:\r\n* A Kattan nomogram predicted probability of being disease free 5 years after surgery of < 60%, OR\r\n* A Gleason sum >= 8Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 1.5 times ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have obvious clinical progression of lymphoma after PBSCT as determined by the treating physician; NOTE: Restaging imaging studies are NOT required for eligibility if there is no clinical suspicion of progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of grade 4 allergic reactions to anti-GD2 antibodies or reactions that required discontinuation of the anti-GD2 therapy are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent antiviral agent active against vaccinia virus (e.g., cidofovir, vaccinia immunoglobulin) during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe lesion is suitable for repeat measurementXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG-PS 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXImaging findings for HCC corresponding to any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXClear invasion into the bile ductXx_NEWLINE_xXPortal vein invasion at the main portal branch (Vp4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeningeal carcinomatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to lenvatinib or sorafenib (or any of the excipients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of drug or alcohol dependency or abuse within the prior 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing diarrhea defined as more than 1 watery stools/day.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced, symptomatic, visceral spread that are at risk of life threatening complication in the short termXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects treated with prior ipilimumab must have had partial response (PR), complete response (CR), or at least 6 months of stable disease followed by disease progression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInjectable disease (ie, suitable for direct injection or through the use of ultrasound [US] guidance) defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary uveal or mucosal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or plan for splenectomy or splenic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpes simplex type-1 virus (HSV-1) infection (eg, herpetic keratitis or encephalitis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires intermittent or chronic systemic (intravenous or oral) treatment with an antiherpetic drug (eg, acyclovir), other than intermittent topical useXx_NEWLINE_xXCerebral/meningeal disease, including signs and symptoms of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after MLN8237 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygen, or any conditions that could result in excessive toxicity associated with the benzodiazepine-like effects of MLN8237Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe following agents are not permitted while patients are taking MLN8237, and should be discontinued at prior to registration if patients are taking them:\r\n* Patients must stop using the proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for at least 4 days prior to the first dose of MLN8237; administration of PPI while on study is not permitted\r\n* Histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists are not permitted from the day prior through to the end of MLN8237 dosing, except as required for premedication for rituximab; constant dosing of H2 blockers is not permitted\r\n* Antacid preparations are not permitted for 2 hours before or 2 hours after administration of MLN8237\r\n* Administration of pancreatic enzymes is not permitted at any time while on study\r\n* Co-administration of enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs, rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine or St. John's wort is not permitted\r\n* Concurrent bisphosphonate therapy is allowed if it was started before study entry and is maintained at recommended dosing intervals; if bisphosphonate therapy is initiated after study entry, bone lesions will not be considered evaluable for disease response\r\n* Patients must be willing not drive, operate dangerous tools or machinery, or engage in any other potentially hazardous activity that requires full alertness and coordination if they experience excessive sedation; if a patient experiences excessive sedation believed to be related to MLN8237, treatment with MLN8237 should be interrupted\r\n* Patients must be willing to limit alcohol consumption to no more than 1 standard unit of alcohol (12 oz beer [350 mL], 1.5 oz [45 mL] of 80-proof alcohol, or one 6-oz [175 mL] glass of wine) per day during the study and for 30 days from the last dose of MLN8237; minimize the use of agents with central nervous system (CNS) effects\r\n* Benzodiazepine use is discouraged but not prohibitedXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 1 ONLY (UROTHELIAL PROGRESSIVE DISEASE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 3 (RARE HISTOLOGIES)Xx_NEWLINE_xXALL COHORTSXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown personal history of >3 adenomatous colorectal polyps or a personal history of adenomatous colorectal polyp(s) >2 centimeters (cm) in sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current clinical, radiographic, or pathologic evidence of in-transit metastases, satellite, or microsatellite lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of local and/or regional and/or distant melanoma recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current radiographic or pathologic evidence of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic patients who are on metformin are eligible as long as they have been on metformin for less than 6 months (estimated 6 months or less duration of metformin therapy from start of metformin to enrollment on study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of metformin for more than 6 months prior to enrollment on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMetabolic acidosis, acute or chronic, including ketoacidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of previous pelvic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior pelvic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative tuberculosis quantiferon test for anakinra arm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative serology for histoplasma, blastomycosis, and coccidiomycosis for anakinra arm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treated with TNF antagonists.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiovascular dysfunction or Respiratory Failure due to sepsis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulopathy characterized by an INR >1.40 without other known causes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is unwilling to allow transfusion of blood or blood products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight ? 175 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets < 30,000/ mm3 for any reason, PT prolongation or thrombocytopenia that is not due to sepsis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny surgery that is potentially hemorrhagic (e.g. intra-thoracic, intra-abdominal or non-traumatic orthopedic surgery of the femur or pelvis) that is completed within 12 hours prior to first dose of study drug, or ongoing impairment of hemostasis as a result of one of these proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of head trauma, spinal trauma, or other acute trauma with an increased risk of bleeding within 3 months prior to consent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCerebral Vascular Accident (CVA) within 3 months prior to consent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of congenital bleeding diathesesor anatomical anomaly that predisposes to hemorrhage (e.g. hemophilia, hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is diagnosed with a known medical condition associated with a hypercoagulable state.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute pancreatitis where infection has not been documented by a positive blood or abdominal fluid culture or gram stain consistent with bacterial infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with renal dysfunction defined as (a) Chronic renal failure requiring renal replacement therapy (RRT), or (b) Acute renal failure with onset of oliguria (urine output < 0.3 ml/kg/hr) > 48 hours prior to first dose of study drug whether receiving RRT or notXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of anticoagulants, antiplatelet agents, antithrombotics and thrombolytics within the 72 hours prior to first does of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed or suspected endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic Phase (CP)-CML Ph+ patients with complete hematologic response (CHR) but with one log BCR-ABL reduction (BCR-ABL level >10% IS) 3 months of imatinib 400mg treatment. (Imatinib transient dose adjustments due to Adverse Event (AEs) are allowed with a maximum of 2 weeks interruption of treatment with imatinib (cumulative) within the 3 month period before randomization). Imatinib monotherapy must have been started within 6 months of CP-CML diagnosis (Ph + /BCR-ABL detection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious diagnosis of accelerated phase or blast crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with less than CHR after 3 months of imatinib treatment or lost CHR after initial achievementXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented T315I/A, F317L, or V299L mutations (if already available - not required for screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically proven recurrent (>= first relapse), intracranial gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic progression on bevacizumab by Revised Assessment in Neuro-Oncology (RANO) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive connective tissue disorders, such as lupus or scleroderma, that in the opinion of the treating physician may put the patient at high risk for radiation toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPersons with positive sentinel nodes must have a complete lymphadenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHowever, if a change in hormonal therapy is indicated, e.g. due to intolerable adverse effects, the regimen may be modified but change should be minimized thereafter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with splenectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXe.g. Type 1 juvenile onset diabetes mellitus, antibody positive for rheumatoid arthritis, Grave's disease, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, lupus, scleroderma, systemic vasculitis, hemolytic anemia, immune mediated thrombocytopenia, etcXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-neoplastic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunotherapy [mAbs, Interferons, Cytokines (except GCSF)]Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppressants (e.g. Cyclosporin, Rapamycin, Tacrolimus, Rituximab, Alemtuzumab, Natalizumab, etc.).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any known severe allergies (e.g. anaphylaxis) to any active or inactive ingredients in the study drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with bladder inflammation and urinary outflow obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating antibody against mouse immunoglobulin (HAMA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart I: Subjects must have relapsed or refractory B cell NHLXx_NEWLINE_xXNo radioimmunotherapy within 2 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSCREENINGXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXSCREENINGXx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute grade III-IV graft-versus-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin >= 9.0 grams/deciliterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients (with skin metastases only) who will be therapeutically anticoagulated with heparins or Coumadin at the time of the biopsy (they are eligible if anticoagulation can be held prior to biopsy as per investigator); patients on aspirin and other platelet agents are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to imiquimod or its excipientsXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees that if randomized to Arms C or D, and proceeding onto Arms G or H, they must register into the mandatory RevAssist program, and be willing and able to comply with the requirements of RevAssistXx_NEWLINE_xXWays to minimize risk of DVT should be discussed with patients, including, but not limited to, avoiding smoking, minimizing pro-thrombotic hormone replacement, avoiding prolonged periods of inactivity (e.g. uninterrupted long car or plane trips)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 REGISTRATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCR, partial response (PR) or stable disease (SD) after Step 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXWays to minimize risk of DVT should be discussed with patients, including, but not limited to, avoiding smoking, minimizing pro-thrombotic hormone replacement, avoiding prolonged periods of inactivity (e.g uninterrupted long car or plane trips)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with < 20% bone marrow blasts are eligible if they have: \r\n* A karyotypic abnormality characteristic of de novo AML (t(8;21)(q22;q22), inv(16)(p13q22) or t(16;16)(p13;q22) or 11q23 abnormalities\r\n* The unequivocal presence of megakaryoblasts, or\r\n* Biopsy proven isolated myeloid sarcoma (myeloblastoma; chloroma, including leukemia cutis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following constitutional conditions are not eligible:\r\n* Fanconi anemia\r\n* Shwachman syndrome\r\n* Any other known bone marrow failure syndrome\r\n* Patients with constitutional trisomy 21 or with constitutional mosaicism of trisomy 21 \r\nNote: enrollment may occur pending results of clinically indicated studies to exclude these conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of all necessary baseline laboratory and radiologic investigations prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal laboratory tests immediately prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXSensitivity to any of the study medications or any of the ingredients or excipients of these medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed previously untreated ALL or lymphoblastic lymphoma; allow urgent administration of cytarabine/hydroxyurea (hydrea)/all-trans retinoic acid (atra) prior to starting treatment on protocol; allow previous administration of up to one course of hyper-CVAD and/or Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of recurrent CD30+ HL or CD30+ NHL, or newly diagnosed patients unable to receive or complete standard therapy OR diagnosis of relapsed/refractory CD30+ HL or CD30+ NHL with a treatment plan that will include high dose therapy and stem cell transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable autologous T cells with >= 15% expression of CD30CAR determined by flow-cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score 6 or 7 (no 5 grades), based on TRUS guided Transperineal Mapping Biopsy, as defined in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive TRUS-guided transperineal biopsy (TPBx) cores, detected in a maximum of four (4) sectors, (2 for each cancerous focus) out of 16 sectors (or out of 12 sectors in prostates with volume <20 cc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient eligible for epidural anesthesia, and general anesthesia (in case of complication, requiring intervention).Xx_NEWLINE_xXASA status > 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSeverely abnormal coagulation (INR>1.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cerebrovascular disease (multiple CVA or CVA within 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not able or willing to tolerate the required prolonged stationary supine position during treatment (approximately 3 hrs.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny rectal pathology, anomaly or previous treatment, which can change acoustic properties of rectal wall or prevent safe probe insertion (e.g., fistula, stenosis, fibrosis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny spinal pathology which can prevent safe administration of epidural anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentified calcification of 2 mm or more in largest diameter neighboring the rectal wall (in a distance of less than 5 mm) and interfering with the acoustic beam path.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLower limb musculo-skeletal fixed deformities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProstate with multiple cystic lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient that had TURP procedure beforeXx_NEWLINE_xXUrethral stricture/bladder neck contractureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with baseline symptoms of incontinence defined as urine leak in any of the following circumstances: 20.1. Before the patient can get to the toilet 20.2. When coughing or sneezing 20.3. While being asleep 20.4. While being physically active/exercising 20.5. After finishing urinating and being dressed 20.6. Leaking for no obvious reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with baseline impotence scoring 17 or below in the IIEF-5 (SHIM) questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXActive UTIXx_NEWLINE_xXProstatitis NIH categories I, II and IIIXx_NEWLINE_xXImplant near (<1 cm) the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXInterest in future fertilityXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be pregnant or lactating as chemotherapy is thought to present substantial risk to the fetus/infantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with serious non-healing wounds, ulcers, or bone fracturesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients using oral or parenteral anticoagulation are not excluded provided they are on a stable dose of anticoagulantXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be able to adhere to the dosing and visit schedules, and agree to record medication times accurately and consistently in a daily diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intratumoral or peritumoral hemorrhage if deemed significant by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXDue to the potential interaction between nilotinib and enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED - phenytoin, fosphenytonin, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, phenobarbital, primidone, felbamate), only patients on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs (NEIAED) or on no anti-epileptic drugs are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a rare hereditary problem of galactose intolerance, severe lactase deficiency or of glucose-galactose malabsorptionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with electrolyte abnormality deemed clinically significant by the investigator (e.g., hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyponatremia) unless the level can be corrected to normal levels prior to initiating study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following medications within four weeks prior to start of study treatment (week 1): systemically administered radiopharmaceuticals such as bone seeking isotopes (e.g., samarium-153 lexidronam); hematopoietic growth factors other than erythropoietin; medroxyprogesterone as an appetite stimulant; or alternative medicine treatments for prostate cancer, including Prostasol (formerly: PC-Plus), saw palmetto, or ZyflamendXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive stool guaiac, excluding hemorrhoids or documented radiation-induced proctitis, if test is performed at the discretion of the treating physician (stool guaiac test is not required to screen for eligibility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust consent to collection of blood samples for PK analysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pN+ or > T1 disease or who have not had a visibly complete TURBTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drugs (cisplatin, mitomycin, fluorouracil [5FU]) involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be staged for risk classification and treatment at diagnosis using Children's Oncology Group (COG) staging guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with stage I or II disease, specimens for rapid central review have been submitted and the rapid central review diagnosis and staging must be available to be provided on the AHEP0731 eligibility case report form (CRF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory/physical examination (to include, at a minimum, digital rectal examination of the prostate and examination of the skeletal system and abdomen, and formal comorbidity assessment via the ACE-27 instrument) within 60 days prior to registration; Note: the ACE-27 is posted on the 0815 protocol information page on the NRG Oncology/Radiation Therapy Oncology Group (RTOG) web siteXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Gleason score >= 8; PSA > 20; OR clinical stage >= T3 are ineligible for this trial\r\n* Should findings of extracapsular extension or seminal vesicle invasion be noted on prostate MRI, this study, if used, will not render patients ineligible for accrual to this protocol; primary tumor staging for eligibility purposes is to be based on palpable or core biopsy evidence only with respect to extracapsular extension or seminal vesicle involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with all three intermediate risk factors who also have >= 50% of the number of their biopsy cores positive for cancer are ineligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior hormonal therapy, such as LHRH agonists (e.g., goserelin, leuprolide), antiandrogens (e.g., flutamide, bicalutamide), estrogens (e.g., diethylstilbestrol [DES]), or bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior RT, including brachytherapy, to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of RT fields\r\n* Any patient undergoing brachytherapy must have transrectal ultrasound confirmation of prostate volume < 60 cc, American Urological Association (AUA) score =< 15 within 60 days of registration, and no history of prior transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP); prior TURP is permitted for patients who receive EBRT onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXMART-1 positive melanoma by reverse transcription (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or immunohistochemistry (IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo restriction based on prior treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing and able to accept at least two leukapheresis proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B or C seropositivity with evidence of ongoing liver damage, which would increase the likelihood of hepatic toxicities from the chemotherapy conditioning regimen and supportive treatments; if there is a positive result in the infectious disease testing that was not previously known, the patient will be referred to their primary physician and/or infectious disease specialistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed intrinsic brainstem gliomas, defined as tumors with a pontine epicenter and diffuse rather than focal involvement of the pons, with or without extension to adjacent medulla or midbrain, are eligible without histologic confirmation; patients with brainstem tumors that do not meet these criteria or not considered to be typical intrinsic pontine gliomas will only be eligible if the tumors are biopsied and proven to be a grade III or IV glioma (anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma multiforme, gliosarcoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with abnormality of the tibial metaphyseal plate on plain x-ray prior to study entry are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman anti-mouse antibody (HAMA) titer < 1000 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (Elisa) units/ml if applicableXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable autologous stem cells: >= 2 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with complete response (CR)/very good partial response (VGPR) diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHAMA titer > 1000 Elisa units/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Be at least 12 years of age\n\n          -  Have a documented (medical record) diagnosis of either pheochromocytoma or\n             paraganglioma\n\n          -  Be ineligible for curative surgery for pheochromocytoma\n\n          -  Have failed a prior therapy for pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma or are not candidates\n             for chemotherapy or other curative therapies\n\n          -  Be on stable antihypertensive medication for pheochromocytoma-related hypertension for\n             at least 30 days\n\n          -  Have at least one tumor site by CT or MR or iobenguane I 131 scan\n\n          -  Have an expected survival of at least 6 months\n\n          -  Subjects must agree to use an acceptable form of birth control (abstinence, IUD, oral\n             contraception, barrier and spermicide or hormonal implant) during this study and for 6\n             months following Therapeutic Doses of Ultratrace Iobenguane I 131.\n\n          -  Male subjects must agree not to father a child during the period beginning immediately\n             after administration of the first Therapeutic Dose of Ultratrace Iobenguane I 131\n             during the study and ending six months after administration of the last Therapeutic\n             Dose of Ultratrace Iobenguane I 131.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        Subjects will be excluded if any of the following conditions are observed:\n\n          -  <50% of FDG (if data are available) positive lesions are MIBG avid\n\n          -  Pregnant or nursing females\n\n          -  Active CNS lesions by CT/MR scanning within 3 months of study entry\n\n          -  New York Heart Association class IV heart failure, symptomatic congestive heart\n             failure [New York Heart Association class IV with another medical disorder], unstable\n             angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia\n\n          -  Received any previous systemic radiotherapy resulting in marrow toxicity within 3\n             months of study entry or have active malignancy (other than\n             pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma) requiring additional treatment during the active phase\n             or follow up period of the Ultratrace® iobenguane I 131 trial.\n\n          -  Administered prior whole-body radiation therapy\n\n          -  Received external beam radiotherapy to > 25% of bone marrow\n\n          -  Administered prior chemotherapy within 30 days or have active malignancy (other than\n             pheochromocytoma/ paraganglioma) requiring additional treatment during the active\n             phase or follow up period of the Ultratrace iobenguane I 131 trial.\n\n          -  Karnofsky Performance Status is < 60\n\n          -  Platelets < 80,000/?L\n\n          -  Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 1,200/?L, Total bilirubin > 1.5 times the upper\n             limit of normal, AST/SGOT or ALT/SGPT > 2.5 times the upper limit of normal\n\n          -  Diagnosed with AIDS or HIV-positive\n\n          -  Active chronic alcohol abuse, chronic liver disease or hepatitis\n\n          -  Renal dysfunction/impairment\n\n          -  Known allergy to iobenguane that has required medical intervention\n\n          -  Received a therapeutic investigational compound and/or medical device/prior\n             chemotherapy within 30 days before admission into this study\n\n          -  Receiving a medication which inhibits tumor uptake of iobenguane I 131\n\n          -  Any medical condition or other circumstances (i.e., uncontrolled current illness\n             including but not limited to, ongoing or active infection or psychiatric\n             illness/social situations that would limit compliance with the study requirements.\n\n          -  Any other condition, that in the opinion of the investigator, may compromise the\n             safety or compliance of the subject or would preclude the subject from successful\n             completion of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (0.3-5.0) and free thyroxine (0.8-1.87) within Mayo normal rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed recurrent adenocarcinoma of the prostate =< 1 year prior to registration and >= 18 months following localized treatment of: \r\n* EBRT or\r\n* Permanent prostate brachytherapy or\r\n* High dose rate brachytherapy or\r\n* Any combination of the above radiotherapy treatments or\r\n* Prostatectomy; patients who have a localized recurrence following prostatectomy with a discernible mass identifiable on trans-rectal ultrasound that can be readily accessed as judged by the treating urologist or radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-anesthetic medical evaluation and clearance for anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide the biologic specimens and participate in imaging studies as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of salvage prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate size > 140 cc or pubic arch interference study demonstrating unacceptable prostate access by the transperineal approachXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of rectum or other anatomic features which would preclude transperineal needle insertion into the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Urologic Association Obstructive Symptom Index Score > 24Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulopathy which contraindicates transperineal and intraprostatic needle insertionXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of or =< 4 weeks prior to registration of anti-androgens such as flutamide, estrogens, ketoconazole, finasteride, or megestrol acetateXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with > 1 renal/genitourinary toxicity: \r\n* Bladder spasms\r\n* Creatine > 1.5 x UNL\r\n* Dysuria (painful urination)\r\n* Genitourinary fistula\r\n* Hemoglobinuria (> 1+)\r\n* Operative injury to bladder and/or ureter\r\n* Proteinuria\r\n* Renal failure\r\n* Ureteral obstruction\r\n* Urinary retention\r\n* Urine color change (not related to other dietary or physiologic cause e.g. bilirubin, concentrated urine, hematuria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is amenable to compliance with protocol schedules and testingXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a history of chronic diarrheal disease within 6 months prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has pulmonary lymphangitic involvement that results in pulmonary dysfunction requiring active treatment, including the use of oxygen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of motor neuropathy considered to be of autoimmune origin (e.g., Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or any components of the study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for immunological and clinical assessments or post-study follow-up contact to determine relapse and survivalXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable riskXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically proven diagnosis of NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory/physical examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXWBC counts > 2500/µLXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved contralateral hilar nodesXx_NEWLINE_xX10% weight loss within the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown EGFR exon 19 or 21 mutation or ALK rearrangementXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior severe infusion reaction to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic insufficiency resulting in clinical jaundice and/or coagulation defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) based upon current CDC definition; note, HIV testing is required for entry into this protocol due to the immunologic basis for induction treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of allergic reaction to paclitaxel or other taxanes, or to carboplatin;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestationsXx_NEWLINE_xXRash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alcometasone dipropionate 0.05%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 6 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave mixed small cell and non-small cell histologic features.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within the Protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of myelofibrosis (either primary or post essential thrombocythemia/polycythemia vera) requiring therapy, including those previously treated and relapsed or refractory, or if newly diagnosed, with intermediate-1 or -2 or high risk according to International Working Group (IWG) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking ruxolitinib at the time of enrollment must have been taking ruxolitinib for a minimum of 3 months, and must have been on a stable dose of ruxolitinib for a minimum of 4 weeks immediately prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical and definitive histologic diagnosis of WMXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of disease transformation at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible patient must show evidence of wild-type (WT) p53 as assessed by central DNA sequencing conducted at Dr. Jeffrey Sklar’s laboratory at Yale University Cancer Center; note, that since patients with AML have a rapidly proliferating disease, patient can be enrolled and begin treatment prior to obtaining the results of this test; patients who are found to the TP53 mutated will be removed from study and can continue on single agent decitabine; however patients will continue to be followed for toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously untreated AML with core binding factor (CBF) chromosomal aberrations (inv[16]/t[16;16] or t[8;21]); Note that patients with relapsed or refractory AML with CBF chromosomal aberrations will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll herbal medicines (e.g., St. John’s wort), vitamins, and supplements consumed by the subject within the 30 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232, and continuing use, if applicable, will be reviewed by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any known CYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic window (such as alfentanil, astemizole, cisapride, dihydroergotamine, pimozide, quinidine, sirolimus, or terfanide) within the 14 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232; other medications (such as fentanyl and oxycodone) may be allowed per investigator’s assessment/evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known TP53 mutations or chromosome 17 or 17p deletionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to a pyrrolobenzodiazepine (PBD)- or indolinobenzodiazepine-based drug, prior participation in a rovalpituzumab tesirine clinical trial, or known hypersensitivity or other contraindications to rovalpituzumab tesirine or excipient contained in the drug formulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNEOADJUVANT COHORTXx_NEWLINE_xXPreexisting grade >= 2 hearing lossXx_NEWLINE_xXSigns or symptoms of infection within 2 weeks prior to cycle 1, day 1; abnormal urinalysis does not constitute signs/symptoms of infection unless urine culture obtained at screening grows >= 100,000 colonies of bacteria; patients with an ileal conduit and a urinalysis and/or culture that are abnormal are eligible unless they have peripheral blood white blood cell (WBC) > ULN, fever, or other symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions: \r\n* Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations \r\n* Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA) \r\n* Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%) \r\n* No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a deleterious mutation in a BRCA1/2 or ATM geneXx_NEWLINE_xXAndrogen receptor positive (AR+)\r\n* Defined as >= 10% nuclear AR staining by immunohistochemistry (IHC) in either the primary or metastatic lesion\r\n* NOTE: Research testing of AR status is available at City of Hope (COH) PathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXAR targeted agents (including GTx-024, enzalutamide or other AR targeted therapies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTherapeutic-dose anticoagulation must be discontinued and coagulation parameters must be normalized prior to the first dose of GSK525762 and fulvestrant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with advanced/metastatic, symptomatic, visceral spread, that are at risk of life-threatening complications in the short term including subjects with massive uncontrolled effusions, pulmonary lymphangitis, and over 50% of liver involvement in metastases.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphocytes ? 0.5 x 109/LXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXSCCHNXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior head or neck irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-resectable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have a pathologically confirmed (by histology or cytology) diagnosis of SCLC, which is currently extensive disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA patient with urothelial carcinoma with variant histologic differentiation (e.g. squamous cell differentiation, glandular differentiation, neuroendocrine differentiation) will be eligible provided that the predominant histology is urothelial carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS of ?1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is oxygen-dependent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a history of pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical abnormality or medical condition that limits swallowing multiple pills, or has a history of non-adherence to oral therapies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCataract of Grade ?2 for posterior subcapsular cataract, cortical cataract, nuclear opalescence, or nuclear color based on the LOCS III.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient requires treatment with a pH elevating agent, including H2 blockers, proton pump inhibitors, and antacids. If the medication is considered to be medically necessary, the patient should be discussed with the Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has uveal melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor NSCLC, patients must have a minimum of a 10 pack-year smoking history.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because nivolumab, personalized neoantigen peptides, and Poly-ICLC are agents with unknown risks to the developing fetus.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNursing women are excluded from this study because there is an unknown but potential risk of adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with nivolumab, personalized neoantigen peptides, and Poly-ICLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMucosal melanoma and uvueal melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOut of range lab values as defined in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant disease, other than that being treated in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who received DAC inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring medications that are sensitive CYP2D6 substrates areCYP2D6 substrates with a narrow therapeutic index or are anti-arrhythmic drugs/drugs with QT-prolongation risksXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresolved diarrhea ? CTCAE grade 2 or a medical condition associated with chronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring medications with narrow therapeutic index CYP3A4 substratesXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen using any form of hormonal contraception (oral, injected, implanted, transdermal) will be excluded (unless they are willing to switch to another effective form of contraception under their physician's guidance) Additional exclusion criteria for PDR001/HDM201-Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having out of range values for:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of deleterious or suspected deleterious germline mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 genesXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have full activity or, if limited, must be able to walk and carry out light activities such as light house work or office workXx_NEWLINE_xXNot a woman of childbearing potential as defined in Appendix VIII ORXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with characterized Anaplastic Lymphoma Kinase (ALK) rearrangements that predict sensitivity to anti-ALK therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXReceive only RIC regimen (i.e. Regimen A)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) related syndromes or symptoms that may pose an excessive risk for transplantation-related morbidity as determined by the Treatment Review Committee (see Appendix D).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMay not be currently prescribed ritonavir, cobacistat and/or zidovudineXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of primary idiopathic myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive oral or IV hydrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known risks factors for bowel perforationXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1: any DLBCL subtype.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2: activated B-cell or unclassifiable subtypes confirmed by immunohistochemistry using the Hans algorithmXx_NEWLINE_xXFluorodeoxyglucose-avid disease (based on local evaluation) per the Lugano Classification. Fluorodeoxyglucose-avid disease is defined as disease with a 5-point scale score of 4 or 5.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has any of the following comorbidities:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received a cumulative anthracycline dose above 400 mg/m2 of doxorubicin (or cumulative maximum dose of another anthracycline).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is suitable for oral administration of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe of nonchildbearing potential:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented surgically sterile or status posthysterectomy (at least 1 month prior to screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEmergency leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5HT1R or 5HT2BR or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXResults must be available from a genomic test or immunohistochemistry (IHC) test for protein expression performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified, College of American Pathologists (CAP) -accredited, New York State accredited (for labs offering services to residents of NY) laboratory that has registered the test with the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Genetic Test Registry or has established an integration with the TAPUR platform. The genomic or IHC test used to qualify a patient for participation in TAPUR may have been performed on any specimen of the patient's tumor obtained at any point during the patient's care at the discretion of the patient's treating physician. Genomic assays performed on cell-free DNA in plasma (\liquid biopsies\) will also be acceptable if the genomic analysis is performed in a laboratory that meets the criteria described above.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area: the minimum body surface area (BSA) allowed for enrollment at dose level 1 to 0.85 m^2; the minimum for dose level 2 is BSA = 0.6 m^2 and the minimum for dose level 3 is BSA = 0.42 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled infection within one week of the first dose; infections controlled on concurrent anti-microbial agents are acceptable, and anti-microbial prophylaxis per institutional guidelines are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXDose Escalation: Patients with relapsed or refractory AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXHave documented CD45 expression by leukemic cells via flow cytometry (a \blast gate\ on CD45 vs. side scatter analysis consistent with AML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave circulating HAMA noted on initial screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously received HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHave abnormal QTcF (>450milliseconds) after electrolytes have been corrected (at least two different ECG readings and at least 15 minutes between readings)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients refractory to ublituximab + TGR-1202Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior ipilimumab is permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ocular melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory B-precursor ALL defined as one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAges 2 to 21 at the time of Assent or Consent per IRB guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute GVHD grade II-IV by Glucksberg criteria or severity B-D by IBMTR index; acute or chronic GVHD requiring systemic treatment within 4 weeks prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) low Risk or intermediate-1 risk MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with any out-of-range laboratory values defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with a diagnosis of complex atypical hyperplasia OR grade 1 endometrioid endometrial carcinoma on endometrial biopsy or dilation and curettage (D & C) within three months of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with grade 2-3 endometrioid, uterine serous, clear cell, mucinous, squamous, transitional cell, sarcomas, or carcinosarcoma histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXCongenital or acquired uterine anomaly which distorts the uterine cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXGenital actinomycosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1: 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 and 3: 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or current evidence of ectopic mineralization/calcificationXx_NEWLINE_xXResting and ambulatory oxygen saturation >= 94% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of > 600 mg/m^2 total dose of carmustine (BCNU) with prior treatments including transplant conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to receive follow-up care for a minimum of five years after treatment at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) and annual visits unless it is too difficult to return to MGH for follow-up care; in that event, the patient or guardian must be willing to have their outside medical information (i.e. imaging studies, laboratory results and doctor or other health professional notes) released in order to track the results of treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXTiming of radiation may be according to a concurrent protocol (such as a Children’s Oncology Group [COG] study) or according to physician discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with co-morbidities that would make the use of radiation too toxic to deliver safely, such as serious local injury or collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary tumor must be arising in one of the following central chest locations:\r\n* Within or touching the zone of the proximal bronchial tree (a volume 2 cm in all directions around the proximal bronchial tree [carina, right (R) & left (L) main bronchi, R & L upper lobe bronchi, intermedius bronchus, R middle lobe bronchus, lingular bronchus, R & L lower lobe bronchi])\r\n* Adjacent to (within 5 mm) or invading the mediastinal pleura\r\n* Adjacent to (within 5 mm) or invading the parietal pericardiumXx_NEWLINE_xXPRESTUDY REQUIREMENTS: \r\n* History and physical examination, weight, Zubrod performance status (within 4 weeks pre-study entry)\r\n* Evaluation by thoracic cancer clinician (within 8 weeks pre-study entry)\r\n* Pregnancy test, if applicable (serum or urine, within 72 hours prior to treatment start)\r\n* CT (preferably with contrast unless medically contraindicated; both lungs, mediastinum, liver, adrenals)\r\n* PET (using fluorodeoxyglucose [FDG] with visualization of primary tumor and draining lymph node basins in hilar and mediastinal regions)\r\n* Brain and MRI or head CT with contrast\r\n* Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) - include routine spirometry, lung volumes, diffusion capacity\r\n* Signed informed consentXx_NEWLINE_xXNo use of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERM) such as raloxifene or similar agents in the past 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausal statusXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of precursor B-cell or precursor T-cell ALL by immunophenotypingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary breast cancers must be of clinical and/or radiologic size > 3 cm, and deemed surgically operableXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrocardiogram showing no acute ischemic changesXx_NEWLINE_xXIs not eligible or has refused any protocols of higher priorityXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active ischemia by electrocardiography (ECG) or clinical symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with acute or chronic skin disorders that will interfere with injection into the skin of the extremities or subsequent assessment of potential skin reactions will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo concurrent administration of cimetidine (as it can decrease the clearance of fluorouracil [5-FU]); another histamine-2 receptor (H2)-blocker or proton pump inhibitor may be substituted before study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXNo previous allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically fit to and willing to donateXx_NEWLINE_xXHas not donated blood products to patientXx_NEWLINE_xXNo portal invasion or extrahepatic spreadXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced tumoral disease, defined as vascular invasion, extrahepatic spread, or diffuse HCC (50% liver involvement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications for doxorubicin administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening renal biopsy for RAIN confirming AL amyloidosis as exclusive or dominant cause of renal damageXx_NEWLINE_xXCKD 1 to 3 (eGFR > 30)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNT-proBNP < 1800 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosis due to mutations of the transthyretin gene or presence of other non-AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not been treated or who have received chemotherapy within 6 months, or SCT within 12 months, for the light-chain producing hematologic disease causing AL amyloidosis, at the time of the first dose of NEOD001 (month 1 day 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose screening renal biopsies for RAIN show dominant causes of renal damage not related to AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the dose expansion portion of the phase I study, patients must have locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic GIST that is resistant to imatinib; this population includes patients who have not been treated with imatinib (imatinib naive) but considered to have primary resistance to imatinib, i.e. KIT/PDGFRA wild-type GIST, and patients with imatinib-refractory disease, i.e. has had prior treatment with imatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have a history or current evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR) or retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or predisposing factors to CSR or RVO (i.e. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatinine phosphokinase (i.e. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to allow the sponsor to collect data on all GBM-related treatments received after the patient comes off the current study, and to collect survival data after the patient comes off the current study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed initial diagnosis of primary glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) or gliosarcoma (GS), now recurrent. Patients with recurrent/progressive disease whose initial diagnostic pathology confirmed GBM or GS will not need re-biopsy. Patients with prior low-grade glioma or anaplastic glioma are eligible, if histologic assessment demonstrates transformation to GBM or GS.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has previously received standard of care chemo-radiation with temozolomide, ± adjuvant temozolomide and bevacizumab and now has radiographic evidence of recurrent/progressive GBM or GS during or after bevacizumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have bi dimensionally measurable disease, per the proposed Response Assessment in NeuroOncology (RANO; Appendix C) (Wen et al., 2010), with measurement of >1 cm in one diameter and ?5 cm diameter in any plane on MRI performed within 2 weeks prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKPS must have been stable during the period from wash-out of prior therapy to randomization. A declining KPS is defined by reduction of 10 points or more over at least a 28-day period.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent history of neoplasm other than the entry diagnosis. Exceptions are:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous solid and hematologic tumors, that have been treated with no evidence of recurrence within the last 5 years, are permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiological evidence of multifocal disease, tumors extending into or crossing the corpus callosum or leptomeningeal disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for urgent palliative intervention for primary disease (e.g., impending herniation).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of hemosiderin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXResolving hemorrhagic changes related to surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with steroid myopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility for pheresis: (Turnstile 1) Histopathologic documentation of melanoma concurrent with the diagnosis of metastatic disease. A diagnosis of uveal melanoma can be made clinically without primary tissue evaluation, based on history and records. A prior history of brachytherapy to the eye is sufficient clinical support for a diagnosis of uveal melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility for T-cell infusion (includes cyclophosphamide, T cell, anti-CTLA4 infusions and s.c. IL-2) (Turnstile 2) (Note: evaluate at least 1 week before T-cell infusion): ECOG/Zubrod performance status of 0-1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBi-dimensionally measurable disease by palpation on clinical exam, or radiographic imaging per immune-related response criteria (irRC).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior to cyclophosphamide and T cell infusions: bilirubin >=3 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not be on any other treatments for their cancer aside from those included in the protocol. Patients may not undergo another form of treatment concurrently with this study. Oncology supportive treatments such as growth factors, bone modifying agents, pain or nausea management are allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of relapsed/refractory diffuse large B-cell lymphoma after prior rituximab and anthracycline-containing systemic treatment regimen such as rituximab-cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin hydrochloride (doxorubicin hydrochloride), vincristine (oncovin), and prednisone (R-CHOP), rituximab-etoposide, vincristine, and doxorubicin (R-EPOCH), rituximab-hyperfractionated cyclophosphamide, vincristine, adriamycin, and dexamethasone (R-HyperCVAD), etc; a biopsy immediately before enrollment is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXIf a potential study patient is taking any of the medications in the categories described below, the investigator will assess and document the use of medications known or suspected to fall in the following medication categories:\r\n* Moderate/weak CYP3A inducers such as efavirenz and oxcarbazepine\r\n* CYP2C8 substrates such as thiazolidinediones (glitazones) and select statins (because of expected inhibition of the metabolism of CYP2C8 substrates) by venetoclax\r\n* CYP2C9 substrates such as tolbutamide (because of expected inhibition of the metabolism of CYP2C9 substrates by venetoclax; it is recommended to exclude CYP2C9 substrates with a narrow therapeutic index such as phenytoinXx_NEWLINE_xXUnequivocally confirmed diagnosis of SCLC by histology or cytology, preferably including the presence of neuroendocrine features by immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of PNH by flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate response to eculizumab defined as having received eculizumab for at least 6 months plus a documented LDH level ? 1.5 x the upper limit of normal (ULN) and/or the presence of a known C5 mutation conferring resistance to eculizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of meningococcal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived any of the following prescribed medications or therapies in the past:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have uterine sarcomas, carcinosarcomas, serous tumors (any component) or pure clear cell carcinomas.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimens.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh or high-intermediate disease risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is willing and able to undergo biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigator considers R-CHOP immunochemotherapy appropriate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of other malignancies, unless disease-free for ? 5 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk of developing thromboembolic events, who are unwilling to take venous thromboembolism prophylaxis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt an increased risk of hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any condition requiring any form of anticoagulant therapy (heparin flushes for IV catheter are permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-pregnant and non-nursing. The effect of nab-paclitaxel and nivolumab on the fetus is unknown.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors within previous radiated field will be designated “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of unresectable or metastatic BRAF V600 mutant melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of predisposition to retinal vein occlusion or central serous retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXWolff-Parkinson White syndrome or the presence of an intra-cardiac defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring concomitant medications that are not able to be switched to a reasonable alternativeXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of T315I mutation by ABL1 sequencingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is currently in complete cytogenetic remission (CCyR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown amyloid involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cerebrovascular accident (CVA) with persistent neurological deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kilograms.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlucose-6-phosphatase deficiency (G6PD) level of 5-14 units/g hemoglobin (Hgb) or within institutional standard parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior neoadjuvant FOLFIRINOXXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent dependency on IV hydration or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions attributed to therapeutic antibodies; Note: patients with reactions to chimeric antibodies may be permitted on a case by case basis with approval by study chair by contacting the data managerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXVaccination with a live or attenuated vaccine =< 28 days prior to randomization; Note: other types of vaccines, including inactivated/killed, toxoid (inactivated toxoid), and subunit/conjugate are all permitted at any timeXx_NEWLINE_xXOther concurrent severe and/or uncontrolled medical disease, psychiatric illness, or social situation, which could compromise safety of treatment as so judged by the treating physician; Note: this includes but is not limited to: severely impaired lung function, uncontrolled diabetes (history of consistent blood glucose readings above 300 mg/dL or less than 50 mg/dL), severe\r\ninfection, severe malnutrition, ventricular arrhythmias, known active vasculitis of any cause, tumor invasion of any major blood vessel, chronic liver or renal disease, and active upper GI tract ulcerationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or recent diagnosis of demyelinating diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease that requires therapy, including intermediate-1, intermediate-2, or high-risk disease according to the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) or Dynamic-IPSSXx_NEWLINE_xXNo coexisting medical problems of sufficient severity to limit compliance with the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiverticulitis (either active or history of) within the past 2 years; note that diverticulosis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo other non-protocol antineoplastic agents will be permitted during this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following are additional exclusion criteria for patients enrolling post safety run in:\r\n* Any clinical or radiographic evidence of a partial or complete bowel obstruction (small or large bowel) currently or within the past 6 months\r\n* No current dependency on total parental nutrition (TPN) or within the past 30 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXMay have had intervening therapy since completion of initial UC-961 dosing, but excluding the following:\r\n* Within 7 days of UC-961 restart, or 5 half-lives (if known), whichever is shorter: small molecular tyrosine kinase inhibitor (e.g.: ibrutinib, idelalisib, AVL-292, IPI-145); \r\n* Within 28 days of UC-961 restart: chemotherapy (e.g., purine analogues, alkylating agents), corticosteroids, radiation therapy, or participation in any other investigational drug treatment (besides UC-961) \r\n* Within 56 days UC-961 restart: previous UC-961 dosing\r\n* Within 56 days of UC-961 restart: monoclonal antibody therapy directed against CLL (eg. rituximab, ofatumumab, obinutuzumab, alemtuzumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated autoimmunity such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, or immune thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of more than 55% pro-lymphocytes in peripheral blood; patients with Richter’s transformation are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP) criteria\r\n* Histological diagnosis of RRP confirmed by pathology report from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratory\r\n* One of the following:\r\n** A Derkay anatomic score of 10 or greater and a history of two or more endoscopic interventions in the last 12 months for control of RRP\r\n** Pulmonary RRP with pulmonary disease that is measurable by computed tomography scan\r\n** Tracheal involvement with RRP that has required either two or more endoscopic interventions in the last 12 months or a tracheostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo endoscopic evaluation with biopsies in compliance with this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils > 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXBe scheduled for a colectomy procedure with a stapled anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAt time of surgery, has a completed anastomosis that is able to be visualized and is accessible to allow for circumferential sealant application with minimal bowel manipulation (?90%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted anastomosis must be at a location where a WCE can be performed to evaluate for a sub-clinical leakXx_NEWLINE_xXASA score (American Society of Anesthesiologists) ? 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutropenia ? 800 cells/µlXx_NEWLINE_xXHas neutropenia (IBD and steroid use not excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas any condition known to effect wound healing, such as collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas undergone chemotherapy within 4 weeks of the anastomosis procedure and/or radiation within 3 days of the anastomosis procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrently using fibrin sealants or other anastomosis care devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXEmergency surgery for abdominal indicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas undergone a colectomy procedure in the previous two monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas an emergent infection related to a previous colectomy procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXIs scheduled to undergo a Hartmann's procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXIs scheduled to undergo trans-anal endoscopic microsurgery (TEM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs scheduled to undergo procedure using omental wrappingXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets < 100000/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a confirmed diagnosis of neurofibromatosis 2 by fulfilling National Institute of Health (NIH) criteria or Manchester criteria, or by detection of a causative mutation in the neurofibromatosis 2 (NF2) gene\r\n* The NIH criteria includes presence of:\r\n** Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, OR\r\n** First-degree relative with NF2 and EITHER unilateral eighth nerve mass OR two of the\r\nfollowing: neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, schwannoma, juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacity\r\n* The Manchester criteria includes presence of:\r\n** Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, OR\r\n** First-degree relative with NF2 and EITHER unilateral eighth nerve mass OR two of the following: neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, schwannoma, juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacity, OR\r\n** Unilateral vestibular schwannoma AND any two of: neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, schwannoma, juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacity, OR\r\n** Multiple meningiomas (two or more) AND unilateral vestibular schwannoma OR any two of: schwannoma, glioma, neurofibroma, cataractXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have progressive or symptomatic meningioma\r\n* NOTE: Histologic confirmation of target meningioma is not required in the setting of compatible radiographic appearance\r\n* NOTE: Progression is defined as an increase in target meningioma volume >= 20% OR >= 3 mm during the past 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to sensitive or narrow therapeutic range substrates of the drug metabolizing enzymes CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP2C19, CYP2D6 or the drug transporters Pgp (MDR1), BCRP, OATP1B1, OATP1B3, OCT1 and OCT2 within the appropriate wash-out period (a minimum of 5 x reported elimination half-life) before the first dose of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDetection of one of the following must be present:\r\n* t(9;22)(q34;q11) or 3-way variant by metaphase cytogenetics\r\n* Breakpoint cluster region (BCR)-Abelson (ABL) positive status by molecular analysis with qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of QT prolonging agents strongly associated with torsades de pointes is not permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a known dasatinib-resistant ABL-kinase mutation such as T315I are not eligible; for confirmation, please contact PIXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to receive ibrutinib through commercial supply, i.e., insured patients meeting Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved indicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave serum albumin that is ?25 grams per liter at the time of enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXnonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs; such as indomethacin, ibuprofen, naproxen, or similar agents).Xx_NEWLINE_xXother anti-platelet agents (such as clopidogrel, ticlopidine, dipyridamole, or anagrelide).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave radiologically documented evidence of major blood vessel invasion or encasement by cancer.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently enrolled in study 2007-0169 and benefiting from therapy as determined by treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xX• Subject is undergoing an elective open cardiothoracic, abdominal, or orthopedic lower extremity surgery;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has ASA classification of 5;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has religious or other objections to porcine, bovine, or human components;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject in whom the Investigator is able to identify a TBS for which any applicable conventional means for hemostasis are ineffective or impractical; andXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a TBS with an SBSS score of 1, 2, or 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documentation of a new or progressive lesion on a radiologic imaging study performed within 6 months prior to study enrollment (progression of disease over any interval is allowed) and/or new/worsening disease related symptoms within 6 months prior to study enrollment; note: this assessment will be performed by the treating investigator; evidence of progression by RECIST criteria is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of lenvatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have received any drug that is a moderate or strong inhibitor of 2B6, 2C9, 3A4, and 2C19 within 1 week prior to receiving cyclophosphamide dosing through 72 hours after cyclophosphamide dosing; patients must not have received any drug that is a moderate or strong inducer of 3A4 within 2 weeks prior to cyclophosphamide dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has evidence of active graft versus host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a score of >= 12 on the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ)-9 questionnaire, selects a response of “1, 2 or 3” to question number 9 on the PHQ-9 questionnaire regarding potential for suicidal thoughts or ideation (independent of the total score of the PHQ-9), score >= 15 on Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)-7 mood scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a preexisting chronic condition resulting in persistent diarrhea.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly differentiated histology, uterine papillary serous carcinoma, clear cell carcinoma or carcinosarcoma is acceptable as long as the predominant metastatic component is epithelial (versus sarcomatous)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility to a higher priority trial for first line or recurrent endometrial cancer (unless patient is unwilling to participate in such a trial)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTesting of patient’s archived (paraffin embedded, unstained slides) or freshly biopsied tumor nodules must be positive for WT1 protein expression:\r\n* WT1 expression: Immunohistochemical analysis will be performed; WT1 expression will be graded according to an adaptation of the German Immunoreactive Score (IRS); only tumors with moderate to strong IRS scores (4-12) will be considered WT1 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must be willing to apply the medications twice daily for 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subjects must have at least four BCCs in non-cosmetically sensitive sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent immunosuppression or taking immunosuppressive drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking oral itraconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any medication known to affect hedgehog (HH) signaling pathwayXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has used topical or systemic therapies that might interfere with the evaluation of the study medication during the study; specifically these include the topical use to the study tumors of: glucocorticoids (ii) retinoids (e.g., etretinate, isotretinoin, tazarotene, tretinoin, adapalene) systemically or topically (iii) alpha-hydroxy acids (e.g., glycolic acid, lactic acid) to more than 5% of the skin during the six months prior to study entry (iv) 5-fluorouracil or imiquimod; also, treatment with systemic chemotherapy or agents known to be inhibitors of HH signaling within 60 days to starting study medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent or to use contraceptive measures that result in a failure rate of <1% per year during the treatment period and for at least 3 months after last dose of obinutuzumab, rituximab, and Atezo and for 5 months after last dose of Pola, and agreement to refrain from donating sperm during this same periodXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of transformation of indolent disease to DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of solid organ transplantation and of severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to humanized, chimeric, or murine monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave participated in a previous study of duvelisib, and:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe actively receiving duvelisib monotherapy on the previous study (within 14 days of study entry) and demonstrating clinical benefit (complete response [CR]/ partial response [PR]/ stable disease [SD]) of continued use, orXx_NEWLINE_xXBe in the survival follow-up phase of a previous duvelisib studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects actively receiving duvelisib are to be excluded from this study if they have any ongoing ? Grade 3 AE considered related to duvelisib treatment at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. Has a diagnosis of secondary leg lymphedema, based on a positive lymphoscintigraphy\n             (LSG) study of the affected leg OR has a diagnosis of primary lymphedema not of\n             congenital onset affecting one or both lower limbs, based on positive LSG.\n\n          2. Swelling of at least 1 leg not completely reversed by leg elevation or compression.\n\n          3. Stage II or greater lymphedema, based on the International Society of Lymphology (ISL)\n             staging system.\n\n          4. Completion of a full course of complete decongestive therapy (CDT).\n\n          5. Stable limb volume (within 10% during screening for worse/affected leg) .\n\n          6. If patient has had a lymphatic vascularization procedure (lymphovenous bypass or lymph\n             node transfer) or liposuction for lymphedema in the affected limb, then procedure must\n             have been performed at least 1 year (12 months) prior to Screening AND affected limb\n             must be clinically stable over the 3 months prior to Screening AND significant\n             residual disease must be present.\n\n          7. Ambulatory status (use of a walking aid is permitted).\n\n          8. Agree to use a medically acceptable method of contraception, if the possibility of\n             conception exists.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        Exclusions Based on Lymphedema:\n\n          1. A diagnosis of primary lymphedema with congenital onset. Primary lymphedema is defined\n             as lymphedema with onset prior to or without an inciting event (e.g, surgery, trauma,\n             radiation)\n\n          2. Occurrence of significant lymphedema of another body part that is not the lower limb\n             (e.g, upper extremity, trunk, head and neck, genitalia).\n\n          3. Lymphedema involving all four limbs\n\n          4. Recent initiation of, or intention to initiate CDT or maintenance physiotherapy for\n             lymphedema.\n\n             Exclusions Based on Other Medical Conditions\n\n          5. Deep venous thrombosis in either lower limb or systemic anticoagulation within 6\n             months\n\n          6. Other medical condition that could lead to acute or chronic leg edema.\n\n          7. Other medical condition that could result in symptoms overlapping those of lymphedema\n             in the affected leg.\n\n          8. History of clotting disorder (hypercoagulable state).\n\n          9. Chronic (persistent) infection in either lower limb.\n\n         10. Cellulitis or other infection in either lower limb or use of antibiotics for\n             cellulitis within 3 months prior to screening.\n\n         11. Other unstable or severe medical condition requiring active management and/or likely\n             to decompensate/require active management within the next year\n\n         12. Current evidence of malignancy.\n\n         13. History of malignancy within the previous 3 years, except for nonmelanoma skin cancer\n             or cervical carcinoma in situ treated with curative intent.\n\n         14. Currently receiving chemotherapy or radiation therapy.\n\n         15. Life expectancy < 2 years for any reason.\n\n         16. Pregnancy or nursing.\n\n         17. Substance abuse (such as alcohol or drug abuse) within 6 months prior to screening.\n\n             Exclusions Based on Concurrent Medication Use\n\n         18. Regular concurrent use or regular use within 6 months before screening of another\n             leukotriene pathway inhibitor.\n\n         19. Concurrent antibiotic use.\n\n         20. Concurrent use of any agent active on the sphingosine-1-phosphate (S1P) pathway.\n\n         21. Concurrent use of unapproved (including herbal) treatments for lymphedema.\n\n             Exclusions Based on Laboratory Values\n\n         22. Significant or chronic renal insufficiency or requires dialytic support.\n\n         23. Hepatic dysfunction.\n\n         24. Absolute neutrophil count <1500 mm3 at screening.\n\n         25. Hemoglobin concentration <9 g/dL at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of AML (AML de novo and post-MDS) or DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXAML participants who are Philadelphia chromosome positive must have received ? 2 lines of therapy, including 2 bcr-abl tyrosine-kinase (TK) inhibitors (among imatinib, nilotinib and dasatinib), or only 1 line including 1 TK inhibitor if the relapse/refractoriness is associated with the detection of a resistance mutation to these inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior or concomitant malignancies within 3 years of study startXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of renal failure attributed to the plasma cell disorder*: calculated creatinine clearance (according to Cockcroft-Gault method, Modification of Diet in Renal Disease [MDRD], or CKD Epidemiology Collaboration [CKD-EPI] formulae) > 30 mL/min (or alternatively based on standard creatinine level criteria of 2 mg/dl)\r\n* To be determined based on clinical and laboratory assessment by the primary oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of hypercalcemia attributed to the plasma cell disorder*: calcium (Ca) < 10.5 mg/dl or =< 2.5 mmol/L\r\n* To be determined based on clinical and laboratory assessment by the primary oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously been treated with ixazomib, or participated in a study with ixazomib whether treated with ixazomib or notXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression or impending spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphocytes >= 700/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to the NIH, MSKCC, DFCI, BIDMC for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised status due to:\r\n* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positivity\r\n* Active autoimmune diseases such as Addison's disease, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjogren syndrome, scleroderma, myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture syndrome or active Grave's disease; patients with a history of autoimmunity that has not required systemic immunosuppressive therapy or does not threaten vital organ function including central nervous system (CNS), heart, lungs, kidneys, skin, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be allowed\r\n* Other immunodeficiency diseases\r\n* SplenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medications used for urinary symptoms including 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride and dutasteride) and alternative medications known to alter PSA (e.g. phytoestrogens and saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior immunotherapy within the last 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of atopic dermatitis or active skin condition (acute, chronic, exfoliative) that disrupts the epidermisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious serious adverse reactions to smallpox vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczemoid skin disorders, or (d) immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIVXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have received eribulin or lenvatinib previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have been radiated previously cannot be considered target lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking any herbal (alternative) medicines are NOT eligible for participation; patients must be off such medications by the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaires by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has score of 0 or 1 on the neurotoxicity evaluation, as determined by the healthcare providerXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of fibromyalgiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Raynaud’s disease, cryoglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have a history or current evidence of malignant biliary obstruction requiring biliary stent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of listeriosis or vaccination with a listeria-based vaccine or prophylactic vaccine (example influenza, pneumococcal, diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis [dTP/dTAP]) within 28 days of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological documentation of malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) overexpressing mesothelinXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one metastasis must show uptake of 111In-DTPA-octreotide (indium In-111 pentetreotide) on SPECT that is higher than the physiologic radiotracer uptake by the liverXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed SMM based on the following criteria:\r\n* (A) Mayo clinic criteria (patient must have at least 2 risk factors present):\r\n** 1. Bone marrow core biopsy plasma cell involvement by cluster of differentiation (CD)138 immunohistochemistry >= 10%\r\n** 2. Monoclonal spike >= 3 g/dL\r\n** 3. Free light chain ratio in serum < 0.125 or > 8; *2 of 3 risk factors: intermediate risk for progression at a rate of 51% at 5 years, *3 of 3 risk factors: high risk for progression at a rate of 76% at 5 years\r\n* OR (B) Programa para el Tratamiento de Hemopatias Malignas (PETHEMA) criteria (patient must have at least 1 risk factor present)\r\n** 1. >= 95% abnormal plasma cells/total plasma cells in bone marrow compartment\r\n** 2. Immunoparesis *1 of 2 risk factors: intermediate risk for progression at a rate of 46% at 5 years, *2 of 2 risk factors: high risk for progression at a rate of 72% at 5 years\r\n* OR (C) Southwestern Oncology Group (SWOG) criteria (patient must have 2 risk factors present or one risk factor if this risk factor is a 70–gene signature (GEP70) score of > 37.2) \r\n** 1. Monoclonal spike >= 3 g/dL\r\n** 2. Involved free light chain >= 25 mg/dL\r\n** 3. GEP70 risk score > 37.2 *>= 2 risk factors: high risk of progression at a rate of 70% at 2 years*; we would also include patients with 1 risk factor as long as this risk factor is GEP70 risk score > 37.2 since patients with this risk factor have an intermediate risk of progression at a rate of 50% at 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXNon ductal adenocarcinomas, neuroendocrine neoplasms, cystic tumors of the pancreas such as cystadenomas, cystadenocarcinomas and solid pseudopapillary neoplasms; in addition, adenocarcinomas arising from duodenum, distal bile duct, and ampulla will also be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with M1 disease or a history of M1 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHereditary or acquired coagulopathies (e.g., hemophilia, von Willebrand disease, or cancer associated disseminated intravascular coagulation [DIC])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients weighing less than 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled diarrhea or persistent nausea/vomiting requiring daily antiemetic therapy for symptom management within the past 21 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPast history of radiotherapy within the projected treatment field of any of the disease sites to be treated by MRI-guided, gated, and/or online adaptive SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindication to undergoing MR imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXStable physical and mental healthXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-report Timeline Follow-Back (TLFB) indicating current marijuana use >= 4 days/week for >= 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive urine tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) dipstick test (> 50ng/mL; indicating marijuana use in the past 48-72 hours)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMotivated to change their marijuana use (>= 1 on a 10-point Likert-type scale)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegular or sporadic use of nicotine cigarettes (> 1 cigarettes in the past 30 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-report of regular menstrual cycles >= 6 months (female only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable psychotropic medications (< 3 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of exogenous hormonesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progressive disease within 12 months of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with gastroenteropancreatic NETs must have progressed on (or are intolerant of) prior somatostatin analogXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pancreatic NETs must have progressed on (or are intolerant of) either everolimus or sunitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of prior cancers not included in this study that were either not treated with curative intent or have been active within the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXIntent to treat the patient with a leucovorin calcium, fluorouracil, and oxaliplatin (FOLFOX) chemotherapy regimen containing fluorouracil (5-FU), leucovorin, and oxaliplatin according to clinical standard practice; the intent should be to dose oxaliplatin at 85 mg/m^2 on an every 2 week basisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo radiographic evidence of cavitary or necrotic tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXInstitutions must offer patients the opportunity to submit tissue for future correlative studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo psychological, familial, sociological or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative hepatitis B serologic tests; if positive results are not indicative of active or chronic infection, the subjects can enter the study at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is unable to receive IV contrastXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroimaging evidence of midline shiftXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient will have ?4 tumors, none of which exceeds 3.5 cm in diameter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has or has ever hadXx_NEWLINE_xXUpper tract Transitional Cell Carcinoma (TCC).Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival duration of > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, or antiviral drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of median sternotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy; patient attestation that they are not pregnant will be acceptable as per standard policy for MRIs at Dartmouth Hitchcock Medical Center (DHMC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has been previously treated with azacitidine (any formulation), decitabine, or any other hypomethylating agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a known or suspected hypersensitivity to azacitidine, mannitol, or any other ingredient used in the manufacture of CC-486 (see the Azacitidine IB).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least 3 distinct metastatic sites with at least one measurable lesion which is at least 1 cm or larger in largest diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have negative tests (antibody and/or antigen) for hepatitis viruses B and C unless the result is consistent with prior vaccination or prior infection with full recovery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXhave predisposing conditions that are consistent with development of aneurysms of the ascending aorta or aortic stress (for example, family history of aneurysms, Marfan-Syndrome, bicuspid aortic valve, evidence of damage to the large vessels of the heart documented by computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast).Xx_NEWLINE_xXB-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) above 3 times the baseline value and above the ULN that is sustained consecutive, scheduled blood draws. Troponin I above ULN, high sensitive C-reactive protein (hsCRP) above ULN or Cystatin above ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a remote history of asthma or active mild asthma may participate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection, including unexplained fever (temperature > 38.5 deg.C).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious non-malignancy-associated medical conditions that may be expected to limit life expectancy or significantly increase the risk of Serious Adverse Events (SAEs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or nursing women, due to the unknown effects ofLY2157299 on the developing fetus or newborn infant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 3b FLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with 17p deletion can only be enrolled on Arm C; these patients will receive the expanded T cells without lymphodepleting chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of glucocorticoids (with the exception of inhaled glucocorticoid steroids for the use of allergic rhinitis or pulmonary disease) within 2 weeks of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients with infratentorial tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously completed anthracycline-based induction chemotherapy with standard regimens including rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone (R-CHOP), dose adjusted (DA)-etoposide, prednisone, vincristine sulfate, doxorubicin hydrochloride, cyclophosphamide (EPOCH), and rituximab (R), and R-hyper cyclophosphamide, vincristine sulfate, doxorubicin hydrochloride, dexamethasone, methotrexate, and cytarabine (CVAD); patients need a minimum of 6 cycles of treatment; initial treatment with pidilizumab must be administered between 30-90 days from last dose of induction chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN)-International Prognostic Index (IPI) score; a calculated score required for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate candidate for systemic immune-chemotherapy such as the standard rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone (RCHOP)21 6 cycles as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance status < 3 (unless previous performance status was 0 or 1 and deterioration is due to lymphoma which treating medical doctor [MD] expects to reverse with therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to potential need for transfusion of blood productsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are unwilling to take venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject's lesions are not amenable to local therapies which may be beneficial, such as transarterial chemoembolization (TACE), radiofrequency ablation, radiotherapy, etc., and the subject is not a candidate for any curative treatments such as resection or liver transplant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThroughout the study, male subject must use a condom if having sex with a pregnant woman.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has fibrolamellar variant of HCC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Mobitz II second degree or third degree heart block without a permanent pacemaker in place.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia (in the presence of known cardiovascular disease) as indicated by a heart rate of < 50 beats per minute on the Screening electrocardiogram (ECG) recording.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received an agent that either blocks androgen synthesis or targets the AR (e.g., abiraterone acetate, bicalutamide, enzalutamide, ARN-509 or other investigational AR signaling inhibitors). The exception of spironolactone is allowed after Medical Monitor consultation.Xx_NEWLINE_xX5-? reductase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic androgens and estrogens (vaginal estrogen creams are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal therapies, with an antitumor effect.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has shown a hypersensitivity reaction to the active pharmaceutical ingredient or any of the enzalutamide capsule components, including caprylocaproyl polyoxylglycerides (Labrasol), butylated hydroxyanisole and butylated hydroxytoluene.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has addictive/substance abuse problems.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived double-blind placebo during the main study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have the option to enroll on blood collection protocol, LAB09-0983, for serial collections of blood before, during intervals of treatment, and at follow up visits; enrolling on the LAB09-0983 protocol is not required to enroll on the 2014-0722 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXUnequivocally confirmed diagnosis of SCLC by histology or cytology, preferably including the presence of neuroendocrine features by immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a diagnosis of a chronic GVHD according to the National Institute of Health (NIH) Consensus CriteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of recurrent or progressive underlying malignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radical prostatectomy or bilateral orchiectomy for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious hormonal therapy such as luteinizing hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists (e.g. goserelin, leuprolide), anti-androgens (e.g. flutamide, bicalutamide), estrogens (e.g. diethylstilbestrol [DES]), or surgical castration (orchiectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the drugs involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXThe expanded cohort will consist of predominantly (> 50%) p53 mutated HNSCC patients at the MTDXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection requiring systemic antibiotic therapy or causing fever (temp > 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F] or 38.1 degrees Celsius [C]) within 1 week prior to dosing with AZD1775Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing hearing impairment (patients who are willing to accept risk of further impairment will be considered after audiologic testing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has uveal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has active infection at time of study entry that require systemic antibiotics and/or with an oral temperature of >= 38.3 degrees C (100.9 degrees Fahrenheit [F]) within 5 days of first treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with electronic pacemakers or defibrillators are excluded from this study, as the effect of electroporation on these devices is unknown; patients with lower extremity lesions may be discussed with the medical monitorXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of chronic GVHD according to National Institutes of Health (NIH) Consensus Criteria\r\n* May have either classic chronic GVHD or overlap subtype of chronic GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of recurrent or progressive underlying malignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to all available herpes simplex virus (HSV)/varicella prophylactic antiviral drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas severe voiding symptoms (International Prognostic Scoring System [IPSS] > 20) or urinary retention requiring a catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one documented EGFR mutation which is known to be related with susceptibility to EGFR-TKIs (including G719X, exon 19 deletion, L858R, and L861Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one lesion (excluding the brain), not previously irradiated that can be accurately measured per RECIST version 1.1Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive or chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence or history of ILD, drug-induced ILD, or presence of radiation pneumonitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients underwent allo-SCT with intermediate risk and high risk AML and high risk MDS (defined by American Society for Blood and Marrow Transplantation [ASBMT] criteria), who are within 60 to 100 days after allo-SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no evidence of disease relapse at the time of screening, and minimal residual disease (MRD) is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any hepatitis (e.g., alcohol or non-alcohol steatohepatitis [NASH], auto immune, or grade 3-4 drug-related hepatitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have satisfactory results for the baseline laboratory analyses and diagnostic procedures as specified in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with concurrent severe medical problems unrelated to the malignancy that would significantly limit full compliance with the study or expose the patient to extreme risk or decreased life expectancy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any condition/anomaly that would interfere with the appropriate placement of the IP catheter for study drug administration including: abdominal surgery within 4 weeks of study entry (for reasons other than IP port placement), intestinal dysfunction, or suspected extensive adhesions from prior history or finding at laparoscopy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have relapsed or become refractory to conventional therapy, with a regimen including some combination of high dose methotrexate, doxorubicin, cisplatin, ifosfamide and etoposide; and have had histologic verification of osteosarcoma at original diagnosis or at the time of recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during the study (eg, mammalian derived products, calcium or vitamin D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received denosumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received mithramycin, strontium-89, samarium-153 or rheniumXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing conditions\r\n* Disorders associated with abnormal bone metabolism\r\n* Hypocalcemia that is not corrected with oral calcium supplementation\r\n* Vitamin D < 20 mg/mL\r\n* Paget’s disease\r\n* Prior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis of the jaw\r\n* Any dental or oral condition likely to result in disruption of mucosal integrity during denosumab therapy including: active dental or jaw condition requiring oral surgery or tooth extraction; non-healed dental or oral surgery or planned invasive dental procedures during the anticipated course of study therapy\r\n* Unstable systemic disease, excluding osteosarcoma, such as unstable proximal renal tubule dysfunction (Fanconi syndrome) or congestive heart failureXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following clinical laboratory values at the time of enrollment:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other malignancies or brain metastasis are not eligible; however, given the frequent coexistence of MCC with other malignancies, the following exceptions are allowed:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic non-T-cell-based lymphocytic leukemia are eligible if they have isolated lymphocytosis (Rai stage O) on the condition that they do not require systemic treatment for their disease [\B\ symptoms, Richter's transformation, lymphocyte doubling time (<6 months) and they do not have lymphadenopathy of hepatosplenomegaly].Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have undergone a diverting tracheostomy which is either a) traversing directly through tumor, b) has been placed for true airway insufficiency; patients with a tracheostomy placed preemptively for impending airway compromise remain eligible for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of epilepsy, depression or other psychiatric disorders.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGoggle assessment substudy: iodine or seafood allergiesXx_NEWLINE_xXLocally confirmed MMR deficient or MSI-H status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one measureable lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCleared by the primary medical doctor for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXMRI (completed within 96 hours after surgery) documenting gross total resection consisting of no gadolinium enhancement; or subtotal resection consisting of linear enhancement with (or without) nodular gadolinium enhancement measuring no greater than 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm total volume or 100 mm^2 in cross sectional areaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of true progressive disease from the postoperative period to the post-chemoradiation period, based on changes in the neurologic exam, steroid use, or evident radiographic progression, according to RANO criteria; patients with increased or new gadolinium enhancement may continue on protocol if in the investigator’s judgment that enhancement is likely due to pseuodoprogression; the use of correlative imaging studies (including perfusion-weighted imaging [PWI]) and repeat or diffusion weighted imaging (DWI), and repeat imaging after an interval of 2-4 weeks is strongly encouraged to help distinguish between pseudoprogression and true progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have completed initial radiation therapy (RT) and temozolomide (TMZ) for the treatment of their glioblastoma (i.e., completed 6-week course of RT and, completed >= 75% of 6-week course of induction TMZ chemotherapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation from a previous archival sample that the tumour harbours an EGFR mutation known to be associated with EGFR TKI sensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have central lab confirmation of tumour T790M status from a biopsy taken after disease progression on the most recent treatment regimen. Only patients with T790M+ will be included in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmological conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXRochester and Arizona patients: Willing to sign consent onto the Mayo Clinic Radiotherapy Patient Outcomes Registry and Biobanking study and collect involved blood specimen prior to the start of radiation therapy, IRB number 15-000136.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen-vascular disease that, in the opinion of the treating physician, would make this protocol unreasonably hazardous for the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic evidence of angiolymphatic invasion (ALI); Note: Cases termed focally suspicious for ALI but where no definitive ALI is found are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBRCA 1/2 mutation; Note: Patients are not required to undergo BRCA1 and BRCA2 or other genetic mutation tests in order to enroll on the study. However, in the event a patient is tested and is found to be a mutation carrier, she would be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive intraductal componentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of needing to permanently discontinue prior gemcitabine/ cisplatin regimen for reasons other than progression (i.e. toxicity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of GIST or Kaposi sarcoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has a history of arterial thromboembolism event (ATE) or venous thromboembolism event (VTE) within 3 months prior to study enrollment. Participants with history of VTE beyond 3 months prior to study enrollment can be enrolled if they are appropriately treated with low molecular weight heparin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ allograft requiring immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have pathologically confirmed soft-tissue sarcoma, which is metastatic or unresectable, sarcoma with no curative multimodality options (pathology review required for patients with pathology not previously reviewed at Dana-Farber Cancer Institute [DFCI], Brigham and Women's Hospital [BWH] or Massachusetts General Hospital [MGH])Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine phosphokinase (CPK) < 2.5 X ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to PM01183Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received trabectedin (Yondelis, ET-743) or participated in the phase III clinical study of trabectedin NCT01343277 previously will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated Ewing sarcoma and rhabdomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-soft tissue sarcomas, such as osteosarcoma and chondrosarcoma are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown myopathy or persistent CPK elevations > 2.5 ULN in two different determinations performed one week apartXx_NEWLINE_xXHas completed baseline Health-Related Quality of Life (HRQL) questionnaires UNLESS is unable to complete because of limited literacy or visionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory ofXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent illness, including severe infection that might jeopardize the ability of the patient to undergo the procedures outlined in this protocol with reasonable safety a. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)-infection is not an exclusion criterion if it is controlled with anti-retroviral drugs that are unaffected by concomitant enzalutamide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule, including alcohol dependence or drug abuse;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to avoid direct contact with pregnant women, infants < 3 months of age and immunocompromised individuals while on study and for >= 3 weeks following the last dose of study agent administration; direct contact is defined as household contact, i.e., anyone living with the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown prior history of tuberculosis or positive purified protein derivative (PPD) test resultXx_NEWLINE_xXNonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs; such as indomethacin, ibuprofen, naproxen, or similar agents), orXx_NEWLINE_xXOther anti-platelet agents (such as clopidogrel, ticlopidine, dipyridamole, or anagrelide). Aspirin use at doses up to 325 milligrams (mg)/day is permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with measurable disease must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as non-target lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas low-grade or non-epithelial cancers, mucinous cancers, and/or borderline low-malignant potential cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a past history of synchronous endometrial cancer are excluded unless all of the following conditions are met: stage not greater than I-A (International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics [FIGO] 2010 staging criteria); no more than superficial myometrial invasion (< 50%), without vascular or lymphatic invasion; no poorly differentiated subtypes, including papillary serous, clear cell or other FIGO grade 3 lesions, and it has been greater than 3 years since diagnosis and there have been no recurrencesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to idelalisibXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters for vital functions should be in the normal range. Laboratory abnormalities that are not clinically significant are generally permitted, except for the following laboratory parameters, which must be within the ranges specified, regardless of clinical significance:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 2 or higher peripheral ischemia, except for brief (< 24 hrs) episodes of ischemia managed non-surgically and without permanent deficit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and/or who require drainage gastrostomy tube and/or parenteral hydration or nutrition.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or components of the study drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMental impairment that may compromise compliance with the requirements of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for immunological and clinical follow-up assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have either isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (NADP+), soluble (IDH1) or isocitrate dehydrogenase 2 (NADP+), mitochondrial (IDH2) mutations (any known mutations) based on the SNaPshot platform or other molecular testing platform from either archived tissue or fresh biopsy (tested in Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments [CLIA]-certified lab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other biliary tract cancers (extrahepatic or gallbladder cancers) with IDH1 or IDH2 mutations are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPeriampullary tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known moderate/severe pleural effusions that are unrelated to malignancy or established diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertensionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive Richter’s transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with histologically- or cytologically-documented incurable human papillomavirus (HPV)-16 positive solid tumors including oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma (OPSCC), cervical, vulvar, vaginal, anal, penile cancer; incurable HPV-16 solid tumors are defined as tumors which are not curable by salvage approaches including resection and/or re-irradiation; HPV-16 serotype will be assessed by Cervista assayXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject entering the study will need to consent for mandatory biopsy at study entrance and as an optional procedure at week 11 and at progression for biomarker evaluation; biopsy should be excisional, incisional or core needle; fine needle aspiration is insufficientXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high risk hematologic malignancies, including those with induction failure and in relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXTwenty-one or more days must have elapsed since the patient's last radiation or chemotherapy administration before beginning treatment for stem cell transplant; Hydrea, Gleevec and other tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKI) as well as intrathecal therapy are accepted exceptionsXx_NEWLINE_xXA back-up graft identified, in case of graft failure, from any of the following sources: an available fraction of autologous marrow; or peripheral blood progenitor cells (PBPCs) harvested and cryopreserved; or family member donor; or a third cord blood unitXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled infection, not responding to appropriate antimicrobial agents after seven days of therapy; the principal investigator (PI) is the final arbiter of eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all study related procedures and therapy including swallowing capsules without difficultyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive alcoholism or use of recreational drug (evaluated by history taking)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSodium (corrected for serum albumin) must be within clinically relevant limits (e.g., a patient can be enrolled if a lab value may be outside the normal laboratory range but the abnormality is not clinically relevant or can be repleted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking medications with known interactions with metformin or aspirinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring chronic use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of lactic acidosis or metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXFamily history consistent with thrombophilia or hypofibrinolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXTo ensure that no patient will receive a dose of selinexor > 70 mg/m^2, body surface area (BSA) calculated by Dubois method must be > 1.43 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have body surface area (BSA) > 0.55 m^2 at the time of enrollment\r\n* In the event of de-escalation from dose level 1 to dose level 0, patients with BSAs < 0.67 m^2 are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAdministration of the radioisotope, 18-FLT, which is being concurrently investigated on an imaging study within the Pediatric Brain Tumor Consortium (PBTC), is allowed > 72 hours prior to initiation of pomalidomide on this study; any adverse events related to the FLT must have resolved completelyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on anticonvulsant therapy may continue these at the discretion of their treating physician; however, it is recommended that anticonvulsant levels be checked periodically as clinically indicated if possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnic groups are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation as measured by pulse oximetry must be >= 93% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-central line related thrombosis, more than one prior central-line related thrombosis, or known coagulopathy will not be eligible; patients with a first degree family member with a known coagulopathy will be excluded, and therefore, obtaining a family history is essential when possible; patients actively on anticoagulation therapy are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking a known moderate to potent inhibitor of CYP1A2 are excluded; pomalidomide is primarily metabolized by CYP1A2 and CYP3A; pomalidomide is also a substrate for permeability (P)-glycoprotein (P-gp)Xx_NEWLINE_xXER/PR determination assays performed by IHC methods according to the local institution standard protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXLocally advanced tumors at diagnosis (T4), including tumors fixed to the chest wall, peau d’orange, skin ulcerations/nodules, or clinical inflammatory changes (diffuse brawny cutaneous induration with an erysipeloid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intolerance (including grade 3 or 4 infusion reactions) to murine proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to an immunomodulatory agent (IMiD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenström macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSimilar condition with an expectation of > 95% five-year disease-free survivalXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to dexamethasone or any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to pre-existing pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing graft-versus-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY FOR ENROLLMENT/SCREENING (ARMS 1 AND 2): Histopathological documentation of NSCLC or mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXArm 2 ONLY: Surgically operable NSCLC or mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women and nursing mothers will be eligible for screening only to test HLA type by saliva or buccal swab and WT1 expression from previously collected tissue sampleXx_NEWLINE_xXExclusions for the leukapheresis procedure (this can be performed at a later time of symptoms resolve): \r\n* Infection, with or without antibiotic treatment\r\n* Recent hepatitis exposure (hepatitis B or C antigenemia)\r\n* Pregnancy or nursing\r\n* HIV or human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV) infection\r\n* Positive result on standard test for syphilis (STS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to generate antigen-specific WT1-specific CD8+ T cells for infusions; however, the patient will have the option to receive WT1-specific T-cells if a lower than planned number of cells is availableXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk ET/PV (age > 60; history of thrombosis). Previously treated with at least one other agent (hydroxyurea, interferon, anagrelide) and determined to be either intolerant/resistantXx_NEWLINE_xXMeets the criteria for post ET/PV myelofibrosis (MF) as defined by the International Working Group-Myeloproliferative Neoplasms Research and Treatment (IWG-MRT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImminent or established spinal cord compression based on clinical and/or imaging; in patients with untreated imminent or established spinal cord compression, treatment with standard of care as clinically indicated should be completed at least 4 weeks before enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivity to retinoic acid derivativesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a clinicopathological diagnosis of WM (Owen 2003), with symptomatic disease meeting criteria for treatment using consensus panel criteria from the Second International Workshop on WM (Kyle 2003) or serum immunoglobulin M (IgM) > 6000 mg/dL, and measurable disease, defined as presence of immunoglobulin M (IgM) paraprotein with a minimum IgM level of > 2 times the upper limit of normalXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression on or after pemetrexed and cis- or carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) +/- biopsy at M.D. Anderson are required to confirm stagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 100x10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication; the following medications or non-drug therapies are prohibited: a) other anti-cancer therapy while on study treatment, b) the concurrent use of all herbal supplements is prohibited during the study (including, but not limited to, St. John’s wort, kava, ephedra [ma huang], gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], yohimbe, saw palmetto, or ginseng)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of metastatic or surgically unresectable transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium involving the bladder,urethra,ureter or renal pelvisXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a contraindication to administration of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or ampicillin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas implanted medical device(s) that pose a high risk for colonization and/or cannot be easily removed (e.g., prosthetic joints, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s), bone graft(s), or other exogenous implant(s)). NOTE: More common devices and prosthetics which include arterial and venous stents, dental and breast implants, and venous access devices (e.g., Port-a-Cath or Mediport) are permitted. Sponsor must be contacted prior to consenting any subject who has any other device and/or implant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a primary invasive cutaneous melanoma of Breslow thickness greater than 1 millimetre as determined by diagnostic biopsy (narrow excision, incision or punch biopsy) and subsequent histopathological analysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had the invasive primary completely excised, including any in situ component but excluding melanocytic atypia, with a narrow margin, either in one stage or more than one stage in the case where an incision or punch biopsy has previously been performed. This information, including measured margins of lateral and deep clearance must be documented on the pathology report.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a primary melanoma that is cutaneous (including head, neck, trunk, extremity, scalp, palm, sole).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn uninterrupted 2cm margin must be technically feasible around biopsy scar or primary melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLife expectancy of at least 10 years from the time of diagnosis, not considering the melanoma in question, as determined by the PI.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is deemed by their treating physician to be at low risk of recurrence from previous malignancies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncertain diagnosis of melanoma i.e. so-called 'melanocytic lesion of unknown malignant potential'.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDesmoplastic or neurotropic melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMicrosatellitosis as per AJCC 2009 definitionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has already undergone a local flap reconstruction of the defect after excision of the primary and determination of an accurate excision margin is impossible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma located distal to the metacarpophalangeal joint, on the tip of the nose, the eyelids or on the ear, mucous membranes or internal viscera.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening 99mTc-MDP bone scintigraphy showing a superscan;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has carcinoma primary to the intra- or extra-hepatic biliary system or gall bladder.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS of 0 or 1. Patients with an ECOG PS of 2 may be entered upon review and approval of the medical monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious nonmalignant disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown osteoblastic bony metastasis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther exclusions applyXx_NEWLINE_xXIs unable to receive a port or peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency (DPD) deficiency (testing not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas any other psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule. Those conditions should be discussed with the subject before registration in the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject had disease refractory to an AIXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has been previously treated with azacitidine (any formulation), decitabine, or any other hypomethylating agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic disease because of active PVNS or GCT-TS, defined as one or more of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXa worst pain of at least 4 at any time during the week preceding the Screening Visit (based on scale of 0 to 10, with 10 representing \pain as bad as you can imagine\).Xx_NEWLINE_xXa worst stiffness of at least 4 at any time during the week preceding the Screening Visit (based on a scale of 0 to 10, with 10 representing \stiffness as bad as you can imagine\).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDuring the 2 weeks prior to randomization, at least 4 of 7 consecutive days of BPI Worst Pain NRS items and Worst Stiffness NRS items completed correctly.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to complete the Worst Pain NRS item, Worst Stiffness NRS item, PROMIS Physical Function Scale, and other self-assessment instruments throughout the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to use an electronic diary.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown metastatic PVNS/GCT-TS.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma/Waldenström macroglobulinemia (LPL/WM).Xx_NEWLINE_xXTransformed disease (assessed by investigator):Xx_NEWLINE_xXhistological confirmation of transformation, orXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive cytomegalovirus (CMV) PCR test at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hematological (hemo-) or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent proteinuria of Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC) grade 3 or higher (>= 3.5 g/24 hours [hrs])Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of clobetasol propionateXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to ambulate or who have amputations or paralysis of any extremityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of contact dermatitis to clobetasol propionate or similarly fluorinated steroids or other steroids with the propionate esterXx_NEWLINE_xXStudy population:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known potentially anaphylactic allergic reactions to gadolinium-diethylenetriamine penta-acetic acid (DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot undergo MRI or single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) due to obesity or to having certain metal in their bodies (specifically pacemakers, infusion pumps, metal aneurysm clips, metal prostheses, joints, rods, or plates)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCo-medication that may interfere with study results; e.g. immuno-suppressive agents other than corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary ocular or mucosal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) infection (eg, herpetic keratitis or encephalitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires intermittent or chronic systemic (intravenous or oral) treatment with an antiherpetic drug (eg, acyclovir), other than intermittent topical useXx_NEWLINE_xXFollowing breast cancer disease conditions are not eligible:\r\n* Single bone lesion\r\n* Two or more visceral metastasis\r\n* Single visceral lesion < 2 cm without any laboratory changes or clinical symptoms due to the metastatic lesion is permitted\r\n* Presence of brain metastases\r\n* Imminent spinal cord compression based on clinical findings and/or MRI\r\n* Impending fracture, spinal cord compression, and/or potentially unstable compression fracture of vertebral body with possibility of cord compression\r\n* Life expectancy severely limited by concomitant illness (less than 12 months)\r\n* Concurrent external beam radiation therapy to non-target lesion is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXMucosal or ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have undergone orchiectomy, or have been on LHRH agonists or antagonists, for at least 3 months prior to study entry. Patients on LHRH agonists/antagonists must remain on these agents for the duration of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received TOK-001 (Galeterone®) or any other investigational product directed towards the androgen receptor or androgen biosynthesis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received antiandrogens such as flutamide (EULEXIN®), bicalutamide (CASODEX®), or nilutamide (NILANDRON®) for > 3 months must be off treatment for 6 weeks and demonstrate a continued rise in PSA after withdrawal. Patients on antiandrogens for < 3 months must be off medication for 2 weeks. Patients on 5 alpha reductase inhibitors such as finasteride (PROSCAR®, PROPECIA®), or dutasteride (AVODART®) must stop medication at least 3 months from study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic confirmation of advanced (metastatic or unresectable) uveal melanoma; if uveal melanoma has been diagnosed clinically and/or by gene expression profiling, patients may be included following discussion with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption or uncontrolled peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reaction or poor tolerability to poly adenosine diphosphate (ADP) ribose polymerase (PARP) inhibitors, carboplatin, or paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have significant urinary obstructive symptoms; American Urological Association (AUA) score must be =< 18 (alpha blockers allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with evidence of extraprostatic extension (T3a) or seminal vesicle involvement (T3b) on clinical evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown EGFR TK activating mutations or ALK rearrangementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to either fluorouracil (5-FU) or capecitabine at a systemic dose except for use in concurrent chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline troponin I or T > IULN and b-type natriuretic peptide > IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to cardiotoxic agent, such as anthracyclines, within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoptysis (defined as > ½ teaspoon of blood)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny drugs or supplements that interfere with blood clotting can raise the risk of bleeding during treatment with bevacizumab. These drugs include vitamin E, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin, ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin), and naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn), warfarin (Coumadin), ticlopidine (Ticlid), and clopidogrel (Plavix).These agents should be used with caution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have received prior poly ADP ribose polymerase (PARP) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHormonal therapies used as single agents (i.e. tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors) will not count towards line limit considerationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately controlled thyroid function, with no symptoms of thyroid dysfunction and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological evidence of NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have completed concurrent chemoradiation with a standard chemotherapy regimen (either cisplatin/etoposide or carboplatin/paclitaxel) and a dose of radiation ranging from 59.4-66.6GyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has evidence of wound dehiscenceXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive or other pulmonary disease with hypoxemia (requires supplementary oxygen, symptoms due to hypoxemia or oxygen saturation < 90% by pulse oximetry after a 2 minute walk) or in the opinion of the investigator any physiological state likely to cause normal tissue hypoxiaXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema multiforme if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD), e.g., angina Canadian class II-IV; in any patient in whom there is doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXAn ECG recorded at screening showing evidence of cardiac ischemia (ST depression of >= 2 mm, measured from isoelectric line to the ST segment); if in any doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of significant CYP3A4 inhibitors unless able to be switched to a non-CYP3A4 inhibiting medication\r\n* Caution should be used when administering study drugs to patients taking medications significantly metabolized by these enzymes; particular attention should be paid to patients receiving warfarin; patients should have coagulation parameters monitored regularly, and warfarin dose adjusted accordingly; if these drugs cannot be discontinued or replaced, enrollment may be allowed after discussion with MSK principle investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo addition or subtraction of other immunosuppressive medications (e.g., calcineurin-inhibitors, sirolimus, mycophenolate-mofetil) for 4 weeks prior to enrollment; the dose of immunosuppressive medicines may be adjusted based on the therapeutic range of that drugXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of calcineurin-inhibitors plus sirolimus; either agent alone is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombotic microangiopathy, hemolytic-uremic syndrome or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindication to ECP, i.e. contraindication to heparin or methoxsalen (8-MOP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignant relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed non-keratinizing nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) that has recurred at locoregional and/or distant sites; NOTE: patients with local recurrence at the bony skull-base as the only site of index disease are excluded; patients with locoregional recurrence without distant metastases must have undergone radical radiotherapy previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been treated previously with bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHas received prior interstitial brachytherapy, implanted chemotherapy, or therapeutics delivered by local injection or convection enhanced deliveryXx_NEWLINE_xXHas received prior interstitial brachytherapy, implanted chemotherapy, stereotactic radiosurgery or therapeutics delivered by local injection or convection enhanced deliveryXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of arterial thromboembolism within 12 months of start of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B-3: 1) Histologically-confirmed DLBCL 2) Prior standard rituximab + anthracyclin containing regimen, received or not eligible or considered candidate of HD-ASCT 3) Measurable disease (IWG -Lugano 2014)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an ECOG performance status of 0 (fully active, able to carry out all pre-disease activities without restriction) or 1 (unable to perform physically strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature), as assessed on C1D1, before the first dose of PBI 05204.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of swallowing study drug capsules whole.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of second- or third-degree heart block. (Patients with pacemakers may be eligible.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate <50 bpm during screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has evidence of uncontrolled malabsorptive diarrhea that would prevent adequate absorption of PBI 05204.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient was previously exposed to PBI 05204.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe following laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are using prescription or OTC medications (including, for example, proton pump inhibitors, H2 antagonists or calcium carbonate) that reduce or neutralize gastric acidity within 5 half lives before the first dose of study drug. Use of these medications for supportive care after cycle 1 is permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who require therapeutic doses of anticoagulants.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take pills by mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must satisfy one of the criteria for treatment initiation, as outlined in the iwCLL NCI-WG guidelines. The criteria include: (a) Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of, anemia and/or thrombocytopenia, (b) Massive (i.e., greater than or equal to [>=] 6 centimeters [cm] below the left costal margin) or progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly, (c) Massive nodes (i.e., >= 10 cm in longest diameter) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy, (d) Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of greater than (>) 50 percent (%) over a 2-month period or lymphocyte doubling time (LDT) of less than (<) 6 months, (e) Autoimmune anemia and/or thrombocytopenia that is poorly responsive to corticosteroids or other standard therapy, (f) Constitutional symptoms, defined as any one or more of the following disease-related symptoms or signs: unintentional weight loss of >=10% within the previous 6 months, significant fatigue (i.e., Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group Performance Status [ECOG PS] of 2 or worse or the inability to work or perform usual activities), fevers higher than 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit (°F)/38.0 degrees Celsius (°C) for >= 2 weeks without other evidence of infection, or night sweats for >1 month without evidence of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS of 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCentral pathology review submission; Note: this review for MART-1 positivity is mandatory prior to randomization to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygen; or any conditions that could result in excessive toxicity associated with the benzodiazepine-like effects of MLN8237Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor, histamine (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowed as describedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of GIST, alveolar soft part sarcoma, or dermatofibrosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo addition or subtraction of other immunosuppressive medications (e.g., calcineurin-inhibitors, sirolimus, mycophenolate-mofetil) for 4 weeks prior to enrollment; the dose of immunosuppressive medicines may be adjusted based on the therapeutic range of that drugXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant with post-transplant exposure to donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI), or T-cell or IL-2 targeted medication (e.g. anti-thymocyte globulin [ATG], alemtuzumab, basiliximab, denileukin diftitox) within 100 days priorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombotic microangiopathy, hemolytic-uremic syndrome, or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are allowed to receive, but are not required to receive, one additional cytotoxic regimen for management of recurrent or persistent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of additional anti-neoplastic agents will not be allowed in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be eligible for a higher priority (e.g.; phase II/III), National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project, Radiation Therapy Oncology Group, and Gynecologic Oncology Group (NRG) protocol for the same population if one existsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe trial is open only to women with recurrent, progressive clear cell carcinoma of the ovaryXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical evidence of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a normal baseline thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH); a history of hypothyroidism and/or hyperthyroidism is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pre-existing thyroid abnormality who are unable to maintain thyroid function in the normal range with medication are ineligible; patients with a history of hypothyroidism are eligible provided they are currently euthyroidXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be eligible for a higher priority NRG clear cell protocol (Gynecologic Oncology Group [GOG]-0283); rare patients ineligible for GOG-0283 may be eligible for this trial without prior treatment on dasatinib therapy (e.g. they have been deemed allergic to dasatinib)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll HIV+ patients will be under the care of an infectious diseases specialist; if a relationship with an infectious diseases specialist is not established, infectious disease specialist will be consulted; records of all viral counts and peripheral T-cell counts must be sent to the study coordinator in order to follow these values over the course of treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXEndorse persistent CRCI subjective complaintsXx_NEWLINE_xXBe non-smokers (no nicotine use within the last 5 years)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny active neurologic and/or psychiatric disease, history of significant head trauma followed by persistent neurologic deficits, or known structural brain abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any drugs with pro-cholinergic properties (e.g. donepezil)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have a known history of leptomeningeal disease, as diagnosed by positive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cytology, unless prospective permission for enrollment is granted from the sponsor and the PIXx_NEWLINE_xXHas plans to receive cytotoxic chemotherapy, immune checkpoint inhibitors (eg CTLA-4 blockade), sipuleucel-T, radiopharmaceuticals, abiraterone or other experimental therapy during this study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemolytic anemia or thalassemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men, agreement to refrain from heterosexual intercourse or use contraceptive methods that result in a failure rate of < 1% per year during the treatment period and for at least 3 months after the last dose of vinflunine and 6 months from the last dose of paclitaxel or docetaxel, and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have relapsed/refractory PCNSL or relapsed/refractory SCNSLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to tolerate lumbar puncture and/or Ommaya tapsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is concurrently using other approved or investigational antineoplastic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is taking an enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drug (EIAED), including phenobarbital, phenytoin, fosphenytoin, primidone, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, eslicarbazepine, rufinamide, and felbamate; participates must be off of any EIAED for a least two weeks prior to starting the study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is taking a drug with known risk to promote QT prolongation and torsades de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a score >= 12 on the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ)-9 questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient selects a response of \1, 2 or 3\ to question number 9 on the PHQ-9-questionaire regarding potential for suicidal thoughts or ideation (independent of the total score of the PHQ-9)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one high-risk cytogenetic feature defined by the presence of 17p deletion, 11q deletion and/or p53 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious therapy with ibrutinib, or any drug that specifically inhibits Bruton's tyrosine kinase (BTK)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis by fine needle aspiration (FNA) alone or excisional biopsy or lumpectomy performed prior to study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe tumour harbours one of the 2 common EGFR mutations known to be associated with EGFR-TKI sensitivity (Ex19del, L858R).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny clinically important abnormalities in rhythm, conduction, or morphology of resting ECG.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPast medical history of ILD, drug-induced ILD, radiation pneumonitis which required steroid treatment, or any evidence of clinically active ILD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a RAS mutation in exons 2, 3, or 4 of KRAS or NRAS (patients with mutations in exons 2, 3, or 4 of KRAS and/or NRAS are excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior intolerance to irinotecan and/or bevacizumab despite dose reductionXx_NEWLINE_xXPredisposing colonic or small bowel disorders in which the symptoms are uncontrolled as indicated by baseline pattern of > 3 loose stools daily in subjects without a colostomy or ileostomy; subjects with a colostomy or ileostomy may be entered at investigator discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of Gilbert’s syndrome or known homozygosity for the UGT1A1*28 allele (special screening not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be diagnosed with ALK-positive advanced NSCLC. The tumor must be ALK-positive as determined by ALK rearrangement in ?15% of cells (as measured by FISH using the Vysis break-apart ALK probe) or by using the Ventana ALK IHC test. The analysis may be performed locally.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase II part:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been unable to tolerate ceritinib, in the opinion of the investigator. Exceptions to this exclusion include nausea, vomiting and diarrhea in patients taking ceritinib under fasted conditions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with abnormal laboratory values during screening and on day 1 of pre-doseXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other comorbidity that the physician judges to be incompatible with intensive chemotherapy must be reviewed and approved by the study medical monitor before study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has chronic respiratory disease that requires continuous oxygen use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a malabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have one of the following: somatic mutations or deletions in BRCA1 or BRCA2; genomic alterations in other BRCA pathway genes (subcohorts: a. ATM, b. PALB2, c. other genes, e.g. Fanconi Anemia genes, ARID1A, MER11, RAD50, NBS1, ATR; amplification of EMSY); or germline mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA 2 (not breast or ovarian cancer)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients need to have biopsiable disease to enroll on cohort 1-2; patients eligible for cohort 3 with a germline BRCA alteration can be enrolled even if they do not have biopsiable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are to be treated with hypofractionated RTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of lactic acidosis, chronic kidney disease or a creatinine >= 1.2 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of allergic reaction to metforminXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has disease amenable to biopsy and is agreeable to undergo a biopsy; note: under unusual circumstances, submission of ascites material may be acceptable if a biopsy is not possible; this will require approval by one of the study principal investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of chronic prostatitis or urethral strictureXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have a baseline mammographic density >= 25% based upon the Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System (BIRADS) density score of 2, 3, or 4 (2 = 25-50%, “scattered fibroglandular densities”; 3 = 51-75%, “heterogeneously dense breasts”; 4 = > 75%, “extremely dense breasts”); women with a baseline mammographic density of < 25% (1 = 0.-24%, “breasts are almost entirely fat”) will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or plans for bilateral mastectomies within the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking metformin, sulfonylureas, thiazolidinediones, or insulin for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXMRI demonstration of a stereotactically accessible enhancing mass of less than 40 cm^3 that does not require resection to relieve clinically significant mass effectXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is mentally or legally incapacitated at the time of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiffuse subependymal or cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors involving the cerebellumXx_NEWLINE_xXUnexplained febrile illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic diseases associated with unacceptable anesthesia or operative riskXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the dose-finding phase, patients may be cetuximab-exposed or cetuximab-naïve; if the most recent line of therapy included cetuximab, a two-week washout period without cetuximab dosing is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the dose-expansion phase, patients must be cetuximab-resistant by fulfilling at least one of the criteria defined below:\r\n* Disease recurrence within 6 months of completing definitive radiotherapy for locally advanced disease; radiation must have included concurrent cetuximab; induction chemotherapy, if given, may or may not have included cetuximab\r\n* Disease progression during, or within 6 months, of cetuximab treatment in the recurrent/metastatic setting; prior cetuximab exposure may have occurred in first, second and/or third line\r\n* If the most recent line of therapy included cetuximab, a two-week washout period without cetuximab dosing is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior severe infusion reaction to cetuximab or a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant electrolyte imbalance prior to enrollment (note that patients may be supplemented to achieve acceptable electrolyte values):\r\n* Hypomagnesemia < 1.2 mg/dL or 0.5 mmol/L\r\n* Hypocalcemia < 8.0 mg/dL or 2.0 mmol/L\r\n* Hypokalemia < 3.0 mmol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant dermatological disease including, but not limited to, skin drying and fissuring, paronychial inflammation, infectious sequelae (eg, blepharitis, cheilitis, cellulitis, cyst); exception: patients with grade =< 2 cetuximab-related rash, xerosis, fissures or paronychial inflammation are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be ipilimumab-eligible. (This includes: 1) patients previously untreated with ipilimumab; 2) patients previously treated (more than 1 year previously) with ipilimumab using a route of administration other than intravenous infusion; and 3) patients previously treated with antitumor agents other than intravenous ipilimumab).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with target tumors that could potentially invade a major vascular structure (e.g., innominate artery, carotid artery), based on unequivocal imaging findings.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who were previously treated with ipilimumab administered by intravenous infusion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically proven diagnosis of glioblastoma (GBM) or gliosarcoma or anaplastic astrocytoma (AA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who had a stereotactic needle biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of allergic reaction to minocycline or to any of the tetracyclinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of erosive esophagitis should be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that are on anticonvulsant medications should be switched, when possible, to a non-enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drug (non-EIAED); however, if that is not possible, they will not be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically proven diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the rectum (located below the peritoneal reflection or begins within 15 cm of the anal verge on flexible endoscopy) within 90 days of registration; diagnosis of rectal adenocarcinoma must be obtained by biopsy technique that does not completely excise the lesion (eg, fine needle aspiration, core needle biopsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to 5-FU or oxaliplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of distant metastases (M1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtension of malignant disease into the anal canalXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as \non-target\ lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring drainage gastrostomy (e.g., drainage percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy [PEG] tube) and/or parenteral hydration and/or nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with macular degeneration, uncontrolled glaucoma or markedly decreased visual acuityXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with CML in chronic phase and have either the b3a2 (e14a2) or b2a2 (e13a2) variants that give rise to the p210 BCR-ABL proteinXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking imatinib, dasatinib, nilotinib or bosutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented BCR-ABL <0.01% (>MR4 i.e. >4 log reduction) or undetectable BCR-ABL by PCR for at least 2 years according to the patient's local labXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented BCR-ABL <0.01% (>MR4 i.e. >4 log reduction) or undetectable BCR-ABL at least 3 times prior to screening according to the patient's local labXx_NEWLINE_xXTwo (2) Screening PCRs have been completed and both results are < 0.01% (>MR4 i.e > 4 log reduction) by central labXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been on any number of TKIs, but has not been resistant to any TKI (changes made for intolerance are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoor compliance with taking TKIXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to comply with lab appointments schedule and PRO assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all study related procedures and therapy including swallowing capsules without difficultyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of >= grade 3 allergic reaction to mFOLFOX6 (patients successfully desensitized to oxaliplatin are eligible or those willing to undergo desensitization during the first two cycles of mFOLFOX6 per institutional guidelines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are ineligible if they plan on regular use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs) at any dose more than 2 times per week (on average) or aspirin at more than 325 mg at least three times per week, on average; low-dose aspirin not exceeding 100 mg/day is permitted; patients who agree to stop regular NSAIDS or higher dose aspirin are eligible and no wash out period is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetics on a stable dose of insulin or antihyperglycemic regimen are allowed if they have had no prior seizures and no history of loss of consciousness due to hypoglycemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXThromboembolism within 6 months of screening visitXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing condition that warrants long-term corticosteroid use; physiologic replacement is not permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of medications that may alter pharmacokinetics of abiraterone (abiraterone acetate) or enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of advanced biliary cancer that is refractory or intolerant to gemcitabine or fluoropyrimidine based therapy with FGFR2 fusion [using next-gen sequencing assays (such as Foundation One) or fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) break-apart assays] or FGFR pathway mutation/amplification [using next-gen sequencing assays (such as Foundation One)]; assays must be performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments [CLIA] certified laboratory and done as a CLIA validated test or research use only [RUO] in a CLIA laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year prior to registration, chronic pancreatitis, alcohol abuse or uncontrolled hypertriglyceridemia (triglycerides > 450 mg/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking medications that are known to be associated with torsades de pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has squamous NSCLC, or an untreated known EGFR mutation of exon 19 deletion or L858R mutation in exon 21, or a known ALK gene rearrangement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Disease Related:\n\n          1. Diagnosis of CLL/SLL that meets IWCLL diagnostic criteria.\n\n          2. Age 65 yrs and older OR if less than 65 years, must have at least one of the following\n             criteria:\n\n               -  Cumulative Illness Rating Score (CIRS) >6\n\n               -  Creatinine clearance estimated <70 mL/min using Cockcroft-Gault equation.\n\n               -  Del 17p by FISH or TP53 mutation by PCR or Next Generation Sequencing\n\n          3. Active disease meeting at least 1 of the following IWCLL criteria for requiring\n             treatment:\n\n               -  Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or\n                  worsening of, anemia and thrombocytopenia\n\n               -  Massive, progressive, or symptomatic splenomegaly\n\n               -  Massive nodes (at least 10 cm longest diameter), or progressive or symptomatic\n                  lymphadenopathy.\n\n               -  Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of more than 50 percent over a 2-month\n                  period or a lymphocyte doubling time (LDT) of <6 months. LDT may be obtained by\n                  linear regression extrapolation of absolute lymphocyte counts obtained at\n                  intervals of 2 weeks over an observation period of 2 to 3 months. In patients\n                  with initial blood lymphocyte counts of <3,000/µL, LDT should not be used as a\n                  single parameter to define indication for treatment. In addition, factors\n                  contributing to lymphocytosis or lymphadenopathy other than CLL (eg, infections)\n                  should be excluded.\n\n               -  Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and/or immune thrombocytopenia that is poorly\n                  responsive to corticosteroids or other standard therapy.\n\n               -  Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is defined by at least one marker of hemolysis\n                  (indirect bilirubin above the upper limit of normal (ULN) not due to liver\n                  disease, increased lactate dehydrogenase (above ULN) without alternative\n                  etiology, or increased absolute reticulocytosis (above ULN) or bone marrow\n                  erythropoiesis in the absence of bleeding AND at least one marker direct or\n                  indirect autoimmune mechanism (positive direct antiglobulin for IgG or C3d, cold\n                  agglutinins).\n\n               -  Immune thrombocytopenia is defined by platelets ?100,000/µL and increased\n                  megakaryocytes on the bone marrow exam.\n\n               -  Constitutional symptoms, defined as one or more of the following disease-related\n                  symptoms or signs, documented in the patient's record prior to randomization:\n\n               -  unintentional weight loss >10 percent within 6 months prior to screening.\n\n               -  significant fatigue (inability to work or perform usual activities).\n\n               -  fevers >100.5°F or 38.0°C for 2 or more weeks prior to screening without evidence\n                  of infection.\n\n               -  night sweats for more than 1 month prior to screening without evidence of\n                  infection.\n\n          4. Measurable nodal disease by computed tomography (CT), defined as at least 1 lymph node\n             >1.5 cm in the longest diameter in a site that has not been previously irradiated. An\n             irradiated lesion may be assessed for measurable disease only if there has been\n             documented progression in that lesion since radiotherapy has ended.\n\n             Laboratory\n\n          5. Adequate hematologic function independent of transfusion and growth factor support for\n             at least 7 days prior to screening and randomization.\n\n          6. Adequate hepatic and renal function\n\n          7. Men and women ? 18 years of age.\n\n          8. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 to 2.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. Any prior treatment of CLL or SLL\n\n          2. Evidence of central nervous system (CNS) involvement with primary disease of CLL/SLL\n\n          3. History of other malignancies, except:\n\n               -  Malignancy treated with curative intent and with no known active disease present\n                  for ?3 years before the first dose of study drug and felt to be at low risk for\n                  recurrence by treating physician.\n\n          4. Uncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura\n\n          5. Known or suspected history of Richter's transformation.\n\n          6. Concurrent administration of >20mg/day of prednisone within 7 days of randomization\n             unless indicated for prophylaxis or management of allergic reactions (eg, contrast)\n\n          7. Known hypersensitivity to one or more study drugs\n\n          8. Vaccinated with live, attenuated vaccines within 4 weeks of first dose of study drug.\n\n          9. Any uncontrolled active systemic infection or an infection requiring systemic\n             treatment that was completed ? 7 days before randomization.\n\n         10. Known bleeding disorders or hemophilia.\n\n         11. History of stroke or intracranial hemorrhage within 6 months prior to enrollment.\n\n         12. Known history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) or active with hepatitis B virus\n             (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV).\n\n         13. Major surgery within 4 weeks of randomization.\n\n         14. Any life-threatening illness, medical condition, or organ system dysfunction that, in\n             the investigator's opinion, could compromise the subject's safety or put the study\n             outcomes at undue risk.\n\n         15. Currently active, clinically significant cardiovascular disease, such as uncontrolled\n             arrhythmia or Class 3 or 4 congestive heart failure or a history of myocardial\n             infarction, unstable angina, or acute coronary syndrome within 6 months prior to\n             randomization.\n\n         16. Unable to swallow capsules or malabsorption syndrome, disease significantly affecting\n             gastrointestinal function, or resection of the stomach or small bowel, symptomatic\n             inflammatory bowel disease or ulcerative colitis, or partial or complete bowel\n             obstruction.\n\n         17. Concomitant use of warfarin or other vitamin K antagonists.\n\n         18. Requires treatment with a strong cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A inhibitor.\n\n         19. Lactating or pregnant\n\n         20. Unwilling or unable to participate in all required study evaluations and procedures.\n\n         21. Unable to understand the purpose and risks of the study and to provide a signed and\n             dated informed consent form (ICF) and authorization to use protected health\n             information (in accordance with national and local subject privacy regulations).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHPV testing must follow the following criteria\r\n* HPV testing using an E6/E7 based assay is preferred, and does not require any validation (e.g. HPV in situ hybridization [ISH] or HPV E6/E7 polymerase chain reaction [PCR])\r\n* For oropharyngeal tumors p16 immunohistochemistry (IHC) positivity is sufficient to enroll and initiate treatment (p16 IHC interpretation to follow guidelines by Jordan/Lingen et al 2012); it is recommended that p16 IHC positivity is validated at a later point (during or after treatment) using an E6/E7 based test at the University of Chicago and provided slides will be used\r\n* For non-operative (OP) tumors accurate HPV testing (i.e. ISH, or E6/E7 based testing) is required for enrollment and treatment initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe primary and nodal involvement must have been defined bi- or uni-dimensional measurements measurable by RECISTXx_NEWLINE_xXUnequivocal demonstration of distant metastases (M1 disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTherapies that must be discontinued or substituted at least 4 weeks prior to randomization include the following: a) Medications known to lower the seizure threshold, b) Herbal and non-herbal products that may decrease PSA levels (example [eg], saw palmetto, pomegranate) or c) Any investigational agentXx_NEWLINE_xXAt Screening need for parenteral or oral opioid analgesics (eg, codeine, dextropropoxyphene)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a diagnosis of high-risk AML as established by a poor-risk karyotype, poor-risk molecular features, a therapy-related AML, age >= 60 or with antecedent hematologic disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of fludarabine, as this agent has been associated with higher subsequent rates of graft versus host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of active hepatitis B or C as defined by detectable viral load assays in the bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppression including primary, secondary, iatrogenic and idiopathicXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of abdominoperineal resection for rectal cancer, rectal stenosis, or other major rectal pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a confirmed diagnosis of amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis based on accepted clinical and laboratory criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure (on dialysis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCluster of differentiation (CD)4 count >= 200/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery within 28 days of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc.), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received any non-oncology vaccine therapy used for prevention of infectious diseases including seasonal vaccinations within 28 days of study treatment; examples include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, yellow fever, seasonal flu, H1N1 flu, rabies, Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG), and typhoid vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a known or suspected hypersensitivity to GM-CSF, hetastarch, corn, dimethyl sulfoxide, fetal bovine serum, trypsin (porcine origin), yeast or any other component of GVAX pancreas vaccine or CRS-207 (e.g., glycerol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have implanted medical devices that pose high risks for colonization and cannot be easily removed (e.g., artificial heart valves, pacemakers, prosthetic joints, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s)) if infection occurs; other common devices such as venous access devices (e.g., Port-a-Cath or Mediport) may be permitted as well as arterial and venous stents and dental and breast implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a pulse oximetry of < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is on supplemental home oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has valvular heart disease that requires antibiotic prophylaxis for prevention of endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave insufficient peripheral venous access to permit completion of the study dosing and compliance with study phlebotomy regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is unable to avoid intimate contact with another individual known to be at high risk of listeriosis (e.g., newborn infant, pregnant woman, HIV-positive individual) ) for at least 7 days after receiving CRS-207 infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXAn individual organ/ system impairment score of 4 as assessed by the CIRS definition limiting the ability to receive the treatment regimen of this trial with the exception of eyes, ears, nose, throat organ systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically confirmed intracranial glioblastoma (GBM) (including any sub variants including but not limited to gliosarcoma [GS], glioblastoma with oligodendroglial features [GBM-O], and glioblastoma with primitive neuroectodermal tumor [PNET] features [GBM-PNET]); anaplastic astrocytoma (AA); anaplastic oligodendroglioma (AO); anaplastic oligo-astrocytoma (AOA) also called anaplastic mixed gliomas; malignant glioma NOS (not otherwise specified); patients will be eligible if the original histology was low-grade glioma and a subsequent histological diagnosis of a high grade (malignant) glioma is madeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not smoke or plan to smoke tobacco or marijuana during study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be taking hepatic enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drug (EIAED) defined as:\r\n* EIAEDs (not allowed):\r\n** Carbamazepine (Tegretol, Tegretol XR, Carbatrol)\r\n** Oxcarbazepine (Trileptal)\r\n** Phenytoin (Dilantin, Phenytek)\r\n** Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)\r\n** Phenobarbital\r\n** Primidone (Mysoline)\r\n* If previously on an EIAED, the patient must be off of it for at least two weeks prior to study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be questioned for a past medical history of gout; patients must not have a history of gout which can be exacerbated by perifosineXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline Oncotype Dx recurrence score =< 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have prior exposure to mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitors (e.g. rapamycin, everolimus, sirolimus, temsirolimus, deforolimus)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have an organ allograft or other history of immune compromiseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of arterial thromboembolic (arterial blood clot) or hemorrhagic event with the exception of patients with pulmonary embolism stable on an anticoagulation regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not recovered from serious adverse events (as determined by treating doctor of medicine [MD]) related to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXIndication for treatment as defined by the International Workshop on Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (IWCLL) guidelines:\r\n* Massive (i.e. > 6 cm below the left costal margin) or progressive/symptomatic splenomegaly OR\r\n* Massive lymph nodes or nodal clusters (i.e. > 10 cm in longest diameter), or progressive/symptomatic lymphadenopathy OR\r\n* Presence of disease-related constitutional symptoms\r\n** Weight loss >= 10% over the preceding 6 months\r\n** Significant fatigue (i.e., Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group [ECOG] performance status [PS] 2 or worse; inability to work or perform usual activities)\r\n** Fevers higher than 100.5° Fahrenheit (F) or 38.0° Celsius (C) for 2 or more weeks without other evidence of infection\r\n** Night sweats for more than 1 month without evidence of infection\r\n* Progressive lymphocytes with an increase of >= 50% over a 2-month period or an anticipated doubling time of less than 6 months; OR\r\n* Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of, anemia and/or thrombocytopenia\r\n* Autoimmune anemia and/or thrombocytopenia poorly responsive to corticosteroids or other standard therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere or debilitating pulmonary disease (dyspnea at rest, significant shortness of breath, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD])Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown T315I or V299L mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoldering myeloma, monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), or plasma cell leukemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least 1 lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have experienced a toxicity that led to permanent discontinuation of prior immunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or any components of the study drug formulationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of thymomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) =< 8 %Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor, histamine-2 (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists are not permitted from the day prior (day -1) through to the end of alisertib dosing (e.g., day 7), except as required for premedication for a protocol-specific agent (e.g., taxane); neutralizing antacids and calcium-containing supplements cannot be taken from 2 hours prior to alisertib dosing until up to 2 hours after dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of severe or uncontrolled diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed MCL, with documentation of monoclonal B cells that have a chromosome translocation t(11;14)(q13;q32) and/or overexpress cyclin D1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of CTCL; a documented verifiable biopsy report is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin lesion involvement of at least 2% of BSA accessible for topical application of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXCTCL with histologic evidence of folliculotropic variant or large cell transformed CTCLXx_NEWLINE_xXCTCL disease that is known to be refractory to systemic histone deacetylase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current major gastrointestinal, pulmonary, cardiovascular, genitourinary or hematologic disease, CNS disorders, infectious disease or coagulation disorders as determined by the InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating atypical cells of clinical significanceXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Biopsied lesions should not be used as target lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Biopsied lesions should not be used as target lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Discontinuation of Trastuzumab is not necessary.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFridericia's formula (QTcF), or another method, machine or manual overread.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subject eligibility and withdrawal, QT correction formula QTcB will be used.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe QTc should be based on single or averaged QTc values of triplicate ECGs obtained over a brief recording period.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of screening and baseline assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Subjects with radiographically stable CNS metastases are defined as radiographically stable on the previous 2 brain imaging studies, asymptomatic, and off systemic steroids and anticonvulsants for at least 1 month; treatment with prophylactic anticonvulsants is permitted unless listed under prohibited medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAngina pectoris requiring antianginal medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of transmural infarction on ECGXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of < 4% blasts on hematologic studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR EXPANSION PHASE ONLY: For the expansion phase, patients must have archival specimens from the time of primary or recurrence diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have endometrial carcinosarcoma; patients with ovarian cancer who have histology other than high-grade serous in the absence of a deleterious BRCA mutation; if the patient has a deleterious BRCA mutation, any histology will be acceptedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have experienced intolerable adverse events per treating investigator due to other PARP inhibitors, mTOR inhibitors, PI3 kinase inhibitors, or AKT inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with torsades de pointes within 12 months of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAs judged by the investigator, any evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseases (e.g., severe hepatic impairment, interstitial lung disease [bilateral, diffuse, parenchymal lung disease], uncontrolled chronic renal diseases [glomerulonephritis, nephritic syndrome, Fanconi syndrome or renal tubular acidosis]), or current unstable or uncompensated respiratory or cardiac conditions, or uncontrolled hypertension (blood pressure >= 140/90), active bleeding diatheses or active infection including hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and human immunodeficiency virus; screening for chronic conditions is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of archival specimens from the time of primary or recurrence diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologically confirmed diagnosis of non- muscle invasive urothelial carcinoma of the bladder at the study institution prior to the beginning of the study; this includes patients with:\r\n* High grade Ta papillary lesion(s)\r\n* High or low grade T1 papillary lesion(s) \r\n* Carcinoma in situ (CIS), with or without Ta or T1 papillary tumor(s) of any gradeXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have BCG refractory or recurrent non-muscle invasive bladder cancer\r\n* Refractory disease is defined as evidence of persistent high risk bladder cancer (high grade Ta, T1 and/or CIS) at the first cystoscopic exam after the initial 6 week induction course of BCG or at the 6 month cystoscopic exam\r\n* Recurrent disease is defined as reappearance disease after achieving a tumor- free status by 6 months following a full induction course of BCG with or without maintenance BCG; participants must have recurred with high grade and/or invasive disease within 18 months following the last dose of BCG\r\n** Low-grade superficial (Ta) disease will not be considered recurrent\r\n** Patients must exhibit disease recurrence receiving some form of standard intravesical therapy that must include a minimum of one induction course of BCG and may also include prior exposure to mitomycin, interferon, single agent gemcitabine or taxane therapy or maintenanceXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of vesicoureteral refluxXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent indwelling urinary stentXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived systemic therapy with radionuclides (e.g., strontium-89, samarium-153, rhenium-186, or rhenium-188, or radium Ra 223 dichloride) for the treatment of bony metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphadenopathy exceeding 3 cm in short-axis diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXAny size pelvic lymphadenopathy if it is thought to be a contributor to concurrent hydronephrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to swallow oral medications, willingness to perform mucositis prophylaxis, and suitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with involvement of the mediastinum.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple intracranial malignant glioma lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented extracranial metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXSteroid dependent or refractory classic chronic GVHD disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 3 previous treatments for cGVHD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected active acute GVHD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive underlying malignant disease including post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a diagnosis of Waldenstrom's disease, or other conditions in which IgM M-protein is present in the absence of a clonal plasma cell infiltration with lytic bone lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Filgrastim (GCSF) is not allowed during screening or during the first cycle for phase I patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cumulative exposure to doxorubicin (including liposomal preparation) > 350 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring a field size > 40 cm as IMRT cannot be performed at extended source-to-surface distances (SSDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented results of cytogenetics/ fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) obtained at any time before transplant, and International Staging System (ISS) staging at the time of diagnosis available.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented response to ASCT (PR, VGPR, CR/stringent complete response [sCR]) according to IMWG criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDouble (tandem) ASCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of previously treated malignancies who do not have any evidence of disease for the last three years are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with macular degeneration, uncontrolled glaucoma, or markedly decreased visual acuity based on physician’s assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a small cell component in their histology are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with baseline corrected QT (QTc) prolongation greater than grade 1 are excluded from this study; patients with grade 1 QTc elevation are eligible but must be monitored with electrocardiogram (ECG) (EKG) exams, for the first 3 cycles of treatment; eribulin time to maximum concentration (Cmax) after infusion is about 10 minutes, and half life is 40 minutes; ECG (EKG) should be performed between 10 to 40 minutes after eribulin administration (on day 1 and day 8 of treatment); continued ECG (EKG) monitoring beyond cycle 3 can be done at the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the components of the investigational product AGS67E:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAGS67EXx_NEWLINE_xXL-HistidineXx_NEWLINE_xX?-trehalose dihydrate orXx_NEWLINE_xXpolysorbate 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pathologically proven diagnosis of high grade gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be three or more months from the end of chemoradiotherapy or have biopsy or imaging consistent with disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum alkaline phosphatase less than 2.5 times the upper limits of normal; note: if hepatic function is abnormal, the decision to initiate temozolomide treatment should carefully consider the benefits and risks for the individual patientXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrollable allergic reactions to temozolomide or ascorbic acid or to antiemetics appropriate for administration in conjunction with protocol-directed chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of oxalate nephrolithiasis or urine oxalate > 60 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXAnuria, dehydration, severe pulmonary congestion or pulmonary edema or fixed low cardiac input since all are conditions for which osmotic diuresis are contraindicated and ascorbic acid has high osmolarityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamide; note: high dose ascorbic acid may affect urine acidification and, as a result, may affect clearance rates of these drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXCentrally confirmed clinicopathological diagnosis of WMXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic disease meeting at least 1 of the recommendations from the Second International Workshop on Waldenström Macroglobulinemia for requiring treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHematology and biochemical values within protocol-defined limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure to achieve at least a MR after the last rituximab-containing therapy. If the subject meets this exclusion criterion and therefore is excluded from the main randomized study, participation in the non randomized substudy (Arm C) may be consideredXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to ibrutinib or other BTK inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a contraindication to administration of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or ampicillin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas implanted medical device(s) that pose a high risk for colonization and/or cannot be easily removed (e.g., prosthetic joints, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s), bone graft(s), or other exogenous implant(s)). NOTE: More common devices and prosthetics which include arterial and venous stents, dental and breast implants, and venous access devices (e.g., Port-a-Cath or Mediport) are permitted. Sponsor must be contacted prior to consenting any subject who has any other device and/or implant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with intolerance to sunitinib and/or regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule; those conditions should be discussed with the patient before registration in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) resulting in declining platelet or hemoglobin levels within the 4 weeks prior to first dose of study drug are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with transfusion-dependent thrombocytopenia are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe recombinant vaccinia vaccine should not be administered if the following apply to either recipients or, for at least 3 weeks after vaccination, their close household contacts (close household contacts are those who share housing or have close physical contact):\r\n* Persons with active or a history of eczema or other eczematoid skin disorders\r\n* Those with other acute, chronic or exfoliative skin conditions (e.g., atopic dermatitis, burns, impetigo, varicella zoster, severe acne or other open rashes or wounds) until condition resolves\r\n* Pregnant or nursing women; children under 3 years of age\r\n* Patients should have no evidence, as listed below, of being immunocompromised:\r\n** HIV positivity \r\n** Hepatitis B or C positivity\r\n** Concurrent use of topical steroids (including steroid eye drops) or systemic steroids; nasal or inhaled steroid use is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXCentral confirmation of T790M+ mutation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one lesion, not previously irradiated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking herbal supplements (St. John’s Wort, gingko balboa, etc.) should discontinue these supplements two weeks prior to study registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has pain that is persistent and distinguishably associated with the target sites to be treated; the patient’s average Brief Pain Inventory (BPI) pain score (0-10 scale) for last 72 hours at specified location is > 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have additional non-painful or minimally painful osseous metastases (if patient has pain from additional sites, the pain from the additional sites must be evaluated as being less intense by at least 2 points on the BPI compared to the site[s] treated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe generated planning target volume 1 (PTV1) must be > 5 mm from the spinal cord or brainXx_NEWLINE_xXThe generated PTV1 is located within 5 mm of spinal cord or brainXx_NEWLINE_xXRAI-refractory disease on structural imaging, defined as any one of the following: \r\n* A metastatic lesion that is not radioiodine-avid on a diagnostic radioiodine scan performed up to 2 years prior to enrollment in the current study, or \r\n* A radioiodine-avid metastatic lesion which remained stable in size or progressed despite radioiodine treatment 6 months or more prior to entry in the study; there are no size limitations for the index lesion used to satisfy this entry criterion\r\n* The presence of at least one fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) avid lesion with a maximum standardized uptake value (SUVmax) >= 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to follow a low iodine diet or requiring medication with high content in iodide (amiodarone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who received iodinated intravenous contrast as part of a radiographic procedure within 3 months of study registration; those that have had iodinated intravenous contrast within this time frame may still be eligible if a urinary iodine analysis reveals that the excess iodine has been adequately cleared after the last intravenous contrast administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor inclusion criteria:\n\n          -  Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of ?2\n\n          -  Pathologically confirmed relapsed/refractory DLBCL\n\n          -  Subjects must have ?1 measurable disease site on CT scan (? 1.5 cm in longest\n             dimension).\n\n          -  Adequate hepatic and renal function:\n\n               -  AST or ALT ?2.5 x ULN\n\n               -  Serum Creatinine ? 2.0 mg/dL and creatinine clearance ?60 mL/min/1.73\n\n               -  Bilirubin ?1.5 x ULN\n\n          -  Adequate hematologic function:\n\n               -  ANC >1,000 cells/mm3\n\n               -  Platelets ?75,000 cells/mm3\n\n               -  Hemoglobin ?8.0 g/dL\n\n               -  Prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) must be\n                  ?1.5 x the upper limit of the normal range (ULN)\n\n          -  Must be registered into the Revlimid REMS™program and be willing to comply with the\n             requirements of Revlimid REMS™.\n\n        Major Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Known central nervous system lymphoma\n\n          -  Any chemotherapy, external beam radiation therapy, or anti-cancer antibodies within 2\n             weeks\n\n          -  Radio- or toxin-immunoconjugates within 10 weeks\n\n          -  Prior allogenetic stem cell (or other organ) transplant within 6 months or any\n             evidence of active graft-versus-host disease or requirement for immunosuppressants\n             within 28 days prior to first dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has developed Richter's transformation confirmed by biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has malabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXThis must be the patient’s FIRST mobilization attemptXx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatine phosphokinase (CK) less than 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave initial body mass index (BMI) >= 27.0 kg/m^2 and =< 40 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo eating disorders, food allergies or intolerancesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of bariatric surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in clinic visits and study interactions at specified intervals and to maintain contact with the investigators for at least three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to allow blood collections; and capable of performing a simple test for assessing cardiopulmonary fitnessXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or presence of a comorbid disease for which diet modification and increased physical activity may be contraindicated or complicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently actively involved in another diet intervention study or organized weight loss programXx_NEWLINE_xXPlans to relocate from area within the next yearXx_NEWLINE_xXFamily relative or close friend is a trial staff member or a study participantXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology for hepatitis C (HC) defined as a positive test for HC antibody (HepC Ab), in which case reflexively perform an HC recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) or hepatitis C viral load to confirm the result; if the confirmatory test is negative the subject will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMolecular diagnosis of CP CML of ? 6 months (from initial diagnosis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtramedullary disease only.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders (e.g. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and spinal muscular atrophy) or are on concomitant treatment with drugs that are recognized to cause rhabdomyolysis, such as 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG CoA) inhibitors (statins), clofibrate and gemfibrozil, and that cannot be discontinued at least 5 half lives prior to starting LDE225 treatment; NOTE: if it is essential that the patient stays on a statin to control hyperlipidemia, only pravastatin may be used with extra cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one lesion, not previously irradiated, and not chosen for a biopsy if performed during the screening period that can be accurately measured at baseline and which is suitable for accurate repeated measurements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin ?9 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTherapies that must be discontinued or substituted prior to Treatment Cycle 1, Day 1 include the following: Medications known to lower the seizure threshold; Herbal and non-herbal products that may decrease prostate specific antigen (PSA) levels (that is, saw palmetto, pomegranates or pomegranate juice); Medications known to induce drug metabolizing enzymes such as dexamethasone, rifampicin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital, St. John's wort, etc.; and, potent inhibitors of CYP3A4 or CYP2C8Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must agree to undergo genetic counseling and breast cancer (BRCA) testing; patients in the expansion cohort must have a germline BRCA 1 or 2 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xX> grade 1 hearing loss or tinnitusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstruction, require parenteral hydration or nutrition, require a drainage gastrostomy tube, and/or have any other impairment that limits their ability to take oral medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unresectable melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizures, movement disorders or cerebrovascular accident within the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known macular degeneration or uncontrolled glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are pomalidomide refractory, defined as patients who progress on or within 60 days of pomalidomide when given as a single agent or with dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXOther active malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXUnilateral or bilateral retinoblastoma (RB) patients are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFor bilateral retinoblastoma\r\n* Group A and Group A eyes that have failed local therapy\r\n* Group A and Group B eyes that have failed local therapy\r\n* Group A and Group C eyes\r\n* Group A and Group D eyes\r\n* Group A and Group E eyes in which the Group E eye is not planned for enucleation after first cycle of chemotherapy\r\n* Group B and Group B eyes that have failed local therapy\r\n* Group B and Group C eyes\r\n* Group B and Group D eyes\r\n* Group B and Group E eyes in which the Group E eye is not planned for enucleation after first cycle of chemotherapy\r\n* Group C and Group C eyes\r\n* Group C and Group D eyes\r\n* Group C and Group E eyes even if early enucleation is planned for the Group E eye\r\n* Group D and Group D eyes\r\n* Group D and Group E eyes even if early enucleation is planned for the Group E eye\r\n* Group E and Group E eyes if at least one eye is not planned for enucleationXx_NEWLINE_xXEyes with tumors that are amenable to local therapy with laser or cryotherapy without threat to visionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny technical factor that would prohibit use of catheterization of the ophthalmic artery (e.g., small for age infant, untreatable allergy to contrast)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal cerebral vasculature noted on magnetic resonance (MR) angiography that would increase the risk of the procedure, including but not limited to an incomplete circle of Willis; other abnormalities that are less severe than an incomplete circle of Willis will be reviewed by the study chair in consultation with a neuro-interventional radiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXAny serious ongoing condition, such as an untreated infection or organ dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with phaeochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenib or other anti VEGF drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgreed to participate in laboratory protocol PA13-0291 for the testing of biomarkers as described in this clinical protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic or minimally symptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of controlled schedule III controlled substances for cancer-related pain controlXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated symptomatic spinal cord compressionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed de novo ABC DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphocytes >= 0.3 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXMonocytes >= 0.25 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo a tetanus vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of melanoma with metastatic disease to a visceral organ (lung, liver, brain, adrenal, nodal station outside the regional lymph drainage of the primary, vertebral bodies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA visceral metastasis that due to its location cannot be safely treated with SABRXx_NEWLINE_xXHave visceral crisis, lymphangitic spread, or leptomeningeal carcinomatosis visceral crisis is not the mere presence of visceral metastases but implies severe organ dysfunction as assessed by symptoms and signs, laboratory studies, and rapid progression of the diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHave initiated bisphosphonates or approved Receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B (RANK) ligand targeted agents <7 days prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with treated, non-progressive epidural disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal products that may decrease PSA levels (e.g., saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIPSS low, intermediate -1, intermediate-2, or high risk MDS (including CMML) in Dose Escalation and Dose Confirmation-Randomization; only intermediate-2, or high risk MDS in Dose Confirmation-Open LabelXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXActive uncontrolled gastric or duodenal ulcerXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease or subject refused surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious underlying lung function abnormality due to the risk of fatal pneumonitis that was caused by the combination of Abraxane and gemcitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected non-compliance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegaly at least 5 cm below left costal marginXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of PMF in accordance, or Post-PV/ET MFXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently or previously treated with ruxolitinib for PMF or Post-PV/ET MF for at least 28 days, and characterized byXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk OR intermediate-2 risk as defined by Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS), OR intermediate-1 risk as defined by DIPSS and associated with symptomatic splenomegaly, and/or hepatomegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenic irradiation within 3 months prior to RandomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent medical condition which may increase the risk of toxicity, including:\r\n* Hypercalcemia of any cause\r\n* Untreated hyperparathyroidism\r\n* Paget’s disease of boneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documentation of a new or progressive lesion on a radiologic imaging study performed within 6 months prior to study enrollment (progression of disease over any interval is allowed) and/or new/worsening disease related symptoms within 6 months prior to study enrollment; note: this assessment will be performed by the treating investigator; evidence of progression by RECIST criteria is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a past or current diagnosis of another malignancy that will interfere with conduct of the trial; patients with past or current cancer diagnoses other than ACC are allowed to enroll if the investigator believes it will not interfere with trial conductXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo- or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown myopathy or history of rhabdomyolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily consumption of alcohol exceeding 3 standard drinks a day (defined as 10 grams of alcohol, which is equivalent to 285 mL of beer, 530 mL of light beer, 100 mL of wine or 30 mL of liquor)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen taking drugs associated with a substantial risk of myopathy when co-administered with simvastatin are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen taking medications for which interaction with simvastatin may result in increased levels of simvastatin are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must have EITHER the clinical diagnosis of NF1 using the National Institute of Health (NIH) consensus conference criteria, OR have a constitutional NF1 mutation documented in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) certified labXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have plexiform neurofibroma(s) that are progressive OR are causing significant morbidity, such as (but not limited to) head and neck lesions that are compromising the airway or great vessels, brachial or lumbar plexus lesions that are causing nerve compression and loss of function, lesions causing major deformity (e.g., orbital lesions) or are significantly disfiguring, lesions of the extremity that cause limb hypertrophy or loss of function, and painful lesions; subjects with paraspinal plexiform neurofibromas will be eligible for this trial; histologic confirmation of tumor is not necessary in the presence of consistent clinical and radiographic findings, but should be considered if malignant degeneration of a plexiform neurofibroma is clinically suspectedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects enrolled for a “major deformity” or “significantly disfiguring” tumor, eligible tumors will be limited to tumors of the head & neck or those on other areas of the body that are unable to be concealed by standard garments; in order to enroll a plexiform neurofibroma for these indications, the study chair or co-chair must be contacted to review subject eligibility prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who underwent surgery for a progressive plexiform neurofibroma will be eligible to enter the study after the surgery, provided the plexiform neurofibroma was incompletely resected and is evaluable by volumetric analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXSteroids: subjects with endocrine deficiencies are allowed to receive physiologic or stress doses of steroids if necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with glaucoma, intraocular pressure > 21 mmHg, or any other significant abnormality on ophthalmic examination (performed by an ophthalmologist); ophthalmological findings secondary to long-standing optic pathway glioma such as optic nerve pallor or strabismus will NOT be considered significant for the purposes of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have received at least oxaliplatin-, and irinotecan-based regimens with bevacizumab and with, cetuximab or panitumumab if KRAS wildtype and are refractory to irinotecan;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of an allergic reaction or intolerance to irinotecanXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has previously received regorafenib;Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented relapse or progressive disease on or after any regimen (subjects refractory to the most recent regimen are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient should have a normalized or normal uric acid level prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to previous bendamustine, carfilzomib or dexamethasone or mannitol; subjects who are allergic to bortezomib are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known or likely systemic amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing graft-vs-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be > 40 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXKirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) mutated colorectal cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXHave documented ALK rearrangement by a positive result from the Vysis® ALK Break-Apart fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) Probe Kit; orXx_NEWLINE_xXHad progressive disease while on crizotinib, as assessed by the investigator or treating physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets ?75000/µLXx_NEWLINE_xXHave current spinal cord compression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed or refractory AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed elderly AML patients (> 60 years) unfit for intensive chemotherapy with cytarabine and anthracyclines are also eligible to this trial given that no clinically beneficial therapy exists for these patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with macular degeneration, uncontrolled glaucoma, or markedly decreased visual acuityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that in the opinion of the investigators are significantly below their ideal body weightXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a known hypersensitivity to protocol systemic chemotherapy that was life-threatening, required hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, or resulted in persistent or significant disability or incapacityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with treated, non-progressive epidural disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Japan Escalation - the same as the global escalation I/E criteria except patients must be EGFR mutation positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient's tumour sample must be PD-L1 positive (?25%of tumour cells with membrane staining (Cohort 1 and 2) or PD-L1 positive with ?90% of tumour cells with membrane staining (Cohort 3))Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of complementary or alternative medicines that would confound the interpretation of toxicities and antitumor activity of the study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindication to thromboprophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any malignancy who will receive HDMTX given as a 5 g/m^2 infusion over 24 hours and a history of >= 1 of the following:\r\n* Documented decreased renal function, as defined as creatinine greater than 1.5 x baseline or glomerular filtration rate (GFR) < 65 ml/min/1.73m^2\r\n* History of prior nephrotoxicity with HDMTX as evidence by increased creatinine to 1.5 x baseline or need for dialysis or carboxypeptidase\r\n* History of grade 3 adverse event (AE) related to HDMTX (mucositis, myelosuppression, nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity) based on the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 4.0\r\n* Provider concern patient is at risk for MTX toxicity, such as a prior history of treatment with nephrotoxic chemotherapy, history of HDMTX-related neurotoxicity, or antimicrobial/antifungal therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to draw labs for HDMTX serum concentrationXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment on a protocol (Children's Oncology Group [COG] or other) which restricts proposed dose modificationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Trisomy 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas received any of the following therapies: daratumumab or other anti-CD38 therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXDose EscalationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have evaluable disease by RECIST v1.1 for subjects without glioma or by RANO criteria for subjects with glioma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion: CholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXCholangiocarcinoma subjects must have progressed following gemcitabine-based regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion: Non-enhancing GliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXProgression of glioma must have occurred over 12 months or less.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have available at least 3 prior full sets of scans (not including screening), each separated by at least 2 months with less than or equal to 5 mm slice thickness and up to 1 mm interslice gap on either 2D T2 weighted image, 3D T2 weighted image, or FLAIR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion: Solid Tumors Not Otherwise Eligible for the Cholangiocarcinoma, Chondrosarcoma, or Non-enhancing Glioma CohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have documented IDH1 gene-mutated disease based on local test evaluation. (Centralized testing will be performed retrospectively.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be amenable to serial peripheral blood sampling, urine sampling, and biopsies during the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have ECOG PS of 0 to 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have expected survival of ?3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the following sensitive cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 substrate medications are excluded from the study unless they can be transferred to other medications prior to enrolling: alfentanil, aprepitant, budesonide, buspirone, conivaptan, darifenacin, darunavir, dronedarone, eletriptan, eplerenone, felodipine, indinavir, fluticasone, lopinavir, lovastatin, lurasidone, maraviroc, midazolam, nisoldipine, quetiapine, saquinavir, sildenafil, simvastatin, tolvaptan, tipranavir, triazolam, ticagrelor, vardenafil and/or the CYP2B6 substrates: bupropion, efavirenz.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the following P-glycoprotein (P-gp) transporter-sensitive substrate medications are excluded from the study unless they can be transferred to other medications prior to enrolling: aliskiren, ambrisentan, colchicine, dabigatran etexilate, digoxin, fexofenadine, maraviroc, posaconazole, ranolazine, saxagliptin, sitagliptin, talinolol, and tolvaptan.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with an active severe infection that required anti-infective therapy or with an unexplained fever >38.5°C during screening visits or on their first day of study drug administration (at the discretion of the Investigator, subjects with tumor fever may be enrolled).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have confirmation of DT/DF by local pathologist prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic daily NSAID use as treatment for controlling desmoid tumors is not allowed, and should be stopped >= 3 days prior to registration; NSAIDS are allowed when used for desmoid tumor-related pain or for symptoms that are unrelated to desmoid disease (eg. headache, arthritis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have to meet one of the following criteria to be eligible:\r\n* Disease determined unresectable or entailing unacceptably morbid surgery based on 1 or more of the following characteristics:\r\n** Multifocal disease\r\n** Disease in which there is involvement or inadequate plane from: neurovascular bundle, bone, skin, or viscera\r\n** Large size in relationship to location OR multi-compartment involvement\r\n* Progression by radiographic imaging (10% increase in size by RECIST v1.1 within 6 months of registration)\r\n* Patients with symptomatic disease which meets the following criteria Brief Pain Inventory (BPI) score greater than or equal to 3 AND one of the following:\r\n** Inability to control pain with NSAIDs and considering addition of narcotics OR\r\n** > 30% increase in current use of narcotics OR\r\n** Addition of a new opioid narcoticXx_NEWLINE_xXAT THE TIME OF PROCUREMENT: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma in first or subsequent relapse or with primary refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAT THE TIME OF INFUSION: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma in first or subsequent relapse or with primary refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAT THE TIME OF INFUSION: Pulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has documented evidence of PrR negative endometrial cancer. PrR negativity can be determined by immunohistochemistry. The tumor is considered PrR negative if the number of PrR positive cells is less than 1% determined by immunohistochemistry;Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as \non-target\ lesions unless progression is documented;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of use of progestins for a period of longer than 3 months for any indication, including endometriosis;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline laboratory assessments, includingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in whom everolimus is contraindicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCarcinoid with hormone related symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXRare pancreatic neuroendocrine cancers such as, insulinomas, glucagonomas, gastrinomas.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe need for treatment with medications with clinically-relevant metabolism by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 isoenzyme within 3 hours before or after administration of SNX-5422Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol dependence or drug abuse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, macular degeneration, or any retinal changes detected by ophthalmological examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiologic workup must demonstrate that the disease is confined to the abdominal cavity and/or is controlled outside of the abdominal cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiologic workup or prior abdominal exploration must be consistent with disease which can be debulked to a residual size of less than or equal to 1 cm thicknessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a minimum expected duration of survival of greater than 6 weeks as determined and documented by the attending surgeon or medical oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any systemic illness which precludes them from being an operative candidate as determined by anesthesia preoperative evaluation; this includes but is not limited to, sepsis, liver failure, pregnant or lactating femalesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have fully intact mental status and normal neurologic abilities; intact mental status is defined by the capacity to identify and recall one's identity and place in time and space; assessment of mental status and documentation of fully intact mental status will be completed using physical and mental exam by the referring doctor or oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be ineligible if they have disease outside of the abdominal cavity which is uncontrolledXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a significant history of malabsorption (e.g. celiac sprue, short bowel syndrome, or other, as determined by the treating physician) are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are being treated with a GNRH antagonist should be willing to switch to a LHRH analogue after registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use, or participation in a clinical trial, of an investigational agent that blocks androgen synthesis (e.g., abiraterone acetate, TAK-700, TAK-683, TAK-448) or agents that block the androgen receptor (e.g., ARN-509)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate EGFR greater than 30 mL/min per 1.73 m2 (per VA formula and adjusted for gender and race)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of documented neuroendocrine differentiation on the original pathology reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pulmonary disease limiting daily function or requiring oxygen supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXCity of Hope (COH) pathology review confirms that research participant's diagnostic material is consistent with history of intermediate or high grade B-cell NHL (e.g., DLBCL, MCL, or transformed NHL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXResearch participant has a released cryopreserved T cell productXx_NEWLINE_xXNot requiring supplemental oxygen or mechanical ventilation, oxygen saturation 90% or higher on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of research participant to understand the basic elements of the protocol and/or the risks/benefits of participating in this phase I study; a legal guardian may substitute for the research participantXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allogeneic HSCT or prior autologous HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSarcoma located on upper (includes shoulder) or lower (includes hip) extremities or on body wallXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate or high-grade: grades 2 or 3 on scale of 1-3Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindications to limb-sparing surgery; patient should be evaluated by a surgeon who specializes in sarcoma resections prior to study enrollment to ensure patient (pt) is a candidate for limb-sparing surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXNo severe peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXAny uncontrolled thyroid diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction or severe intolerance to either irinotecan or temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for IV alimentationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny recurrence of a glioblastoma multiformeXx_NEWLINE_xXblood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 30 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiosurgery including Gamma Knife, linear accelerator based radiosurgery, CyberKnife and placement of Gliadel waferXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary disease including or greater than grade 2 dyspnea or laryngeal edema, grade 3 pulmonary edema or pulmonary hypertension according to CTCAE 4.03Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic renal disease / failureXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent neurodegenerative disease,Xx_NEWLINE_xXForeseeable condition which would preclude the reduction of steroids (dexamethasone) to a maximum of 2 mg BID within a week prior to apheresis -Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas met at least one of the following indications for treatment:\r\n* Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of worsening anemia (hemoglobin [Hg] < 11 g/dl) and/or thrombocytopenia (platelets < 100 x 10^9/L)\r\n* Symptomatic or progressive lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, or hepatomegaly\r\n* One or more of the following disease-related symptoms:\r\n** Weight loss >= 10% within the previous 6 months\r\n** Grade 2 or 3 fatigue attributed to CLL\r\n** Fevers > 100.5 Fahrenheit (F) for 2 weeks without evidence of infection\r\n** Clinically significant night sweats without evidence of infection\r\n* Progressive lymphocytosis (not due to the effects of corticosteroids) with an increase of > 50% over a two-month period or an anticipated doubling time of less than six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo deletion of 17p13 on cytogenetic analysis by FISHXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active hemolytic anemia requiring immunosuppressive therapy or other pharmacologic treatment; patients who have a positive Coombs test but no evidence of hemolysis are NOT excluded from participationXx_NEWLINE_xXMorning cortisol >= institutional normalXx_NEWLINE_xXWe will define patients as high risk AML and thus eligible if they meet one or more of the following criteria:\r\n* Secondary AML (from underlying MDS or therapy related)\r\n* Presence of complex cytogenetic abnormalities (>= 3 cytogenetic abnormalities), all monosomies, del 5q, del 7q, inv3, t(3;3), t(6;9), t(9;22), abn 11q23 (excluding t[9;11])\r\n* Fms-related tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3)-internal tandem duplication (ITD) mutation positive\r\n* Age >= 65 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXWe will define subjects as high risk MDS and thus eligible if they have a MD Anderson Comprehensive Cancer MDS Risk Score >= 9Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects of all genders and races are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cutaneous metastasis of NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with more than 6 discrete extra-cranial lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have any of the below to be eligible\r\n* Are not candidates for intracavitary brachytherapy due to poor geometry or poor response to external beam radiation therapy (RT)\r\n* Patients with co-morbid medical conditions, bleeding disorders, poor anesthetic risk precluding brachytherapy\r\n* Patients who refuse brachytherapy or prefer external beam hypofractionated approach\r\n* Patients requiring interstitial brachytherapy\r\n* Note: patients may be discovered during standard therapy and enrolled prior to boostXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of visceral metastasis, or presence of visceral metastasis detected by screening imaging examinationsXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant lymphadenopathy exceeding 3 cm in short-axis diameter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of opiate analgesics for cancer-related pain, including codeine and dextropropoxyphene, currently or anytime during the 4- week period prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patients must be without evidence of visceral or bone involvement with metastatic cancer on physical exam or any diagnostic study; extensive nodal involvement is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ allograft requiring immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 1, 2, or 3a FL without pathologic evidence of transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one lesion that measures >1.5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate contraceptive measures must be takenXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of erythema nodosum, characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior sensitivity or intolerance to PI3K inhibitors are not eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of intolerance to trastuzumab and/or adverse events related to trastuzumab that resulted in trastuzumab being permanently discontinued are not eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of RCC with clear-cell or predominant clear-cell histology (? 50% other histologic features)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with recurrent or refractory, metastatic disease (N1 or M1) fulfilling any of the following combinations of pathologic staging based on American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) TNM staging version 2010 and Fuhrman nuclear gradingXx_NEWLINE_xXpT3, G any, N1; or, pT4, G any, N1; or, pT any, G any, N1 or M1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or nursing women due to the unknown effects of immunization on the developing fetus or newborn infant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having previously undergone splenectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sickle-cell anemia or thalassemia major.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoronary artery bypass graft surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown castration-resistant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple skeletal metastases (?2 hot spots) on bone scanXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of visceral metastasis, or visceral metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizures (taking/not taking anticonvulsants), arteriovenous malformation in the brain, head trauma with loss of consciousnessXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than NSCLC within 5 years prior to randomization, with the exception of those with negligible risk of metastases or death and treated with expected curative outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXTransaminases < 3 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils > 1.5 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypercalcemia (blood levels greater than 11.5 mg/dL) and/or abnormally high vitamin D levels (in patients with kidney disease, blood calcium levels must be 9.5 mg/dL or lower before starting paricalcitol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing toxic manifestations of previous treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment Naive only: and a) do not want to receive chemoimmunotherapy or b) have comorbidities that would preclude chemoimmunotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all required evaluations and procedures in this study protocol including swallowing capsules without difficulty.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious use, or participation in a clinical trial, of an investigational agent that blocks androgen synthesis (e.g., abiraterone acetate, TAK-700, TAK-683, TAK-448) or targets the androgen receptor (e.g., enzalutamide, BMS 641988); ketoconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for any of the medications on the list of drugs to be used with caution or to be avoidedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal or alternative remedies that may affect hormonal status such as prostasol or PC-SPESXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous access - consider peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) or central lineXx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluation of v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B (BRAF)V600 mutation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXMelan-A (MART) 1 or solute carrier family 45, member 2 (SLC45A2) (+) staining results; (if patients have not had staining test in the past, the test will be run after patient consent is obtained, but before enrollment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo single lesion larger than 1 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 5 lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing participation in a Phase 2 (LX1606.1-202-CS, LX1606.1-203-CS) or Phase 3 (LX1606.1-301-CS, LX1606.1-303-CS) studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor protocol violations or tolerability concerns in a Phase 2 (eg, LX1606.1-202-CS, LX1606.1-203-CS) or Phase 3 (eg, LX1606.1-301-CS, LX1606.1-303-CS) studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take AA on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose AA is takenXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a pre-existing condition that warrants long-term corticosteroid use; inhaled steroids are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXGastric, GEJ or esophageal adenocarcinoma for which treatment with FOLFOX6, CAPOX, FOLFIRI, or irinotecan would be acceptable as determined by the Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients to be treated with a regimen containing 5-fluorouracil/leucovorin:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients to be treated with a regimen containing capecitabine:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients to be treated with a regimen containing oxaliplatin:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients to be treated with a regimen containing irinotecan:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients to be treated with a regimen containing bevacizumab:Xx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria at screening as demonstrated by urinalysis with proteinuria ? 2+.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients to be treated with a regimen containing regorafenib:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of RPLSXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo- or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent proteinuria of CTCAE grade 3 (>3.5g/24 hours)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCastration-resistant disease defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTwo or more skeletal metastases (? 2 hot spots) on bone scintigraphy within 8 weeks of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of visceral metastasis, or visceral metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of visible retinal pathology on screening ophthalmologic examination that places the participant at an unacceptable risk for ocular toxicity, such as risk factors for retinal vein occlusion, related to PD-0325901Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo primary amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate 45-100 beats per minuteXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of second- or third-degree atrioventricular blockXx_NEWLINE_xXQRS interval ? 110msXx_NEWLINE_xXPR interval ? 200msXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving QT-prolonging drugs with a risk of causing torsades de pointes (TdP), unless ECG meets inclusion criteria on a stable dose of the drug and with discussion and agreement with the project clinicianXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT A: More than 5 months of prior hormonal therapy (e.g., gonadotropin hormone releasing analogs, megestrol acetate, or Casodex); there is no washout period required for gonadotropin hormone releasing (GnRH) analogs; a two week washout period is required for megestrol or anti-androgenXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT A: Patients with underlying heart conditions who are deemed ineligible for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with second malignancies may be eligible at discretion of principal investigator (PI) given acute life threatening nature of untreated AML or higher risk MDS; patients maintained on long-term non-chemotherapy treatment, e.g., hormonal therapy, are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of Wilson's disease or other copper-related disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst recurrence of GBM (Cohorts 1, 1b and 2 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFirst diagnosis of GBM with resectable disease (Cohorts 1c Part A only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFirst diagnosis of unmethylated MGMT GBM (Cohort 1d and Cohort 1c Part B only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 1 recurrence of GBM (Cohorts 1, 1b and 2 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny recurrence of GBM (Cohorts 1c and 1d only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on enzyme-inducing anticonvulsive agents are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA) >= 0.5 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of Kit and PDGFRA mutation confirmed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in the planning and/or conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave some types of eye problems or impairmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXWith historically documented Ph+ cellsXx_NEWLINE_xX?2 prior Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (TKI) therapies for CMLXx_NEWLINE_xXBlast phase CMLXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown Abl-kinase mutation resistant to Dasatinib (e.g. T315I or T315A)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced MDS by virtue of intermediate-2 or high-risk MDS by International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score, or high or very-high risk by IPSS-revised (R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any prior exposure to a thrombopoietin-receptor agonistXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ib only:\r\n* Patients with metastatic rectal cancer are allowed if their primary site meets other eligibility criteria and chemoradiotherapy is recommended as initial therapy for symptom palliation by the multidisciplinary treating team\r\n* Patients with locally advanced unresectable rectal cancer are allow provided:\r\n** There is no evidence of recto-vaginal, recto-vesicular, recto-intestinal fisutalization\r\n** Standard dose and schedule chemoradiotherapy is recommended as initial therapy by the multidisciplinary treating teamXx_NEWLINE_xXRecommendation to undergo concurrent chemoradiation, as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 2 or higher diarrhea at baseline unless deemed by the investigator to be caused by laxatives prescribed for symptomatic partial obstruction (e.g. MiraLAX)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXEither: (i) high-risk disease, defined as T1 and/or high-grade and/or CIS or (ii) intermediate-risk disease, defined as Ta low-grade with at least 3 of the following 4 risk factors: multiple tumors, tumor size > 3cm, early recurrence (<1 year from previous staging procedure), or recurrence with a frequency of more than once in any 12 month periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 Arms 1-3: Suitable to receive a 6-week course of BCG in the adjuvant setting within 6 weeks following TURBT. Phase 2 Arm 4: Suitable for monotherapy vaccine administration post-TURBT. For Phase 1 only: Has previously received 3-6 weekly doses of BCG.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignancies within the past 12 months except negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol or chemical abuse, or mental or psychiatric condition precluding protocol complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXMay be on cholesterol medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXSeverely impaired lung functionXx_NEWLINE_xXMalabsorption syndrome or other condition that precludes enteral route of administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXNot appropriate for treatment with a purine-based analogue regimen (per National Comprehensive Cancer Network [NCCN] or European Society for Medical Oncology [ESMO] guidelines), including relapse ? 36 months from a purine-based chemoimmunotherapy regimen or relapse ? 24 months from a purine-based monotherapy regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXA cytogenetics or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis of the leukemic cells within 24 months of randomization is required to document the presence or absence of del(17p). Note: if a sample from within 24 months is not available, it should be evaluated as part of the screening laboratory evaluation to inform stratificationXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness by subject to be randomized to receive either ofatumumab or duvelisib at the dose and schedule defined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any of the following medications or procedures within the specified timeframe:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive prophylactic treatment for pneumocystis or herpes simplex virus (HSV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible to undergo excisional surgery such as pleurectomy/decortication (P/DC) or any other mesothelioma surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGermline mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 that is predicted to be deleterious or suspected deleterious.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to oral 5-azacitidine or romidepsinXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of malignancies, other than MM, unless the patient has been free of the disease for ? 3 years. Exceptions include the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1.5 x 10^9 cells/LXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, central serous chorioretinopathy (CSCR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking monoamine oxidase (MAO)-inhibitors or antipsychotic medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of GI fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of fixed vocal cord (stage cT3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with collagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients smoking in excess of 2 packs of cigarettes per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have target or non-target lesions as per RECIST 1.1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXINR and aPTT < 1.5 X ULN unless on medication known to alter INR and aPTT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncorrectable electrolyte abnormalities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThis treatment is for patients with high risk hematologic malignancies; high risk is defined as:\r\n* Any patient with a hematologic malignancy with residual disease after treatment with 1 or more chemotherapy regimens in whom achievement of remission with additional chemoradiotherapy is felt to be unlikely\r\n* Patients without morphologic evidence of disease but with high risk features which would predict for relapse despite remission at HSCT such as adverse cytogenetics, 3rd or greater complete remission (CR), or failure to recover peripheral blood counts to normal ranges; while these patients do not have detectable disease by current methods, like all patients they have non-detectable disease which in their case is highly aggressiveXx_NEWLINE_xXModified KPS of < 80%Xx_NEWLINE_xX> 5 comorbidity points on the Hematopoietic Cell Transplantation-Specific Comorbidity Index (HCT-CI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) level of >= 2 ugm/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active inflammatory processes including T max > 101 or active tissue inflammation are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor those patients in which steroids are clinically indicated, there must be a stable or decreasing dose of steroid medication for >= one week prior to the start of infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to plerixaforXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior sensitivity to plerixaforXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has disease progression by at least one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has been evaluated by a local neurologist prior to study entry who has determined the subject has at least one risk factor for seizure including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXunexplained loss of consciousness within the last 12 months,Xx_NEWLINE_xXhistory of arteriovenous malformations of the brain,Xx_NEWLINE_xXhistory of brain infection (i.e., abscess, meningitis, or encephalitis),Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale subject must use a condom, if having sex with a pregnant woman.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale subject must not donate sperm starting at Screening and throughout the study period and for at least 3 months after final drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with a history of exposure to enzalutamide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has clinical signs suggestive of high or imminent risks for pathological fracture, spinal cord compression and/or cauda equina syndrome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has shown a hypersensitivity reaction to the active pharmaceutical ingredient or any of the capsule components, including Labrasol, butylated hydroxyanisole, and butylated hydroxytoluene.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to give valid written consent for biopsy samples (subjects in the expansion phase only).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or any components of the study drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for immunological and clinical follow-up assessments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the subject from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the subject at unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for primary chemoradiation as decided by an interdisciplinary team including otolaryngology, medical oncology, and radiation oncologyXx_NEWLINE_xXUric acid within University of Iowa Hospital and Clinics (UIHC) normal institutional limits; medical therapy may be used to achieve this targeted range; must be within limits (2.4 – 7.0 mg/dL) prior to starting dietXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown/established G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values within protocol-defined parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to any 2nd generation anti-hormonal including abiraterone and enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXSubstrates of CYP2D6 with a narrow therapeutic index (eg, thioridazine);Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin (Hb) <100 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-leukocyte depleted whole blood transfusion within 120 days of the date of the pharmacogenetic sample collection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 18 or > 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdults with a confirmed pathologic diagnosis of pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma by the Laboratory of Pathology, National Cancer Institute (NCI) when such tissue is available to confirm or in the event that outside tissue is not available:\r\n* An outside pathology report confirms the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma (Pheo)/paraganglioma (PGL), AND\r\n* The patient has nuclear medicine imaging studies that would only be positive in an adult patient with a diagnosis of Pheo/PGL (fluorordopa [F-DOPA], Dotatate, fluorodopamine [F-Dopamine] or metaiodobenzylguanidine [MIBG])Xx_NEWLINE_xXInformation available or pending regarding possible genetic alterations that can explain the patient’s pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma (mutations in succinate dehydrogenase subunit B [SDHB], SDHV or von Hippel-Lindau [VHL] genes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapeutic MIBG is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have large abdominal masses impinging on bowel or pulmonary masses with encroached vessels and a potential to bleed will be considered on case by case basis after careful consultation with multiple disciplines such as radiologists and surgeons with main intent being patient safetyXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented presence of EGFR mutation confirmed by MSKCC or a local facilityXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypothyroidism; patients must have a normal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) per institutional standards at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes; visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or CSR such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. Histologically confirmed resected ductal pancreatic adenocarcinoma with macroscopic\n             complete resection (R0 and R1). Subjects with neuroendocrine (and mixed type) tumors\n             are excluded.\n\n          2. Pancreatic cancer surgical staging: T 1-3, N0-1, M0.\n\n          3. Subject should be able to start treatment no later than 12 weeks postsurgery.\n\n          4. ?18 years of age at the time of signing the informed consent form (ICF).\n\n          5. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.\n\n          6. Acceptable hematology parameters:\n\n               -  Absolute neutrophil count ?1500 cell/mm3\n\n               -  Platelet count ?100,000/mm3\n\n               -  Hemoglobin (Hgb) ?9 g/dL\n\n          7. Acceptable blood chemistry levels:\n\n               -  Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/ Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)\n                  and Alanine transaminase (ALT)/ Serum glutamic -pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) ?2.5\n                  × upper limit of normal range (ULN)\n\n               -  Total bilirubin ? Upper Limit of Normal (ULN) (subjects with Gilbert's syndrome\n                  can have bilirubin of up to 1.5 x ULN)\n\n               -  Alkaline phosphatase ? 2.5 x ULN\n\n               -  Serum creatinine within upper limits of normal or calculated clearance ?50\n                  mL/min/1.73 m2. If using creatinine clearance, actual body weight should be used\n                  for calculating creatinine clearance (eg, using the Cockroft-Gault formula). For\n                  subjects with a Body Mass Index (BMI) >30 kg/m2, lean body weight should be used\n                  instead\n\n          8. Cancer antigen (CA)19-9 <100 U/mL assessed within 14 days of randomization\n\n          9. Acceptable coagulation studies as demonstrated by Prothrombin Time (PT) and Partial\n             Thromboplastin Time (PTT) within normal limits (±15%)\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        A subject will not be eligible for inclusion in this study if any of the following criteria\n        apply:\n\n          1. Prior neo-adjuvant treatment or radiation therapy for pancreatic adenocarcinoma\n\n          2. Presence of or history of metastatic pancreatic adenocarcinoma\n\n          3. Any other malignancy within 5 years prior to randomization, with the exception of\n             adequately treated in-situ carcinoma of the cervix, uteri, or nonmelanomatous skin\n             cancer (all treatment of which should have been completed 6 months prior to\n             randomization)\n\n          4. Active, uncontrolled bacterial, viral, or fungal infection(s) requiring systemic\n             therapy, defined as ongoing signs/symptoms related to the infection without\n             improvement despite appropriate antibiotics, antiviral therapy, and/or other treatment\n\n          5. Known infection with hepatitis B or C, or history of human immunodeficiency virus\n             (HIV) infection, or subject receiving immunosuppressive or myelosuppressive\n             medications that would in the opinion of the investigator, increase the risk of\n             serious neutropenic complications\n\n          6. History of allergy or hypersensitivity to nab-paclitaxel or gemcitabine or any of\n             their excipients\n\n          7. Serious medical risk factors involving any of the major organ systems, or serious\n             psychiatric disorders, which could compromise the subject's safety or the study data\n             integrity. These include, but are not limited to:\n\n               1. History of connective tissue disorders (eg, lupus, scleroderma, arteritis nodosa)\n\n               2. History of interstitial lung disease, slowly progressive dyspnea and unproductive\n                  cough, sarcoidosis, silicosis, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary\n                  hypersensitivity pneumonitis or multiple allergies\n\n               3. History of the following within 6 months prior to Cycle 1 Day 1: a myocardial\n                  infarction, severe/unstable angina pectoris, coronary/peripheral artery bypass\n                  graft, New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class III-IV heart failure, uncontrolled\n                  hypertension, clinically significant cardiac dysrhythmia or ECG abnormality,\n                  cerebrovascular accident, transient ischemic attack, or seizure disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXStratum 2: patients must have received radiation therapy, which may include gamma knife or phosphorus-32 (P32)\r\n* More than 6 months from the time of enrollment if the recurrence is predominantly solid\r\n* More than 12 months from the time of enrollment if the recurrence is predominantly cysticXx_NEWLINE_xXMinimum weight 20 kilograms is required to be eligible for the study since the minimum injection volume of SYLATRON is 0.05 ml, 20 mcg, subcutaneously (SQ) as suggested by MerckXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be on steroids other than for physiologic replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has adequate serum chemistry levels, evidenced by the following laboratory valuesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of any of the following will exclude a patient from enrollment:Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose of abiraterone acetate is takenXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or other medical condition that would make prednisone/prednisolone (corticosteroid) use contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a pre-existing condition that warrants long-term corticosteroid use in excess of study doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an accessible metastatic lesion for pretreatment core biopsy procurement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of anal or small bowel carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll malignant disease must be able to be encompassed within a single irradiation fieldXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have radiographically assessable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal bilirubin less than or equal to 2.0 mg/dL in the absence of biliary obstruction; if the patient has biliary obstruction, biliary decompression will be required; either endoscopic placement of biliary stent (7 French or greater) or percutaneous transhepatic drainage are acceptable; once biliary drainage has been established, institution of gemcitabine therapy may proceed when the total bilirubin falls to =< 4.0 mg/dL; patients with biliary or gastroduodenal obstruction must have drainage or surgical bypass prior to starting chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have CA125 level >= 10 to participate in the immunotherapy aspect of the trial and receive oregovomab; if the patient has CA125 >= 10 who is not eligible to receive oregovomab (e.g. allergic to the drug) but is eligible for the rest of treatment, this patient should be accrued to the part of protocol without oregovomabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot undergo staging laparoscopy; for example, this may include patients with a prior history of multiple abdominal operations in which laparoscopy may not be technically feasible or potentially harmful; the patient is eligible if they have a common bile duct stent adjacent to the tumor that may be used as an internal marker, or if the patient has already had a staging laparoscopy without marker implantation and the markers can be implanted (by interventional radiology) prior to the beginning of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving the following drugs that are contraindicated with nelfinavir (NFV) (VIRACEPT) will be excluded if they cannot be change or discontinued; drugs that should not be coadministered with Viracept:\r\n* Antiarrhythmics: amiodarone, quinidine\r\n* Antimycobacterial: rifampin\r\n* Ergot derivatives: dihydroergotamine, ergonovine, ergotamine, methylergonovine\r\n* Herbal products: St. John's wort (hypericum perforatum)\r\n* 3-hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl (HMG)-acetyl coenzyme A (CoA) reductase inhibitors: lovastatin, simvastatin\r\n* Neuroleptic: pimozide\r\n* Sedative/hypnotics: midazolam, triazolamXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving the following drugs will be clinically evaluated as to whether dosage/medication can be changed to permit patient on study: \r\n* Anti-convulsants: carbamazepine, phenobarbital\r\n* Anti-convulsant: phenytoin; phenytoin plasma/serum concentrations should be monitored; phenytoin dose may require adjustment to compensate for altered phenytoin concentration\r\n* Anti-mycobacterial: rifabutin; it is recommended that the dose of rifabutin be reduced to one-half the usual dose when administered with VIRACEPT; 1250 mg BID is the preferred dose of VIRACEPT when coadministered with rifabutin\r\n* Erectile dysfunction agent: sildenafil; sildenafil shall not exceed a maximum single dose of 25 mg in a 48 hour period\r\n* HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor: atorvastatin; use lowest possible dose of atorvastatin with careful monitoring, or consider other HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors such as pravastatin or fluvastatin in combination with VIRACEPT\r\n* Immunosuppressants: cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus\r\n* Narcotic analgesic: methadone; dosage of methadone may need to be increased when coadministered with VIRACEPT\r\n* Oral contraceptive: ethinyl estradiol; alternative or additional contraceptive measures should be used when oral contraceptives and VIRACEPT are coadministered\r\n* Macrolide antibiotic: azithromycin; dose adjustment of azithromycin is not recommended, but close monitoring for known side effects such as liver enzyme abnormalities and hearing impairment is warrantedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have NOT received any class of drugs targeted to the PI3K pathway (such has PI3K inhibitors or mechanistic target of rapamycin [mTOR] inhibitors) or RAS-ERK pathway for management of recurrent or persistent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXThat have a narrow therapeutic window and are predominantly metabolized through CYP3A4.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations/medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and capable of undergoing apheresis for collection of mononuclear cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine =< 1 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of tuberculosis or positive purified protein derivative (PPD) testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has up to 6 local pulmonary metastases targetable by cryoablation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe target index tumor(s) is determined (by CT images) to be in a location where cryoablation is technically achievable based on the proximity of adjacent organs/ structures and is greater than 0.5 cm from any critical organ/structure (possibly achieved with additional maneuvers such as iatrogenic pneumothorax or hydrodissection).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is unable to lie flat or has respiratory distress at rest.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is currently participating in other experimental studies that could affect the primary endpoint (e.g. experimental chemotherapy regimen).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage\r\n* Large protruding endobronchial lesions in the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, endobronchial lesions in the segmented bronchi are allowed\r\n* Lesions extensively infiltrating the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, minor infiltrations in the wall of the bronchi are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPart B2 Arm 1 only:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEarly first relapse (< 36 months from original diagnosis) after achieving a CR (B-ALL) or first relapse any time following the original diagnosis after achieving a CR (T-ALL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse after achieving a CR following the first or subsequent relapse (i.e., ? 2 relapses) ORXx_NEWLINE_xXFailing to achieve a CR from original diagnosis after at least 1 induction attemptXx_NEWLINE_xXLeft ventricular fractional shortening < 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of unresectable, recurrent, and/or metastatic high grade soft-tissue or bone sarcoma of one of the following subtypes: soft tissue sarcomas (leiomyosarcoma, poorly differentiated/de-differentiated liposarcoma, high grade pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma/MFH and synovial sarcoma), and bone sarcomas (Ewing sarcoma, osteosarcoma, and chondrosarcoma [de-differentiated or mesenchymal]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are curable by conventional multidisciplinary management.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHb level ?9 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is suitable for oral administration of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXdocumented surgically sterile or status post hysterectomy (at least 1 month prior to Screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEmergency leukapheresis;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has disseminated intravascular coagulation abnormality (DIC).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5HT1R or 5HT2BR receptors or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pathological Gleason (pG) sum 8-10; or pG sum 7 and either pT3 or R1 disease (i.e. positive margins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThroughout the study, patients must use a condom if having sex with a pregnant womanXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient was informed about the positive survival results of the RTOG 96-01 clinical trial, and has elected to forgo treatment with high-dose bicalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of other antiandrogens, estrogen-like agents, or 5a-reductase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking medications that may have adverse interactions with enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXBCC/SCC that was previously treated (i.e., recurrent BCC/SCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBCC/SCC in region adjacent to or overlapping with region of prior radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXBCC/SCC on irregular surface (i.e., target area not flat)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBCC/SCC adjacent to or overlapping with burn or scarXx_NEWLINE_xXBCC/SCC in area prone to trauma (including, but not limited to the skin overlying the tibia, dorsum of hands and elbow)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBCC/SCC in area with compromised lymphatic drainage or vascular supplyXx_NEWLINE_xXBCC/SCC within 3 cm of another treated or untreated BCC/SCCXx_NEWLINE_xXInflammatory process in target areaXx_NEWLINE_xXCollagen vascular disease (lupus, scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust consent to collection of whole blood samples for genomic analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be able to discontinue any drug treatment aimed at lowering disease burden in CNL or aCML; subjects should discontinue hydroxyurea to treat underlying CNL or aCML disease no later than day -7 (one week before starting ruxolitinib); for drugs that have more long-lasting effects on the marrow, such as thalidomide and its analogs, and interferon, subjects should discontinue these no later than day -28Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe (immediately life threatening) and recent (occurring within the last 3 months) cardiac dysfunction, pulmonary dysfunction, esophageal variceal bleeding, hemorrhagic strokes, or intracranial hemorrhage are not eligible for study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects requiring therapeutic doses of anticoagulation or anti-platelet therapies (aspirin above 81 mg daily, Plavix or similar agents) AND platelet counts are below 50,000 on two different laboratory evaluations, separated by minimum of two weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking investigational or commercial agents or therapies with the intent to treat the subject's malignancy other than those therapies permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious allergic reactions to janus kinase (JAK) inhibitors or excipientsXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving at least a 10-pack year history of cigarette smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an Alcohol Use & Dependence (AUDIT) score of < 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of suicide attempt or preparation for attempt within the past 10 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXColumbia Suicide Severity Rating Scale (C-SRSS) baseline/screening: patient response of “yes” to any question except question 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking bupropion (bupropion hydrochloride) for depressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has taken monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) in the past two weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXActive widespread skin disorders such as psoriasis, chronic urticarial or dermatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient taking varenicline or bupropion within one month of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently enrolled in other professional tobacco cessation therapeutic interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of malignancy with confirmed activating RAS mutation at any time. Prospective RAS testing is not required. However, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, then those results must be used in assessing eligibility.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of prohibited medication(s) or requirement for prohibited medications during study as per the study protocol. Use of anticoagulants such as warfarin is permitted; however, international normalization ratio (INR) must be monitored according to local institutional practice.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with two breasts, they must have had a bilateral mammogram prior to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a medical oncology consult with the recommendation of chemotherapy; recommended regimens are as follows: cyclophosphamide and doxorubicin (AC); Taxotere, doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide (TAC); Taxotere and cyclophosphamide (TC); or Taxotere, carboplatin and trastuzumab (TCH) prior to registration; the use of additional chemotherapy, hormonal therapy or trastuzumab after the initial regimen is at the discretion of the medical oncologist; other primary regimens are possible but the principal investigator (PI) must be notified prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have active local-regional disease prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXResting and walking oxygen (O2) saturation must remain above 90% at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXAll adenocarcinoma patients will be tested for ALK rearrangements and EGFR (exon 19 deletion and exon 21 L8585R substitution) mutations and must have been treated with prior EGFR or ALK therapy as well as a platinum containing doubletXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease amenable to biopsy at the time of enrollment as biopsies are required for study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with malabsorption in the small intestine or other conditions that would preclude administration of oral medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery within 4 weeks of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pulse oximetry of < 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on supplemental home oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is, at the time of signing informed consent, a regular user (including “recreational use”) of any illicit drugs or had a recent history (within the last year) of substance abuse (including alcohol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received trastuzumab as part of a regimen in the perioperative or metastatic setting with evidence of progression; 89Zr-trastuzumab use as imaging agent for 89Zr-trastuzumab PET permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with disease technically amenable to biopsy will be asked to undergo a biopsy; patient must agree to allow 2 biopsies of any malignant lesion that can be accessed by endoscopy or with the aid or radiology (i.e. CT guided)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving any concurrent anticancer therapy or investigational agents with the intention of treating esophagogastric cancer; 89Zr-trastuzumab uses as imaging agent for 89Zr-trastuzumab PET permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXRESTRICTED THERAPIES:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of potent permeability glycoprotein (P-gp) inhibitors (including cyclosporine, erythromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, quinidine, phenobarbital salt with quinidine, ritonavir, valspodar, verapamil) and potent P-gp inducers (including St John's wort, rifampicin) has to be avoided during treatment with afatinib; any exemptions to this have to be discussed with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA2 or IB1 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo lymphovascular space invasion (LVSI) present on biopsy or previous coneXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 10 mm of cervical stromal invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXCone margins and endocervical curettage (ECC) specimen negative for invasive cancer, cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) II, CIN III or adenocarcinoma-in-situ; (a negative margin is defined as no invasive cancer within 1.0 mm of both the endocervical and ectocervical margins and no adenocarcinoma in situ [AIS] or CIN II or CIN III at the inked or cauterized margin; one repeat cone and ECC permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClear cell, neuroendocrine, adenosquamous, serous carcinoma or other high-risk histologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors > 2 cm in diameter on physical exam or imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of LVSIXx_NEWLINE_xXCone margins or ECC specimen positive for invasive cancer, CIN II, CIN III or adenocarcinoma-in-situ (one repeat cone permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had a simple hysterectomy (cut through hysterectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 2 x 10^6 autologous CD34+ cells/kg cryopreserved. The graft may not be CD34+ selected or otherwise manipulated to remove tumor or other cells. The graft can be collected at the transplanting institution or by a referring centerXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any concomitant medication, including antivirals or anticoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression on daratumumabXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrathoracic disease should be encompassable in acceptable radiation fields per investigator clinical judgement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior lenvatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXLocally advanced, unresectable pancreatic cancer defined on post-induction chemotherapy computed tomography (CT) as having tumor involvement of > 180 degrees (> 50%) of the circumference of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) or celiac axis, unreconstructable superior mesenteric vein (SMV) or pemphigus vulgaris (PV) involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of at least 3 months of standard induction chemotherapy for locally advanced pancreatic carcinoma (LAPC), which may include fluorouracil/irinotecan/leucovorin calcium/oxaliplatin (FOLFIRINOX) or gemcitabine and nab-paclitaxel, within 6 weeks of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have borderline resectable disease using National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) definitionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in whom iodine contrast is contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with multiple, serious major neurologic deficits including encephalopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdditionally, patients who were previously MRD negative for >= 3 months after induction therapy with/without consolidative HDT/ASCT and have turned MRD positive (by flow cytometry) within the last 3 months and do not have any evidence of progressive disease are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) < 18 (and < 10 if on medication for benign prostatic hypertrophy such as tamsulosin) at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:\r\n* Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular\r\nmanifestations\r\n* Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)\r\n* Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, flucinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, aclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)\r\n* No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown fibrolamellar HCC, sarcomatoid HCC, or mixed cholangiocarcinoma and HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intestinal obstruction and/or clinical signs or symptoms of GI obstruction including sub-occlusive disease related to the underlying disease or requirement for routine parenteral hydrationXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient of an allogeneic HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with cGVHD per the 2014 cGVHD NIH Consensus Criteria(Jagasia, 2015; Appendix 8) within the past 2 years prior to screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe cGVHD (in accordance with 2014 cGVHD NIH Consensus Criteria [Jagasia, 2015; Appendix 9]) at screening with involvement of at least one of the following organs at the screening and baseline visits: skin, mouth, eyes, gastrointestinal (GI) tract, liver, lungs, and joint and fascia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 3 previous treatments for cGVHD, excluding topical agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKeyXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with T-cell depleting, B-cell depleting or IL-2 signaling targeted medication (eg, ATG, alemtuzumab, basiliximab, denileukin diftitox, IL-2, rituximab within 12wks prior to starting AMG 592.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with T regulatory cell expanding therapies (ie ECP, PUVA, UVB, adoptively transferred T regulatory cells) within 4 wks prior to starting dose of AMG 592.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDonor lymphocyte infusion within 12 wks prior to starting dose of AMG 592.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombotic microangiopathy, hemolytic-uremic syndrome or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHep B and Hep CXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1b subject is unable to avoid alcohol or tobacco consumption for the duration of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing a laparotomy procedure via a vertical midline incision for any indication with the gynecology service at Memorial Sloan Kettering (MSK)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic dysfunction as evidenced by elevated transaminasesXx_NEWLINE_xXLaparotomy incisions unable to be closed primarily due to tissue or fascial damageXx_NEWLINE_xXTransverse laparotomy incisionsXx_NEWLINE_xXLaparotomy incisions left open due to a case classification as “contaminated” or “dirty”Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one targetable lesion appropriate for palliative SBRT and one non-target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXContinuous oxygen useXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or unexplained fever > 38.5 degrees Celsius (C) (> 101.3 degrees Fahrenheit [F]) within 2 weeks prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been previously treated with fluoropyrimidine, irinotecan, and oxaliplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of thromboembolic or cerebrovascular events within 6 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas neuromuscular disorders associated with an elevated creatine kinaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of, or current, retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVOXx_NEWLINE_xXHas retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to selected immune cell-modulating antibody regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSLL (lymphadenopathy and/or splenomegaly and < 5×10^9 CD19+ CD5+ clonal B lymphocytes/L [< 5000/µL] in the peripheral blood at diagnosis with measurable disease that is biopsy-proven SLL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with CLL or SLL who are BTKi intolerant and have received < 6 months of BTKi therapy or are ineligible for BTKi must have failed at least 1 (high-risk) or 2 (standard-risk) other lines of non-BTKi therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXreceiving ibrutinib for at least 6 months with a response less than complete response/remission (CR) and have high-risk features as defined in inclusion criterion 5aXx_NEWLINE_xXhave BTK or PLCgamma2 mutations per local laboratory assessment, with or without progression on ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject either currently has central vascular access or is a candidate to receive central vascular access or peripheral vascular access for leukapheresis procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with Richter's transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of acute or extensive chronic graft versus host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any of the following medications or treatments within the noted time prior to leukapheresis:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlemtuzumab within 6 months prior to leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXCladribine within 3 months prior to leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXGVHD therapies such as calcineurin inhibitors, methotrexate or other chemotherapeutics, mycophenolate mofetil, rapamycin, or immunosuppressive antibodies (such as anti-tumor necrosis factor-? [TNF?], anti-interleukin-6 [IL-6], or anti-interleukin-6 receptor [IL 6R]) within 4 weeks prior to leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXCyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, bendamustine, chlorambucil, or melphalan within 2 weeks prior to leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of immunosuppressive medication at the time of study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with T3 or higher, and N3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with simultaneous primary cancers outside of the oropharynxXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT I: Patients must have MM that harbors an NF2 mutation believed to cause functional loss of the NF2 protein as determined by any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) lab certified next generation sequencing (NGS) platform or NF2 loss must be documented by CLIA certified immunohistochemistry (IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT II: Patients must not have >= grade 2 hearing deficitsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignancies within 12 months with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or deathXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been previously treated with bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are eligible, provided they did not progress during or within 6 months of completing BR treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIs the age of majority in country of residenceXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a diagnosis of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXtenosynovial giant cell tumor (TGCT), which is associated with severe morbidity or functional limitations and for whom surgery is not an option (prior pexidartinib is permitted for TGCT patients unless ineffective or not tolerated and there has been a washout period of at least 4 weeks)Xx_NEWLINE_xXintra-uterine device (nonhormonal or hormonal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXsexual abstinence (only if this is in line with the patient's current lifestyle)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs taking or has taken any medications or therapies outside of protocol-defined parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXsafety and well-being of the participant or offspringXx_NEWLINE_xXanalysis of resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any concomitant medication, including antivirals or anticoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has an active infection or unexplained fever > 38.5 degrees Celsius (C) (101.3 degrees Fahrenheit [F])Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or refractory solid tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of major blood vessel invasion/infiltration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXMedications with a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes are not permitted; although concomitant treatment with corrected QT (QTc) prolonging agents is not strictly prohibited, these agents should be avoided whenever possible and an alternative non-QTc prolonging drug should be substituted if possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMayo Clinic Arizona only: Willing to participate in associated biobanking study, 919-04; the patient must sign consent to enroll onto the mandatory companion biobanking study in order to participate in this treatment studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMayo Clinic Rochester and Florida only: Willing to participate in associated biobanking study, 521-93; the patient must sign consent to enroll onto the mandatory companion biobanking study in order to participate in this treatment studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious psychiatric illness, active alcoholism, or drug addiction that may hinder or confuse follow-up evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have CTC >= 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have known sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during the study (e.g., mammalian derived products, calcium, or vitamin D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have prior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis/osteomyelitis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have active dental or jaw condition which requires oral surgery, including tooth extractionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have non healed dental/oral surgery, including tooth extractionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients experiencing a visceral crisis including severe organ dysfunction as assessed by > grade (Gr) 2 symptomatic toxicities, laboratory studies, and/or rapid progression of disease originating from visceral metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo structurally unstable bone lesions suggesting impending fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic or mildly symptomatic from prostate cancer\r\n* A score of 0-1 on Brief Pain Inventory-Short Form (BPI-SF) Question #3 (worst pain in last 24 hours) will be considered asymptomatic, and a score of 2-3 will be considered mildly symptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic local or regional disease requiring medical interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of serious allergic reactions to pegfilgrastim or filgrastimXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known or likely systemic amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing graft-vs-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXFor expansion part:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical ileus or subileusXx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXThromboembolism within 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXRadium-223, strontium-89, or samarium-153 therapy within 4 weeks of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of medications that may alter pharmacokinetics of enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported race of either African American or CaucasianXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or other medical condition that would make prednisone/prednisolone (corticosteroid) use contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a Karnofsky performance status (KPS) >= 80% and be considered candidates for general anesthesia, hepatic resection and hepatic artery pump placementXx_NEWLINE_xXTechnically resectable, single tumors of any size, tumors with satellite nodules within 2 cm of the primary tumor that are resectable; limited and resectable multi- focal disease (less than 4 tumors technically resectable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtrahepatic metastases including nodal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of sclerosing cholangitisXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of Gilbert's diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have radiographic evidence of esophageal varices or history of variceal hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with occlusion of the main portal vein or of the right and left portal branchesXx_NEWLINE_xXPART B: Patients must be proven to meet marker criteria (FGFR1 SISH+ ISH+, FGFR1 SISH+ ISH negative [-ve], FGFR1 SISH-ve ISH+, FGFR1 SISH-ve ISH-ve [FGFR1 double negative cohort] or ret proto-oncogene [RET] FISH+) prior to enrollment into Part B (treatment); adenocarcinoma patients must be known to not possess either an EGFR mutation or an ALK rearrangement in their tumor (if positive for one, testing for both is not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART B: No previous or current exposure to other FGFR inhibitors in the FGFR-pathway selected cohorts, or RET inhibitors in the RET selected cohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXPART B: History of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study or history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPART B: Concomitant use of medications known to be associated with torsades-de-pointesXx_NEWLINE_xXKRAS mutation positive tumour sample as determined by the designated testing laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with oropharynx carcinoma with a smoking history of ? 10 pack-year or equivalent 10 year history of tobacco product use and no recent history (within last 5 years) of tobacco useXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of HPV+ squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx; HPV positivity will be defined as positive staining for p16 on immunohistochemistry (IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking history < 10 pack years or equivalent 10 year history of tobacco product useXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of connective tissue disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, or Sjogren’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access via central line (e.g., portacath)-double lumen due to CPI-613 administration requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have failed prior chemoradiation with temozolomide and any other therapies except BEV (group A), or must have failed primary chemoradiation and a BEV-incorporating treatment (group B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be greater than 12 weeks following completion of chemoradiation or any additional radiation to reduce the chance of pseudoprogressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior therapy that included interstitial brachytherapy or stereotactic radiosurgery must have confirmation of true progressive disease rather than radiation necrosis based upon either positron emission tomography (PET) or thallium scanning, MR spectroscopy or surgical/pathological documentation of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing use of enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic agents (EIAEDs), unless 2 week washout has elapsed form last dose of EIAEDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have surgically resectable disease, in the opinion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary sites other than oral cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior androgen deprivation with luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) is permitted provided that testosterone levels prior to study entry have recovered to normal limits per reference laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor or H2 antagonist; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPSA value that is undetectable can be enrolled if pathology from prostatectomy demonstrates one or more of the following: positive margin, extracapsular extension, or seminal vesicle invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of known Gilbert’s syndrome or homozygous presence of the uridine diphosphate (UDP)-glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1 (UGT1A1)*28 allele on pre-treatment testingXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitors, H2 antagonists, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXCD30 negative HLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who relapse within 1 year of initial treatment, excluding patients with favorable-risk status according to NCCN Guidelines (NCCN 2015). Favorable-risk cytogenetics: inv(16), t(16;16), t(8;21), t(15;17)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have documented IDH2 gene-mutated disease:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects in the dose escalation phase and Part 1 Expansion, IDH2 mutation may be based on local evaluation. (Centralized testing will be performed retrospectively.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have undergone hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) within 60 days of the first dose of AG-221, or subjects on immunosuppressive therapy post HSCT at the time of screening, or with clinically significant graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). (The use of a stable dose of oral steroids post GVHD and/or topical steroids for ongoing skin GVHD is permitted with Medical Monitor approval.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the following sensitive cytochrome P450 (CYP) substrate medications that have a narrow therapeutic range are excluded from the study unless they can be transferred to other medications within ?5 half-lives prior to dosing: paclitaxel (CYP2C8) warfarin, phenytoin (CYP2C9), S-mephenytoin (CYP2C19), thioridazine (CYP2D6), theophylline and tizanidine (CYP1A2).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the P-glycoprotein (P-gp) and breast cancer resistant protein (BCRP) transporter-sensitive substrates digoxin and rosuvastatin should be excluded from the study unless they can be transferred to other medications within ?5 half-lives prior to dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with an active severe infection that required anti-infective therapy or with an unexplained fever >38.5°C during screening visits or on their first day of study drug administration (at the discretion of the Investigator, subjects with tumor fever may be enrolled).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with immediately life-threatening, severe complications of leukemia such as uncontrolled bleeding, pneumonia with hypoxia or shock, and/or disseminated intravascular coagulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in Human Research Protection Office (HRPO) # 201011766 (“Tissue Acquisition for Analysis of Genetic Progression Factors in Hematologic Malignancies”)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate IV accessXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected non-compliance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal functioning of daily living activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUveal and mucosal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or history of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CKXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to provide tissue as required per protocol for central BRAF^V600X mutation testing\r\n* NOTE: patients with prior BRAF^600X testing that demonstrate a mutation at V600X will be allowed to enroll prior to central testing if the assay was performed at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory assay; this includes THxID, BRAF Detection Kit, Cobas 4800 BRAF600 mutation test and other CLIA-certified assays available at participating institutionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unknown BRAF^600X status: histologically confirmed melanoma, papillary thyroid, cholangiocarcinoma or testicular cancer that is metastatic or unresectable and for which the investigator feels a BRAF^600X targeted agent is a reasonable treatment\r\n* NOTE: patient must be screened by central BRAF testing and must demonstrate a V600 mutation prior to start of study agent\r\n* Note: other tumor types without known BRAF^600X mutations will not be eligible for central testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known BRAF^V600X mutation: patients must have BRAF^V600X mutated, histologically confirmed cancer that is metastatic or unresectable and for which curative or standard therapies do not exist or are no longer effective\r\n* NOTE: colorectal cancers with BRAF mutations ARE NOT allowed\r\n* NOTE: any mutation at the V600 position that results in a change from V (valine) is allowed; this includes E, D, K, R or other mutations not noted here at the V600 positionXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for and planning to receive maintenance temozolomide after completion of definitive radiotherapy plus temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to remain abstinent from consuming alcohol while on disulfiramXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to disulfiramXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with clinically significant cytochromes P450 enzyme inducers, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, chlordiazepoxide, diazepam, isoniazid, metronidazole, warfarin, amitriptyline within 14 days prior to the first dose of disulfiram; of note, lorazepam and oxazepam are not affected by the P450 system and are not contraindicated with disulfiramXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have BRAF^V600 mutant metastatic cancer irrespective of the histology or prior therapy; BRAF^V600 mutant status must be documented by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory; use of an Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test is preferred although other BRAF tests at a CLIA-certified laboratory may also be acceptedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to submit blood for pharmacokinetics; sites must order S1221 pharmacokinetic (PK) kit immediately after registration; the Southwest Oncology Group (SWOG) patient identification (ID) number must be provided on the S1221 PK Kit request formXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) are not eligible:\r\n* History of RVO, or predisposing factors to RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO such as:\r\n** Evidence of new optic disc cupping\r\n** Evidence of new visual field defects\r\n** Intraocular pressure > 21 mmHg\r\n** NOTE: Ophthalmic exam is required for all patients; exam must be obtained within 28 days prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received yttrium-90 microspheres are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to angiography and selective visceral arterial catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of symptomatic pulmonary compromise, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior intervention for, or ongoing compromise of, the ampulla of Vater or biliary-enteric anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical laboratory values as specified in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking proton pump inhibitors within 7 days of the first dose or who require treatment with proton pump inhibitors during the trial or those who are taking H2 receptor antagonists within 24 hours of the first doseXx_NEWLINE_xXCarcinoma of the oropharynx associated with HPV as determined by p16 protein expression using immunohistochemistry (IHC) performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) approved laboratory; using p16 antibody obtained from Roche mtm laboratories AG (CINtec, clone E6H4) is recommendedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have evidence of extensive or “matted/fixed” pathologic adenopathy on preoperative imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION/RANDOMIZATION TO STEP 2 - ARMS A, B, C AND DXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be on other systemic chemotherapies if progressive CNS disease occurs while on these treatments; NOTE: new systemic chemotherapies should not be started unless required to treat systemic disease and should not start until at least 1 follow up imaging study has been performedXx_NEWLINE_xXDue to risk of disease exacerbation patients with porphyria are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously documented macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior exposure to BRAF or MEK inhibitors are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLow, intermediate-1, intermediate-2 or High-risk category by IPSSXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any prior exposure to a thrombopoietin-receptor agonistXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or breast-feeding because there are no adequate and well-controlled studies of eltrombopag use in pregnancy and it is unknown whether eltrombopag is excreted in human milk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measured disease, defined as at least 1 cm x 1 cm of contrast enhancing diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted medical device such as a pacemaker, defibrillator, deep brain stimulator, or vagus nerve stimulator, or documented significant arrhythmia at the discretion of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXInfratentorial meningioma (patients may have infratentorial meningioma if there is concurrent growing supratentorial meningioma that serves as the target lesion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXVentricular shunt/catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a foreign body intracranially such as a bullet fragmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be HLA-A201 as determined by a CLIA certified (or equivalent) clinical laboratory. (This determination will be made under a pre-enrollment screening ICF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have confirmed expression of NY-ESO-1 and/or LAGE-1 by RT-PCR, immunohistochemistry or quantigene analysis. (This determination will be made under a pre-enrollment screening ICF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence or history of other significant cardiac, hepatic, renal, ophthalmologic, psychiatric, or gastrointestinal disease which would likely increase the risks of participating in the study. The specific type of stress test will be selected at the PI's discretion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive, uncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been surgically or medically castrated; if the patient is being treated with medical castration, he must be willing to continue this treatment for the duration of the study; ADT should not be initiated, terminated, or dose-adjusted during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have been diagnosed with indolent NHL that has progressed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have rituximab-refractory disease, defined as lack of CR or PR or PD within 6 months of last dose.Xx_NEWLINE_xXVS or meningioma surgery determined clinically necessary by the treating physician; similar cerebellopontine (CP) angle schwannomas, such as facial nerve schwannomas and “collision tumors”, i.e. tumors arising from multiple cranial nerves, are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAny neurologic deficits must be stable for >= 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with VS or meningiomas deemed very high surgical risk for stroke and/or other complications by the attending surgeon, such as meningiomas with major vascular or dural sinus infiltrationXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic deficits that are rapidly progressing: all neurologic signs and symptoms must have been stable for a week prior to first doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are pregnant or breast-feeding; the anti-proliferative activity of this experimental drug may be harmful to the developing fetus or nursing infantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients cannot receive cytochrome P450 3A (CYP3A4) inhibiting drugs including antibiotics (clarithromycin, erythromycin, troleandomycin), anti-HIV agents (delavirdine, nelfinavir, amprenavir, ritonavir, indinavir, saquinavir, lopinavir), antifungals (itraconazole, ketoconazole, fluconazole at doses > 200 mg/day, voriconazole), antidepressants (nefazodone, fluvoxamine), calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem) or amiodaroneXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be known to be RET positive (known KIF5B-RET translocation, or other confirmed RET translocations (e.g., CCDC6-RET)) or have an available tumor sample for local or central testing obtained prior to consent (Screen 1). Subjects whose samples need to be submitted for central laboratory testing must be current non-smokers and not known to have mutation in EGFR, KRAS, or ALK.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic or cytologic diagnosis of SCLC (Note: patients with mixed histology are not eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to the NIH for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised status due to:\r\n* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positivity\r\n* Active autoimmune diseases such as Addison's disease, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Sjogren syndrome, scleroderma, myasthenia gravis, Goodpasture syndrome or active Grave's disease; patients with a history of autoimmunity that has not required systemic immunosuppressive therapy or does not threaten vital organ function including central nervous system (CNS), heart, lungs, kidneys, skin, and gastrointestinal (GI) tract will be allowed\r\n* Other immunodeficiency diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medications used for urinary symptoms including 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride and dutasteride) and alternative medications known to alter PSA (e.g. phytoestrogens and saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior immunotherapy within the last 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of atopic dermatitis or active skin condition (acute, chronic, exfoliative) that disrupts the epidermisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious serious adverse reactions to smallpox vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczemoid skin disorders, or (d) immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIVXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal products that may decrease PSA levels (e.g. saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 that is predicted to be deleterious or suspected deleterious (known or predicted to be detrimental/lead to loss of function).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBRCA 1 and/or BRCA2 mutations that are considered to be non detrimental (e.g., \Variants of uncertain clinical significance\ or \Variant of unknown significance\ or \Variant, favor polymorphism\ or \benign polymorphism\ etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent body mass index (BMI) >= 25 kg/m^2 and weight =< 400 lbs, and willing to lose > 5% of their body weight; NOTE: participants should not have weight loss greater than 5% of body weight in the last 6 months; all weights for determination of eligibility may be determined by self-reported of weight if not documented in the medical records; exceptions that are felt to be due to surgical or other procedures (e.g., mastectomies or reconstruction) may be allowed with prior approval of the Protocol Chair/designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to change diet, physical activity and weightXx_NEWLINE_xXTo ensure compliance with the POWER-remote and PatientViewpoint programs, patients must meet the following:\r\n* Prior experience with web forms and feels able to use the POWER-remote web program and PatientViewpoint\r\n* Has or is able to download Internet Explorer 8+, Firefox 3.0+, Safari 4.0+, Chrome 4.0+, and Adobe Flash Player 10\r\n* Familiarity with and access to internet at least 4 days per week\r\n* Use of an email program or willing and able to establish one for this study\r\n* Able to read and write the English language without assistance\r\nNOTE: participants who are unable to receive email or to complete the PatientViewpoint questionnaires for any reason will not be allowed to continue on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious/uncontrolled medical condition, at the discretion of the protocol chair/designee, likely to hinder accurate measurement of weight, including any condition: for which weight loss is contraindicated, which would likely cause weight loss, or which would affect adipokine and inflammatory markers (e.g., other active malignancy, end stage renal disease [ESRD] on dialysis, cirrhosis, autoimmune disease, adrenal disease, and history of bariatric surgery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of the following medications are excluded:\r\n* Insulin or sulfonylureas within the past 3 months\r\n* Thyroid medication use unless on stable doses for at least the past 3 months\r\n* Medications that are approved for weight loss (e.g., lorcaserin, phentermine, orlistat) within the past 3 months\r\n* Medications that are likely to cause weight gain or prevent weight loss (e.g., selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors [SSRI's], serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors [SNRI's], corticosteroids, lithium, olanzapine, risperidone, clozapine, oral contraceptive pills, hormone replacement therapy) unless on stable doses for the past 3 months; \r\n* Medications that may affect adipokine or inflammatory markers (e.g., metformin, glitazones, steroids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug [NSAIDS], angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors, beta blockers and statins) unless on stable doses >= 3 months prior to registration (if discontinued, a washout of 2 weeks from prior use is required); NOTE: No medication should be discontinued without the medical direction and guidance of the prescribing providerXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to discontinue all herbal preparations/medications at least 7 days prior to the first dose of study drug and throughout the study; these include, but are not limited to, St. John's wort, Kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginsengXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of toxicity to the most recent AI (letrozole or exemestane) that warrants cessation of the AIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been treated with abiraterone will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of atopic dermatitis or active skin condition (acute, chronic, exfoliative) that disrupts the epidermisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious adverse reactions to smallpox vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczemoid skin disorders, or (d) immunocompromised individuals, such as those with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of herbal products that may decrease PSA levels (e.g. saw palmetto)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical oncologist agrees that four day window on curcumin alone is appropriate/safe prior to start of irinotecan for trial candidateXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is capable of understanding and complying with parameters as outlined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior allergies to curcumin or turmericXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are already known homozygous for the UDP glycosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1 (UGT1A1)*28 allele, and patients of Asian descent homozygous or heterozygous for the UGT1A1*6 allele will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on other experimental protocols for prevention of acute GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who weigh >= 70 kg must be discussed with the principal investigator prior to enrolling on the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have liver function test (LFTs) (including total bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase [AST] and alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) >= twice the upper limit of normal should be evaluated by a gastrointestinal (GI) physician unless there is a clear precipitating factor (such as an azole, methotrexate, Bactrim or another drug); if the GI physician considers that HCT on protocol 2660 is contraindicated for that patient the patient will be excluded from the protocol; patients with Gilbert’s syndrome and no other known liver function abnormality and patients with reversible drug-related transaminitis do not necessarily require GI consultation and may be included on the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Donors who fail eligibility requirements for donation of cells or tissue per section 21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1271 for donation of a HCT/product (P) will be excluded unless use of the cells complies with 21 CFR 1271.65(b)(iii) (urgent medical need) or with 21 CFR 1271.65(b)(i) (allogeneic use in a first-degree or second-degree relative)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are high risk for developing the following anthracycline, paclitaxel, trastuzumab or pertuzumab related toxicities including:\r\n* History of congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction or cardiomyopathy, uncontrolled hypertension despite adequate medications\r\n* Pre-existing peripheral neuropathy >= grade 3 \r\n* Prior anthracycline therapy\r\n* Known hypersensitivity to any of the study medications\r\n* Patients older than age 65 due to increased risk of cardiotoxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXRevised International Prognostic Index score of >=1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematology and biochemical laboratory values within protocol-defined parameters prior to random assignment and at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior anthracycline use >=150 mg/m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHodgkin's disease: High risk subjects with responsive disease after first relapse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMinimum Karnofsky ScaleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must weigh at least 20 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have a baseline Mini Mental Status Examination score >= 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 35 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be able to adequately read, write and speak to participate in the cognitive and quality of life assessments; however mild to moderate deficits in these functions due to tumor are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded if they are not planning to receive concurrent temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with gliomatosis will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Gliadel bis-chloroethylnitrosourea (BCNU) implanted wafers will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients weighing greater than 136 kilograms will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a normal baseline ophthalmologic examination or have only clinically-insignificant abnormalities; patients with significant visual/ocular abnormalities identified during the baseline eye exam may be eligible after discussion with the study principal investigator (PI) and it is thought that the abnormalities pose no increased risk with study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of ipsilateral DCIS are eligible if they were treated with wide-excision alone, without radiation therapy; patients with a history of contralateral DCIS are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not been tested within 3 months prior to starting adjuvant therapy must be tested for hepatitis B and hepatitis C serologies during study screening\r\n* Patients with positive hepatitis B or C serologies without known active disease must meet the eligibility requirements for ALT, AST, total bilirubin, international normalized ratio (INR), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and alkaline phosphatase on at least two consecutive occasions, separated by at least 1 week, within the 30 day screening periodXx_NEWLINE_xXExcessive alcohol intake (more than 3 alcoholic beverages per day) should be avoided (occasional use is permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLocally advanced tumors at diagnosis, including tumors fixed to the chest wall, peau d’orange, skin ulcerations/nodules, or clinical inflammatory changes (diffuse brawny cutaneous induration with an erysipeloid edge)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease must be technically amenable to transhepatic arterial chemoembolization (TACE), radiofrequency ablation (RFA), or cryoablation; each case will be discussed at gastrointestinal (GI) tumor board with interventional radiology; patients must have evaluable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDiverticulitis (either active or history of) within the past 2 years; note that diverticulosis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are excluded from re-induction if they have experienced any related dose-limiting toxicities, delayed dosing beyond 35 days due to tremelimumab-related adverse events (AEs), or have been taken off treatment due to toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be treated at the same dose of tremelimumab as they previously received; for patients on dose level 1 who had already satisfied criteria for escalation to 10 mg/kg they will be re-treated at 10mg/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed glioblastoma multiforme (GBM); rare GBM variants, secondary GBM, and suspected GBM are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for MLAXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 2 prior relapsesXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take concurrent aspirin 70mg to 325 mg daily (or enoxaparin if aspirin allergic)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelet count < 30 x 10^9/L, unless myeloma-related; if MM-related (hypercellular marrow biopsy of > 80% and packed with at least 80% plasma cells) the enrolling investigator must document thisXx_NEWLINE_xXDetectable HCV RNA with anti-HCV-positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with undetectable HCV RNAXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUDED THERAPIES AND MEDICATIONS, PREVIOUS AND CONCOMITANTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must demonstrate one of the following:\r\n* Relapse after first complete remission\r\n* Refractory to induction chemotherapy (for example, failure to respond to 1 or more cycles of daunorubicin and cytarabine) or to reinduction\r\n* Refractory to hypomethylating agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previously untreated AML are candidates if they are unable to receive anthracyclines, and have documented AML with >= 20% blasts within one week prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBicarbonate within the normal range of the hospital lab (24-32 mmol/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate > 60 beats per minute (bpm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed eligible to receive neoadjuvant chemotherapy with 12 cycles of weekly taxane therapy (paclitaxel 80 mg/m2 or abraxane 100 mg/m2 if there is a shortage of paclitaxel) followed by 4 cycles of adriamycin (60 mg/m2) and cyclophosphamide (600 mg/m2) given every 2 weeks with growth-factor supportXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to participate in research blood collection at 4 different time periods (20 ml = 4 teaspoons)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFirst degree atrioventricular (AV) block on ECG in which PR interval lengthened > 200 milliseconds; second degree; or third degreeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious or current history of a myeloproliferative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 that is predicted to be deleterious or suspected deleterious (known or predicted to be detrimental/lead to loss of function).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBRCA1 and/or BRCA2 mutations that are considered to be non detrimental (e.g. \Variants of uncertain clinical significance\ or \Variant of unknown significance\ or \Variant, favor polymorphism\ or \benign polymorphism\ etc).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients where more than one debulking surgery has been performed before randomisation to the study. (Patients who, at the time of diagnosis, are deemed to be unresectable and undergo only a biopsy or oophorectomy but then go on to receive chemotherapy and interval debulking surgery are eligible).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of symptomatic MMXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity, which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in the trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage; patients with lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels (contiguous tumor and vessels) are excluded; however, the presence of a tumor that is touching, but not infiltrating (abutting) the vessels is acceptable (computed tomography [CT] with contrast is strongly recommended to evaluate such lesions); patients with large protruding endobronchial lesions in the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, endobronchial lesions in the segmented bronchi are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of somatostatin analogs (SSTa) is allowed, provided that the patient is on a stable dose for at least two months and progressive disease on somatostatin analog has been documented; progression on octreotide is required for patients with tumors arising in the midgutXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic peripheral vascular disease are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (WNL); medications for thyroid dysfunction are allowed as long as TSH is normal at registration; in patients with abnormal TSH, if the free thyroxine (free T4) and free thyroxine index (FTI) are normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior loco-regional therapy including drug-eluting beads doxorubicin chemoembolization (prior non drug eluting beads chemoembolization with doxorubicin is excluded) is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to systemic intravenously given doxorubicinXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of biliary duct obstruction, unless obstruction is controlled by local treatment or, in whom the biliary tree can be decompressed by endoscopic or percutaneous stenting with subsequent reduction in bilirubin to below 1.5 x upper level of normal (ULN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea with moderate exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior illicit drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe clinical trial will be offered to all high risk (defined below) patients with hematologic malignancies who require stem cell transplants as part of their standard of care using matched related or unrelated donorsXx_NEWLINE_xXT-cell depletion with anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) (rabbit or horse) or at least 30 mg of alemtuzumab total in the conditioning regimen; acceptable conditioning regimens include but are not limited to fludarabine/melphalan/alemtuzumab; fludarabine/busulfan/alemtuzumab; fludarabine/melphalan/ATG; fludarabine/busulfan/ATGXx_NEWLINE_xXImmune suppression; planned post-transplant immune suppression should include tacrolimus or cyclosporin monotherapy (i.e., calcineurin inhibitor or CN) for alemtuzumab regimens and a second immune suppressant for ATG treated patients; other agents may be used if CN intolerance or toxicity occurs post-transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of grade II or higher acute GVHD or chronic GVHD at initiation of first DLIXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman immune deficiency virusXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing carotid artery diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to heparin as per NCCN guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Subjects eligible for enrollment in the study must meet all the following criteria:\n\n          1. Male or female ?18 years of age\n\n          2. Able to provide written informed consent prior to any study procedures being\n             performed; eligible subjects must be able to understand the informed consent form\n             prior to inclusion into the study.\n\n          3. Confirmed diagnosis of newly diagnosed, persistent or recurrent CD if subjects are not\n             candidates for surgery or radiotherapy CD is defined according to the criteria in the\n             Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline for diagnosis of CD (Nieman 2008).\n             Previous medical records will be collected and used to support the diagnosis of CD.\n\n             Specifically, CD is defined as\n\n               -  Mean 24-hour UFC level of ?1.5X ULN on repeated determination\n\n               -  Morning plasma corticotropin (ACTH) level of 5 ng/L (1.1 nmol /L) or more\n\n               -  Either MRI confirmation of pituitary macroadenoma, or inferior petrosal sinus\n                  gradient >3 after corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulation for those\n                  patients with a microadenoma, or for subjects who have had prior pituitary\n                  surgery, histopathology confirming and ACTH-staining adenoma. If inferior\n                  petrosal sampling had been performed without CRH, then a central to peripheral\n                  pre-stimulation gradient >2 is required\n\n          4. Confirmed diagnosis of newly diagnosed, persistent or recurrent endogenous CS of other\n             etiology if subjects are not candidates for surgery or radiotherapy. CS will be\n             defined according to the criteria in the Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guideline\n             for diagnosis of CS (Nieman 2008). Previous medical records will be collected and used\n             to support the diagnosis, and the differentiation of the cause of CS, specifically\n\n               -  Mean 24-hour UFC level of ?1.5X ULN on repeated determination\n\n               -  Ectopic ACTH secretion, not of pituitary origin\n\n               -  Ectopic CRH secretion\n\n               -  Adrenal-dependent CS (adrenal adenoma, adrenal autonomy)\n\n               -  Etiology unknown\n\n          5. Subjects MUST have elevated mean 24-hour UFC levels ?1.5X ULN of assay based on a\n             minimum of four measurements from adequately collected urine. Urine may be collected\n             on sequential days.\n\n          6. In addition to elevated mean UFC, presence of abnormal values from one of the\n             following tests:\n\n               -  Abnormal DST: Elevated 8 AM serum cortisol ?1.8 ug/dL (50 nmol/L) after 1 mg\n                  dexamethasone orally at 11 PM the evening prior (if not conducted already in the\n                  diagnostic workup of the subject within the previous 2 months before start of\n                  Screening Phase; in that case previous test results and details of conduct will\n                  need to be available by the Baseline visit)\n\n               -  Elevated late night salivary cortisol concentrations (at least two measurements)\n                  >ULN NOTE: For subjects with estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR as\n                  determined by Modified Diet in Renal Disease MDRD equation) >40 and <60\n                  mL/min/1.73 m2 in addition to meeting the UFC criteria, late night salivary\n                  cortisol test results (?2 measurements) MUST also demonstrate evidence of CS.\n\n          7. Previously irradiated subjects with CD or CS of other etiology will be allowed as long\n             as the radiation treatment occurred > 4 years ago and subjects have not exhibited\n             evidence for improvement in their underlying Cushing's disease for 6 months. The total\n             number of previously irradiated subjects enrolled in this study will not exceed 10.\n\n          8. Subjects with CD or CS of other etiology who are not candidates for surgery, refuse\n             surgery, or in whom surgery will be delayed for >6 months. Subjects may be allowed to\n             participate in the trial while awaiting surgery, but must agree to complete this study\n             prior to surgery. For subjects who have already undergone surgery, a minimum of 3\n             months should have elapsed before the subject can be deemed a surgical failure.\n\n          9. Subjects on treatment for CD or endogenous CS of other etiology for whom treatment has\n             been inadequate or not well tolerated must agree to the following minimum washout\n             periods prior to the Baseline Visit:\n\n               -  Inhibitors of steroidogenesis (including ketoconazole): 2 weeks\n\n               -  Dopamine agonists: bromocriptine (2 weeks), cabergoline (8 weeks)\n\n               -  Octreotide acetate LAR and lanreotide Autogel®: 12 weeks\n\n               -  Lanreotide SR/long-acting pasireotide: 8 weeks\n\n               -  Octreotide acetate (immediate release formulation) or short-acting pasireotide: 1\n                  week\n\n               -  Mifepristone (RU 486): 4 weeks\n\n         10. Subjects on megesterol acetate (medroxyprogesterone acetate) must agree to a washout\n             period of at least 6 weeks prior to the Baseline Visit\n\n         11. A female is eligible to enter and participate in the study if she is of:\n\n             Non-child bearing potential (i.e. physiologically incapable of becoming pregnant,\n             including any female who is post-menopausal or surgically sterile). Surgically sterile\n             females are defined as those with a documented hysterectomy and/or bilateral\n             oophorectomy or tubal ligation.\n\n             Post-menopausal females are defined as being amenorrhoeic for greater than 1 year with\n             an appropriate clinical profile, e.g. age > 45 years, in the absence of hormone\n             replacement therapy. However in questionable cases, a blood sample with FSH > 40MIU/ml\n             and estradiol < 40pg/ml (<140 pmol/L) is confirmatory.\n\n             OR Child bearing potential and agrees to use highly effective methods of birth control\n             while participating in the study and for 2 weeks after the study is completed.\n\n         12. Fertile men must also agree to use a medically acceptable form of birth control while\n             on study drug and up to 2 weeks after the study is completed.\n\n         13. Able to comprehend and comply with procedures.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria\n\n        Subjects will be excluded from the study if any of the following criteria are met:\n\n          1. Subjects with Pseudo-Cushing's syndrome based on assessment of the investigator.\n\n          2. Subjects with cyclic Cushing's syndrome based on assessment of the investigator\n\n          3. Subjects with a non-endogenous source of hypercortisolism such as exogenous source of\n             glucocorticoids or therapeutic use of ACTH.\n\n          4. Known inherited syndrome as the cause of hypercortisolism, including but not limited\n             to multiple endocrine neoplasia Type 1, McCune Albright Syndrome and Carney Complex\n\n          5. Subjects with adrenal carcinoma\n\n          6. History of malignancy, other than thyroid, early stage prostate, squamous cell and\n             basal cell carcinoma, within 3 years prior to the Screening Phase. Subjects with\n             history of such allowed carcinoma must have a life expectancy of >1 year and must be\n             on stable doses of their specific therapies. Subjects with early stage prostate cancer\n             undergoing no treatment due to low grade potential may be enrolled.\n\n          7. Clinical or radiological signs of compression of the optic chiasm.\n\n          8. Major surgery within 1 month prior to enrollment (ICF signing)\n\n          9. Subjects with clinically significant abnormality in 12-lead ECGs during the Screening\n             Phase needing medical intervention.\n\n         10. Subjects with QTc interval of >470 msec during the Screening Phase.\n\n         11. Subjects with a history of Torsades des Pointes, or ventricular tachycardia, or\n             ventricular fibrillation, or history of prolonged QT syndrome (including family\n             history), or use of medications resulting in QT/QTc prolongation, or hypokalemia <3.0\n             meq/L.\n\n         12. Preexisting hepatic disease; subjects with mild to moderate hepatic steatosis\n             consistent with fatty infiltration (non-alcoholic fatty liver disease [NAFLD] are\n             allowed).\n\n         13. Positive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HbsAg) or positive hepatitis C test.\n\n         14. History or symptoms of recurrent symptomatic cholelithiasis or pancreatitis.\n\n         15. Liver function tests (LFT) must not be above the following cut-offs during the\n             Screening Phase:\n\n               -  ALT and/or AST >3 X ULN\n\n               -  Total bilirubin >2 X ULN If all LFTs are within normal limits (WNL) and total\n                  bilirubin (TBN) is elevated, examination of direct and indirect bilirubin may be\n                  conducted. Subjects with isolated indirect TBN up to 3X ULN are presumed to have\n                  Gilbert's syndrome and may be enrolled if all other LFTs are within normal\n                  levels.\n\n         16. History of documented or suspected drug-induced liver injury requiring drug\n             discontinuation of ketoconazole or any azole antifungals.\n\n         17. Pregnant or lactating women\n\n         18. HIV-positive.\n\n         19. History of persistent uncontrolled hypertension (>180/120 mmHg) despite medical\n             intervention.\n\n         20. Subjects with hypercholesterolemia who are currently treated with atorvastatin,\n             lovastatin or simvastatin and not willing or unable to change to alternative therapies\n             with pravastatin, fluvastatin, and rosuvastatin within 2 weeks of start of the\n             Screening Phase.\n\n         21. Body habitus preventing repeated venipuncture as required by protocol.\n\n         22. Subject is currently in another study or has received any investigational treatment\n             (drug, biological agent or device) within 30 days or 5 half-lives of treatment,\n             whichever is longer.\n\n         23. Repeated hospitalization for hyperglycemia or any complication of hyperglycemia and\n             diabetes during the last 12 months\n\n         24. Subjects with decreased renal function as defined by eGFR <40 mL/min/1.73 m2, using\n             MDRD equation for estimating renal function (eGFR).\n\n         25. Any other clinically significant medical condition, as determined by the Investigator\n             that precludes enrollment and participation in the study through completion, including\n             conditions that would preclude the subject from being able to follow instructions or\n             to perform the necessary procedures (for example, psychiatric instability or severe\n             disability).\n\n         26. Abnormal free T4. Subjects with TSH <LLN and normal free T4 are permitted to\n             participate in the study.\n\n         27. Subjects who have a history of alcohol or drug abuse in the 6 month period prior to\n             enrollment.\n\n         28. Subjects who have been treated with mitotane within 6 months of the Screening Phase.\n\n         29. Subjects who are currently taking any H2 receptor antagonists, proton-pump inhibitors,\n             or sucralfate (all of which inhibit absorption of COR-003). A list of orally\n             acceptable antacids (for example, Mylanta and Maalox) will be provided, and can only\n             be taken a minimum of 2 hours after dosing of COR-003.\n\n         30. Subjects who receive any prohibited concomitant medication:\n\n               -  Weight loss medications (prescription or over the counter)\n\n               -  Acetaminophen >3 g total daily dose (due to increased hepatotoxicity)\n\n               -  Co-administration of strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4 enzyme system that\n                  may interfere with the metabolism of COR-003 and cannot be discontinued prior to\n                  first dose\n\n               -  The following herbal medicines are prohibited: St John's Wort, echinacea, gingko,\n                  goldenseal, yohimbe, red rice yeast, danshen, silybum marianum, Asian ginseng,\n                  schissandra sphenanther, shankhapushi, and Asian herb mixture (Xiao chai hu tang\n                  and Salboku-to).\n\n               -  Topical or inhaled steroids\n\n               -  Carbamazipine, fenofibrate, carbenoxolone.\n\n               -  Ingestion of genuine licorice.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received eribulin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBorderline resectable- Tumors considered borderline resectable are defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGastroduodenal artery encasement up to the hepatic artery with either short segment encasement or direct abutment of the hepatic artery without extension to the celiac axis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors considered to be unresectable due to local advancement include an absence of distant metastases as well as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHead: Greater than 180 degrees SMA encasement or any celiac abutment or unreconstructible SMV/portal occlusion or aortic invasion or encasement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody: Greater than 180 degrees SMA or celiac encasement or unreconstructible SMV/portal occlusion or aortic invasion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTail: SMA or celiac encasement greater than 180 degrees.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ? 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic: serum total bilirubin ? 1.5 mg/dL, ALT (SGPT) and AST (SGOT) ?3 x upper limit of normal (ULN) at time of enrollment. If a patient has elevated liver function tests at the time of initial presentation or develops them during work-up and they are the result of a mechanical obstruction of biliary drainage by tumor compression or invasion, a biliary drain may be placed as described in NCCN Practice Guidelines in Oncology V2.2012. If drainage allows for the liver function tests to come within inclusion criteria, the patient may be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAutoimmune disease (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis (RA), etc.). Patients with a remote history of asthma or mild active asthma are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNasopharyngeal, salivary gland, lip or sinonasal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior serious infusion reaction to cetuximabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measurable disease per RECIST 1.1 criteria defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension, and that has not been the target of local or regional therapy including transarterial chemoembolization, intra-arterial chemotherapy, ethanol or radiofrequency ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXEndocrine or acinar pancreatic carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAge 15 and above and >40 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG=2 or betterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with progressive, locally recurrent, or metastatic osteosarcoma (i.e. high-risk only) with at least one indicator lesion avid on 99mTc-MDP scan will be eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis other than osteosarcoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior carfizolmib is not required but is allowed if a patient had at least 2 cycles of carfilzomib alone or in combination with a dose of at least 20/27 mg/m2, as long as the patient :Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for radical prostatectomy surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage\r\n* Note: lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels (contiguous tumor and vessels) are excluded; however, the presence of a tumor that is touching, but not infiltrating (abutting) the vessels is acceptable (computed tomography [CT] with contrast is strongly recommended to evaluate such lesions)\r\n** Large protruding endobronchial lesions in the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, endobronchial lesions in the segmented bronchi are allowed.\r\n** Lesions extensively infiltrating the main or lobar bronchi are excluded; however, minor infiltrations in the wall of the bronchi are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of any hypomethylating agent or cytarabineXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown to be wild-type for mutations in EGFR, KRAS, and ALKXx_NEWLINE_xXMust meet one of the following three criteria\r\n* < 100 cigarettes smoked lifetime\r\n* Known to harbor a RET rearrangement; importantly, at least 3 patients out of the first 18 and 6 patients overall must harbor RET rearrangements in their lung cancers (note that screening for RET rearrangements will not be done as part of this study and must be done separately, prior to screening)\r\n* Known to harbor another potentially targetable genomic alteration in RET, cKIT, PDGFRa, or PDGFRb; eligible genomic alterations include rearrangements, high level amplifications, insertions or deletions in the kinase domain, or point mutations that are known to be oncogenicXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s body mass index must be 30 kg/m^2 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not be taking any concomitant drugs that are contraindicated based on the drug-interaction tableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known deficiency of the dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) enzymeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically/cytologically verified, non-resectable, recurrent, or metastatic biliary tract carcinoma including intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, extrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma and gallbladder carcinoma; combined cholangiocarcinoma and hepatocellular carcinoma is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history or current known evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or ophthalmopathy at baseline that would be considered a risk factor for CSR or RVOXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with metastatic disease limited to bone are ineligible unless at least one lytic lesion with identifiable soft tissue components that can be evaluated by MRI or CT, that is measurable (>= 15 mm at baseline) and can be followed serially by RECIST v 1.1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary lymphangitic involvement that results in pulmonary dysfunction requiring the use of oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ allograft requiring immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a hypersensitivity to halichondrin B or halichondrin B chemical derivativeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to return for follow-up visits as required by this study; patients with a history of second malignant tumor, other than the common skin cancers - basal and squamous carcinomas, within the past 3 years and uncertainty about the histological nature of the metastatic lesions; cases with other types of malignancies should be reviewed and decided by the principal investigator (PI) of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects with metastatic RCC who have had no prior systemic treatment for RCC and are considered a poor risk according to Motzer criteria, defined by having >= 3 of the following 5 risk factors for short survival: Karnofsky performance score < 80%, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 1.5 X of ULN, hemoglobin < lower limit of normal (LLN), corrected serum calcium > 10 mg/dL (2.5mM), a time from initial diagnosis of RCC to initiation of systemic therapy of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-clear cell or predominantly (> 50%) sarcomatoid histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have documented disease progression, and date of last documented disease progression must be within 12 months from date of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must NOT have absorption issues that would limit the ability to absorb study agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic peripheral vascular disease are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory requirements:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not have received any chemotherapeutic agents for the AML (except hydroxyurea); intrathecal cytarabine (ARA-C) and intrathecal methotrexate are permissibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the following are not eligible: \r\n* Carbamazepine (e.g., Tegretol) \r\n* Rifabutin (e.g., Mycobutin) or \r\n* Rifampin (e.g., Rifadin) \r\n* Rifapentine (e.g., Priftin) \r\n* St. John's wort \r\n* Clarithromycin (e.g., Biaxin) \r\n* Cyclosporine (e.g. Neoral or Sandimmune) \r\n* Diltiazem (e.g., Cardizem) \r\n* Erythromycin (e.g., Akne-Mycin, Ery-Tab) \r\n* Itraconazole (e.g., Sporanox) \r\n* Ketoconazole (e.g., Nizoral) \r\n* Telithromycin (e.g., Ketek) \r\n* Verapamil (e.g., Calan SR, Isoptin, Verelan) \r\n* Voriconazole (e.g., VFEND) \r\n* Tacrolimus (e.g. Prograf)\r\n* Subjects taking fluconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole, and ketoconazole within 72 hours of study entry are not eligible; reinstitution of fluconazole, voriconazole, itraconazole, posaconazole, ketoconazole and diltiazem is permissible 72 hours after the last dose of sirolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with bacteremia must have documented negative blood cultures prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with locally advanced, unresectable disease will be included; locally advanced unresectable disease is defined by the National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) as:\r\n* Tumors of the head that have greater than 180 degrees of superior mesenteric artery (SMA) encasement or any celiac abutment, unreconstructable superior mesenteric vein (SMV) or portal occlusion, or aortic invasion or encasement\r\n* Tumors of the body with SMA or celiac encasement of greater than 180 degrees, unreconstructable SMV or portal occlusion, or aortic invasion\r\n* Tumors of the tail with SMA or celiac encasement of greater than 180 degrees\r\n* Irrespective of location, all tumors with evidence of nodal metastasis outside of the resection field are deemed unresectableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients cannot be already treated on angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACE) or angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) therapy for hypertension or renal protection (with diabetes) at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should not be on cimetidine; another histamine-2 (H2)-blocker or proton pump inhibitor may be substituted before study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to research blood sampling to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to stop taking herbal supplements while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXInitiation of strong antioxidant supplements during treatment, or ongoing use of supplements containing concentrated plant-derived polyphenols (pine bark, grape seed, green tea, milk thistle extracts; resveratrol; ellagic acid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of allergies to grapes or grape seedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent treatment with lenalidomide, thalidomide, imiquimod, interferon, cytokines (filgrastim [G-CSF], sargramostim [GM-CSF], interleukin 1 receptor alpha [IL-1Ra]), tumor necrosis factor alpha [TNFa] antagonists, or lithiumXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of sarcoidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any non-protocol vitamin D supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hypersensitivity to doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel, Cremophor or medications containing Cremophor (miconazole, docetaxel, Sandimmune, nelfinavir mesylate, propofol, diazepam injection, vitamin K injection, ixabepilone, Aci-Jel) or carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXT0 tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to swallow BKM120 capsules; (in the future a different formulation of BKM120 may become available and may be approved by Novartis for other routes of administration, which would then supersede this exclusion criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any history of hyperglycemia (elevated blood glucose level on blood chemistries) should be considered for initiation of Metformin treatment (500mg, PO, twice daily) prior to starting BKM120Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable and interested to proceed to ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXThe ability to take aspirin or other appropriate venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in whom the required program of PO and IV fluid hydration is contraindicated, eg, due to pre-existing pulmonary, cardiac, or renal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known or suspected amyloidosis of any organXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients (with the exception of 1st line expansion cohort) must fulfil one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation that the tumour harbours an EGFR mutation known to be associated with EGFR TKI sensitivity (including G719X, exon 19 deletion, L858R, L861Q) ORXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have experienced clinical benefit from EGFR TKI, according to the Jackman criteria (Jackman et al 2010) followed by systemic objective progression (RECIST or WHO) while on continuous treatment with EGFR TKI.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor dose expansion and extension cohorts, patients must also have confirmation of tumour T790M mutation status (confirmed positive or negative) from a biopsy sample taken after disease progression on the most recent treatment regimen (irrespective of whether this is EGFR TKI or chemotherapy). Prior to entry a result from the central analysis of the patient's T790M mutation status must be obtained.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAZD9291 in the present study (ie, dosing with AZD9291 previously initiated in this study).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have uterine sarcomas, carcinosarcomas, any serous histology or pure clear cell carcinomasXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute or chronic metabolic acidosis, lactic acidosis, or ketoacidosis; Note: during the study, metformin must be discontinued for 24 hours before and 48 hours after imaging involving intravenous (IV) contrast to minimize risk of lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have hypoglycemia with a value of =< 50 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of CYP17 inhibitors (e.g., abiraterone acetate, TAK-700) and second-generation anti-androgen (e.g., MDV3100)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because indoximod is an immunoregulatory agent with the potential for abortifacient effects due to fetal rejection by the maternal immune system. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with indoximod, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with indoximod. Also, docetaxel and paclitaxel are category D cytotoxic agents and are not administered to pregnant females.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received any prior experimental active immunotherapy consisting of targeted monoclonal antibodies (ipilimumab) or pharmaceutical compounds are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all screening assessments as outlined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received herbal medications =< 2 weeks prior to study entry; herbal medications include, but are not limited to: St. John’s wort, Kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginsengXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any of the drugs (prohibited concomitant medications)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must receive RT at the participating institution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of recurrent GBM or metastases detected outside of the cranial vault.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to temozolomide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRising PSA after prior definitive local therapy (radical prostatectomy, external beam radiation, or brachytherapy) or combination of radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy with curative intentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXCancers with positive BRAF V600 mutation detected by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXExpansion cohort: a final expansion cohort for this study in a subset of interest utilizing the recommended dosing of combination; this cohort will include patients harboring characteristics that may predict response of combination or with clinical features that proved to derive most benefit of the study combination during preclinical studies; cancers with positive BRAF (V600) mutation detected by a CLIA-certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known K-RAS mutant (codon 12 or 13) detected by a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test in a CLIA-certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with BRAF WT cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose of abiraterone acetate is takenXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or other medical condition that would make prednisone/prednisolone (corticosteroid) use contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a pre-existing condition that warrants long-term corticosteroid use in excess of study doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AND PK EXPANSION COHORT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecovery from any major or minor surgeriesXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I and II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/mcLXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE IXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE IIXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic arterial peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I and IIXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance of vitamin B12, folic acid or dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG score of 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part 2 of the Study only, patients must have measurable disease by RECIST 1.1 and be in one of the the groups below. Patients in groups 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 may not have been previously treated with BRAF and/or MEK inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 3: Patients with BRAF mutated melanoma who have progressed on, or are refractory to BRAF and/or MEK inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 4: Patients with NRAS mutated melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion or central serous retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant malignancies or previous malignancies with less than 2 years disease-free interval at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of the malignancy at original diagnosis; patients must have histologic verification of recurrent Hodgkin disease at the time of relapse; no additional biopsy is required for patients with primary refractory disease (i.e. no prior CR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance due to pulmonary insufficiency, and a pulse oximetry > 92% while breathing room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known hypersensitivity to Escherichia coli (E.coli)-derived proteins, filgrastim, or any component of filgrastim are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Uncontrolled hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hyponatremia, or hypokalemia defined as less than the lower limit of normal for the institution despite adequate electrolyte supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed, CD30-positive mature T-cell lymphomasXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent diagnosis of primary cutaneous CD30-positive T-cell lymphoproliferative disorders and lymphomas or mycosis fungoidesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received at least 2 regimens containing 5-Fluorouracil,oxaliplatin, or irinotecan.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients to be enrolled in the Cetuximab or Panitumumab combination arms must have colorectal cancer which is K-Ras wild-type.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled ascites defined as not easily controlled by stable doses of diureticsXx_NEWLINE_xXExcluded therapies and medications, previous and concomitant:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of sorafenib, oxaliplatin, or fluorouracil (5FU)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ?4 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or nursing women due to the unknown effects of immunization on the developing fetus or newborn infant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAutoimmune disease (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis (RA), etc.). Patients with a remote history of asthma or mild active asthma are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having undergone splenectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmation of HCC (hepatocellular carcinoma) or non-invasive diagnosis of HCC as per American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases criteria in patients with a confirmed diagnosis of cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXBarcelona Clinic Liver Cancer stage Category B or C that cannot benefit from treatments of established efficacy with higher priority such as resection, local ablation, chemoembolization or systemic sorafenib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable disease (tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as \nontarget\ lesions unless progression is documented incontrovertibly either radiographically or pathologically; for clinicians relying on biopsy documentation of recurrence, this must be obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to the following cumulative doses of anthracyclines: Doxorubicin > 240 mg/m2; Epirubicin or Liposomal Doxorubicin-Hydrochloride (Myocet®) > 480 mg/m2; For other anthracyclines, exposure equivalent to doxorubicin > 240 mg/m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiopulmonary dysfunction as defined by protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXColon wall involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of bowel fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophageal or gastric varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXBulky celiac adenopathy (i.e., >= 2.5 cm in diameter)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive or previously intolerant of moderate and/or deep sedationXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to EUS-guided needle puncture into the pancreasXx_NEWLINE_xXPorphyriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a confirmed diagnosis of neurofibromatosis 2 by fulfilling National Institute of Health (NIH) criteria or Manchester criteria, or by detection of a causative mutation in the NF2 gene\r\n* The NIH criteria includes presence of:\r\n** Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, OR\r\n** First-degree relative with NF2 and EITHER unilateral eighth nerve mass OR two of the following: neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, schwannoma, juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacity.\r\n* The Manchester criteria includes presence of:\r\n** Bilateral vestibular schwannomas, OR\r\n** First-degree relative with NF2 and EITHER unilateral eighth nerve mass OR two of the following: neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, schwannoma, juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacity, OR\r\n** Unilateral vestibular schwannoma AND any two of: neurofibroma, meningioma, glioma, schwannoma, juvenile posterior subcapsular lenticular opacity, OR\r\n** Multiple meningiomas (two or more) AND unilateral vestibular schwannoma OR any two of: schwannoma, glioma, neurofibroma, cataractXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have established relationship with primary care physician and provide contact informationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious therapy with GS-1101 (CAL-101), IPI-145 or any drug that specifically inhibits the PI3K or mTOR pathway;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal functioning of daily living activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUveal or mucosal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or risk factors of RVOXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CK.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking drugs leading to significant QTc prolongation unless able to be switched to non-QTc prolonging medication without risk of worsening underlying condition and meet all other inclusion criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals seropositive for hepatitis B or C are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSeizures or history of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or current evidence of clinically relevant ectopic mineralization/calcificationXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood transfusion within 5 days of the blood draw being used to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXTolerate one test dose (15 g) of ascorbateXx_NEWLINE_xXGlucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on the following drugs and cannot have a drug substitution: flecainide, methadone, amphetamines, quinidine, and chlorpropamide; high dose ascorbic acid may affect urine acidification and, as a result, may affect clearance rates of these drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive individuals; high-dose ascorbate acid is a known cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP450 3A4) inducer, which results in lower serum levels of antiretroviral drugs; a clinical trial designed to address these interaction issues is more appropriate than this phase 1 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEach SRS target must be the equivalent of =< 3 vertebral levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose of abiraterone acetate is takenXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing condition that warrants long-term corticosteroid use in excess of study doseXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to participate in the RevAssist programXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of angioedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXProspective confirmation of KRAS mutation negative status as determined via an AZ approved laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease confined to the intraperitoneal and retroperitoneal cavity; Note: nodal disease below the diaphragm, implants adherent to the surface of the liver or intrahepatic lesions will not be exclusionary; patients remain eligible if all intrahepatic tumor is debulked or ablated by the time treatment is initiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic disease outside the intraperitoneal cavity and retroperitoneum, intrahepatic lesions, or pleural effusions; significant ascites precluding catheter placement; exception: intrahepatic lesions removed or planning to be removed during the debulking procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXSuccessful test expansion of T-cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed disease after prior allogeneic SCT (myeloablative or nonmyeloablative) will be eligible if they meet all other inclusion criteria and:\r\n* Experienced graft rejection (no evidence of donor cells by short tandem repeat [STR] analysis on 2 occasions separated by at least 1 month)\r\n* Have no active graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) and require no immunosuppression\r\n* Are more than 6 months from transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindications for leukapheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be determined by an expert sarcoma surgeon to have resectable disease located on the upper extremity (including shoulder), lower extremity (including hip), trunk, retroperitoneum, or pelvisXx_NEWLINE_xXA known hypercoagulable disorder such as activated protein C (APC) resistance (factor V Leiden), protein S deficiency, protein C deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, hyperhomocystinemia, dysplasminogenemia, high plasminogen activator inhibitor, dysfibrinogenemia, antiphospholipid syndrome, thrombocythemia, or dysproteinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had a previous auto-SCT performed as part of a consolidation of an initial remission and had a remission, defined as a partial response or greater that lasted at least 12 months either on or off maintenance therapy without evidence of progression as defined by IMWG criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an adequate number of cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ stem cells collected to allow for transplantation (defined as >= 2 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg body weight); if not previously collected and stored or if previous collection was inadequate, the patients must be willing to undergo stem cell mobilization and collection as per standard practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be determined fit to undergo auto-SCT procedure by a study physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of CMLXx_NEWLINE_xXTreated with at least 1 year of imatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXT315I mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior imatinib failure or had accelerated phase or blast crisis CMLXx_NEWLINE_xXExpanded cohort only: Cohort 1: patients with predominant metastatic bone disease; Cohort 2: patients with primary squamous head and neck cancers; Cohort 3: patients presenting any molecular abnormality of interest, which can include an ALK translocation, ALK amplification, ALK mutation and overexpression as determined by fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH), immunohistochemistry (IHC), quantitative polymerase chain reaction (qPCR), quantitative reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (qRT-PCR), array Comparative Genomic Hybridization or direct sequencing (aCGH); a c-MET abnormality, either c-MET amplification by FISH, overexpression by IHC or c-MET mutation; BRAF, DDR2 and CDKN2A mutations; and, finally, TRIM 16 expression and CCN2 expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric problems of sufficient severity to limit full compliance with the study or expose patients to undue riskXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are new visits to Female Sexual Medicine Program or patients who are not consistently using any vulvovaginal health promotion strategies (e.g., pelvic floor exercises, dilator therapy, moisturizers) recommended by the Female Sexual Medicine ProgramXx_NEWLINE_xXReporting being bothered by vulvovaginal symptoms of estrogen deprivation (i.e., vulvovaginal dryness or discomfort [pain with intercourse or examination])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe renal impairment requiring dialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXpost-polycythemia vera/essential thrombocythemia myelofibrosis (Post-ET/PV MF) per the International Working Group for Myeloproliferative Neoplasms Research and Treatment (IWG-MRT) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk or Intermediate-2 risk MF (as defined by the Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System [DIPSS-plus])Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales of childbearing potential must agree to take appropriate precautions to avoid pregnancy (with at least 99% certainty) from screening through end of study; permitted methods for preventing pregnancy must be communicated to study subjects and their understanding confirmedXx_NEWLINE_xXMales must agree to take appropriate precautions to avoid fathering a child (with at least 99% certainty) from screening through follow-up; permitted methods for preventing pregnancy should be communicated to the subjects and their understanding confirmedXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than three relapsesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drug (bevacizumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking any herbal (alternative) medicines are NOT eligible for participation; patients must be off any such medications by the time of registration; NOTE: Vitamin supplements are acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously had a severe side effect, such as agranulocytosis and neutropenia, in conjunction with previous mebendazole or benzimidazole class drug for a parasitic infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking metronidazole and cannot be safely moved to a different antibiotic greater than 7 days prior to starting mebendazole therapy; metronidazole and mebendazole have been reported to be associated with Stevens-Johnson Syndrome/Toxic Epidermal NecrolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have taken any benzimidazole (ABZ, flubendazole, thiabendazole, fenbendazole, triclabendazole, etc.) within the last 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking any anti-convulsant medication that interferes with the cytochrome P450 pathway (e.g. phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe bradycardia (heart rate < 40 beats per minute [bpm], hypotension, light-headedness, syncope)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects previously treated with anti-CD4 antibody or alemtuzumab are eligible provided their CD4+ cell counts are ? 200/mm3Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with mycosis fungoides (MF) and a known history of non-complicated staphylococcus infection/colonization are eligible provided they continue to receive stable doses of prophylactic antibioticsXx_NEWLINE_xXLarge cell transformation. However, subjects with a history of LCT but without current aggressive disease and no current evidence of LCT on pathology in skin and lymph nodes would be eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpes simplex or herpes zoster. Subjects on prophylaxis for herpes who started taking medication at least 30 days prior to study entry, and have no active signs of active infection, and whose last active infection was more than 6 months ago, may enter the study, and should continue to take the prescribed medication for the duration of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExperienced allergic reactions to monoclonal antibodies or other therapeutic proteins.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is taking concurrent drugs that are contraindicated with nelfinavir, including any of the following:\r\n* Alfuzosin\r\n* Cisapride\r\n* Sildenafil (Revatio)\r\n* Amiodarone\r\n* Quinidine\r\n* Rifampin\r\n* Dihydroergotamine\r\n* Ergonovine\r\n* Ergotamine\r\n* Methylergonovine\r\n* Hypericum perforatum (St. John's wort)\r\n* Lovastatin\r\n* Simvastatin\r\n* Pimozide\r\n* Midazolam\r\n* Triazolam\r\n* Oral MidazolamXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has been treated with nelfinavir within 3 months of entry into this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXN-Terminal ProB-type natriuretic peptide (NTproBNP) < 8500 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of malignancy with confirmed activating RAS mutation at any time; Note: prospective RAS testing is not required; however, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently active GI disease, or prior surgery that may affect ability to absorb oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED): \r\n* Predisposing factors to RVO or RPED (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED such as:\r\n** Evidence of new optic disc cupping\r\n** Evidence of new visual field defects\r\n** Intraocular pressure > 21 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 ENROLLMENT AND RANDOMIZATION: completion of standard induction chemotherapy planned defined as: at least 4 cycles of platinum doublet chemotherapy for metastatic disease (with or without bevacizumab); if the patient is known to be EGFR mutation positive, erlotinib, afatinib, or gefitinib for >= 3 months, or for patients with known EML4-ALK fusions, crizotinib; note that it is not mandatory to check EGFR mutation or EML4-ALK status prior to entry, but patients that receive options 2 or 3 should have had these molecular tests performedXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEPS 1 AND 2 AND RANDOMIZATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of significant third space fluid which cannot be controlled by drainageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressive disease within the thirteen months prior to study enrollment; progressive disease is as defined in Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1, which is at least a 20% increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions and the sum must also demonstrate an absolute increase of at least 5 mm; the appearance of one or more new lesions is also considered progressive diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXVisible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or CSR such as: \r\n* Evidence of new optic disc cupping \r\n* Evidence of new visual field defects \r\n* Intraocular pressure > 21 mm Hg as measured by tonographyXx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigator considers patient ineligible for intensive remission induction therapy based on documented medical reasons (e.g. disease characteristics like AML genetics, type of AML (de novo or secondary), and patient characteristics like performance score, concomitant diagnoses, organ dysfunctions).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute promyelocytic leukaemia (French-American-British (FAB) classification subtype M3).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnknown BRAF statusXx_NEWLINE_xXOcular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine equal or less than 1.4 mg/dl based on University of Iowa Hospitals and Clinics (UIHC) values/testsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking nucleoside analog medications such as those used as antiretroviral agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have any known endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology for hepatitis C (HC) defined as a positive test for hepatitis C antibody (HCAb), in which case reflexively perform a HC recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) on the same sample to confirm the resultXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequately controlled hypertension or prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to Day 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed classical HCL with one of the following:\r\n* Intolerance to purine analogs or considered to be poor candidates for purine analog-based therapy\r\n* Failure to achieve any response (CR or PR) to the initial purine analog-based therapy\r\n* Relapse =< 2 years of purine analog-based therapy\r\n* >= 2 Relapses\r\n* Histological confirmation of diagnosis will be performed at Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) or a participating siteXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets (PLT) =< 100KXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement not to donate blood or blood products during the study and for at least 6 months after discontinuation of vemurafenib; for male partners, agreement not to donate sperm during the study and for at least 6 months after discontinuation of vemurafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with HCL variant (as defined by absence of expression of cluster of differentiation [CD]25 or absence of BRAF V600E mutation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstration of progression while on androgen blockadeXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of any chronic systemic glucocorticoids .Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal heart functionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of excessive alcohol consumptionXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any substance known to cause AMEXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of systemic AL amyloidosis (subjects with non-AL amyloidosis are not eligible);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary or familial amyloidosis;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitivities to other monoclonal antibodies;Xx_NEWLINE_xXKarnofsky score of 60% or better (requires occasional assistance, but is able to care for most of his/her needs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have histologically or cytologically confirmed squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx, unknown primary, or nasopharynx that is p16 positive as determined by immunohistochemistry (IHC); tissue from the primary site must be available for biomarker studies and for polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing; IHC must be performed in a lab verified by the central laboratory or the slides must be available for review by the central laboratory (Zhang, Mount Sinai School of Medicine [MSSM]) and PCR must be done in the central laboratory prior to randomization; HPV16 PCR must be performed and results available for randomization after inductionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active alcohol addiction (as assessed by medical caregiver and defined as at least 6 months without activity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have experienced an involuntary weight loss of more than 25% of their body weight in the 2 months preceding study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXActive smoking within the past 20 years with a cumulative pack year history of > 20 pack years or active smoking (defined as >= 1 cigarette per day) within the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have been treated with prior sipuleucel-TXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have undergone splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine within normal range for age (per institutional defined lab value ranges)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must demonstrate a respiratory rate that is within normal limits for age, measured when afebrile and at rest (measured for a full minute) and pulse oximetry >= 93% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with diagnosis of BCR-ABL positive CML CPXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has achieved MR4.5 (local laboratory assessment) during nilotinib treatment, and determined by a Novartis designated central PCR lab assessment at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior AP, BC or allo-transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has documented MR4.5 at the time when switched from imatinib to nilotinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known atypical transcriptXx_NEWLINE_xXCML treatment resistant mutation(s) (T315I, E255K/V, Y253H, F359C/V) detected if a testing was done in the past (there is no requirement to perform mutation testing at study entry if it was not done in the past)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose reductions due to neutropenia or thrombocytopenia in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch blockXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of unstable angina within 1 year prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year prior to study entry or past medical history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease location amenable to biopsy in outpatient clinical setting or operative biopsy within routine accepted schedule and practice of clinical careXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindication to biopsy of target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior daily use of tadalafil or other long-acting phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitors for one month or greaterXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of non-arterial ischemic optic retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior adverse reaction to diphtheria vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDe novo AML with karyotypic abnormalities characteristic of MDS: de novoAML must have cytogenetics with abnormalities per WHO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values fulfilling the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXExcept for CMMoL, patients with history of myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) (defined as a history of essential thrombocytosis or polycythemia vera, or idiopathic myelofibrosis prior to the diagnosis of AML) or combined MDS/MPN are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate-2 and higher by International Working Group for Myelofibrosis Research and Treatment (IWG-MRT) post polycythemia vera (PV)/essential thrombocythemia (ET) MF and primary myelofibrosis (PMF) patients either in\r\n* Chronic phase (MF-chronic phase [CP])\r\n* Accelerated phase (MF-accelerated phase [AP])Xx_NEWLINE_xXAge criteria:\r\n* High dose TBI regimen: 6 months to =< 45 years \r\n* Middle intensity TBI regimen: 6 months to =< 65 years\r\n* Conditioning regimen selection should be based on the underlying disease, presence of minimal residual disease (MRD), age, co-morbidities, attending physician, and site preference; conditioning regimen will not require stratification of the randomization due to heterogeneity in the cohort of eligible patients.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor pediatric patients unable to perform pulmonary function tests, oxygen (O2) saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXMay not be on supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXShortening fraction > 26%Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent (prior 6 month) invasive fungal infection without infectious disease (ID) consult and approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= 45 years: comorbidity score of 5 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use or participation in a clinical trial of an investigational agent that blocks androgen synthesis (e.g., abiraterone acetate, TAK-700, TAK-683, TAK-448), chemotherapy, or immunological agents (e.g., immune modulators, cytokines, vaccines, or antibody-delivered chemotherapy); the use of denosumab for bone metastasis is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe cGvHD diagnosed and staged per National Institutes of Health (NIH) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute graft-versus-host disease (GvHD), classic (=< day 100) or late-onset (> day 100)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNIH lung score 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have undergone transoral resection of their T1-4a oropharynx primary to a negative margin, and a neck dissection(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient's disease must show extracapsular spread (ECS) in their nodal metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with synchronous primaries are includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recent excisional node biopsies/neck dissections are included if material is evaluable for extracapsular spreadXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a true unknown primary in which permanent section results are negative for malignancy in completely excised ipsilateral oropharyngeal tissue (palatine and lingual tonsil)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have non-M3 AML or MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXAn adverse risk karyotype defined by:\r\n* Complex karyotype by cytogenetics, or\r\n* Deletion of all or part of chromosome 5, 7, 12, or 17 defined by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or cytogenetics, or\r\n* Somatic TP53 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have > 10% disease burden measured by cytomorphology, flow cytometry, or cytogeneticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have undergone =< 2 cycles of prior hypomethylating agent (decitabine or azacitidine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be enrolled in Human Research Protections Office (HRPO) # 201011766 (\Tissue Acquisition for Analysis of Genetic Progression Factors in Hematologic Diseases\)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a confirmed diagnosis of endometrial hyperplasia without atypia based upon endometrial biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXAre currently taking metformin or have taken metformin in the past 6 months or have a history of an allergic reaction or intolerance at any time to metforminXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a random glucose of =< 65 or >= 200Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a recent history of alcoholism; former alcoholics who have abstained from alcohol for 5 years or more may be enrolled in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of vitamin B12 deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXAre taking a drug that may significantly interact or influence the metabolism of metforminXx_NEWLINE_xXFLXx_NEWLINE_xXDLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXOther indolent NHL (eg, MZL/MALT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients' NHL must have progressed after at least 1 prior rituximab containing regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin ? 8.0 g/dL (may have been transfused)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimens or patients who are considered potentially unreliable not cooperativeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled on the randomized portion of the study must have had disease progression on abiraterone or enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindication to steroid useXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of severe aplastic anemia: eligibility to be discussed with principal investigator (PI) and service chief; such patients will be assessed in Arm BXx_NEWLINE_xXGraft:\r\n* Cryopreserved dose will be >= 1.5 x 10^7 total nucleated cells (TNC)/kilogram in each unit for double unit CB grafts; this will be the CB graft for the majority of patients\r\n* In select patients with access to CB units that have high TNC (> 5.0 x 10^7/kg), and are from good quality CB banks a single unit could be considered with a back-up CB unit on standby\r\n* In select patients who have a very poor search and only have one suitable CB unit available, this unit could be given as a single unit; this unit must have a TNC >= 2.0 x 10^7 TNC/kilogram and a cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cell dose >= 1.5 x 10^5 CD34+/kilogram\r\n* Haplo-identical donors who are 5/10 or better but not HLA-identical will be usedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radiation therapy with 400 cGy or more of TBI; if 200 cGy of prior TBI then only 400 cGy of TBI on this protocol is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have clear margins after wide local excision; patients with nodes that are palpable or detectable on radiologic imaging must have an adequate lymphadenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXA documented BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation by genotyping or immunohistochemistry (IHC) performed by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication while on dabrafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown mucosal or ocular melanoma or the presence of unresectable in-transit metastases.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo minimum platelet count is required by this trial, as this is a frequent manifestation of poor-risk chronic GVHD, and such patients may benefit from this protocol therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immune system abnormalities such as hyperimmunity (e.g., autoimmune diseases) that required systemic immunosuppression therapy and hypoimmunity (e.g., myelodysplastic disorders, marrow failures, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), ongoing pregnancy, transplant immunosuppression)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny conditions that could potentially alter immune function (AIDS, multiple sclerosis, diabetes, renal failure)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring any of the following concurrent treatment or medications:\r\n* Radiation therapy\r\n* Chemotherapy\r\n* Interferon (e.g. Intron-A®)\r\n* Allergy desensitization injections\r\n* Growth factors (e.g. Procrit®, Aranesp®, Neulasta®)\r\n* Interleukins (e.g. Proleukin®)\r\n* Any investigational therapeutic medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have disease that is easily accessible for a core biopsy as determined by the treating physician or study principal investigator (PI), patient must agree to the mandatory biopsies at baseline and end of cycle 2 (MTD expansion cohort only, and at the discretion of the PI/PI optional)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after MLN8237 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have previously received nab-paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a known history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not require constant administration of a proton pump inhibitor, histamine receptor 2 (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a clinical diagnosis of cutaneous T cell lymphoma CTCL, including documentation of a skin biopsy within the prior 3 years with histological findings consistent with CTCL (atypical epidermotropic or folliculocentric T-cells)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious treatment with at least one standard therapy used to treat stage IA, IB or IIA CTCL including but not limited to oral corticosteroids, high-potency topical corticosteroids, topical mechlorethamine, topical bexarotene, psoralen and ultraviolet A (PUVA), ultraviolet B (UVB), total body electron beam radiation, biological response or oral methotrexateXx_NEWLINE_xXHave measurable skin disease with 1 to 4 eligible baseline target lesions with a total area >= 25 cm^2 but =< 100 cm^2; eligible lesions must be below the neck and may not involve the genitalia, intertriginous areas, internally, or to frankly ulcerated or infected skinXx_NEWLINE_xXGenerally healthy other than for CTCL, or with other stable diseases/conditions that are adequately controlledXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to discontinue prohibited concomitant medications and/or treatments for CTCL during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to abstain from therapeutic sunbathing, tanning beds, etc. for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an active chemical or alcohol dependency as assessed by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently have or have history of certain study-specified heart, liver, kidney, lung, neurological, immune or other medical conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse more than 3 g/d of acetaminophenXx_NEWLINE_xXAn artificial (prosthetic) joint or other artificial implant or device that cannot be easily removed (with some exceptions for dental and breast implants and biliary stents and mediports)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact with another individual known to be at high risk of listeriosis (e.g., newborn infant, pregnant woman, HIV-positive individual) during the course of CRS-207 treatment until completion of antibiotic regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions, including alcohol or drug dependence, intercurrent illness, or lack of sufficient peripheral venous access, that would affect the patient's ability to comply with study visits and proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic GVHD manifestations that can be followed on physical or laboratory exam\r\n* Skin changes\r\n* Oral mucosa changes\r\n* Hepatic dysfunction\r\n* DiarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with irreversible damage as the only manifestation of chronic GVHD (irreversible contractures or sicca syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to administration of bortezomibXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed disease or development of other malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis complicated by pathologic fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of venous or arterial thromboembolism within 12 months prior to enrollment/randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently or previously treated with AMG 386, or other molecules that inhibit the angiopoietins or Tie2 receptorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to bacterially-produced proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have either (1) refractory or relapsed high-risk NB (including n-myc proto-oncogene [MYCN]-amplified stage 2/3/4/4S of any age and MYCN-non amplified stage 4 in patients greater than 18 months of age) resistant to standard therapy, or (2) refractory or relapsed GD2-positive tumor after receiving available life-prolonging therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with murine 3F8 is allowed; patients with prior m3F8, hu3F8, monoclonal antibody ch14.18 (ch14.18) or hu14.18 monoclonal antibody (hu14.18) treatment must have human anti-hu3F8 antibody (HAHA) titer =< 1300 enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) units/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting major organ dysfunction > grade 2, with the exception of hearing loss and hematologic toxicity (defined as suppression of all subtypes of white blood cells [WBCs], red blood cells [RBCs], and platelets)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable or metastatic sporadic or NF1 associated high-grade MPNSTXx_NEWLINE_xXconcurrent use of anti-coagulant drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking enzyme inducing anticonvulsantsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo extrapancreatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXA patent superior mesenteric (SMV)- portal vein (PV) confluence (assuming the technical ability to resect and reconstruct this venous confluence if needed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresentation at a multidisciplinary conference at either University of Chicago or NorthShore UniversityXx_NEWLINE_xXShort removable metal stents rather than plastic stents are preferred but not required for palliation of initial obstructive jaundiceXx_NEWLINE_xXNo CVA within 6 months, no MI within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticoagulation is permitted but patients may only be on lovenox for this purpose.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndolent NHL:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAggressive NHL:Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma/Waldenström macroglobulinemia (LPL/WM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part B:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with secondary AML should have failed no more than two (2) prior regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have tested positive for FLT3-ITD and /or other FLT3 activating mutations within 30 day screening periodXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of a FLT3 activating mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cerebral or meningeal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or anticipated use of enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to medicines containing polyoxyethylated castor oil that are not controlled with premedicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with >= 1 asymptomatic spinal metastases of the thoracic spine OR >= 1 asymptomatic spinal metastases of the lumbar spine may be included; patients with spinal metastases to multiple vertebral levels may be included at the discretion of the investigator; however, only one vertebral level will be treatedXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor to be treated should not directly about the spinal cord, and should have at least 5mm separation from the spinal cord; for patients with tumors closer than 5mm, inclusion is permissible at the discretion of the treating radiation oncologist such that dosimetric review demonstrates that the total dose to spinal cord is within tolerable range of < 10 Gy to 10% partial volume or max point dose 18 GyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to fit into either the Civco stereotactic immobilization or the Elekta Stereotactic BodyFix immobilization deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of spinal instability OR neurologic deficit resulting from bony compression of neurologic structuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with symptoms of pain, compression fracture, neurologic deficit attributable to spinal metastases will not be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of treatment-resistant peptic ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, gastritis, or diverticulitis within 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP A MONOTHERAPYXx_NEWLINE_xXONLY APPLIES TO PATIENTS IN GROUP BXx_NEWLINE_xXONLY APPLIES TO PATIENTS IN GROUP C (CORRELATIVE COHORT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must consent to collection of blood, ascites fluid and tumor tissue samples prior to first dose of CRLX101 and at least one additional sample collection after the second dose (archived material is acceptable for collection prior to first dose of CRLX101)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients CANNOT be receiving enzyme-inducing or enzyme inhibiting agents listed here: Inhibitors: Amiodarone, Amprenavir, Atazanavir, Chloramphenicol, Clarithromycin, Conivaptan, Cyclosporine, Darunavir, Dasatinib, Delavirdine, Diltiazem, Erythromycin, Fluconazole, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Fosamprenavir, Imatinib, Indinavir, Isoniazid, Itraconazole, Ketoconazole, Lapatinib, Miconazole, Nefazodone, Nelfinavir, Posaconazole, Ritonavir, Quinupristin, Saquinavir, Tamoxifen, Telithromycin, Troleandomycin, Verapamil, Voriconazole; inducers: Aminoglutethimide, Bexarotene, Bosentan, Carbamazepine, Efavirenz, Fosphenytoin, Griseofulvin, Modafinil, Nafcillin, Nevirapine, Oxcarbazepine, Phenobarbital, Phenytoin, Primidone, Rifabutin, Rifampin, Rifapentine, St. John’s wort, Sulfadimidine, Sulfinpyrazone, Troglitazone, Troleandomycin; all concomitant medications must be recordedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have used tobacco or nicotine products or medications within the last three months given their significant effect on erlotinib drug levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressive disease as judged by the investigator (examples include rapidly deteriorating performance status or symptomatic lymphangitic spread)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR COHORT 1: (BEVACIZUMAB ELIGIBLE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of gross hemoptysis (defined as bright red blood of a half-teaspoon or more) within 3 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR COHORT 2 (BEVACIZUMAB INELIGIBLE):Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR ALL (COHORT 1 AND COHORT 2):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have psoriasis or porphyriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have known or suspected glucose-6-phosphatase (G-6P) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have pathologically confirmed recurrence at the time of catheter placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with stereotactic radiosurgery, stereotactic radiotherapy, brachytherapy, Gliadel wafers or other intratumoral chemotherapy are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women and members of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors are located less than 2 cm from the ventriclesXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of recurrent or progressive HGG or DIPGXx_NEWLINE_xXIrradiation: interval from the last dose of local RT, craniospinal RT, and palliative RT for symptomatic disease >= 3 months, >= 6 months, and >= 2 weeks before study enrollment, respectivelyXx_NEWLINE_xXSmall-molecule inhibitors: interval >= 1 week from last dose before study enrollment; if a previously used agent has a prolonged half-life, the appropriate interval will be determined after consultation with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of local RT with or without concomitant chemotherapy including temozolomide and radiosensitizing agents (e.g., carboplatin, vorinostat) outside the context of a clinical trial; any agent administered during RT should have a short half-life so that it should already be completely eliminated by the start of this therapy; if other agents were used concurrently with RT, they will need to be discussed with the principal investigator to assess eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area >= 1.8m^2 on dosage levels 3b, 4, and 5 of the original treatment designXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area < 0.55 m^2 for all dosage levels in the modified treatment designXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of systemic illness precluding definitive surgery or increasing the risk to patients due to potential immunosuppression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with dermal change indicative of lymphedema or phlebolymphedema. disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with elevated troponin T and/or CK levels (> 1.5 x ULN for the laboratory) or with history of myositis, rhabdomyolysis or other myopathic disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients engaged in a resistance exercise training program.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have history of drug or alcohol abuse within 12 months prior study dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDasatinib use prior to ASCT is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of LGL clone prior to enrollment will not be an exclusion criterion if the LGL clone is < 25% of T cell populationXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient of mismatched (allele or antigen level) graft in more than one loci of HLAA, -B, -C or –DR loci will not be eligible, i.e. recipients of 2-antigen or 2-allelele mismatched graftXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have evidence of disease progression before day 100 after ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXProhibited treatments and or therapies:\r\n* Category I drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes including: (patients must discontinue drug 7 days prior to starting dasatinib)\r\n** Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n** Amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide\r\n** Erythromycin, clarithromycin\r\n** Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n** Cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazine\r\n* Patient agrees to discontinue St. Johns wort while receiving dasatinib therapy (discontinue St. Johns wort at least 5 days before starting dasatinib)\r\n* Patient agrees that intravenous (IV) bisphosphonates will be withheld for the first 8 weeks of dasatinib therapy due to risk of hypocalcemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any polymorphism in UGT1A1 other than *1 or *28 (e.g, *6)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may be of any ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a confirmed diagnosis of beta-thalassemia major and have been enrolled in a hypertransfusion program with a confirmed annual transfusion of >= 100 mL/kg/yr but < 200 mL/kg/yr, AND >= 8 transfusions of blood per year over a minimum of two yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or relevant abnormalities in electrocardiogram (ECG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pathologically proven diagnosis of NSCLC and consented to receive CXRT at MD AndersonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with normal renal function according to MD Anderson testing standards and no prior renal disease [screening cut off for serum creatinine < 1.5 times ULN]Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are enrolled in other symptom management or symptom clinical trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who currently have bile duct obstruction or cholelithiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with history of anthracycline exposure or coronary artery disease co-management by cardiology to optimize cardioprotective medications will be required prior to Tosedostat initiation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent exposure to cardiotoxic agents (including anthracyclines) within 3 months of enrollment. Subjects with troponin-I and BNP levels above ULN are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with APL (FAB type M3) or CML in blast crisis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of concomitant drugs that prolong QT/QTc interval are prohibited with the exception of antibiotics, antifungals, and other antimicrobials that are used as standard of care to prevent or treat infections and other such drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the patient, but only if clinically indicated and must be fully documented.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent estrogens, anti-estrogens or progesterone compoundsXx_NEWLINE_xXIf recent mold infection (e.g. Aspergillus) must have minimum of 30 days of therapy and responsive disease and be cleared by infectious diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Able and willing to undergo an apheresis procedure (unmobilized) for iTreg production and have up to 3 separate mobilized apheresis collections performed for PBSC transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXOriginal breast core biopsy specimen available for pathologic review and staining by Yale School of Medicine Department of PathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have already undergone excisional biopsy for qualifying DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior abdomino-pelvic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXSame as above and patients undergoing single fraction spinal SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with lesions in the upper cervical spine (C1-C5) or cervicothoracic junction (C6-T3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal hardware at either a) the vertebral body to be treated or b) one vertebra (VB) above and belowXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior kyphoplasty at either a) the vertebral body to be treated or b) one VB above and belowXx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive (> 50%) height loss of the involved vertebral bodyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring general anesthesia for fiducial placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary disease arising in the posterior elements of the VB in questionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Barrett's esophagus, esophageal webbing, stricture, or fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 2,500/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT), creatine phosphokinase (CPK), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), alkaline phosphatase (Alk phos) =< 2.5 X the ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis (Hep) B & C and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients, due to concerns in the ability to stimulate an effective immune response (determined by historical medical data)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with acute medical problems such as ischemic heart or lung disease that may be considered an unacceptable anesthetic or operative riskXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant Medication and Treatment: \r\n* All allowed medications or treatments should be kept to a minimum and recorded; all questions regarding concomitant medications should be referred to the InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pre-existing thyroid abnormality who are unable to maintain thyroid function in the normal range with medication are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated, histologically proven primary squamous cell carcinoma arising in the oral cavity, oropharynx, or supraglottic larynx, and amenable to transoral approach; NOTE: in some cases, patients with disease deemed amenable to transoral approach at the time of diagnosis may have their entire primary tumor extirpated via diagnostic biopsy; when this happens, patients will remain eligible for the protocol as long as they have evaluable disease in the neck; in this case, the choice between a transoral procedure plus dissection or neck dissection alone will be made by the surgeon as per standard of careXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate swallowing function or gastric-tube for drug administration; of note, lapatinib can be administered via gastrostomy (G)-tube in a slurry for patients who cannot swallowXx_NEWLINE_xXHematology and biochemical values within protocol-defined limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of deletion of the short arm of chromosome 17Xx_NEWLINE_xXA woman who is pregnant or breast feeding, or a man who plans to father a child while enrolled in this study or within 3 months after the last dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible for this trial either at presentation for primary melanoma with concurrent regional nodal and/or in-transit metastasis, or at the time of clinically detected nodal and/or in-transit recurrence; patients must undergo biopsy (punch) or open biopsy (if done as part of a clinically indicated baseline diagnostic procedure) within 14 days of entry into the study; lymphadenectomy/definitive surgery will be performed after at least 2 and generally not longer than 4 weeks of induction HDI-ipilimumab therapy; additional delays for definitive lymphadenectomy/surgery are allowed if clinically indicated while awaiting the resolution of potential adverse events from HDI-ipilimumab therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with underlying heart conditions who are deemed ineligible for surgery by cardiology consultXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase Ib: patients with HER2 overexpressing disease must have been previously treated with trastuzumab (patients with HER2 overexpressing disease are not eligible for the Phase II trial)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for a protocol of higher priority; for the purpose of this study, the following protocols will be considered of higher priority: 10-051Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumor cell negative for cluster of differentiation (CD)20 (absence of result due to technical problems in the presence of other characteristics suggestive of BL/DLBCL, including genetic and phenotypic features, is not an exclusion criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to rituximabXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma must have relapsed diffuse large B-cell lymphoma or must have progressed after salvage therapy (with or without standard chemotherapy) for diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. The subject must have received first line therapy with Rituximab-Cyclophosphamide, Hydroxydaunomycin, Vincristine (Oncovin), Prednisone (R-CHOP) [or a similar standard rituximab-containing front-line chemoimmunotherapy regimen including, but not limited to Etoposide, Prednisone, Vincristine (Oncovin), Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin (Hydrochloride) + Rituximab (EPOCH + R); Rituximab, Cyclophosphamide, Etoposide, Procarbazine, Prednisone (RCEPP); Rituximab, Cyclophosphamide, Mitoxantrone (Novantrone), Vincristine (Oncovin), Prednisone (RCNOP); Dose-adjusted-Etoposide, Prednisone, Vincristine(Oncovin), Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin (Hydrocloride) (DA-EPOCH); and Rituximab, Cyclophosphamide, Etoposide, Vincristine (Oncovin), Prednisone (RCEOP)].Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXCytologic or histologic proof pancreatic ductal carcinoma is required prior to study entry; diagnosis must be confirmed by the Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) pathology departmentXx_NEWLINE_xXStaging laparoscopy is not required at the outset of the trial, including in patients who might otherwise receive staging laparoscopy per National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines (high-risk body and tail lesions), because patients will receive systemic chemotherapy at equivalent dose to patients who have documented stage IV diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should not be on cimetidine; another histamine 2 (H2)-blocker or proton pump inhibitor may be substituted before study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory TCL status including diagnoses of peripheral TCL-NOS, angioimmunoblastic TCL, anaplastic large cell lymphoma, hepatosplenic TCL, enteropathy-associated TCL, or mycosis fungoides(MF)/cutaneous TCL with transformation to systemic TCL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to comply with protocol therapy and required safety monitoring (self-report, pulse oximetry, remote spirometry, labs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen (O2) saturation at rest >= 90% (off supplementary oxygen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sarcoma, renal cell carcinoma, or melanoma or with known disease outside the lungs and/or thoraxXx_NEWLINE_xXPreexisting grade >= 2 hearing lossXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or Relapsed/Refractory MM with progressive disease (PD) according to IMWG.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement to participate in RevAssist® ProgramXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived any of the following antitumor therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of erythema nodosum characterized by desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmed diagnosis of relapsed intracranial GBXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated stage I or II non-bulky Hodgkin lymphoma\r\n* No mediastinal mass > 0.33 maximum intrathoracic diameter on chest x-ray, if available; chest x-ray is not required\r\n* No adenopathy > 7.5 cm in its largest diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXInformation available for calculation of International Prognostic Score (IPS): age, gender; albumin, white blood cell (WBC) count, hemoglobin, lymphocyte count, and stage of disease according to Ann Arbor classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXBulky disease (defined as a mass measuring > 7.5 cm or one-third the maximal diameter of the thoracic cavity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic pulmonary disease currently requiring regular medication including but not restricted to bronchodilatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical laboratory values as specified in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXA 3-week washout period is required from previous treatments (with the exception of a 12-week washout for antibody-directed or immunoglobulin-based immune therapy, or other monoclonal antibody therapies), unless it is not in the best interest of the patient in the opinion of the investigator. Individual cases should be discussed with the project clinician before enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active cerebral/meningeal disease, including signs or symptoms of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML);Xx_NEWLINE_xXKi67 index ? 20% (to be centrally confirmed).Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed presence of somatostatin receptors on all target lesions (for target/non-target/measurable lesions definition see §Appendix 2, Section 1 and 2, RECIST Criteria, Version 1.1) documented by CT/MRI scans, based on positive OctreoScan® imaging within 24 weeks prior to randomization in the study (to be centrally confirmed). The OctreoScan® should be one that was performed while the patient was on a fixed dose of Octreotide LAR. If a patient has had an OctreoScan® performed while Octreotide LAR treatment-naïve, the patient must have a repeat OctreoScan® performed after 3 months of Octreotide LAR treatments before entering the clinical study to prove that the index lesions or new lesions still meet the criteria for inclusion. It is acceptable to have patients temporarily switched to Octreotide s.c. (up to six weeks) in order to obtain an OctreoScan®, provided they return to the same fixed dose of Octreotide LAR prior to the scan.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe tumour uptake observed in each target lesion (for target/non-target/measurable lesions definition see §Appendix 2, Sections 1 and 2, RECIST Criteria, Version 1.1) using OctreoScan® must be ? normal liver uptake observed on planar imaging (to be centrally confirmed) (§Appendices 5 and 6).Xx_NEWLINE_xX[Applicable only for France] All patients included in the trial must be affiliated with a social security regime or be a beneficiary of the same in order to be included in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHb concentration <5.0 mmol/L (<8.0 g/dL); WBC <2x109/L (2000/mm3); platelets <75x109/L (75x103/mm3).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent spontaneous urinary incontinence.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving, or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of active seizures are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically or cytologically confirmed stage IV EGFR-mutant NSCLC or, in the absence of availability of EGFR testing (for example, inadequate tissue), clinical response overwhelmingly consistent with EGFR mutation (partial response [PR] plus at least 6 months free of progressive disease as a consequence of EGFR-TKI therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma or presently on chronic inhaled corticosteroid medications (patients with a history of mild asthma controlled with inhaled bronchodilators are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiologic or other approved molecular targeted small molecule inhibitors should be washed out 1 week before apheresis and must be completed at least 1 week prior to pre-infusion lymphodepletive chemotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have adequate venous access for apheresis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability of a patient for immunological and clinical follow-up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cystoscopically detected bladder tumors requiring TURBTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with bladder tumors which are endoscopically resectable by surgeon’s judgment with only one trip into the operating roomXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate IV accessXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Primary tumour characteristics:\n\n          1. Histological proof of newly diagnosed primary adenocarcinoma of the rectum\n\n          2. Locally advanced tumour fulfilling at least one of the following criteria on pelvic\n             MRI indicating high risk of failing locally and/or systemically (T4a, i.e. overgrowth\n             to an adjacent organ or structure like the prostate, urinary bladder, uterus, sacrum,\n             pelvic floor or side wall (according to TNM version 5), cT4b, i.e. peritoneal\n             involvement, extramural vascular invasion (EMVI+). N2, i.e. four or more lymph nodes\n             in the mesorectum showing morphological signs on MRI indicating metastatic disease.\n             Positive MRF, i.e. tumor or lymph node < 1 mm from the mesorectal fascia. Enlarged\n             lateral nodes, > 1 cm (lat LN+)\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. Extensive growth into cranial part of the sacrum (above S3) or the lumbosacral nerve\n             roots indicating that surgery will never be possible even if substantial tumour\n             down-sizing is seen\n\n          2. Presence of metastatic disease or recurrent rectal tumour\n\n          3. Familial Adenomatosis Polyposis coli (FAP), Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer\n             (HNPCC), active Crohn¡¦s disease or active ulcerative Colitis\n\n          4. Concomitant malignancies, except for adequately treated basocellular carcinoma of the\n             skin or in situ carcinoma of the cervix uteri. Subjects with prior malignancies must\n             be disease-free for at least 5 years\n\n          5. Known DPD deficiency\n\n          6. Any contraindications to MRI (e.g. patients with pacemakers)\n\n          7. Medical or psychiatric conditions that compromise the patient's ability to give\n             informed consent\n\n          8. Concurrent uncontrolled medical conditions\n\n          9. Any investigational treatment for rectal cancer within the past month\n\n         10. Pregnancy or breast feeding\n\n         11. Patients with known malabsorption syndromes or a lack of physical integrity of the\n             upper gastrointestinal tract\n\n         12. Clinically significant (i.e. active) cardiac disease (e.g. congestive heart failure,\n             symptomatic coronary artery disease and cardiac dysrhythmia, e.g. atrial fibrillation,\n             even if controlled with medication) or myocardial infarction within the past 12 months\n\n         13. Patients with symptoms or history of peripheral neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory to or relapse following a rituximab/anthracycline first-line regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be consented to the study prior to salvage assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area (BSA) >= 0.4 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologic verification of malignancy; histologic confirmation for patients with optic pathway gliomas will not be requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest and a pulse oximetry > 94% if there is clinical indication for determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of thromboembolism unrelated to a central line, or patients with a known predisposition syndrome for thromboembolism are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXCRIZOTINIB PLUS PAZOPANIB ARM A:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCRIZOTINIB PLUS PEMETREXED ARM B, PAXOPANIB PLUS PEMETREXED ARM C, CRIZOTINIB PLUS PAZOPANIB PLUS PEMETREXED ARM D:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils > 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXThe ability to take folic acid, vitamin B12, and dexamethasone according to protocol for all pemetrexed armsXx_NEWLINE_xXExpansion cohort only for arms containing crizotinib: arm A (crizotinib plus pazopanib) and arm B (crizotinib plus pemetrexed) and arm D (crizotinib plus pazopanib plus pemetrexed) but not arm C (pazopanib plus pemetrexed); patients must have anaplastic lymphoma receptor tyrosine kinase (ALK) abnormality including: translocation, ALK amplification, mutation and overexpression as determined by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), immunohistochemistry (IHC),quantitative real-time polymerase chain reaction (qPCR), quantitative reverse transcription (qRT)-PCR, array comparative genomic hybridization or direct sequencing (aCGH); or patients must have a macrophage stimulating 1 receptor (c-met-related tyrosine kinase) (c-Met) abnormality, either c-Met amplification or c-Met mutation or patients must have the c-ros oncogene 1, receptor tyrosine kinase (ROS1) translocation as determined by FISHXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has any signs of intestinal obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPemetrexed arms only: presence of third space fluid which cannot be controlled by drainageXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional exclusions for the 3 pazopanib containing arms (crizotinib plus pazopanib) and (pazopanib plus pemetrexed) and (crizotinib plus pazopanib plus pemetrexed):\r\n* History of stroke or transient ischemic attack within 6 months prior to study enrollment\r\n* History of abdominal fistula, gastrointestinal perforation, or intra-abdominal abscess within 6 months prior to study enrollment\r\n* Urine for proteinuria >= 2+ (patients discovered to have >= 2+ proteinuria on urinalysis at baseline should undergo a 24 hour urine collection and must demonstrate =< 1 g of protein in 24 hours to be eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTherapy with supplements or complementary is excluded with the following exceptions; all other supplements must be discontinued prior to initiation of study drug\r\n* Conventional multivitamin supplements\r\n* Selenium\r\n* Lycopene\r\n* Soy supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of medications that are known to prolong cause QT prolongationXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must be CD20+ on prior pathologic analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent neurotoxicity from intraventricular methotrexate, cytarabine, thiotepaXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of less than 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to have or have had a radical prostatectomy (RP) at MSKCCXx_NEWLINE_xXSaw palmetto administered with the intent to treat the patient’s malignancy within 1 week of degarelix injection for Cohorts 1, 2, and 4, and for within 1 week of surgery for Cohort 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking drugs leading to significant QT prolongationXx_NEWLINE_xXGynecologic Cancer Intergroup (GCIG)-defined CA125 progression and absence of disease upon imaging or small-volume asymptomatic disease upon imaging and who have progressed following one, two or three lines of chemotherapy for recurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTwo pretreatment CA125 values (documented on two occasions taken at least one week apart) must be at least twice the upper limit of normal, or twice the nadir value if pretreatment CA125 values never normalizedXx_NEWLINE_xXMental condition rendering the patient unable to understand the nature, scope, and possible consequences of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1000/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic documentation of primary lung carcinoma, non-squamous histology with activating epidermal growth factor receptor (defined as deletion 19 or exon 21 L858R mutation); Note: EGFR mutation testing must be performed at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified lab; either institutional or through a commercial laboratory (e.g. Genzyme, Response Genetics, etc); the laboratory report from the commercial laboratories report the specific mutations detected, and the method of detecting the exon 19 and exon 21 L858R point mutations must be availableXx_NEWLINE_xXMixed, non-small cell and small cell tumors or mixed adenosquamous carcinomas with a predominant squamous componentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis >= grade 2 (defined as bright red blood of at least 2.5 mL) =< 3 months prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXIs currently participating in a GSK2110183 study (monotherapy or in combination with an approved anti-cancer agent) sponsored by GSK or by another research organization working on behalf of GSK.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPermanent discontinuation of GSK2110183 in the parent study due to toxicity or disease progression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLocal access to commercially available GSK2110183.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibitive medication(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be previously untreatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent therapy with endocrine agents (tamoxifen, raloxifene, toremifene and all aromatase inhibitors) and/or bisphosphonates and/or tumor necrosis factor (ligand) superfamily, member 11 (RANK)-ligand inhibitors is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious chronic or acute illness considered by the principal investigator (PI) to constitute an unwarranted high risk for investigational drug treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical or psychological impediment to probable compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active infection or systemic use of antimicrobials within 72 hours prior to the first injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors that are considered low or intermediate grade as defined by Klimstra et al (to include proliferation-related Ki-67 antigen [Ki-67] and mitotic index)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLow-dose aspirin (=< 325 mg/day) may be continued in subjects at higher risk for arterial thromboembolic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDISEASE-SPECIFIC EXCLUSIONS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly differentiated or high grade pancreatic neuroendocrine tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXGENERAL MEDICAL EXCLUSIONS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBEVACIZUMAB-SPECIFIC EXCLUSIONS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with a known t(9;22)/breakpoint cluster region-Abelson (BCR-ABL) fusion based on testing at either initial diagnosis or at relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals whose lymphoblasts have surface immunoglobulin by flow cytometry and/or known t(8;14), t(2;8), or t(8;22); absence of surface immunoglobulin by flow cytometry at time of initial diagnosis or relapse is sufficient to rule out mature B-cell leukemia; karyotype or fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) results documenting absence of t(8;14), t(2;8), or t(8;22) are not necessary prior to enrollment if absence of surface of immunoglobulin is documented by flow cytometryXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with a history of asparaginase-associated pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with a history of allergic reactions to any of the agents being used in this trial, with the exception of PEG asparaginase; participants with a history of allergy to PEG asparaginase are allowed on study but should receive Erwinia asparaginase instead of PEG asparaginase; individuals with a history of allergy to both PEG and Erwinia asparaginase are excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with active lung disease as defined by presence of pulmonary infiltrates on screening chest x-ray or baseline room air oxygen saturation of < 92%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are intolerant of, or ineligible for 5-FU, oxaliplatin, and/or the combination of bothXx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening visceral disease or other severe concurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated patient survival under 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has pathologically documented AML and is in CR1 at the time of the screening visitXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has either refused or is not considered an appropriate immediate candidate for transplantation and is considered to be at high risk for recurrence by having at least one of the following prognostic factors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk cytogenetics (-5, -7, del(5q), abnormal 3q, 11q23 translocations, complex cytogenetics) or if cytogenetics are normal the presence of a FLT3 mutation without a NPM1 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must not be dependent on supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pelvic mass of any size that is causing pain, or other subjective symptoms that are intolerable to the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to rituximab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBoth KRAS wild type and KRAS mutant patients are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXA vascular access device (port) or other central venous access for administration of chemotherapy is recommendedXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of vitamin D supplements >= 2,000 IU per day in the past year; use of supplemental vitamin D or supplements containing vitamin D beyond the protocol-prescribed study treatment is not allowed while enrolled on this clinical trial \r\n* In order to maintain blinding, vitamin D levels should not be routinely checked at screening or during the study by the treating investigator; vitamin D levels will be assayed only as part of the research blood samples collected during the study; if there are concerns related to a participant’s vitamin D status, the lead principal investigator should be contacted for further discussionXx_NEWLINE_xXPredisposing colonic or small bowel disorders in which the symptoms are uncontrolled, as indicated by a baseline pattern of > 3 watery or soft stools daily in patients without a colostomy or ileostomy; patients with a colostomy or ileostomy may be entered at investigator discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active hyperparathyroid disease or other serious disturbance of calcium metabolism in the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of symptomatic genitourinary stones within the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical evidence of disease beyond the uterus, including presence of suspicious aortic or inguinal nodes on imaging or clinical examXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received previous vaginal, pelvic, or abdominal irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have circumstances that will not permit completion of this study or the required follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of swallowing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of supplements or complementary medicines/botanicals, except for conventional multivitamin supplements, calcium, selenium and soy supplements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimens or coexisting -Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled to undergo laparotomy *Both optimal and suboptimal patients will be eligible for the study (Suboptimal patients, as well as those who undergo only exploratory laparotomy, are eligible.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAST (GOT) ? 100 IU/LXx_NEWLINE_xXALT (GPT) ? 100 IU/LXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrocardiogram (ECG): Patients with normal ECG, Asymptomatic patients with abnormal ECGs not requiring medical interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom completion of this study and/or follow-up is deemed inappropriate for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must not be pregnant or plan to conceive a child.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of allergic reaction to cremophor/paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse >= 60 beat per minute (bpm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormotensive individuals not already on beta blockers (may be on other anti hypertensives): SBP =< 140, DBP =< 90Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgery or neoadjuvant chemotherapy must be scheduled at least 72 hours in advance in order for the patient to take at least 48 hours of prescribed propranolol and have stable vital signs confirmedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of systemic glucocorticoids such as prednisone or Decadron in the last monthXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients already on beta-blockers or contraindicated to receive beta-blockersXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiogenic shockXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere sinus bradycardia; heart block, second or third degree or sick sinus syndrome (if no artificial pacemaker present)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere hyperactive airway disease (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients planning to receive Avastin or any other anti-angiogenic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXCentral venous access, such as a Portacath or Hickman LineXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment will be restricted to patients demonstrating NAD(P)H dehydrogenase, quinone 1 (NQO1) immunohistochemistry (IHC) overexpression; demonstration of NQO1 overexpression by IHC should be confirmed prior to conducting other study procedures (e.g., laboratory and imaging studies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving the following hepatic enzyme?inducing antiseizure drugs (“EIASD”):\r\n* Carbamazepine\r\n* Oxcarbazepine\r\n* Phenytoin\r\n* Fosphenytoin\r\n* Phenobarbital\r\n* PrimidoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of central venous access for administration of the study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of regional or distant metastasis at the time of study enrollment or at the time of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an index lesion between 1 and 5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology for hepatitis C (HC) defined as a positive test for HBcAb, in which case reflexively perform a HC recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) on the same sample to confirm the resultXx_NEWLINE_xXHave one or more symptoms that the Investigator believes to be related to the patient's MTC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesions must be amenable to accurate and repeat measurement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo increase in corticosteroid dose in the week prior to baseline brain imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medications should be avoided (when possible) while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFURTHER ELIGIBILITY DETAILS FOR PATIENTS WITH PROGRESSIVE DISEASE (COHORTS 1 AND 3A/3B):Xx_NEWLINE_xXIt is anticipated that some patients may have multiple progressive CNS lesions, one or several of which are treated with SRS or surgery with residual untreated lesions remaining; such patients are eligible for enrollment on this study providing that at least one residual (i.e. non-SRS-treated or non-resected) lesion is measurable (>= 10 mm); the location of the measurable lesion should be documented in the patient chart and case report formXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had prior WBRT and/or SRS and then whose prior treated lesions have progressed thereafter are also eligible; in this case, lesions which have been treated with SRS may be considered as target lesions if there is unequivocal evidence, in the opinion of the treating physician, of progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs (EIAEDs), including phenytoin, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, fosphenytoin, phenobarbital, pentobarbital, or primidoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAny predisposing chronic condition resulting in baseline grade 2 or higher diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions attributed to trastuzumab (cohorts 1, 3) that were not treatable/preventable with pre-medications or desensitization protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXCytologic or histologic proof of pancreatic ductal carcinoma is required prior to study entry; diagnosis must be confirmed by the Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) pathology department prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors in the body or tail of the pancreas (to the left of the portal-SMV confluence) are not eligible; location at the portal–SMV confluence is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients cannot have hepatic or peritoneal metastases detected by imaging or laparoscopy prior to chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should not be on cimetidine; another histamine 2 (H2)-blocker or proton pump inhibitor may be substituted before study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients already taking HCQ or chloroquine for other diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with centrally-located pulmonary or mediastinal primary tumors or metastases adjacent to or invading large blood vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of other malignancies, except for other solid tumors curatively treated with no evidence of disease for > 3 years prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBEVACIZUMAB-SPECIFIC EXCLUSIONSXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day -3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring > 325 mg per day or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications known to inhibit platelet function; patients taking cyclooxygenase-2 (COX2) inhibitors are allowed to enrollXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serum anti-poliovirus titer prior to biopsy (except for retreatment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have received a boost immunization with trivalent inactivated poliovirus vaccine (IPOL) (Sanofi-Pasteur) at least 1 week prior to administration of the study agentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an impending, life-threatening cerebral herniation syndrome, based on the assessment of the study neurosurgeons, Allan Friedman, John Sampson, or Peter Fecci, or their designate, will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of neurological complications due to poliovirus infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have diagnosis of agammaglobulinemia; patients with the following will be excluded:\r\n* Undetectable anti-tetanus toxoid IgG (except for retreatment)\r\n* Known history of agammaglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with worsening steroid myopathy (history of gradual progression of bilateral proximal muscle weakness, and atrophy of proximal muscle groups)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo uncontrolled diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be within certain limits for protocol-specified laboratory testsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to agents targeting interleukin 6 (IL 6) or the IL 6 receptorXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of phenotypic classical FAP with disease involvement of the duodenum and/or colon/rectum/pouch.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGenotype: APC mutation (with or without family history) requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXClassical FAP Phenotype: 100's to 1,000's of colorectal adenomatous polyps, usually appearing in teenage yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXUGI endoscopy/LGI endoscopy (proctoscopy/colonoscopy) performed within 30 days of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor all subjects, any rectal/pouch polyps > 5 mm must be excised at \baseline\.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent Spigelman Stage 3 or 4. (Refer to Appendix A for Modified Spigelman Score and Classification table).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo discrete gastric or duodenal ulcer greater than 5 mm within the past year except Helicobacter pylori-related peptic ulcer disease treated with antibiotics.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of 81-100 mg daily aspirin or up to 700 mg aspirin not more than once a week are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo concurrent warfarin, fluconazole, lithium, Pradaxa® or other direct thrombin inhibitors, Plavix®, cyclosporine, other NSAIDs (such as ibuprofen, aspirin, diflunisal), diuretics (furosemide and thiazides), DMSO, methotrexate, probenecid, propoxyphene hydrochloride, Tylenol® (acetaminophen) preparations containing aspirin or cytotoxic chemotherapy drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to forego concurrent use of supplements containing omega-3 fatty acids, corticosteroids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or other FAP directed drug therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior pelvic irradiation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of aspirin in excess of 700 mg per week.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitivity to cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors, sulfonamides, NSAIDs, or salicylates; NSAID associated symptoms of gastritis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with significant hearing loss are not eligible for study participation defined as hearing loss that affects everyday life and/or for which a hearing aid is required.Xx_NEWLINE_xXColon/rectum/pouch with high grade dysplasia or cancer on biopsy or a large polyp (>1 cm) not amenable to complete removal.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a known deleterious BRCA mutation (gBRCA or sBRCA) (as determined by a local laboratory that has received an international or country-specific, quality standards certification)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHospitalization for bowel obstruction within 3 months prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXobscured by other structures or artifacts on the images)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDefinitive pathologic diagnosis by needle core biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXCluster of microcalcifications that do not exceed 10 mm in diameter and measures at least 5mm away from the skin and chest wallXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with less than 25% intraductal componentXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors poorly visualized by x-ray mammography or ultrasound imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are morbidly obese (>300 lbs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with benign lesions such as fibroadenoma, atypical ductal hyperplasia, sclerosing adenosis, Papilloma, fibrocystic disease of breastXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with DCIS with microinvasionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a cluster of microcalcifications whose diameter is larger than 10 mm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with extensive intraductal component and other characteristics not well visualized by imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are BRCA positive.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated outside of Northwestern must have their pathology slides sent to Northwestern for review and confirmation\r\n* NOTE: a copy of the pathology report is sufficient for registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to follow pregnancy precautionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAt high risk for a venous thromboembolic event (VTE) and not willing to take VTE prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXtotal bilirubin > 2.0 mg/dl (34 µmol/L) except in cases of Gilberts Syndrome and documented liver or pancreatic involvement by lymphomaXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth men and women and members of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cerebral/meningeal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior history of documented pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant shunting to the lung (> 20%) identified on macroaggregated albumin (MAA) scanXx_NEWLINE_xXUnsuccessful closure of collateral blood flows from the hepatic artery to non-targeted organs such as the gastrointestinal (GI) tractXx_NEWLINE_xXOcclusion of the main portal vein, or inadequate collateral flow around an occluded branch of the portal vein as determined by angiographyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any other medical complications that imply a survival of less than six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant allergic reaction to iodinated contrastXx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary obstruction, biliary stent, or prior biliary surgery including sphincterotomy but excluding cholecystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of mantle cell Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma with cyclin D1 overexpression by immunohistochemistry, and a characteristic immunophenotypic profile with CD5(+), CD23(-), CD20(+), and CD10(-). In tumor tissues with negative cyclin D1, evidence of cyclin D2 or D3 overexpression by immunohistochemistry will be acceptable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLow and intermediate-risk disease as defined by MIPI score.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory test results within these ranges:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic carriers of hepatitis B virus can be considered for study if they agree to and comply with close monitoring and suppressive therapy with lamivudine during treatment and for additional six months after coming off study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with histological confirmation of RCCXx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to swallow and absorb orally administered medications and maintain a fast as required before and after MLN8237 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions according to enrolling investigator that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygen therapy; or requirement of recurrent thoracentesis to manage pleural effusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have one of the following hematologic malignancies: \r\n* AML any stage and cytogenetic risk-group with the only exception being that patients with AML and favorable cytogenetics t(8;21), inv 16, or t(15;17) who achieve complete remission with one course of induction chemotherapy are not eligible; \r\n* MDS with intermediate or high risk International Prognostic Scoring System score (IPSS scores) or treatment related MDS; patients with low risk MDS are eligible if they fail to respond to hypomethylating agent therapy such as azacitidine or decitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic or autologous stem cell transplant using a myeloablative busulfan or total body radiation containing conditioning regimen defined as busulfan-based using a total dose of >= 12 mg/kg given by mouth or >= 10 mg/kg given IV; or a total-body irradiation (> 4 Gy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of care-giver for the early (100-day) post-transplant periodXx_NEWLINE_xXReirradiation targets located within the head, neck, or brain are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurofibromatosis 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of pazopanib or other agents targeting angiogenesis pathway (such as bevacizumab, sunitinib, or sorafenib) in the metastatic settingXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausal levels of estradiol, or ongoing mensesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of an investigational drug that targets VEGF or VEGF receptorsXx_NEWLINE_xXMeningeal carcinomatosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have evidence of progressive disease within 12 months of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with carcinoid tumors, patients must have progressed on, be currently receiving, or be intolerant to octreotide therapy; for patients with pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors, the prior or current use of octreotide or somatostatin analogues is permitted, but not required; if the patient is on octreotide, regardless of whether the patient has a carcinoid or pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, the patient must be on a stable dose of somatostatin analogue for at least two monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh grade or poorly differentiated neuroendocrine tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing immunosuppression with systemic steroids or other immune modulatorXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a pulmonary lesion abutting or encasing a major blood vesselXx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation, including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapy or concurrent evidence of intraluminal tumor involving the trachea or esophagusXx_NEWLINE_xXSeverely impaired lung functionXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically euthyroid; Note: Patients are permitted to receive thyroid hormone supplements to treat underlying hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia defined as heart rate (HR) < 50 beats per minute (bpm); patients with pacemakers are eligible if HR >= 50 bpmXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block + left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCytologic or histologically diagnosed NSCLC in stages IIIA (non-resectable) or IIIB or IV (TNM).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology for hepatitis C (HC) defined as a positive test for HC antibody (Ab) if confirmed by HC recombinant immunoblot assay (RIBA) immunoblot assay (for positive HCAb reflexively perform a HC RIBA immunoblot assay on the same sample)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic indexXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of cerebral edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who require emergent use of systemic steroids, emergent surgery and/or radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with brain metastases are eligible providing they are neurologically stable (if systemic steroids are required, subjects should be stable on the lowest clinically effective dose, as steroids as they may interfere with the activity of ipilimumab if administered at the time of the first ipilimumab dose)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary ocular and mucosal melanomas are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have baseline (screening/baseline) radiographic images, (e.g. brain, chest, abdomen, pelvis, and bone scans with specific imaging tests to be determined by the attending physician) within 6 weeks of initiation of ipilimumabXx_NEWLINE_xXWOCBP using a prohibited contraceptive methodXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of AEs with prior interleukin (IL)-2 or Interferon will not preclude subjects from entering the current studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny subject who has a life-threatening condition that requires high-dose immunosuppressant(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppressive agents (unless required for treating potential AEs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic systemic corticosteroids (unless required for treating treatment emergent AEs or required for management of signs or symptoms due to brain metastases, upon discussion with Bristol-Myers Squibb [BMS] medical monitor)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate or high grade lesions: 2 or 3 on a scale of 1-3 or grades 2 to 4 on a scale of 1-4Xx_NEWLINE_xXSarcoma located on upper (includes shoulder) or lower (includes hip) extremities or on the body wallXx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility of subjects receiving any medications or substances known to affect or with the potential to affect the activity or pharmacokinetics of pazopanib will be determined following review of their cases by the Principal InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXCertain medications that are associated with a risk for QTc prolongation and/or Torsades de Pointes, although not prohibited, should be avoided or replaced with medications that do not carry these risks, if possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors are positive for ER, PgR, or bothXx_NEWLINE_xXNo response, progression, or relapse (according to 2006 International Working Group [IWG] criteria) following at least 4 cycles of either azacitidine or decitabine, or following at least 2 cycles of SGI-110, which were completed within the last 2 years - AND/OR - intolerance to azacitidine or decitabine, or SGI-110 defined as drug-related >= grade 3 hepatic or renal toxicity leading to treatment discontinuation during the preceding 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXGenetically confirmed diagnosis of VHL or measurable disease consistent with the clinical diagnosis of VHLXx_NEWLINE_xX(2. continued) f) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) based upon current CDC definition; note, however, that HIV testing is not required for entry into this protocol. The need to exclude patients with AIDS from this protocol is necessary because the treatments involved in this protocol may be significantly immunosuppressive. g) Active connective tissue disorders, such as lupus or scleroderma, that in the opinion of the treating physician may put the patient at high risk for radiation toxicity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be pregnant or breast feeding. Patients must not be pregnant because lacosamide produced developmental toxicity in rats following administration during pregnancy. There is insufficient information to determine if lacosamide is safe during lactation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter Drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a prolonged PR interval (defined as > 200 ms).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPerioperative anticonvulsants should be tapered as indicated in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have borderline resectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma defined by one of the following criteria: \r\n* Tumor associated deformity of the superior mesenteric vein (SMV) or portal vein (PV) \r\n* Abutment of the SMV or PV =< 180 degrees \r\n* Short-segment occlusion of the SMV or PV amenable to resection and venous reconstruction \r\n* Short-segment involvement of the hepatic artery or its branches amenable to resection and reconstruction or \r\n* Abutment of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) =< 180 degreesXx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatinine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should be asymptomatic for jaundice and ascites prior to day 1; pain symptoms should be stableXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients should agree not to donate blood products for 12 months after stopping sonidegibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking medications with narrow therapeutic indices that are metabolized by cytochrome P450 (CYP450), including warfarin sodium (Coumadin) are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders (e.g. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and spinal muscular atrophy) or are on concomitant treatment with drugs that are recognized to cause rhabdomyolysis, such as 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA) inhibitors (statins), clofibrate and gemfibrozil, and that cannot be discontinued at least 2 weeks prior to starting LDE225 treatment; if it is essential that the patient stays on a statin to control hyperlipidemia, only pravastatin may be used with extra cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with abnormal laboratory values as defined by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xX? 5 x PK half-life of a small molecule therapeutic not otherwise defined aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXFor mefloquine arm, patients must not be on enzyme inducing anticonvulsants (EIAED); if the treating physician elects to change the medication to a non-enzyme inducing agent, a 2-week wash out period will be required after stopping EIAED prior to initiation of treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDose Expansion phase: At least 1 measurable lesion which has not been treated previously with radiotherapy. A newly arising lesion in a previously irradiated field is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not have hypo- or hyperthyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any major disease that might interfere with safe protocol participationXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values as specified in study protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary myelofibrosis, post-PV MF, or post-ET MF that requires therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXQTcB ? 480 msecXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenectomy (Phase 2 portion of the study only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 88%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwest Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXCraniopharyngioma diagnosed by histology, cytology or neuroimagingXx_NEWLINE_xXCLL patients with evidence of residual disease, who have achieved partial response (PR), nodular partial response (nPR) or complete response (CR) with detectable minimal residual disease (MRD) following upfront therapy consisting of pentostatin, cyclophosphamide and rituximab\r\n* The presence of MRD will be assessed by the flow cytometry and polymerase chain reaction at the Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) Diagnostic Molecular Pathology LaboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function as assessed by >= 92% oxygen saturation on room air by pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must fall into Radiation Therapy Oncology Group (RTOG) recursive partitioning analysis (RPA) class I or IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who had radiosurgery > 3 months prior to registration are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHematological malignancy associated with a poor prognosis with medical therapy alone. Diagnoses to be included:Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis or other CMV-related organ dysfunction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAIDS related syndromes or symptoms that pose a perceived excessive risk for transplantation-related morbidity as determined by the principal investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psychosocial conditions that would prevent study compliance and follow-up, as determined by the principal investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXT-cell depletion (including ATG or alemtuzumab) is not allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of cord blood as the source of hematopoietic cells is not allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with chordomas must be considered to have high risk disease as defined by:\r\n* Local recurrence after surgery alone\r\n* Prior intralesional resections\r\n* Unplanned incomplete resections\r\n* Tumors are unresectable or at best marginally resectable based on locally advanced stage, and\r\n* Patients who decline surgery due to excessive morbidity and would otherwise receive non-operative treatment with radiation and/or medical management if not treated on clinical trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of atherosclerotic coronary artery disease that required bypass surgery may only be enrolled provided that bypass surgery occurred at least one year prior to enrollment and after consultation with a cardiologist to determine stability of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated patients with a morphologic diagnosis of APL, confirmed by demonstration of t(15;17) using conventional cytogenetics OR fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), OR a positive reverse transcriptase (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for promyelocytic leukemia (PML)-retinoic acid receptor, alpha (RAR-alpha) at the subject's local institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious or life-threatening conditions deemed unacceptable by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immune system abnormalities such as hyperimmunity (e.g., autoimmune diseases) and hypoimmunity (e.g., myelodysplastic disorders, marrow failures, acquired immune deficiency syndrome [AIDS], ongoing pregnancy, transplant immunosuppression)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny conditions that could potentially alter immune function (AIDS, multiple sclerosis, diabetes, renal failure)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 95% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should not be taking drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes; the following must be discontinued at least 7 days prior to enrollment to be eligible: quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide, amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide, erythromycins, clarithromycin, chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide, cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Dose Expansion (Parts B, C, D, E, F and G): The participant must have histological or cytological evidence of one of the following cancers:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with MPN: On ruxolitinib for at least three months and on a stable dose for at least 1 month prior to enrollment and taking at least 5 mg twice daily of ruxolitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a permanent pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXRELATED DONORS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have EITHER histologically confirmed intracranial malignant glioma of the following types: glioblastoma, anaplastic astrocytoma (AA), anaplastic oligodendroglioma (AO), anaplastic oligo-astrocytoma (AOA) also called anaplastic mixed gliomas, malignant glioma NOS (not otherwise specified); patients will be eligible if the original histology was low-grade glioma and a subsequent histological diagnosis of a high grade (malignant) glioma is made; OR histologically confirmed low grade (World Health Organization [WHO] grade II) gliomas (such as low grade astrocytoma, low grade oligodendroglioma, low grade oligo-astrocytoma [mixed gliomas], or low grade glioma NOS) IF there is radiographic evidence by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of malignant transformation but histologic confirmation of high grade (malignant) transformation would not be otherwise undertaken for routine clinical care; inclusion of patients in this group will allow increased accrual rapidity by enrolling patients who are otherwise ineligible for almost all malignant glioma trials yet whom are treated presumptively for malignant glioma; the primary aim of the phase I study is not determination of efficacy; therefore, inclusion of such patients will not affect efficacy analyses (Participating site confirmation is adequate; MSKCC central review is not required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMulticentric gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of peptic ulcer within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCraniotomy wound that has not sufficiently healedXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected or documented radionecrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny experimental drug while on this study; however, concomitant bone targeted therapy (bisphosphonates or the anti-tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily, member 11a, NFKB activator [RANK] ligand denosumab) is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrolled hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant vascular disease including aortic aneurysm, aortic dissectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline Bazett's correction formula (QTcB) >= 470 msecXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary AML induction failure: no complete remission (CR) after 2 or more induction attemptsXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to be off prednisone or other immunosuppressive medications for at least 3 days prior to NK cell infusion (excluding preparative regimen pre-medications)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma, presently on chronic medications (a history of mild asthma not requiring therapy is eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDevelopment of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects enrolled in France: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPermanent discontinuation of GSK1120212 in the parent study due to toxicity or disease progression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibitive medication(s) as listed in Section 6.2. NOTE: Use of anticoagulants such as warfarin is permitted; however, the international normalization ratio (INR) must be monitored in accordance with local institutional practice.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to be treated with either a gamma knife or a linear accelerator-based radiosurgery systemXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to complete neurocognitive examination without assistance from family and companions; Note: because neurocognitive testing is one of the primary goals of this study, patients must be able to utilize English language booklets (and/or French booklets if enrolled in Canada)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to complete quality-of-life (QOL) questionnaires by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXBrain metastasis that is located =< 5 mm of the optic chiasm or within the brainstemXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk MDS (refractory anemia with excess blasts [RAEB]-1, RAEB-2, treatment related MDS) not responsive to 2 lines of therapy (including hypomethylating agent and induction chemotherapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires agents other than hydroxyurea to control blast countXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with neuroendocrine histologies, or histologies other than squamous, adenosquamous or adenocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome (Ph)+ ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology for hepatitis C (HC) defined as a positive test for hepatitis C antibody (HCAb), in which case reflexively perform a HC radioimmunoblotting assay (RIBA) immunoblot assay on the same sample to confirm the resultXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to read and follow instructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pc-ALCL that has spread systemically (e.g., to lymph nodes, bone marrow, or visceral organs) may be included so long as pc-ALCL was the primary diagnosis for at least 6 months before systemic involvement was confirmed; MF patients must be stage IB or greaterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be available for periodic blood sampling, study-related assessments, and management of toxicity at the treating institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have proven positive tumor sample for NY-ESO-1 as determined by an H score for immunohistochemistry staining. Positive expression is defined as an H score ? 100 where the H score = [2 x (% cells 2+) + 3 x (% cells 3+)]. NOTE: The percentages of negative or weakly stained nuclei (i.e. 1+) are not to be included in the calculation of the H score.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection with HIV, HBV or HCV as defined below, due to the immunosuppressive effects of cyclophosphamide used and the unknown risks associated with viral replication.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathological diagnosis of chondrosarcoma of the spine or sacrum or chordoma of the spine, or sacrumXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical, radiographic or other evidence of distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide blood samples for immune studies, per study calendar, up to one year after study, even if off studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be concurrently taking other medications or supplements with known hormonal effects, including PC-SPES, megestrol acetate, finasteride, ketoconazole, estradiol, or Saw Palmetto; all other medications with possible anti-cancer effects must be discussed with the principal investigator (PI) prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR FIRST COHORT ONLY, NOT REQUIRED FOR BIOMARKER COHORT: Patients will be allowed to eat pomegranates and drink pomegranate juice provided that the patient has been taking these for 4 weeks or more with evidence of progressive disease as outlined above; these patients should be instructed to continue to take pomegranates and/or pomegranate juice as per the same schedule while on study; documentation of amount and duration will be captured for those patients taking pomegranates or pomegranate juice; those patients who have not been taking pomegranates or pomegranate juice prior to study entry will not be allowed to begin these while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have known psychological or sociological conditions, addictive disorders or family problems, which would preclude compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have known allergic reactions to GM-CSFXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a histologic diagnosis of glioblastoma (GBM), gliosarcoma, anaplastic astrocytoma (AA), anaplastic oligodendroglioma (AO), or anaplastic mixed oligoastrocytoma (AOA); patients are eligible if the original histology was lower-grade gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with one prior relapse on a bevacizumab or an anti-VEGF(R) (i.e., VEGF-trap, vandetanib, cediranib, sunitinib, sorafenib, XL184, etc.) containing regimen are allowed to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXReasonable expectation that no chemotherapy will be given in the subsequent 6 months (principal investigator's [PI’s] discretion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum electrolytes within normal limits (CTCAE 4.0 grade 1 abnormality is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSplenomegaly or history of proliferative hematologic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who received a tetanus- diphtheria (Td) or diphtheria toxoid/tetanus toxoid vaccine adsorbed (Tdap) immunization in the previous 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylaxis or serious allergic reactions to previous administration of any of the vaccinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who had received one or more doses of the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV)23 vaccine in the previous 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAt NIH: age >= 15 years old and/or >= 9 years old and pubertal and =< 55 years for recipient; pubertal is defined by: prior menses at any time (females), documentation of clinical Tanner stage greater than 2 at some point pre-chemotherapy or at the current visit; (at this point, sex steroids have been produced for a few years which has driven initial pubertal development); Tanner 2 is defined as: breast buds for females with coarse pubic hair, and coarse pubic hair and testes > 2.5 cm for malesXx_NEWLINE_xXAt Children’s National Medical Center only: age > 4 years old and < 24Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute myelogenous leukemia\r\n* Adult: (>= 22 years) >= CR2 OR CR1 with one of the following high risk features\r\n** Adverse or intermediate-risk cytogenetics including:\r\n*** Normal cytogenetics\r\n*** Complex karyotype (> 2 abnormalities)\r\n*** Inv (3) or t(3;3); t(11;19)(q23;p13.1); +13; -17/17p-; -18; -20; (t(6;9); t(6;11); -7, 7q-; -5, 5q-; trisomy 8; t(3;5); t(9:11)(p22q23)\r\n*** Monosomy karyotype (presence of an autosomal monosomy in conjunction with at least one other autosomal monosomy or structural abnormality\r\n*** Any other karyotype EXCEPT t(8;21), t(9;11), inv(16), or t(16;16), and M3 (17; 17) unless v-kit Hardy-Zuckerman 4 feline sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (c-Kit) mutation present and then eligible\r\n*** AML emerging from CML (blast crisis) are eligible\r\n** Primary induction failure, defined as failure to achieve CR with primary induction chemotherapy\r\n** Secondary AML, defined as AML related to antecedent myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN), or cytotoxic chemotherapy\r\n** Hyperleukocytosis (white blood cells [WBC] > 100,000 at diagnosis)\r\n** Mutations in the FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) gene (FLT3-length mutations [LM]; FLT-internal tandem duplications [ITDs])\r\n** Bilineage or biphenotypic leukemias are high risk features and eligible\r\n* Pediatric (< 22 years): >= CR2 OR CR1 with a high risk feature including\r\n** Primary induction failure (>= 5% blasts in marrow after induction)\r\n** Persistent leukemia (> 15% after first course of chemotherapy)\r\n** Complex karyotype monosomy 7, or -5/-5q, FLT3 ITD-allelic ratio (AR) (> 0.4) EXCEPT if also inv(16)/t(16;16), t(8,21)\r\n** Normal cytogenetics or abnormal cytogenetics EXCEPT if also inv(16)/t(16;16), t(8,21) are eligible for SIBLING transplant only\r\n** Bilineage or biphenotypic leukemias are high risk features and eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB) 1 or 2; cytogenetics showing complex karyotype (3 or more abnormalities), monosomy 7/del(7q), or inv(3)/t(3q)/del(3q); or transfusion dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXStandard pediatric indications for myeloablative transplantation for patients undergoing HSCT at Children’s National Medical Center per institutional guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior Lupron intolerance; Note: patients ARE eligible if prior or current Lupron exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously tested for presence of EGFR and ALK mutations in lung cancer tissue confirmed in a CLIA-certified laboratory (or equivalent). Subjects with EGFR or ALK mutation are eligible if they have previously received EGFR or ALK inhibitor(s) respectively.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic ORXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic and untreated but >1 cm in the longest dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any NIH subtype (classic or overlap) of chronic GVHD who are starting treatment with ECPXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of relapse or progression of underlying disease (molecular evidence of relapse/progression or mixed chimerism is permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBronchiolitis obliterans as the sole indication of ECPXx_NEWLINE_xXMechanical ventilation, renal replacement therapy, admitted in intensive care until at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 target lesion, as defined by RECIST, that has not been irradiated; new lesions that have developed in a previously irradiated field may be used as sites of measurable disease assuming all other criteria are met; all target lesions must have a unidimensional diameter of at least 1 cm for spiral computed tomography (CT) scans if the reconstruction algorithm is 0.5 cm, or a standard uptake value (SUV) >= 2.5; baseline measurements/evaluations must be completed within 4 weeks prior to treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysisXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of bisphosphonates is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire treatment for MF and classified at least as intermediate risk level 1 defined by the International Working Group.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have resectable adenocarcinoma of the esophagus or GE-junction and are medically fit to undergo surgery; patients must have no evidence of distant metastasis based on imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior history of marked intolerance to 5-fluoropyrimidines (5-FU, floxuridine, capecitabine, 5-fluorocytosine [flucytosine]), since such patients may have deficiency of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase, which places them at risk for severe and life-threatening toxicity with 5-FUXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior mTOR inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXIf patient is on dexamethasone, must be on stable or decreasing dose of dexamethasone for >= 7 days; if patient is on different glucocorticoid e.g., prednisone, must be converted to dexamethasone prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of frank hemorrhage or impending herniation on baseline brain imaging; NOTE: asymptomatic micro-hemorrhage is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or fever > 38.5°C during screening visits or on the first scheduled day of dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous history or current presence of neurological disorders (with the exception of myasthenia gravis), including epilepsy (although controlled by anticonvulsant therapy), Parkinson's disease and extra-pyramidal syndromes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 4 prior chemotherapy regimens for metastatic disease for those in the dose escalation cohorts; prior trastuzumab and lapatinib are allowed for the HER2+ population; once we reach the expanded recommended phase 2 dose (RP2D) cohorts, patients enrolled must have received =< 3 prior regimens\r\n* Patients enrolled in ARM C may remain on trastuzumab without a washout period\r\n* Patients enrolled in ARM D may remain on lapatinib without a washout periodXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown coagulopathies, and those who require therapeutic anticoagulation with coumarin-derivative anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients not in remission must have CD45-expressing leukemic blasts; patients in remission do not require phenotyping and may have leukemia previously documented to be CD45 negative (because in remission patients, virtually all antibody binding is to non-malignant cells which make up >= 95% of nucleated cells in the marrow)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is capable of understanding and complying with parameters as outlined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPernicious anemia or other anemias due to vitamin B12 deficiency (due to potential masking of deficiency with leucovorin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo- or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXHematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) patients with symptomatic hemorrhagic cystitis (minimal grade 1 symptoms of HC per NCI criteria) and positive BKV in urine > 1 x 10^3 deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) copies/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of foscarnet, liposomal amphotericin B or aminoglycosideXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of cidofovir for bladder instillationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of active thromboembolic disease, recent history of thromboembolic disease within the past 6 months, or risk factors for thromboembolic disease (excluding thrombosis of a central line)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of East Asian ancestryXx_NEWLINE_xXAll prognostic risk groups according to the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) and MD Anderson Risk ModelXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenic enlargement extending > 8 cm below the left costal marginXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) within 6 months of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived immunomodulating agents, histone deacetylase inhibitors, cyclosporine, or mycophenolate within 4 weeks of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of treatment with eltrombopag, romiplostim or other thrombopoietin receptor (TPO-R) agonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of filgrastim (G-CSF) except for the short-term management of neutropenic infection; stable doses of erythropoietin stimulating agents or corticosteroids that were being administered prior to screening are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXEast Asian patients (Chinese, Japanese, Taiwanese, and Korean ancestry) are excluded during stage I of the study (dose escalation phase)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to take medications orallyXx_NEWLINE_xXAngina pectoris requiring antianginal medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of transmural infarction on electrocardiogram (ECG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvery effort should be made to switch patients taking drugs that are known to be sensitive substrates of these enzymes to other medications 1 week prior to starting therapy; if a patient’s medication cannot be switched, the patient’s eligibility will be determined following a review of their case by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated spinal cord metastases or metastases close to vital organs (as determined by the principal investigator) are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic or cytologic confirmation of thyroid cancer (papillary, follicular, medullary); histologic variants such as Hurthle and tall cell variants are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXBiochemical or radiologic documentation of disease progression within the last 12 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum transaminases activity =< 3 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic cholelithiasis (asymptomatic gall stone discovered on screening ultrasound [US] should be reviewed by the principal investigator [PI] but will not lead to automatic exclusion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the presence of active or suspected acute or chronic uncontrolled infection or with a history of immunocompromise, including a positive HIV test result (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay [ELISA] and western blot)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have at least one “target lesion” to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST 1.1\r\n* Tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as “non-target” lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be eligible for a higher priority Gynecologic Oncology Group (GOG) protocol, if one exists            \r\n* In general, this would refer to any active GOG phase III or rare tumor protocol for the same patient populationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients allergic to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior history of a splenectomy and/or sickle cell trait/diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has implanted medical device(s) that pose a high risk for colonization and/or cannot be easily removed (e.g., prosthetic joints, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, orthopedic screw(s), metal plate(s), bone graft(s), or other exogenous implant(s)); NOTE: more common devices and prosthetics which include arterial and venous stents, dental and breast implants and venous access devices (e.g., Port-a-Cath or Mediport) are permitted; sponsor must be contacted prior to consenting any subject who has any other device and/or implantXx_NEWLINE_xXTriglycerides =< 400 mg/dL (sirolimus and hydroxychloroquine only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rare hereditary problems of galactose intolerance, the Lapp lactase deficiency, or glucose-galactose malabsorptionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with porphyria cutanea tardaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psoriasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pre-existing maculopathy or retinopathy of the eyeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a pre-existing myopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHydronephrosis (either bilateral or involving a solitary kidney) that has not been addressed by means of a nephrostomy or indwelling stent; EXCEPTION: non-obstructive hydronephrosis in setting of prior urinary diversion is consistent with eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to maintain adequate contraception measures for the entire course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically euthyroid; Note: patients are permitted to receive thyroid hormone supplements to treat underlying hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior histone deacetylase (HDAC), deacetylase (DAC), heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) inhibitors or valproic acid for the treatment of cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia defined as heart rate (HR) < 50 beats per minute (bpm); patients with pacemakers are eligible if HR >= 50 bpmXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block + left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent uncontrolled hyperthyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent therapy with a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI), tricyclic antidepressant, or Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor (MAOi); clinical judgment should be used in a decision to discontinue antidepressants; a minimum of a 1 week washout period is required for any tricyclic or related antidepressant, or any SSRI (2 weeks for paroxetine or sertraline, 5 weeks for fluoxetine); minimum 2 week washout for any MAOiXx_NEWLINE_xXCaution should be exercised in patients who are regularly taking narcotic analgesics, particularly higher doses; the doses of narcotic analgesics may need to be reduced, patients may need to be monitored closely for drug interactions, and the risks and benefits of participation in the study should be considered; clinical judgment should be exercised to manage this potential drug interactionXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) or immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of the presence or absence of EGFR mutations and ALK gene fusions prior to study enrollment in all subjects; subjects with unknown EGFR sensitizing mutational status or ALK fusion must have been treated and progressed on EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) or ALK-directed therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave histological evidence of a diagnosis of HCC not amenable to curative surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown HCC with fibro-lamellar or mixed histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave documented major electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities at the investigator's discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave major abnormalities documented by echocardiography with DopplerXx_NEWLINE_xXHave predisposing conditions that are consistent with development of aneurysms of the ascending aorta or aortic stressXx_NEWLINE_xXHave active infection that would interfere with the study objectives or influence study complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 of the following high-risk features for previously untreated patients:\r\n* Rai stage II disease\r\n* Rai stage 0-I with disease-related fatigue\r\n* Serum beta 2 microglobulin (beta2M) >= 3 mg/L\r\n* Absolute lymphocyte count >= 25,000/uL\r\n* Unmutated immunoglobulin heavy variable cluster (IGHV) gene or IGHV3-21\r\n* Zeta-chain-associated protein kinase 70kDa (ZAP70) positive (>= 20% by flow cytometry or positive by immunohistochemistry)\r\n* CD38 positive (>= 30% by flow cytometry); OR\r\n* Deletion 11q or 17p by fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConstitutional symptoms related to CLL/SLL: \r\n* Fever > 100.5 degrees Fahrenheit (F) for >= 2 weeks or night sweats for > 1 month, both without evidence of infection\r\n* Unintentional weight loss of >= 10% body weight in previous 6 months\r\n* Extreme fatigue (ECOG PS > 2; inability to work or perform usual activities)\r\n* Lymphocyte doubling time of =< 6 months or 50% increase in absolute lymphocyte count within 2 months\r\n* Progressive anemia (Rai stage III) or thrombocytopenia (Rai stage IV)\r\n* Recurrent infections unrelated to hypogammaglobulinemia\r\n* Autoimmune phenomenon poorly responsive to corticosteroids or other standard therapy\r\n* Massive, progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy (> 10 cm in longest diameter) or splenomegaly (> 6 cm below left costal margin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have experienced distant disease progression since the start of systemic therapy, as evidenced by clinical and radiographic documentation of disease status before treatment and within 6 weeks prior to randomization, including:\r\n* No new sites of disease\r\n* No enlargement of existing sites by 20% or more in longest diameter\r\n* No symptomatic deterioration\r\n* Imaging at step 2 should preferably be the same as at step 1 (baseline); it must address all previous sites of disease and all clinical signs and symptoms; if all step 1 imaging tests cannot be repeated, the reason should be documented (e.g. declined by insurance); step 2 imaging must evaluate all known sites of disease and address all signs/symptoms present at step 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXBest response achieved was ?Partial Response (PR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient was not refractoryXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men =< 70 years, biopsy Gleason score =< 6; for men > 70 years, biopsy Gleason score =< (3 + 4) = 7Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are offered registration to the correlative study CALGB-151105Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuccessful completion of three 24-hour dietary recalls during the run-in periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients consuming >= 6 servings per day of fruits and vegetables (not including juices), as determined by the run-in dietary recalls, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIs currently participating in a GSK-sponsored study of GSK2118436Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort C only: Subjects must have a calcium phosphate product (CPP) of <4.4 mmol^2/L^2 (55 mg^2/dL^2) if they are to continue treatment with GSK1120212Xx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPermanent discontinuation of GSK2118436 in the parent study due to toxicity or disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXLocal access to commercially available GSK2118436Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of rheumatoid arthritisXx_NEWLINE_xXAges > 50 years with hematologic malignancies treatable by unrelated hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAges =< 50 years of age with hematologic diseases treatable by allogeneic HCT who through pre-existing medical conditions or prior therapy are considered to be at high risk for regimen related toxicity associated with a high dose transplant (> 40% risk of transplant related mortality [TRM]); this criterion can include patients with a HCT-comorbidity index (CI) score of >= 1; transplants should be approved for these inclusion criteria by the principal investigators at the collaborating centers and at the Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center (FHCRC); all children < 12 years must be discussed with the FHCRC principal investigator (PI) prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXAges =< 50 years of age with hematologic diseases treatable by allogeneic HCT who refuse a high-dose HCT; transplants must be approved for these inclusion criteria by the principal investigators at the collaborating centers and at FHCRCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapidly progressive intermediate or high grade NHLXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of circulating leukemic blasts (in the peripheral blood) detected by standard pathology for patients with AML, ALL or CMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of >= 5% circulating leukemic blasts (in the peripheral blood) detected by standard pathology for patients with MDS/MPSXx_NEWLINE_xXThe FHCRC PI of the study must approve of enrollment of all patients with pulmonary nodulesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe addition of cytotoxic agents for “cytoreduction” with the exception of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (such as imatinib), cytokine therapy, hydroxyurea, low dose cytarabine, chlorambucil, or Rituxan will not be allowed within three weeks of the initiation of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 (REGISTRATION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have undergone a prior partial cystectomy for invasive bladder cancer; patients must not have received any prior pelvic surgery that would obviate a complete extended lymphadenectomy (e.g. aorto-femoral/iliac bypass) or for whom the surgeon feels that their ability to perform a standard or extended pelvic node dissection would be compromisedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future use to include the translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAs part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process, the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 (RANDOMIZATION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have intra-operative evidence of T4b diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease to be treated on protocol is less than 2 mm from the spinal cord and therefore will not meet dose constraints; Note: patients with eligible and ineligible lesions will be accrued to this protocol; only target eligible lesions will be treated per protocol; other eligible and ineligible lesions will be treated at the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions which comprise > 70% of the width of weight bearing bones, such as the femurXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting cortical bone destruction, where orthopedic stabilization would be requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAreas to be treated on protocol do not include metastases to liver, brain or lung; Note: patients with eligible and ineligible lesions will be accrued to this protocol; only target eligible lesions will be treated per protocol; other eligible and ineligible lesions will be treated at the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathology of amyloidosis or light chain deposition disease based on detection by polarizing microscopy of green bi-refringent material in Congo red-stained tissue specimens or characteristic electron microscopy appearance or immunohistochemical stain with anti-light chain anti-seraXx_NEWLINE_xXIf not previously transplanted, patient should be either ineligible for autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT), or must have declined the option of ASCT; patients who have previously had ASCT and have subsequently progressed are eligible, provided other entry criteria are metXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with N-terminal (NT)-proB-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) >= 1800 ng/L or BNP >= 400 ng/L, abnormal troponin T, cardiac muscle (cTnT) or troponin I, cardiac muscle (cTnI) can only be included after evaluation by cardiology to determine of the risk associate with the treatment; this evaluation needs to be discussed with the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny form of secondary / familial amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHas taken commercially available enzalutamide (Xtandi);Xx_NEWLINE_xXTissue diagnosis of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma with surface immunoglobulin G (IgG), immunoglobulin A (IgA) or immunoglobulin M (IgM) phenotype with a monoclonal heavy and light chain as determined by flow cytometry; all primary diagnostic lymph node and/or bone marrow biopsies will be reviewed at the University of Texas M.D. Anderson Cancer Center (UTMDACC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated patients with lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma (of any subtype: IgG, IgA, IgM) in the asymptomatic phaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) and/or anti-double strand (ds) DNA antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient developed erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have CML in any phase (CP, AP, or BP of any phenotype) or Ph+ ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived other therapies as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of on-going graft versus-host disease (GVHD), or GVHD requiring immunosuppressive therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking medications that are known to be associated with Torsades de PointesXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated with ponatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXCML CP patients are excluded if they are in Complete cytogenetic response (CCyR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with CML AP, CML BP, or Ph+ ALL are excluded if they are in Major Hematologic Response (MaHR).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of pancreatitis or alcohol abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia:\r\n* Lymphocytosis of >= 5,000 cells/ul; AND\r\n* Marrow aspirate with >= 30% of mononuclear cells being lymphocytes; AND\r\n* Flow cytometry demonstrating monoclonal B-cells co-expressing >= one B cell marker (cluster of differentiation [CD]19, CD20, or CD23) and CD5Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must consent to an indwelling central venous catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXCARBOPLATIN AND PACLITAXEL ARMS: patient with neuropathies of Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC) grade 1 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindications to irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXMaximum of number of lesions per patient will be 5 total for all disease sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXLUNG (ONLY APPLIES TO PATIENTS WITH PRIMARY OR METASTATIC LUNG LESIONS NOT PREVIOUSLY TREATED WITH RT):Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to anticipate achieving SBRT/RT dosimetry guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXADRENAL GLAND:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnilateral adrenal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSPINE AND PARASPINAL LESIONS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be no clinical or radiographic evidence of spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior spinal cord maximum dose at level of vertebral disease must be =< 50 GyXx_NEWLINE_xXUNTREATED PRIMARY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated T1-2N0 primary lesions may also be treated with SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated T1-4 and N1-2 disease will be treated with radiation therapy using 5 to 7 weeks of daily radiotherapy per standard practice; must be able to anticipate meeting lung dosimetry guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXRetreatment of previously irradiated tumor will be excluded; this will in general be described as an anticipated overlap of a region that has previously received >= 50 Gy and would now be included within the D90 region of the SBRT plan; there is no restriction on prior stage as long as dosimetry guidelines can be metXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated N3 mediastinal nodal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXOther prohibited medications: \r\n* Oral hypoglycemics: tolbutamide, chlorpropamide; \r\n* Ergot derivatives: dihydroergotamine, ergonovine, ergotamine, methylergonovine; \r\n* Neuroleptics: pimozide; \r\n* Antiarrhythmics: amiodarone, bepridil, flecainide, lidocaine, mexiletine, quinidine, propafenone; \r\n* Immune modulators: cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus; \r\n* Miscellaneous: theophylline, quetiapine, risperidone, tacrine, clozapine, atomoxetineXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORT ONLY: Other prohibited medications: \r\n* Oral hypoglycemics: tolbutamide, chlorpropamide; \r\n* Ergot derivatives: dihydroergotamine, ergonovine, ergotamine, methylergonovine; \r\n* Neuroleptics: pimozide; \r\n* Antiarrhythmics: amiodarone, bepridil, flecainide, lidocaine, mexiletine, quinidine, propafenone; \r\n* Immune modulators: cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus; \r\n* Miscellaneous: theophylline, quetiapine, risperidone, tacrine, clozapine, atomoxetineXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced/poorly differentiated thyroid cancers of follicular cell origin that have no uptake (< 1%) on radioiodine scan or are unresponsive to radioiodine therapy; unresponsiveness to radioiodine therapy is defined as a patient’s thyroglobulin not falling to less than 2 ng/ml within 6 months after previous radioiodine ablative treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroglobulin (Tg) levels greater than or equal to 100 ng/ml in the absence of Tg antibodies; patients who are Tg-antibody (Tg-Ab) positive may be included despite a lower Tg level if they have detectable disease on cross sectional imaging; (the presence of Tg-Ab may lead to falsely low Tg levels and therefore render the Tg a less sensitive marker of disease; however, Tg-Ab has been shown to also act as a tumor marker, and will be used as an endpoint for the study in patients who are Tg-Ab positive)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWithin 18 months of enrollment, patients must have had a radioactive iodine (RAI) scan, showing no or therapeutically insignificant RAI uptake (=< 1%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking tolbutamide, warfarin, zidovudine, benzodiazepines, clonazepam, diazepamXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects, who participated in previous ARQ 197 studies that have reached their designated end-dates, who did not meet discontinuation criteria in their original study, and who may, in the opinion of the Investigator and the Sponsor, benefit from treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have received an excessive cumulative dose of anthracyclineXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative margins after lumpectomy (re-excision for initial positive margins is allowed-negative margins defined as >= 2 mm clear of tumor in all directions); histological negative margins closer than 2 mm are permitted in the circumstance where the margin of excision is limited by adjacent tissues such as pectoral muscle or skin, but in the opinion of the surgeon and radiation oncologist an oncologically adequate excision was achievedXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative post-lumpectomy mammography if malignancy-associated microcalcifications were initially presentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe target lumpectomy cavity must be clearly delineatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete appropriate pretreatment evaluation including post-lumpectomy mammogram if microcalcifications were initially present to confirm complete removalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of collagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level above normal or active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Paget’s disease of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXPB or BM basophils ?20%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have histologically proven intracranial glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) or gliosarcoma (GS); this includes treatment-naive patients with prior tissue diagnosis of lower grade gliomas that have been upgraded after repeat resectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis ( >= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intracerebral abscess within 6 months prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to compounds containing boron, mannitol, VELCADEXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects in whom the minimum stem cell dose of 5.0 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg has been collectedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who screen fails can be re?enrolled if the causation of the screen fail has been correctedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a positive serum Yo antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject whose groins are not accessibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV)-1/2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has proteinuria > 3.5 gm over 24 hrs. are not eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has hematopoietic failure at baseline as defined by one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit < 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has clinical symptoms or signs of partial or complete gastrointestinal obstruction or who require parenteral hydration and/or nutrition (For cohort 3 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high risk cytogenetics at diagnosis must have achieved at least very good partial response following autologous stem cell transplantation (cohort 2):\r\n* Patients must have complex karyotype, 1q25, del17p, t4;14 and/or t14;16 by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or del13 by karyotypingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be of any ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not take the following medications that are strong to moderate inhibitors of CYP2D6 and may alter tamoxifen metabolism: paroxetine (Paxil), fluoxetine (Prozac), buproprion (Wellbutrin) and quindine (Cardioquin) within 2 weeks of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXpositive for translocation or inversion event involving the ALK gene locusXx_NEWLINE_xXpositive for ALK amplification eventsXx_NEWLINE_xXpositive for ALK activating point mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXmutations of amplifications involving the c-Met gene but not the ALK geneXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 30 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drugs involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a mediastinal mass > 0.33 maximum intrathoracic diameter on standing posterior-anterior chest x-ray or mass measuring > 10 cm in its largest diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF by ECHO or MUGA within institutional normal limits unless thought to be disease related; DLCO >= 60% with no symptomatic pulmonary disease unless thought to be disease relatedXx_NEWLINE_xXFGFR2 gene fusion status confirmed by NGS or FISH testingXx_NEWLINE_xXTest positive by FISH by the central laboratory designated by the SponsorXx_NEWLINE_xXIf the subject received immunotherapy, the documented radiographic disease progression is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate organ functions as indicated by the following laboratory values (based on screening visit values from the central laboratory).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematologicalXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of corneal or retinal disorder, including but not limited to bullous/band keratopathy, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal abrasion, inflammation/ulceration, confirmed by ophthalmologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent uncontrolled or active hepatobiliary disorders, untreated or ongoing complications after laparoscopic procedures or stent placement, including but not limited to active cholangitis, biloma or abscess (to be eligible, the subjects have to be treated and disorders/complications should be resolved within 2 weeks prior to the first dose of ARQ 087)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood or albumin transfusion within 5 days of the blood draw being used to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXTP53 sequencing by NGS performed by central pathology labXx_NEWLINE_xXWell-differentiated liposarcoma or other low grade STS; Kaposi sarcoma, bone sarcomas, cartilage sarcomas and gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must agree to stop the use of all herbal medicines (e.g., St. John’s wort), and supplements, within the 10 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232, and during the protocol AMG 232 treatment (weeks 1-5); subjects may renew the use of the above at week 6; standard adult multi-vitamin is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must agree to stop the use of any known CYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic window (such as alfentanil, astemizole, cisapride, dihydroergotamine, pimozide, quinidine, sirolimus, or terfanide; within the 14 days prior to receiving the first dose of AMG 232 and during protocol AMG 232 treatment (weeks 1-5); other medications (such as fentanyl and oxycodone) may be allowed per investigator’s assessment/evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXNTRK gene fusions will be identified via a CLIA certified (or equivalent) laboratory. Exception: Patients with Infantile Fibrosarcoma (IFS) and congenital mesoblastic nephroma (CMN) may be enrolled based on ETV6+ FISH test without identifying NTRK3Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT 1 AND ACINIC CELL CARCINOMA PATIENTS IN COHORT 2 ONLY: Patients must have documentation of a new or progressive lesion on a radiologic imaging study performed within 6 months prior to study enrollment (progression of disease over any interval is allowed) and/or new/worsening disease related symptoms within 6 months prior to study enrollment; Note: this assessment will be performed by the treating investigator; evidence of progression by RECIST criteria is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXExpansion Cohort 2: Subjects with UC with transitional cell histology (including renal pelvis, ureter, bladder, urethra) who have progressed on or after platinum-containing chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of GCT (nonseminoma or seminoma in men; non-dysgerminomas, dysgerminomas, or germinomas in women or patients with pineal gland GCT) at Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) of any primary site (includes female GCT and intracranial GCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant must be randomized within 16 months from the time of surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale or female patient ? 18 years of age with newly diagnosed, histologically confirmed, AML including de novo, secondary to antecedent hematologic disorders, or treatment-related disease with intermediate or unfavorable-risk cytogeneticsXx_NEWLINE_xXAML-associated inv(16)/t(16;16)/del(16q), t(15;17) (i.e. promyelocytic leukemia) with/without secondary aberrations; t(8;21) lacking del (9q) or complex karyotypesXx_NEWLINE_xXHydroxyurea for cytoreductionXx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressive, symptomatic, visceral spread of disease placing participant at risk of life-threatening complications in the short termXx_NEWLINE_xXMen and women, aged 18 or older (except in South Korea, aged 19 or older).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically measurable lymphadenopathy or extranodal lymphoid malignancy (defined as the presence of ? 1 lesion that measures > 1.5 cm in the longest transverse diameter and ? 1.0 cm in the longest perpendicular diameter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft versus host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of leg ulcers or other unacceptable mucocutaneous manifestations at any dose of hydroxyurea.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHydroxyurea-related fever.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWBC > 11.0 × 10^9/L at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects previously treated with anagrelide or JAK inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatocellular disease (eg, cirrhosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny unresolved toxicity (CTCAE grade > 1) from previous anti-cancer systemic therapy unless approved by one of the principal investigators (Drs. Lee or Sherman); rare exceptions that would not affect the study (e.g., radiation induced dysphagia) allowed with the consent of either principal investigators (Drs. Lee or Sherman)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations (patients without ophthalmologic involvement, rash covering < 10% of the body surface area and requiring only low potency topical steroids, and without exacerbations requiring systemic therapy are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSafety Cohort (Dose Escalation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSafety and Expansion CohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressive disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pathologically confirmed cancers of paranasal sinuses, oropharynx, oral cavity, nasopharynx, larynx, hypopharynx, and unknown primary and will receive definitive radiation therapy with or without chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are enrolled in a national/international cooperative group trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of grade 2 or 3 out of 3 UPS or dedifferentiated/pleomorphic LPS of the extremity (including limb girdle, i.e. shoulder or hip) that measures greater than 5 cm in any direction as assessed by imaging; Alternative terms for UPS meeting inclusion criteria include but are not limited to the followingXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease or medically inoperableXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of scleroderma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of MET-driven PRCC without co-occurring Fumarate Hydratase or Von Hippel Lindau mutations from a tumour sample using the sponsor-designated central laboratory validated MET Next Generational Sequencing assayXx_NEWLINE_xXFinal criteria for eligibility established after simulation: the tumor bed can be readily visualized on simulation computed tomography (CT) and is localized to one quadrant or region of the breast that is amenable to partial breast irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of lupus or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of central serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with baseline risk factors for central serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusion such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mmHgXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior transarterial chemoembolization (TACE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a diagnosis of Gilbert’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIPSS =< 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be available for follow-up; after 2 years of follow-up following post-treatment biopsy, telephone-based follow-up will be acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXHas newly diagnosed, locally advanced, centrally confirmed TNBC, as defined by the most recent American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXT1c, N1-N2Xx_NEWLINE_xXT2, N0-N2Xx_NEWLINE_xXT3, N0-N2Xx_NEWLINE_xXT4a-d, N0-N2Xx_NEWLINE_xXCavitary tumors or tumors invading or abutting large blood vessels.Xx_NEWLINE_xXe. Renal failure needing hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXg. Untreated and uncontrolled epileptic seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one \target lesion\ to be used to assess response on this protocol as defined by RECIST version 1.1; tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as \non-target\ lesions unless progression is documented or a biopsy is obtained to confirm persistence at least 90 days following completion of radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are allowed to receive, but are not required to receive, three additional cytotoxic regimen for management of recurrent or persistent disease; hormonal therapies will not count toward the prior regimen limitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been enrolled, or agree to consent to the companion genomic profiling study MSKCC IRB# 12-245; results must be available before starting treatment on protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of small or large bowel obstruction within 3 months of registration, including subjects with palliative gastric drainage catheters; subjects with palliative diverting ileostomy or colostomy are allowed if they have been symptom free for more than 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented lymphoid or myeloid neoplasm with 8p11 rearrangement known to lead to FGFR1 activation, based on standard diagnostic cytogenetic evaluation performed locally, before signing informed consent for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory and/or current evidence of ectopic mineralization/calcification, including but not limited to soft tissue, kidneys, intestine, myocardia, or lung, except calcified lymph nodes and asymptomatic arterial or cartilage/tendon calcifications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of corneal disorder/keratopathy, including but not limited to bullous/band keratopathy, corneal abrasion, inflammation/ulceration, and keratoconjunctivitis, as confirmed by ophthalmologic examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have received enzalutamide or apalutamide. (Note: additional therapies approved for CRPC prior to enzalutamide or apalutamide are allowed.) (Part 2 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated spinal cord compression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment in another interventional study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present study;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with MDS/AML or with features suggestive of MDS/AML;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHad previous exposure to Betafectin® or Imprime PGGXx_NEWLINE_xXFollicular lymphoma with histology documented by the participating institution (grades 1, 2 or 3a)\r\n* For subjects with presumptive evidence of transformation based on clinical assessment of factors such as, but not limited to, increasing lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), rapidly worsening disease, or frequent B-symptoms, a pre-treatment biopsy is required to rule out large cell transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of a full course of first line immunochemotherapy including rituximab OR completion of 4 cycles of first line immunochemotherapy including rituximab if intolerant of treatment (e.g. which include, but are not limited to, rituximab, cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin hydrochloride (doxorubicin hydrochloride), vincristine sulfate (Oncovin) and prednisone [R-CHOP], rituximab, cyclophosphamide, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone [R-CVP], bendamustine- R)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any other active malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to radio- or toxin-immunoconjugatesXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent enrollment in another therapeutic investigational study or have previously taken ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXMeets one or more Groupe d'Etude des Lymphomes Folliculaire (GELF) criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any concomitant medication, including antivirals or anticoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have curative options available (e.g. a single metastatic focus in the liver in a patient with MCRC eligible for metastasectomy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXChemo-refractory is defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity including the lip, floor of mouth, anterior 2/3 of tongue, alveolus and gingiva, buccal mucosa, hard palate and retromolar trigoneXx_NEWLINE_xXcombined (estrogen and progestogen containing) hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulation (oral, intravaginal, transdermal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXprogestogen-only hormonal contraception associated with inhibition of ovulation (oral, injectable, implantable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXintrauterine hormone-releasing system ( IUS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXbilateral tubal occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomy or organ allograftXx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) score 0-1 (Physically able to carry out light housework or office work through to being fully active as you were before cancer)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known SCLC transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient's treating physician states that one of the lesions can be treated with SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to a selective inhibitors of nuclear export (SINE) compoundXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMucinous or tubal histology or other good prognosis histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight < 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS ? 1;Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled CHF (NYHA Class 2-4), angina, MI, CVA, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft surgery, TIA, or PE in prior 3 months;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSomatic activating mutation in EGFRXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contra-indications to bevacizumab which include but are not limited to recent\r\n* Any previous venous thromboembolism > National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) grade 3\r\n* Severe uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure >= 150 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure >= 100 mmHg)\r\n* Cardiovascular disease including stroke of myocardial infarction =< 6 months prior to study enrollment, New York Heart Association grade 2 or greater congestive heart failure, serious cardiac arrhythmia uncontrolled by medication\r\n* Hemorrhagic brain metastases; asymptomatic (not requiring escalating doses of steroids) brain metastases are acceptable\r\n* History of severe proteinuria (urine dipstick >= 2+ or 24 hour [hr] urine > 2 gm/24 hr)\r\n* Prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy\r\n* History of a central nervous system disease (e.g. seizures) unrelated to cancer unless adequately treated with standard medical therapy\r\n* Significant vascular disease (e.g. aortic aneurysm requiring surgical repair) =< 6 months prior to study enrollment\r\n* History of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within the last 3 months\r\n* Evidence of a bleeding diathesis or significant coagulopathy (in the absence of therapeutic anticoagulation)\r\n* Current or recent (within 10 days of study drug start) use of aspirin (> 325 mg daily), clopidogrel (> 75 mg daily)\r\n* Recent initiation of full dose oral or parental anticoagulants that have not been in place for at least 2 weeks\r\n* Tumor invading or abutting major blood vessels\r\n* Tumor histology classified by squamous cell histology\r\n* Any history of abdominal fistula or gastrointestinal tract (GI) perforation within 6 months of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing and able to check and record daily blood pressure readingsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical significant peripheral vascular disease or vascular disease (aortic aneurysm or aortic dissection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction or signs and/or symptoms of bowel obstruction within 3 months prior to starting study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent dependency on intravenous (IV) hydration or total parenteral nutrition (TPN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not use natural herbal products or other “folk remedies” while participating in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXTriglyceride level of no more than 400 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cerebral vascular accident (CVA) within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXIncompletely healed woundXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of either EGFR gene amplification by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or EGFR activating mutation in the most recent tumor specimen prior to enrollment; results of EGFR gene amplification will be confirmed by Dr. John Lafrate's laboratory at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) post hoc; gene amplification is defined as EGFR to Cen7 (centromere 7 copy number control) ratio of at least 2 to 1; for EGFR activating mutation, any one of the following EGFR mutations is eligible: extracellular domain mutation: EGFRvIII, R108K, T263P, A289V, A289D, A289T, G598V; or kinase domain mutation: G719X, T790M, exon19 deletions/insertions (at/near/within codons 744-759), exon 20 insertions/deletions/mutations (insertions/deletions at or near 766-769, S768I, R776C), L858R, L861QXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Arm C, patients may have had an unlimited number of prior therapies for GBM, however must be at first recurrence from a therapeutic regimen containing bevacizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 29%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been previously treated with an anti-VEGF agent will be excluded from Arm A and Arm BXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had prior stereotactic radiotherapy, convection enhanced delivery or brachytherapy as gliosis/scarring from these modalities may limit delivery; however, if a patient has a resection or biopsy at the site of prior stereotactic radiotherapy, convection enhanced delivery, or brachytherapy and the biopsy specimen shows recurrent GBM and EGFR amplification by FISH, the patient will be eligible; patients with recurrence outside the radiosurgery field will be considered for eligibility if the recurrence is clearly documented to be outside the field and more than 3 months have lapsed since the last dose of radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXProton pump inhibitors, such as rabeprazole, omeprazole, esomeprazole, lansoprazole, dexlansoprazole, and pantoprazole are prohibited; short acting antacids such as Maalox Maximum Strength are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with late persistent acute GVHD or recurrent acute GVHD only.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMemorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC)-reviewed pathologically proven diagnosis of primary bladder urothelial carcinoma without evidence of regional (nodal) or distant spread (cT1-T4a, Nx or N0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequately functioning bladder, defined as continent and without the need for an indwelling catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant disease or histologically-proven nodal metastases; patients with radiologic evidence of lymphadenopathy must have biopsy proof of N0 statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have unresectable disease as determined by the multidisciplinary evaluation or patient is not considered operable due to medical reasonsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nodal involvement are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T1, N0 lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula or direct invasion into the mucosa of the trachea or major bronchi; bronchoscopy is encouraged if a TE fistula is suspected; the presence of a fistula will exclude a patient from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients at high risk of residual HL post ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be entered no later than 12 weeks after initial surgery performed for the combined purpose of diagnosis, staging and cytoreduction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>/=1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to Day 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xX(continued from no. 13) CTCAE Grade 2 or greater peripheral vascular disease (at least brief (<24 hrs) episodes of ischemia managed non-surgically and without permanent deficit); Prior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathy; Significant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, requiring surgical repair or recent peripheral arterial thrombosis) within 6 months prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xX(continued from no. 22) Subjects will be apprised of the large potential risk to a developing fetus. It is not known whether bevacizumab is excreted in human milk. Because many drugs are excreted in human milk, bevacizumab should not be administered to nursing women. Patients of childbearing potential must agree to use contraceptive measures during study therapy and for at least six months after completion of bevacizumab therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms or signs of gastrointestinal obstruction and who require parenteral hydration and/or nutrition.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with AML at initial diagnosis or at first relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY PRIOR TO CELL COLLECTIONS FOR DENDRITIC CELL GENERATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with evidence of minimal residual disease prior to vaccination, assessment of minimal residual disease status by cytogenetics or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) will be followed post vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who, with their treating physician, choose to proceed with an allogeneic transplant at the time of remission will not be vaccinated and will come off studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 doses of fusion vaccine were producedXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 0.5 x 10^9/L, unless cytopenias are deemed due to diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the oropharynx (tonsil, base of tongue, pharyngeal wall or palate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCannot have distant metastasis (M0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient's nutritional and general physical condition must be considered compatible with the proposed radiotherapeutic treatment (cannot have unintentional and/or surgically unrelated weight loss > 20% in the preceding 3 months); this assessment is a standard of care assessment for this patient population; this requirement can be waived by the investigator if the subject has an identifiable procedure which is the immediate and sole cause for the weight loss without an underlying pathological cause; an example of a situation like this would be if a participant is found to need a tonsillectomy during the pretreatment evaluations; it’s obvious that this scenario would be a non-pathological reason for such a weight loss; the Principal Investigator (PI) will only have this ability to waive this criterion if and only if he can substantiate and document that the weight loss does not have a pathological etiology and will correct itself within a reasonable and acceptable period of timeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is judged to be mentally reliable to follow instructions and to keep appointments (Please note that mental reliability is not determined through any specific test rather it is ascertained by the treating physician through conversation at the time of consult)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo concurrent enrollment in another therapeutic protocol for the same diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine > 1.3 or upper limit or normal (ULN), CCL < 60 cc/min, peripheral neuropathy > grade 1 and/or frequency hearing loss that interferes with activities of daily living are contraindications to cisplatin but not to carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, rifampin, phenobarbital or St. Johns wort, cyclosporine, diltiazem, ketoconazole should be discontinued if possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior sorafenib is allowed as long as toxicity from ongoing is =< grade 2 and prior intolerance of 400 mg sorafenib PO daily is felt amenable, by the principal investigator, to supportive care measures or dose modificationsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance of vorinostatXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant lung disease (oxygen [O2] saturation less than 88% in room air)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO HIGH-DOSE CHEMOTHERAPY: Minimum of 2 x10^6 CD34+ cells/kg collected at mobilizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pathologically confirmed unresectable or borderline resectable squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx, hypopharynx, nasopharynx and oropharynx will be eligible for enrollment to the clinical trial; patients will be deemed unresectable if they have clinically confirmed carotid artery encasement, skull base involvement, trismus or deep neck musculature invasion at the time of diagnosis; borderline resectability will be defined as those patients in which surgery is unlikely to result in excision of all macroscopic disease or will result in a total base of tongue glossectomy, total laryngopharyngectomy, skull base resection or carotid resectionXx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on Coumadin therapy are eligible for study; there have been some reports of prolonged INR in this patient population and regular screening is recommend in this population, but this should not exclude a patient from participationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll oncologists and radiologists will review positron emission tomography (PET) scans prior to therapy as standard practice to confirm eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners and other vulnerable populationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary sites other than oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, and larynxXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent or refractory ESFT. Patients with de novo poor prognosis/high risk ESFT: (Eligible for vaccine manufacturing at diagnosis but ONLY ELIGIBLE FOR IMMUNOTHERAPY IF DEMONSTRATES PERSISTENT/RECURRENT/ REFRACTORY DISEASE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLarge tumors > 8 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPelvic osseous tumors ANY SIZEXx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral pulmonary metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xX>2 unilateral pulmonary metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated >4 months survival probability.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tracheal/esophageal involvement. High mitotic activity or necrosis in pathology does not exclude from the study. Note: in Categories a and b, patients can be followed using US locally in addition to standard diagnostic followup menu but, if US only is positive, a FDG-PET or MRI will be obtained. If negative, a rising thyroglobulin titer is required in which case response will be monitored by continued US and suppressed and/or stimulated thyroglobulin. Thyroglobulin titer cannot be used if anti-thyroglobulin antibodies are present).Xx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated >4 month survival probability.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with compromised pulmonary disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomy unless Howell-Jolly bodies are absent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKaposi's Sarcoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic Hepatitis B and C infection. For patients with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), the presence of chronic HBV and HCV is NOT an exclusion. Patients must have a viral titer <50 IU/ml x 2 at a minimum of 2 weeks apart.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of histologically documented, B-lymphocyte antigen cluster of differentiation 20 plus (CD20+), iNHLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of sensitivity to mannitolXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with seronegative occult HBV infection or past HBV infection (defined as anti-HBc positive and HBV DNA negative) could be eligible if they were willing to be followed according to the protocol for HBV DNA testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive test results for human T-lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV 1) virus in endemic countriesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors adjacent to a vertebral body are eligible, unless there is demonstrable bone invasion, as long as all gross disease can be covered to the total radiation dose while respecting spinal cord toleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXErythropoietin stimulating agents (ESA) and blood transfusions are allowed as medically indicated, ESA use should be consistent with American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO) guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 10% weight loss in 6 months, given the poor prognostic sign of significant weight loss, and the possible intolerance to combined modality therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical laboratory values as specified in the protocol Additionally, to be eligible for the Dose Expansion portion of the study:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCytology and tumor markers: serum and lumbar CSF must be obtained to evaluate for alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and beta human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); any patient with elevated AFP (serum > 10 IU/L and CSF > than institutional norm) or elevated B-HCG (serum or CSF > 100 IU/dL) will be considered to have a nongerminomatous germ cell tumors (NGGCT) regardless of histology; lumbar CSF will also be evaluated for dissemination of tumor cells; if elevated, serum and CSF should be repeated after chemotherapy until these values are within normal range; all patients with elevation of AFP or HCG at any time prior to RT will have serum HCG and AFP repeated within 14 days before radiation therapy (RT) or within 14 days of initiation of RTXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function as assessed by >= 92% oxygen saturation on room air by pulse oximetryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate access for leukapheresis procedure as assessed by staff from the Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) Donor RoomXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any concurrent active malignancies as defined by malignancies requiring any therapy other than expectant observationXx_NEWLINE_xXLactate dehydrogenase (LDH) within normal limits (WNL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of valproic acid is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of breast carcinoma; pathologic evidence of dermal lymphatic invasion should be noted but not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of IBC (presence of inflammatory changes in the involved breast, including diffuse erythema, heat, ridging, and peau d'orange)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects that relapse within one year of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival duration of >= six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious concomitant medical illnesses that would jeopardize the patient’s ability to receive the regimen with reasonable safetyXx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to participate in Data Bank and BioRepository (DBBR) (Roswell Park Cancer Institute [RPCI] only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diagnosis by fine needle aspiration (FNA) cytology onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients shall not receive any herbal/alternative therapies such as flaxseed or soy products or black cohoshXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known mutation in p53 (Li Fraumeni syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of glucocorticoids (with the exception of inhaled glucocorticoid steroids for the use of allergic rhinitis or pulmonary disease) within 2 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous history or current presence of neurological disorders, including epilepsy (although controlled by anticonvulsant therapy), Parkinson's disease and extra-pyramidal syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor advanced or recurrent mucoepidermal carcinoma (MEC) of the salivary gland, patients must not be candidates for curative surgery or radiotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor pigmented villo-nodular synovitis (PVNS), patients must have a histologically confirmed diagnosis of inoperable progressive or relapsing PVNS, or resectable tumor requesting mutilating surgery, as well as demonstrated progressive disease in the last 12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), patients must have failed previous therapy with imatinib and sunitinib. Patients with known PDGFR mutations are excluded, but mutation testing is not required for study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCT scans showing involvement of ? 1clearly demarcated lesions measuring ? 1.5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXArm A:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of significant active infection requiring antimicrobial, antifungal, antiparasitic, or antiviral therapy or for which other supportive care is givenXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must be supratentorially locatedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must currently have at least one of the following:\r\n* Uncontrolled symptoms, defined as any of the following:\r\n** Headaches associated with mass effect\r\n** Uncontrolled seizures despite 2 different antiepileptic drug regimens (i.e., 2 antiepileptic drugs tested either sequentially or in combination)\r\n** Focal neurological symptoms\r\n** Cognitive symptoms or deficits OR\r\n* Tumor progression by serial magnetic resonance imaging (MRIs), defined as any of the following:\r\n** New or progressive enhancement\r\n** New or progressive T2 or fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) signal abnormality OR\r\n* Age >= 40 years\r\n** NOTE: Patients aged less than 40 whose only symptom of low-grade glioma is seizures that are well-controlled on antiepileptic drugs, and who have no evidence of radiographic progression, are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xX1p/19q deletion status assessment as determined by the Mayo Cytogenetics Laboratory has been receivedXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions attributed to fluoropyrimidines (e.g., capecitabine, fluorouracil, fluorodeoxyuridine) or tetrahydrouridineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have active eczema, atopic dermatitis, or other exfoliative skin conditions (e.g., burns, impetigo, varicella zoster, severe acne, contact dermatitis, psoriasis, herpes or other open rashes or wounds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHLA-A*0201 positive (to enable immunization with the HLA class I restricted gp100[g209-2M] peptide); stage IIB or IIC patients will be enrolled after review and approval by the principal investigator (PI); (a tool to determine the projected survival at 5 years, like, but not limited to, the nomogram at www.melanomaprognosis.org; if the projected survival is less than 50% at 5 years, then the patient is considered for enrollment; this is with the recognition that the adjuvant, if effective offers a significant impact in that group of stage II patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immunization with gp100(g209-2M)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have 3 or fewer newly diagnosed metastatic lesions in the brain with a complete resection of at least one lesion as determined by the study neuroradiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have metastatic alveolar soft part sarcoma that is not curable by surgery; patients who have surgically resectable tumors with metastasis will be considered on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA) >= 1.04 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXFerritin> 1000 mcg/L at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated to be transfused at least 8 times annually during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of HIV positivity by (ELISA or Western blot)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of non-compliance with medical regimen, or patients potentially unreliable and/or not cooperativeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of drug or alcohol abuse within the 12 months prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may or may not have started bisphosphonatesXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have active hemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluable KS involving the skin and/or viscera, including at least one of the following:\r\n* KS of the skin with >= 5 KS lesions that are evaluable by non-invasive methods that have not been treated with local therapeutic modalities\r\n* Pulmonary KS evaluable by computed tomography (CT) scan\r\n* Gastrointestinal KS evaluable by direct visualization or fiberoptic instrumentation\r\n* Biopsy proven lymph node involvement measurable by CT scanXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to take aspirin 81 mg dailyXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion of women and minorities: both men and women and members of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cumulative doxorubicin or liposomal doxorubicin dose > 430 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown procoagulant disorder including prothrombin gene mutation 20210, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency and antiphospholipid syndrome but not including heterozygosity for the Factor V Leiden mutation or the presence of a lupus anticoagulant in the absence of other criteria for the antiphospholipid syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXProteinuria > 500 mg/24hrsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any other abnormality that would be scored as a grade 3 or greater toxicity, except:\r\n* Lymphopenia\r\n* Direct manifestations of KS\r\n* Direct manifestation of HIV\r\n* Direct manifestation of HIV therapy (i.e. hyperbilirubinemia associated with protease inhibitors)\r\n* Asymptomatic hyperuricemia\r\n* HypophosphatemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust agree to follow pregnancy precautions as required by the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust agree not to donate blood or semen as defined by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of renal failure requiring dialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of TLS at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of specific hematology and/or chemistry abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXVenous thromboembolism within one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known splenomegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects Age < 65\r\n* Refractory AML\r\n* OR AML relapse within six months of attaining remission\r\n* OR AML relapse more than six months after achieving a remission, who cannot achieve a second remission \r\n* OR Untreated subjects who develop AML after preexisting hematologic disease \r\n* OR Secondary AML\r\nFor subjects Age >= 65\r\n* De novo AML not candidates for induction chemotherapy\r\n* OR Refractory AML\r\n* OR AML relapse within six months of attaining remission\r\n* OR AML relapse more than six months after achieving a remission, who cannot achieve a second remission\r\n* OR Untreated subjects who develop AML after preexisting hematologic disease \r\n* OR Secondary AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant Medications\r\n* Patient agrees to discontinue St. Johns Wort while receiving dasatinib therapy (discontinue St. Johns Wort at least 5 days before starting dasatinib)\r\n* Patient agrees that IV bisphosphonates will be withheld for the 4 weeks of dasatinib therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia if it cannot be corrected prior to dasatinib administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to ATRAXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to dasatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXCategory I drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes or prolonged QT interval including: (Patients must discontinue drug 7 days prior to starting dasatinib)\r\n* Quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide\r\n* Amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide\r\n* Erythromycin, clarithromycin\r\n* Chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide\r\n* Cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXProton pump inhibitors and histamine-2 (H2) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSt. John’s WortXx_NEWLINE_xXMedications that inhibit platelet function and anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners, or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum glutamic pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) =< 200 IU/ml unless related to patient's malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of uncontrolled graft-versus-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCould have been treated neoadjuvantly but have not reached pathologic complete response.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive clinical and radiologic assessments for local or regional recurrence of disease at the time of study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that cannot tolerate being scanned for an additional 12 minutes with arms above their head will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with one of the following diseases:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndromes with International Prognostic Scoring System score (IPSS score) >= 2 or myelodysplasia that has not responded to chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one of the following for inclusion into protocol:\r\n* Lupus nephritis, defined as renal biopsy (biopsy within 6 months of transplant decision) showing glomerulonephritis, with active diffuse proliferative lesion (World Health Organization [WHO] stage IV or Vd, with biopsy classified by WHO criteria)\r\n* Refractory and severe seizures or encephalopathy attributed to SLE\r\n* Severe pulmonary involvement with recurrent pulmonary hemorrhage; and/or refractory pulmonary infiltrate not attributed to infection; and/or interstitial lung disease- defined by presence of alveolitis or pneumonitis on high-resolution computed tomography (CT) scan or documentation of DLCO < 80% at least twice\r\n* Transfusion-dependent cytopenias that are unresponsive to standard treatment\r\n* Catastrophic antiphospholipid syndrome, which is defined as an antiphospholipid titer greater than 5 standard deviations above the mean and two or more antiphospholipid related manifestations, including either cytopenias or vascular thrombosis that failed to respond to anticoagulant therapy\r\n* Vasculitis and/or immune complex deposition causing end-organ signs or symptoms, e.g. cerebritis, cardiac failure, or renal failure, refractory to standard treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received a trial of IV cyclophosphamide pulse greater than 500 mg/square meter at least once within the previous 6 months, unless contraindicated because of severe cytopenias or intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of SSc as defined by American College of Rheumatology and at high-risk for fatal outcome based on the following prognostic factors; patients must have (1) both a and b below and (2) at least one of c, d, e, or f\r\n* a) Diffuse cutaneous scleroderma as defined by skin thickening proximal to the elbows or knees and/or torso, in addition to distal extremity involvement\r\n* b) Duration of systemic sclerosis =< 5 years from the onset of first non-Raynaud’s symptom\r\n* c) Presence of interstitial or pulmonary vascular lung involvement (forced vital capacity [FVC] or DLCO < 70% of predicted) especially with evidence of alveolitis (abnormal bronchoalveolar lavage or high-resolution chest CT scan)\r\n* d) Presence of SSc-related pulmonary disease and alveolitis (abnormal bronchoalveolar lavage or high-resolution chest CT scan) with FVC or DLCO between 70% and 80% predicted, AND a drop in FVC > 15% predicted within the preceding 18 months\r\n* e) Presence of myocardial disease (arrhythmia needing therapy, cardiomegaly, presence of moderate or large pericardial effusion, or left axis deviation on electrocardiogram [EKG])\r\n* f) History of SSc renal crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of 2 of the following drugs: interferon-beta1b, interferon beta 1a, and glatiramer acetate; failure is defined by new or progressive physical signs and symptoms that impair activities of daily living; such changes include cognitive decline, vision loss, swallowing dysfunction, limb weakness, limb plasticity, bowel or bladder dysfunction, and coordination or gait dysfunction; these clinical changes should be supported by new or expanding lesions on MRI scanning consistent with disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXA Kurtzke extended disability status scale (EDSS) of 2.0 to 6.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have relapsing disease (patients with progressive disease will be excluded); in addition, patients must have had at least two relapses in the past 18 months; relapses are defined clinically or radiographicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable allogeneic CD19CAR transduced tri-virus-specific cytotoxic T lymphocytes with >=15% expression of CD19CAR determined by flow cytometry and greater than 10% killing of one or more viral antigen pulsed targets in a cytotoxicity assay at an effector:target ratio of 20:1Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of graft versus host disease > grade IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have stable (SD) or responding disease (PR or CR) documented by the appropriate radiological, clinical, or laboratory assessments within 12 weeks before enrollment (Note: response criteria from the previous AG-013736 protocol should be used to determine stable or responding disease).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have progressive disease (PD) but have experienced \clinical benefit\ as defined in the study protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thromboembolic disease within the past 6 months regardless of anti-coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following hematologic malignancies will be permitted although other diagnoses can be considered if approved by Patient Care Conference (PCC) and the principal investigators:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAggressive non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHL) and other histologies such as diffuse large B cell (DLBC) NHL - a) not eligible for autologous HCT, b) not eligible for high-dose HCT, c) after failed autologous HCT, or d) be part of a tandem auto-allo approach for high risk patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXMantle cell NHL must be beyond first complete response (CR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) must have either \r\n * 1) Failed to meet National Cancer Institute (NCI) Working Group criteria for complete or partial response after therapy with a regimen containing FLU (fludarabine phosphate) (or another nucleoside analog, e.g. 2-chlorodeoxyadenosine [2-CDA], pentostatin) or experience disease relapse within 12 months after completing therapy with a regimen containing FLU (or another nucleoside analog) \r\n * 2) Failed FLU- CY (cyclophosphamide)-rituximab (FCR) combination chemotherapy at any time point; or \r\n * 3) Have \17p deletion\ cytogenetic abnormality and relapsed at any time point after any initial chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients eligible for a curative autologous HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infectious disease concernsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with AML, MDS, ALL, or CML must not have presence of circulating leukemic blasts detected by standard pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with aggressive lymphomas (such as DLBC) must not have bulky, rapidly progressive disease immediately prior to HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Donors who are not expected to meet the minimum target dose of marrow cells (1 x 10^8 nucleated cells/kg recipient ideal body weight [IBW]) for the initial HCT; the average nucleated cell content of harvested marrow is 22 x 10^6 nucleated cells/mL or 220 x 10^8 nucleated cells/LiterXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with a diagnosis of complex atypical hyperplasia or endometrial biopsy within three months of study enrollment OR patients with a diagnosis of grade 1 endometrioid endometrial carcinoma on endometrial biopsy within three months of study enrollment in the presence of one or more of the following: 1) desire for future fertility 2) morbid obesity (body mass index > 40) 3) multiple co-morbidities (American Society of Anesthesiology [ASA] class 3 or 4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen of any racial or ethnic groupXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of grade 2 endometrioid endometrial carcinoma or higher on endometrial biopsy or on dilation and curettage specimenXx_NEWLINE_xXCongenital or acquired uterine anomaly which distorts the uterine cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions associated with increased susceptibility to infections with microorganisms; such conditions include, but are not limited to, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), leukemia and intravenous (IV) drug abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXGenital actinomycosisXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of aggressive systemic mastocytosis (ASM) or mast cell leukemia (MCL) according to WHO criteria for SM and established criteria for ASM and MCL (Valent et al 2003), presenting with at least one measurable C-Finding.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeeting the following laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of Herceptin (trastuzumab), and a taxaneXx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 2 prior Herceptin (trastuzumab) regimens or prior use of Xeloda (capecitabine) and / or Tykerb (lapatinib) [Tyverb]Xx_NEWLINE_xXCP-CML who prove resistant or intolerant to imatinib (Cohort 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPh+ ALL, AP-CML, or BP-CML who are resistant or intolerant to or who relapse after imatinib therapy (Cohort 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXa purine analog-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXa bendamustine-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXan anti-CD20 antibody-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXa chlorambucil-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXan alemtuzumab-containing regimen (for those subjects with a 17p deletion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an understanding that the study drug could have a potential teratogenic risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must be counseled about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of renal failure requiring dialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of TLS per the Cairo-Bishop definition of laboratory TLS (subjects may be enrolled upon correction of electrolyte abnormalities).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXVenous thromboembolism within one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners.Xx_NEWLINE_xXprostate volume ? 40 gms(cc) (HIFU subject prostate volume will be initially calculated utilizing TRUS measurements during screening and verified with the use of the Sonablate before initiating the HIFU procedure. Patients with prostate volumes greater than 40 gm(cc) as determined by either measurement will not be enrolled in the study);Xx_NEWLINE_xXAP diameter of the prostate must be ?4.0cm;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) criteria of IV or higher;Xx_NEWLINE_xXintra-prostatic calcifications >1.0 cm (single or continuous grouping) on 2 or more consecutive images along the same plane by either the TRUS or Sonablate 500 measurement will not be enrolled;Xx_NEWLINE_xXuse of coumadin or any other anticoagulant, unless anticoagulation can be temporarily reversed or stopped;Xx_NEWLINE_xXinterest in future fertility;Xx_NEWLINE_xXbody weight which would preclude proper suprapubic catheter functioning, per investigator's discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXuse of any 5ARI drugs within 3 months prior to enrollment such as Finasteride (Proscar) or Dutasteride (Avodart);Xx_NEWLINE_xXhistory of urethral stent or urethral surgery (urethral dilation, urethroplasty); a Uroflow exam may be conducted at the investigators discretion;Xx_NEWLINE_xXfunctional bladder problems defined as IPSS > 19;Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent bladder cancer, urethral stricture, or bladder neck contracture; a cystoscopy my be performed at the investigator's discretion to rule out these conditions;Xx_NEWLINE_xXurinary tract or rectal fistula;Xx_NEWLINE_xXrectal fibrosis/stenosis; anoscopy or proctoscopy may be performed at the investigator's discretion;Xx_NEWLINE_xXanomaly of the rectal anatomy or mucus membrane; anoscopy or proctoscopy may be performed at the investigator's discretion;Xx_NEWLINE_xXparticipation in other investigational studies, unless approved in writing by the study sponsor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine < 2 mg %; patients with renal or liver dysfunction due to organ infiltration by lymphocytes may be eligible after discussion with the study chairmanXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin < 2 mg %; patients with renal or liver dysfunction due to organ infiltration by lymphocytes may be eligible after discussion with the study chairmanXx_NEWLINE_xXfully active at a minimum or fully capable of selfcare and up and about more than 50% of waking hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed pathologic diagnosis of a solid tumor that is not curable with available therapies for which HKI-272 plus vinorelbine is a reasonable treatment option (part 1 only) or Confirmed pathologic diagnosis of ErbB-2-positive breast cancer (current stage IV) in female subjects for which vinorelbine plus HKI-272 is a reasonable treatment option (part 2 only).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFanconi anemia (FA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmed melanoma that is metastatic or unresectable; patients must have measurable disease (at least one measurable lesion) as defined by Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors (RECIST) criteria; NOTE: all sites of disease must be evaluated within 4 weeks prior to registration to treatment; patients must have a history of melanoma of one of the following subtypes: \r\n* Acral (as defined as occurring on the palms, soles, or subungual sites)\r\n* Melanoma arising from the vagina and/or vulva\r\n* Melanoma arising on other mucosal surface (not vagina or vulva)Xx_NEWLINE_xXc-KIT mutation status determination, local versus central assessments; at least one must apply:\r\n* Performed locally by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and sequencing prior to pre-registration: The melanoma harbors at least one mutation in exon 9, 11, 13, 17 or 18 of the c-KIT gene; NOTE: registration to step 1 may occur upon confirmation of pre-registration Or\r\n* Performed locally by PCR and sequencing prior to pre-registration: if the melanoma harbors at least one mutation in the c-KIT gene but is not in an exon listed or is uncertain whether it is in one of these exons then eligibility to register to step 1 requires approval of a designated central reviewer; submit the cKIT report within 24 hours after pre-registration as indicated Or\r\n* If local assessment is not possible, metastatic (preferred) or primary tumor tissue should be on hand PRIOR to pre-registration and will be submitted to Massachusetts General Hospital – Pathology (MGH) within 5 working days following pre-registration as outlined; if submission of tissue will be submitted more than 5 working days after pre-registration, immediately notify MGH (Massachusetts General Hospital) to discuss the potential submission timeline\r\n* IMPORTANT: if the c-KIT status will be determined by MGH, strict attention is to be paid to the timeframes dictated; specifically, clinical assessments which must fall within 4 weeks of registration to treatment (step 1) may be performed or repeated during pre-registration to fall within the required timeframeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have ocular melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXThe melanoma must harbor a c-KIT mutation determined by PCR and sequencingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with glioblastoma multiforme or gliosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAuto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have malignant glioma or recurrent ependymomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on immunosuppressive drugs (with exception of corticosteroid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of combined 1p/19q lossXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor material available for central 1p/19q assessment, central O6-methylguanine-deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) methyltransferase promoter methylation status assessment, isocitrate dehydrogenase mutation analysis, and central pathology reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXNo medical condition that could interfere with oral medication intake (e.g., frequent vomiting or partial bowel obstruction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that would potentially hamper compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXCurran Group status of I-IV at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an active infection requiring treatment or an unexplained febrile (> 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit [F]) illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with demonstrated allergy to TMZ or who are otherwise unable to tolerate TMZ for any reason will be excluded and replaced if needed; patients who are found after enrollment to be unable to tolerate TMZ will not be a candidate for the vaccine despite being previously enrolled and will be removed from the study and replacedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been administered basiliximab or who have had an allergic reaction to basiliximab or one of its components in the past will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient's hematopoietic cell transplant donor must consent to a 2 volume leukapheresis or whole blood donations obtained at one phlebotomy which will total approximately 250 ml from which the WT-1 specific T cells to be used for adoptive transfer will be generatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 20,000/mm^3; this requirement may be waived if patient has hematologic relapse of disease or if patient has not yet recovered counts from chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR EXCLUSION: New health conditions which would exclude a transplant donor from a second blood donation are limited, but include:\r\n* New onset of an human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection\r\n* Other uncontrolled infection which could be transmitted to the patient by blood cells and would place the patient at significant increased risk of severe morbidity or death\r\n* Significant anemia with hemoglobin (Hgb) =< 10 gm/dl, persisting since the time of the original transplant donation\r\n* History of myocardial infarction or stroke since the time of hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) donation which might increase the risk of blood donationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing either a Type II or III radical hysterectomy (Piver Classification)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnfit for Surgery: serious concomitant systemic disorders incompatible with the study (at the discretion of the investigator);Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to withstand prolonged lithotomy and steep Trendelenburg positionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient compliance and geographic proximity that do not allow adequate follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis has been verified by institutional pathologist and classified according to the WHO (2007) systemXx_NEWLINE_xXMedulloblastoma patients >= 3 and < 5 years old at diagnosis who have non-metastatic disease with no more than 1 cm^2 of residual tumor are also eligible; medulloblastoma patients in the >= 3 and < 5 years old age group with anaplastic or large cell histology or with v-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene homolog (MYC) or v-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene neuroblastoma derived homolog (MYCN) amplification are excluded; pathology from collaborating institutions must be centrally reviewed prior to enrollment for confirmationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of nodular desmoplastic medulloblastoma (includes medulloblastoma with extensive nodularity); patients with focal areas of anaplasia or other atypical features suggesting a more aggressive phenotype in a tumor which would otherwise be considered nodular desmoplastic should be treated on the intermediate risk arm; in such unusual cases, final risk stratification will be at the discretion of the principal investigator and study pathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of CNS metastasis as indicated by MR images of the brain and spine and by cytologic examination of lumbar CSF 7 to 28 days after surgery; if lumbar puncture is medically contraindicated, ventricular CSF from a shunt or Ommaya reservoir may be used to rule out M1 disease; if CSF sampling is not possible and the patient has no other evidence of metastasis, the patient should be assigned to the intermediate risk armXx_NEWLINE_xXDesmoplastic medulloblastoma patients who are >= 3 to < 5 years of age will NOT be eligible for the low risk arm of the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of CNS metastasis as indicated by MR images of the brain and spine and by cytologic examination of lumbar CSF 7 to 28 days after surgery; if lumbar puncture is medically contraindicated, ventricular CSF from a shunt or Ommaya reservoir may be used to rule out M1 disease; if CSF sampling is not possible and the patient has no other evidence of metastasis, the patient will be assigned to the low risk armXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of nodular desmoplastic medulloblastoma with less than gross total resection, but with no evidence of metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXMedulloblastoma patients who are >= 3 and < 5 years of age with no more than 1cm^2 of residual tumor and with no evidence of CNS metastasis; medulloblastoma patients in the >= 3 and < 5 years old age group with anaplastic histology, large cell histology, melanotic differentiation, or myogenic differentiation or tumors with MYC or MYCN gain or amplification are excluded; pathology from collaborating institutions’ patients must be centrally reviewed prior to enrollment for confirmationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced AML or ALL defined as beyond first remission, primary refractory disease, or evolved from myelodysplastic or myeloproliferative syndromes; or patients with MDS expressed as refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB), refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD), RCMD with ringed sideroblasts (RCMD-RS), or chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients not in remission must have cluster of differentiation (CD)45-expressing leukemic blasts; patients in remission do not require phenotyping and may have leukemia previously documented to be CD45 negative (because in remission patients, virtually all antibody binding is to non-malignant cells which make up >= 95% of nucleated cells in the marrow)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating antibody against mouse immunoglobulin (HAMA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with histologically proven supratentorial WHO grade IV glioma (glioblastoma or gliosarcoma) will be eligible for the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xX(2. continued) Patients with prior therapy that included interstitial brachytherapy, Gliadel wafers or stereotactic radiosurgical procedures must have confirmation of true progressive disease rather than radiation necrosis. Such confirmation may be using advanced imaging studies (e.g. PET scans, diffusion-perfusion MRI, SPECT etc) or if available, surgical sampling and histological confirmation (surgery is not required).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have had up to 2 prior relapses.Xx_NEWLINE_xX(10. continued) (such as presurgically for obtaining pharmacology data for the agent) will be eligible to enter the study provided they have recovered from the toxic effects of the agent if any. Any questions related to the definition of non-cytotoxic agents should be directed to the Study Chair.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving treatment with other antiepileptic medications will not be excluded. Vorinostat is not metabolized by cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP 3A4). However, vorinostat may potentially suppress CYP 3A4 activity. Therefore, patients should preferably be treated with non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic medications to avoid any potential interactions with vorinostat.Xx_NEWLINE_xX(8. continued) However, the use of non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic medications is not mandatory. If enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs are used, monitoring of drug levels should be considered, as considered clinically appropriate by the treating physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup A: Pathologic fracture or impending pathologic fracture of the femur;Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup A: Intramedullary rod, plating, cementation, hip arthroplasty, or knee arthroplasty.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup B: T2 tu;mor (>5 cm buty < 20 cm);Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of DVT on pre-operative screening ultrasound studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated blood loss > 2 liters during surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXI.N.R. > 1.3 pre-operatively or > 1.5 post-operativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXIndwelling post-operative epidural catheter for pain controlXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertensive or diabetic retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking COX-2 inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have fragmented mechanical heart valvesXx_NEWLINE_xXBurkitt or acute lymphoblastic lymphomas\r\n* High-risk disease in remission\r\n* Primary refractory disease\r\n* Recurrent disease\r\n* Relapse/progression after autologous HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome\r\n* Refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB) I or II\r\n* High-risk International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS)\r\n* Secondary MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloproliferative disorders (idiopathic myelofibrosis, polycythemia vera, essential thrombocytosis, chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, agnogenic myeloid metaplasia)\r\n* Agnogenic myeloid metaplasia with adverse-risk features \r\n* Polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemia in transformation to secondary AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with AML in first complete remission (CR1) must have one of the following:\r\n* Adverse cytogenetics with residual disease detectable by flow cytometry, cytogenetic analysis, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), or polymerase chain reaction (PCR); adverse cytogenetics in AML are defined as complex karyotype (>= 3 abnormalities); inversion (inv)(3) or t(3;3); t(6;9); t(6;11); monosomy 7; trisomy 8, alone or with an abnormality other than t(8;21), t(9;11), inv(16) or t(16;16); or t(11;19 (q23;p13.1) \r\n* Primary induction failure, defined as failure to achieve CR with primary induction chemotherapy \r\n* Secondary AML, defined as AML related to antecedent MDS, MPD, or cytotoxic chemotherapy\r\n* Hyperleukocytosis, white blood cells (WBC) >= 100,000, at diagnosis\r\n* Mutations in the FMS-like tyrosine kinase 3 (FLT3) gene (FLT3-LM; FLT internal tandem duplication [ITD]s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with ALL in CR1 must have one of the following:\r\n* Adverse cytogenetics or residual disease detectable by flow cytometry, cytogenetic analysis, FISH, or PCR; adverse cytogenetics in ALL are defined as translocations involving t(4;11), t(1;19), t(8;14), 11q23, t(9;22) or bcr-abl rearrangement or complex cytogenetic abnormalities\r\n* Primary induction failure, defined as failure to achieve CR with primary induction chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with agnogenic myeloid metaplasia must have at least 2 of the following features:\r\n* Hemoglobin < 10 g/dl, or > 10 g/dl with transfusion dependence\r\n* WBC < 4,000 or > 30,000/mm^3 or requires cytoreductive therapy to maintain\r\n* WBC < 30,000/mm\r\n* Abnormal cytogenetics including +8, 12p-Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) =< to 2.0 x normal (myeloablative regimen 4, reduced intensity regimen 3) or =< 4.0 x normal (nonmyeloablative regimen 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< to 2.0 x normal (myeloablative regimen 4, reduced intensity regimen 3) or =< 4.0 x normal (nonmyeloablative regimen 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a family member who is matched at 2, 3, or 4 HLA antigens typed as described above and willing to donate 80-100 ml or bone marrow for mesenchymal stem cell (MSC) generation or the angioblast mesenchymal precursor cells will be used for the cord blood co-cultures; patients that are high risk for relapse are eligible to use the angioblast \off-the-shelf\ mesenchymal precursor cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave identified a back-up cell source in case of engraftment failure; the source can be autologous, related, or unrelatedXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled serious medical condition such as persistent septicemia despite adequate antibiotic therapy, decompensated congestive heart failure despite cardiac medications or pulmonary insufficiency requiring intubation; (excluding primary disease for which cord blood [CB] transplantation is proposed), or psychiatric condition that would limit informed consentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of/or current evidence of hemoptysis (bright red blood of ½ teaspoon or more)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking chronic erythropoietin are permitted provided no dose adjustment is made within 2 months prior to start of first dose.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking phenytoin, carbamazepine, and PhenobarbitalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking rifampin and/or St. John's WortXx_NEWLINE_xXTIER II SUBJECTS: Patients with follicular lymphoma who have achieved at least a partial response with an initial chemotherapy and/or immunotherapy regimen; response from pre-study regimen may be either a clinically determined response by the principal investigator or physician co-investigator member of the study team, or a measured response as per the response criteria of this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse after achieving initial remission or failure to achieve initial remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer disease or other potentially hemorrhagic esophagitis/gastritisXx_NEWLINE_xXActive immune thrombocytopenic purpura or history of being refractory to platelet transfusions (within 1 year of first dose)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the second stage of the Phase I trial, all patients must have histologic demonstration of metastatic or locally unresectable transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium. Minor components (<50% overall) of variant such as glandular or squamous differentiation, or evolution to more aggressive phenotypes such as sarcomatoid or small cell change are acceptable. However, when these atypical histologies are dominant, other treatment approaches may be more appropriate, and such patients are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has hypersensitivity to bortezomib, boron, mannitol, gemcitabine, or doxorubicin. Gemcitabine skin rash that be controlled by short course steroids is allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide all biological specimens as required by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasles antibody titer on the BioRad Multiplex assay less than or equal to 1.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to heat inactivated measles virus vaccine (this vaccine was given to some individuals between the years of 1963-1967)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to household contacts =< 15 months old or household contact with known immunodeficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a programmable shunt will not be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth pediatric and adult patients of any age are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with obstructive or symptomatic communicating hydrocephalusXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere major organ toxicity; specifically, renal, cardiac, hepatic, pulmonary, and gastrointestinal system toxicity should all be less than or equal to grade 2; patients with stable neurological deficits (because of their brain tumor) are not excluded; patients with =< 3 hearing loss are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no rapidly progressing or deteriorating neurologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic documentation of prostatic adenocarcinoma; patients with small cell, neuroendocrine, or transitional cell carcinomas are not eligible; all eligible patients must have a known Gleason sum based on biopsy or transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) at the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have either:\r\n* A Kattan nomogram predicted probability of being free from biochemical progression at 5 years after surgery of < 60%; please note that for the purposes of the nomogram calculation, the pre-biopsy prostate specific antigen (PSA) value must be used OR\r\n* Prostate biopsy Gleason sum >= 8 \r\n(NOTE: the Kattan nomogram probability must be calculated for all patients, including those eligible based on Gleason sum >= 8 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) and an inoperable plexiform neurofibroma that has the potential to cause significant morbidity, such as (but not limited to) head and neck lesions that could compromise the airway or great vessels, brachial or lumbar plexus lesions that could cause nerve compression and loss of function, lesions that could result in major deformity (e.g., orbital lesions) or significant cosmetic problems, lesions of the extremity that cause limb hypertrophy or loss of function, and painful lesions; histologic confirmation of tumor is not required in the presence of consistent clinical and radiographic findings; however, if any clinical observation or scan suggests possible malignant transformation, the tumor should be biopsied prior to therapy; patients without biopsy-proof of a plexiform neurofibroma must have at least one other diagnostic criteria for NF1 as defined by the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Consensus Conference:\t\r\n* Six or more café-au-lait spots (> 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or > 1.5 cm in postpubertal subjects)\r\n* Freckling in the axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpecific eligibility criteria stratum 3:\r\n* Disease status: \r\n** Patients must have a radiographically progressive plexiform neurofibroma(s) with or without clinical symptoms; progression at the time of study entry is defined as: \r\n*** Presence of new plexiform neurofibromas on MRI within the last 12 months OR\r\n*** A measurable increase of the plexiform neurofibroma (>= 20% increase in the volume, or a >= 13% increase in the product of the two longest perpendicular diameters, or a >= 6% increase in the longest diameter) over the last two consecutive scans (MRI or computed tomography [CT]), or over the time period of approximately one year prior to evaluation for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMRI scan of the target plexiform neurofibroma(s), performed according to study requirements, including axial and coronal short tau inversion recovery (STIR) images within 4 weeks of enrollment on study; patients with orbital plexiform neurofibromas (PNF’s) must have a baseline ophthalmologic evaluation performed prior to study enrollment by an ophthalmologist familiar with the protocol guidelines; patients with pain associated with the target PNF must be able to fill out the Pain Medication Diary with at least one week of documentation prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are known to be actively abusing alcohol or drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of interferon alfa-2b or PEG-IntronXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of one of the following: Previously untreated Ph-positive ALL [either t(9;22) and/or bcr-abl positive] (includes patients initiated on first course of hyper-CVAD before cytogenetics known) These groups will be analyzed separately. After 1-2 courses of chemotherapy with or without imatinib mesylate (Gleevec) · If they achieved CR, they are assessable only for event-free and overall survival, or · If they failed to achieve CR, they are assessable for CR, event-free, and overall survival. Patients with relapsed Ph-positive ALL or lymphoid blast phase of CML.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic uremia, uncontrolled edema or unstable serum electrolytes should not enter the trial until such time as they have been stabilized – such patients should be discussed with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility of patients receiving any medications or substances known to affect or with the potential to affect the activity or pharmacokinetics of E7389 Halichondrin analog will be determined following review of their case by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with brain metastasis that are unstable (i.e. presenting with neurologic symptoms that progress or require increasing doses of steroids within a 4-week period) or are untreated (i.e. not radiated) should be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPh+ CML; the diagnosis of chronic phase CML based on cytogenetic detection of the Ph chromosome and/or detection of the breakpoint cluster region (BCR)-Abelson (ABL) rearrangement by molecular analysis (recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] analysis of the BCR-ABL fusion gene, fluorescence in situ hybridization, or polymerase chain reaction detection of the BCR-ABL hybrid messenger ribonucleic acid [mRNA])Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of complete cytogenetic response (CCR) by conventional cytogenetics or fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis on a frontline TKI with stable dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXAny phase of CML other than chronic phaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other disease requiring long-term corticosteroids or immunosuppressantsXx_NEWLINE_xXReliable telephone access to receive calls from an interactive voice response system (IVR) (only applicable to patients who will participate in optional symptom burden assessment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll stages of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXExclusion for fludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG) scan is anyone exceeding the weight limit of the scanner (350 lb)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUNRELATED DONORS: Only G-CSF mobilized PBMC will be permitted as a HSC source on this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unwilling to use contraceptive techniques before and for 12 months after HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXThe addition of cytotoxic agents for 'cytoreduction' with the exception of tyrosine kinase inhibitors (such as imatinib mesylate), cytokine therapy, hydroxyurea, low dose cytarabine, chlorambucil, or rituxan will not be allowed within three weeks of the initiation of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Alternatively to a fresh unmodified leukapheresis product, previously collected cryopreserved peripheral blood stem cells (PBSC) after mobilization with G-CSF or cryopreserved unmodified leukapheresis product from the original donor can be used; if cryopreserved product is not available, the following criteria apply for the DLI product:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent grade II to IV acute GVHD or extensive chronic GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior recipient of cord bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Donors who are not suitable for medical reasons to donate peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) by continuous centrifugation according to the criteria of the American Association of Blood Banks (AABB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival >= 3 months from study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Must have adequate veins for leukapheresis or agree to placement of central venous catheter (femoral or subclavian)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Only G-CSF mobilized peripheral blood mononuclear cells (PBMC) only will be permitted as a hematopoietic stem cell (HSC) source on this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cluster of differentiation (CD)34 selected auto graftsXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is eligible for and plans to undergo ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed relapsed or refractory AML and meet the following criteria:\r\n* Relapsed disease is defined as AML is in 1st or greater marrow relapse\r\n* Refractory disease is defined as AML which failed to go into remission after 1st or greater relapse, OR AML which failed to go into remission after two or more induction attempts from original diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have definitive evidence of t(8;21) or inv(16) by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) approved cytogenetics laboratory from initial diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an alanine transaminase (ALT) < 5 x ULN for age; these criteria may be waived for patients with known or suspected liver involvement by leukemia following review and approval by the study chair or vice chairXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any evidence of dyspnea at rest, exercise intolerance, and must have a pulse oximetry > 94% at sea levelXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any cardiopulmonary symptoms of unknown cause (e.g. shortness of breath, chest pain, etc.) should be evaluated by a baseline echocardiogram with or without stress test as needed in addition to electrocardiogram (EKG) to rule out QTc prolongation; the patient may be referred to a cardiologist at the discretion of the treating physician; patients with underlying cardiopulmonary dysfunction should be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded if there is a need to administer drugs that inhibit platelet function, such as aspirin or clopidogrel; for such medications a wash-out period of >= 7 days is required prior to starting dasatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate or adverse cytogenetic riskXx_NEWLINE_xXAML associated with favorable risk karyotypes including inv(16), t(8;21), t(16;16), or t(15;17)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of one of the following myeloproliferative neoplasms: essential thrombocythemia, polycythemia vera, and primary myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent administration of herbal preparations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum sodium level is ? 130 mmol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an EGFR activating mutation (exon 19 deletion or exon 21 L858R), with or without T790M mutation, by local or central testing on examination of a NSCLC FFPE specimen (archival or fresh biopsy). Subjects harboring both exon 19 deletion and exon 21 L858R mutations are not eligible. A tissue sample from the same block used to determine eligibility by local testing should be available to send to the central lab for confirmatory testing. Subjects randomized based on local results indicating presence of EGFR mutation may remain on study if central results are discordant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following treatments, within the specified time frame, prior to the first dose of TAS4464:Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft versus host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXNo portal invasion or extrahepatic spread on imaging.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced tumoral disease (vascular invasion or extrahepatic spread, portal vein thrombosis of bland or malignant origin), or diffuse HCC, defined as 50% liver involvement).Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications for doxorubicin administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a known history contraindicating contrast dye or iodine that cannot be safely controlled via antihistamine, steroids, or with any other agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high-risk neuroblastoma according to COG risk classification at the time of study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on hemodialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known intraparenchymal brain metastasis at study entry are excluded due to poor CNS penetration of SF1126.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient declines participation in NANT 2004-05, the NANT Biology Study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted the End of Study Visit in Study NEOD001-201Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere valvular stenosis (e.g., aortic or mitral stenosis with a valve area <1.0 cm2) or severe congenital heart diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXECG evidence of acute ischemia or active conduction system abnormalities with the exception of any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFirst degree atrioventricular (AV) blockXx_NEWLINE_xXSecond degree AV block Type 1 (Mobitz Type 1/ Wenckebach type)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRight or left bundle branch blockXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived any of the following within the specified time frame prior to the Month 1-Day 1 Visit:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOral or IV antibiotics, antifungals, or antivirals within 1 week, with the exception of prophylactic oral agents. Note: In the event that a subject requires the chronic use of antivirals, Medical Monitor permission is required for entry into the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is under legal custodianshipXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be eligible after only 1 previous regimen if in a high risk categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXCardio or cerebral vascular event within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any experimental immunotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive diverticulitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of impaired adrenal gland functionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a colorectal or coloanal reconstruction with or without reservoir/pouch.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing stapled anastomosis with the use of an experimental or non-FDA approved stapler.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing ileoanal reconstruction, total colectomy or proctocolectomy, abdominoperineal resection, Hartmann's procedure, Hartmann's reversal or multiple synchronous colon resections (e.g., LAR and concomitant right colectomy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Subjects with rectal or rectosigmoid cancer neoplasms and IBD are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive for RAS mutation (neuroblastoma RAS viral [v-ras] oncogene homolog [NRAS] codon 12, 13, 61 mutation or Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog [KRAS] codon 12, 13, 61 mutation) at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory prior to study entry; mutational testing will be performed on bone marrow sample and/or peripheral blood; patients with previously known RAS mutations prior to study entry may be considered positive for RAS mutation for eligibility prior to a CLIA-certified laboratory confirmation of such a mutation at the discretion of the investigator; (appropriate blood and/or bone marrow samples must be taken for RAS determination and submitted to a CLIA-certified laboratory prior to study entry); however, if such a mutation is not confirmed by the M D Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC)/other center’s CLIA-certified laboratory, the patient may be permitted to stay on the study if they wish and consent to do so but such patients’ data will be analyzed separatelyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypoxia (oxygen saturation < 90% on room air) or in the opinion of the investigator any pulmonary compromise leading to hypoxia, at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient of 1 allo-HSCT but not more than 1 allo-HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse of underlying malignant disease after allo-HSCT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a histological diagnosis of neuroblastoma or ganglioneuroblastoma and be either newly diagnosed with high risk disease or have failed previous treatment:\r\n* Patients who have failed previous treatment may have had no more than one earlier autologous hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC) transplant\r\n* High risk is defined as any of the following scenarios:\r\n** Stage 2A/2B, any age , amplified myelocytomatosis viral related oncogene, neuroblastoma derived (avian) (MYCN) , any ploidy , any International Neuroblastoma Pathology Classification (INPC) histology\r\n** Stage 3, any age , amplified MYCN , any ploidy, any INPA histology\r\n** Stage 3, age >= 547 days , not amplified MYCN, any ploidy , unfavorable INPA histology\r\n** Stage 4, age < 365 days , amplified MYCN, any ploidy, any INPA histology \r\n** Stage 4, age 365 - < 547 days , amplified MYCN, any ploidy , any INPA histology\r\n** Stage 4, age 365 - < 547 days , any MYCN , ploidy (DI) = 1, any INPA histology\r\n** Stage 4, age 365 - < 547 days , any MYCN, any ploidy, unfavorable INPA histology\r\n** Stage 4, age >= 547 days , any MYCN, any ploidy, any INPA histology\r\n** Stage 4S , age < 365 days , amplified MYCN, any ploidy, any INPA histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have the presence of residual resectable disease for which surgery is clinically indicated, and will be performed at All Children’s HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is not an eligible candidate for collection by apheresis or HPC transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline laboratory parameters.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of one of the following myeloproliferative neoplasms: essential thrombocythemia, polycythemia vera, and primary myelofibrosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 2 individuals either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing alcohol or drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have histological or serological proof of metastatic germ cell neoplasm (gonadal or extragonadal primary) with disease not amenable to cure with either surgery or chemotherapy; subjects with seminoma and non-seminoma are eligible, as are women with ovarian GCTsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have received initial cisplatin based combination therapy, such as bleomycin-etoposide-cisplatin (BEP), cisplatin-etoposide (EP), etoposide-ifosfamide-cisplatin (VIP), or similar regimens AND demonstrated progression following the administration of at least one ‘salvage’ regimen for advanced germ cell neoplasm, such as high dose chemotherapy, paclitaxel-ifosfamide-cisplatin (TIP), or vinblastine-ifosfamide-cisplatin (VeIP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMajor immunologic reaction to any IgG containing agent or auristatin based agentXx_NEWLINE_xXCorneal pathology that would limit evaluation of loss in visual acuity associated with corneal deposits.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to pomalidomide for subjects enrolling in the pomalidomide/dexamethasone combination arm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDaratumumab or other anti-CD38 therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of AR+ (defined as ? 10% nuclear AR staining by immunohistochemistry [IHC]) TNBC in either the primary or metastatic lesion, assessed during the screening period by a local laboratory or by medical historyXx_NEWLINE_xXBe currently taking or have previously taken testosterone, methyltestosterone, oxandrolone (Oxandrin®), oxymetholone, danazol, fluoxymesterone (Halotestin®), testosterone-like agents (such as dehydroepiandrosterone, androstenedione, and other androgenic compounds, including herbals), or anti-androgensXx_NEWLINE_xXEstrogensXx_NEWLINE_xXMegesterol acetateXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute and chronic active infectious disorders and non-malignant medical illnesses that are uncontrolled or whose control may be jeopardized by the complications of this study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of major immunologic reaction to any IgG containing agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent, and/or metastatic germline BRCA 1/2 mutation-associated ovarian cancer, with progression on a PARP inhibitor monotherapy after attaining a response to that PARPi (CR, PR, or stable disease [SD] >= 4 months [mo])Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have at least one lesion deemed safe to biopsy and be willing to undergo mandatory baseline biopsy; it is preferred that this lesion be a lesion that progressed or arose while on the prior PARP therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be at least 1 week from the last dose of complementary or alternative medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXIntegral biomarkers: all patients who are eligible for the study due to a history of positive BRCA1/2 mutation must provide documented evidence of their deleterious germline mutation status, obtained in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments [CLIA]-certified laboratory, including but not limited to Myriad Genetics prior to study enrollment; variants of uncertain significance (VUS) of BRCA1/2 and BRCA1/2 somatic mutations are not considered deleterious germline BRCA1/2 mutations; due to the long acceptance of BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 mutation testing through Myriad, Myriad results will be acceptable; if testing for BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 mutation is done by other organizations, a genetic consultation report from a qualified medical professional confirming that the laboratory results showed a recognized germ line deleterious BRCA 1 or BRCA 2 mutation or deleterious BRCA 1 rearrangement is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of nasogastric or gastronomy (G)-tube administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects are willing to undergo or must have had an endoscopy of the upper and/or lower GI tract and biopsy to confirm GI GVHD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStage of acute GVHD of the lower GI tract will be determined using the Modified Keystone Grading Schema.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a body weight > 140 kg (for Cohorts dosing 20 mg/kg of ALXN1007 and higher only).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with signs and symptoms of chronic GVHD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who test positive for Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) at Screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with unresectable pancreatic cancer who have had surgery (exploratory laparotomy, biliary, gastrointestinal bypass) are eligible, if the subject has fully recovered from surgery and >= 14 days has passed since the operation; patients with history of pancreatoduodenectomy are eligible provided that there is radiographically documented disease recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXGlucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) status normalXx_NEWLINE_xXAny co-morbid disease that would increase risk of toxicity as determined by PIXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of alcohol, cocaine or intravenous drug abuse =< 6 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe SSc as defined by the American College of Rheumatology and at high-risk for a fatal outcome based on the following prognostic factors in groups 1-5:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 3: Have progressive active SSc after prior autologous transplant based on the presence of progressive pulmonary disease; this will be defined by a decrease in the FVC or DLCO adjusted since prior autologous transplant of 15 percent or greater of the pre-transplant percent predicted value, in addition to evidence of alveolitis as defined by chest CT changes or BAL; f patients had prior autologous HCT on the \Scleroderma: Cyclophosphamide Or Transplantation\ (SCOT) clinical trial, they must have failed based on the defined study endpoints and be approved by the protocol principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnless patients have a DLCO-adjusted less than 45%, patients in all groups must have failed either oral or intravenous cyclophosphamide regimen defined as: IV cyclophosphamide administration for at least > 3 months between first and last cyclophosphamide dose at a total cumulative IV dose of at least 2 grams, oral cyclophosphamide administration for > 4 months regardless of dose, or combination of oral and IV cyclophosphamide for at least > 6 months independent of doseXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated lack of compliance with prior medical careXx_NEWLINE_xXCRC: at least 2 prior systemic regimens in the metastatic setting, and as appropriate in patients whose tumors are microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H), pembrolizumab as well.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to a pyrrolobenzodiazepine or indolinobenzodiazepine based drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has either metastatic disease (M1; stage IVB), is medically unable to receive brachytherapy, or refuses brachytherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of positive serum human ADA to trastuzumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe donor currently has or had a history of any clinically relevant gastrointestinal, hematologic, respiratory, psychiatric, renal, hepatic, cardiac, metabolic (eg, fructose intolerance), neurological, or any other disease or condition which may influence the physiological metabolic turnover (eg, severe endocrine diseases, febrile condition, severe infectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe donor has existence or recent history of persistent pulmonary infiltrates, recent pneumonia, recent bronchitis, recurrent lung infections, or history or evidence of any lung disease including asthma, or current symptoms of upper respiratory tract infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe donor has a documented or self-reported history of tuberculosis or recent travel to countries of endemic disease (last 8 weeks)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther concurrent investigational therapy (utilized for a non-FDA-approved indication and in the context of a research investigation).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have either mutation or amplification of c-KIT gene tested by commercially available molecular or gene sequencing techniquesXx_NEWLINE_xXIs a regular user of any illicit drugs or had a recent history of substance abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will then be assigned to one of two cohorts:\r\n* Cohort 1 will include patients who have relapsed /progressed within the first 180 days post-transplant and who are still within 3 months from date of progression-relapse\r\n* Cohort 2 will include patients who have either i) relapsed/progressed beyond day 180 post-HCT, ii) those with persistent stable disease or persistent disease with regression between days 28-100 after allogeneic HCT, or iii) those who progressed or relapsed within 180 days after HCT but were not started on this protocol within 3 months from date of progression or relapse could also be enrolled under cohort 2\r\n** NOTE: the inclusion of patients with persistent stable or persistent regressing disease in this protocol is not meant to advocate treatment; however, if the attending physician is inclined to offer treatment then these patients would be eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive grades III or IV acute GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXMature B cell (Burkitt’s) ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects older than 75 years old to be discussed with principal investigator (PI) prior to subject consent; consensus between PI and treating physician is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Heart Association (AHA) class 1 without significant limitation of physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic or mildly symptomaticXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intra-cerebral disease or brain metsXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression within 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal coagulation panel.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative antiviral serology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be deemed a suitable candidate for regorafenib as per their treating physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject should not be receiving any agent for fatigue including steroids, megace or opioids. NOTE: Subjects who have a contrast-induced allergy are allowed to receive steroids for their scans.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with pheochromocytoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo- or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory B-ALL, defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of CD19 expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate central or peripheral vascular access for leukapheresis procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary disease relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of Grade II-IV (Glucksberg) or B-D (IBMTR) acute or extensive chronic GVHD at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of prohibited medications:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlk-positive NSCLC as determined by a test that is approved or validated for use as a companion diagnostic test.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0 or 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of extra-hepatic spread of disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMacrovascular invasion of lobar portal vein branches or main portal vein.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindication for TACE.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable coronary artery disease or recent myocardial infarct (i.e. within 1 year).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindication for doxorubicin administration:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny co-morbid condition or social situation, which has a high likelihood of causing poor compliance with the study protocol or jeopardizes the patient's safety.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-Hodgkin's lymphoma with chemoresponsive disease in any of the following categories: \r\n* High grade lymphomas who have failed to achieve a first CR or have relapsed following a 1st remission who are not candidates for autologous transplants or transplants requiring the use of calcineurin inhibitors\r\n* Any NHL with therapy responsive disease which is considered not curable outside the transplant setting and not eligible/appropriate for autologous transplant or a higher priority protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome (MDS): refractory anemia (RA)/refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD) with high risk cytogenetic features or transfusion dependence, refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB)-1 and RAEB-2 and AML evolved from MDS, who are not eligible for a higher priority protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAssessment of FLT3 mutation status;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 (Expansion) only: Subject must be able to be stratified into 1 of 3 cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort C: Subjects without a FLT3 mutation at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal coagulation profile as evidenced by PT and aPTT ? 1.5 x ULN;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCYP3A4 or CYP2C19 or P glycoprotein (P-gp) or breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) substrates having a narrow therapeutic index;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a confirmed pathologic diagnosis of Hepatocellular carcinoma according to the American Association for the Study of Liver Diseases Guidelines.A biopsy performed at screening may serve as a diagnostic biopsy for subjects with radiographic diagnosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy Prevention Risk Management PlanXx_NEWLINE_xXUnless practicing complete abstinence from heterosexual intercourse, sexually active FCBP must agree to use adequate contraceptive methods as specified in Pregnancy Prevention Risk Minimization Plan.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales must agree not to donate semen or sperm for 3 months after last dose of CC-122.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnderstand that CC-122 could have a potential teratogenic risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to abstain from donating blood while taking CC-122 or sorafenib and following discontinuation of their use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree not to share either study drug with another person.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther than the subject, Female of Childbearing Potential and males able to father a child should not handle CC-122 or touch the capsules, unless gloves are worn.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe counseled about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch or bifascicular blockXx_NEWLINE_xXQTcF greater than 460 msec on Screening ECG (mean of triplicate recordings)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the following TNM stages are eligible: \r\n* pT3aN0-2 (pN0;pN1;pN2) provided less than 10 nodes dissected and/or positive surgical margins\r\n* pT3bN0-2 (pN0;pN1;pN2)\r\n* pT4aN0-2 (pN0;pN1;pN2)\r\n* pT4bN0-2 (pN0;pN1;pN2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening visceral disease or other severe concurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated patient survival under 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of primary MF (PMF) or secondary MF (PET-MF and PPV-MF) as per WHO 2008 criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLead-in cohort: resistant or intolerant to 1 or more Janus kinase inhibitors (licensed or experimental).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpleen 5 cm below the inferior left costal margin as measured by manual palpation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive symptomatic MF as defined by the screening MPN-SAD patient-reported instrument requiring a severity score of at least 5 on one symptom, or a severity score of ? 3 on at least two of the symptoms (on a 0 to 10 scale).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase values 3.0 x ULN (or 5x ULN in the case of patients with MF accompanied by hepatic extramedullary hematopoiesis, as manifested by any degree of hepatomegaly).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSplenic irradiation 3 months prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled disseminated intravascular coagulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a previously untreated, T1 or T2, N0-N2b transorally resectable (as determined by the treating surgeon), histologically proven HPV positive, squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the oropharynxXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastases (below the clavicle) by clinical or radiographic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any other primary cancers or metastases; evidence of deep soft-tissue or bony invasion, which would preclude transoral minimally invasive surgery (TMIS) by clinical and/or radiographic examXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXOne to two painful vertebrae (T1-L5) with evidence of osteolytic or mixed lytic and blastic metastatic lesion by cross sectional imaging and pathologic fracture (presence of non-painful vertebrae with metastatic lesions in addition to the painful index vertebrae are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBrief Pain Inventory (BPI) worst pain score of ? 4 (irrespective of medication),Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompromise in the posterior column of the vertebral body or walls of pedicles.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtra-osseous extension of metastatic lesion is >10mm,Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndex vertebra(e) had previous spine surgery including vertebroplasty or kyphoplasty,Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression or canal compromise requiring decompression,Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires upper and lower limb surgery that will affect functional outcomes,Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant clinical morbidities (aside from the index vertebra(e) and recurrent cancer) that may interfere with data collection that affects pain and functional results,Xx_NEWLINE_xXBedridden due to paralysis or neurological decline,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a heart pacemaker or other electronic device implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on, or be intolerant to ado-trastuzumab emtansine in the LABC/MBC settingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been previously treated with trastuzumab in any setting (which may have been previously administered with or without pertuzumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with doxorubicin, liposomal doxorubicin, epirubicin, mitoxantrone, or any other anthracycline derivativeXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of a tumor with activating EGFR mutations by local testing. Patients with exon 20 insertions are not eligible with the exception of patients with documented evidence of the exon 20 insertion A763_Y764insFQEA in the EGFR geneXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of an exon 20 insertion activating mutation other than A763_Y764insFQEA in the EGFR geneXx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable pacemaker or implantable cardioverter defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXResting bradycardia < 55 beats/minXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of steroid-refractory acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDual refractory CMV reactivation to foscarnet and ganciclovir or evidence of CMV diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXModified Glasgow Prognostic Score (mGPS) of 1 or 2 as defined below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXmGPS of 1: C-reactive protein >10 mg/L and albumin ?35 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXmGPS of 2: C-reactive protein >10 mg/L and albumin <35 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MOCA) score of 22 or lower.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCumulative Illness Rating Scale score > 6, by assessment of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have received at least 3 of the following classes of anti-myeloma agents either alone or in combination: glucocorticoids, immunomodulatory drugs such as thalidomide, proteasome inhibitors, alkylating chemotherapy, or anthracyclinesXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have achieved at least a minor response to any previous regimen according to adapted European Group for Blood and Marrow Transplantation (EBMT) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXAll sites of metastasis must be measured in 3 planes, in millimeters and stored in Pediatric Oncology Network Database (POND) (a web-based data network, secure, independent and password protected)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients to be included in this study must be presented to the principal investigator using Horizon Live Web-conferencing through the Cure4Kids website; eligibility and target CNS sites will be determined, as well as non-target sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has been exposed to >= 350mg/m^2 of anthracyclineXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma/Waldenström macroglobulinemia (LPL/WM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be ?1 and ? 21 years of age when originally diagnosed with ALL. DiagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had 2 or more prior therapeutic attempts defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse after going into remission from re-induction for the first or subsequent relapse (ie: 2nd , 3rd, 4th…relapse), ORXx_NEWLINE_xXFailing to go into remission from original diagnosis after 2 previous induction attempts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior anthracycline exposure: Patients must have less than 400 mg/m2 lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapy. (See Appendix II for calculation worksheet)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to maintain their weightXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of immunodeficiency or immune suppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history or current evidence of osteomyelitis/osteonecrosis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXActive dental or jaw condition which requires oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healed dental or oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of oral bisphosphonates within the past 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of denosumabXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during the study (e.g., mammalian derived products, calcium, or vitamin D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at restXx_NEWLINE_xXNo exercise intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXA pulse oximetry ? 94% at sea level (? 90% at altitude ? 5000 feet) if there is clinical indication for determination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of prior veno-occlusive disease (VOD) or findings consistent with a diagnosis of VOD, defined as: conjugated serum bilirubin >1.4 mg/dL AND unexplained weight gain greater than 10% of baseline weight or ascites AND hepatomegaly or right upper quadrant pain without another explanation, OR reversal of portal vein flow on ultrasound, OR pathological confirmation of VOD on liver biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive blood culture within 48 hours of study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFever above 38.2 within 48 hours of study enrollment with clinical signs of infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must meet diagnostic criteria for NF2 including presence of bilateral VS (10 patients) or idiopathic VS without evidence of genetic syndrome (10 patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXVS surgery determined clinically necessary by the treating physician and scheduled within 4 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXAny neurologic deficits must be stable for >= 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic deficits that are rapidly progressing; all neurologic signs and symptoms must have been stable for a week prior to first doseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate tissue must have been obtained from surgical intervention to satisfy biospecimen requirements of study (collected under biospecimen collection protocols; either AAAO5706 principal investigator [PI]: Yvonne Saenger or AAAR1327 PI: Adrian Sacher)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNever-smokers if EGFR/ALK testing results are unknownXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with NSCLC that harbors an ALK rearrangement, or sensitizing EGFR mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high-risk cytogenetics, t(4:14); t(14;16), t(14:20), deletion p17, gain in 1q, are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 12 months since diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindication to the collection of a minimum of 4 x 10^6 CD34+ cells/kg by apheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an EGFR activating mutation based on local testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum sodium level ? 130 mmol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXBe of nonchildbearing potential:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be willing to fast for approximately 10 hours predose and 4 hours postdose on day 1 of each period in the pharmacokinetic phase.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsistent and correct usage of established hormonal contraceptives that inhibit ovulation,Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale subject is sterile due to a bilateral orchiectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMutation load determined by FoundationOne of >= 13 mutations/MB tested on archival tumor sample; the mutation load metric will be displayed on the FoundationOne report for all participating sites or may be obtained from Foundation Medicine from older reports using the Insights Portal, which will be available to all participating sites, or by emailing Foundation MedicineXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils > 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known EGFR mutations which are sensitive to available targeted inhibitor therapy (including, but not limited to, deletions in exon 19 and exon 21 [L858R] substitution mutations) are excluded; all subjects with non-squamous histology must have been tested for EGFR mutation status; use of a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test is strongly encouragedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known ALK translocations which are sensitive to available targeted inhibitor therapy are excluded; if tested, use of an FDA-approved test is strongly encouraged; subjects with unknown or indeterminate ALK status may be enrolledXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe disease indication for which the participant required HSCT must be in remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXLower GI GvHD manifested by diarrhea must have other causes of diarrhea ruled out (eg, negative for Clostridium difficile or cytomegalovirus [CMV] infection or oral magnesium administration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant with manifestations of chronic GvHDXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant with veno-occlusive disease (ie, sinusoidal obstruction syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant with severe sepsis involving at least 1 organ failureXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is a family member or employee of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with any active or chronic corneal disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with monocular vision or have media opacities or any other condition that precludes monitoring of the retina or fundus.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas squamous NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXRefuses to complete quality of life questionnaires either alone or with assistance from study staff despite adequate fluencyXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed new diagnosis of Philadelphia chromosome-positive or BCR-ABL1 positive precursor B cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (B-ALL) based on >= 20% lymphoblasts in bone marrow or blood; outside specimens will be subject to central review at the Huntsman Cancer Institute (HCI) Department of Pathology; BCR-ABL1 or Philadelphia-chromosome positivity may be determined by polymerase chain reaction (PCR), conventional cytogenetics and/or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal preparations or over-the-counter supplements containing herbal ingredients (St. John’s wort, Estroven, blue cohosh) are prohibited during treatment and must be stopped within 24 hours (h) of first dose of dasatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXMale and female TAM patients ? 2 years old at the time of first dose administration. Patients < 12 years old can only be included in the study after first IA has shown that it is safe and well tolerated in patients ? 12 years old (Section 3.5).Xx_NEWLINE_xXElevated lactate dehydrogenase (any elevation above normal range)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnemia below lower limit of normal or anemia requiring transfusion support as per center standardXx_NEWLINE_xXSchistocytes on peripheral blood smear (>2 per HPF) OR histologic evidence of microangiopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of coagulopathy (no uncompensated disseminated intravascular coagulation, DIC) at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to receive antibiotic prophylaxis against N. meningitides for the duration of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeningococcal vaccine(s) prior to LFG316 treatment if prior vaccination cannot be confirmed. The choice of vaccine(s) should take into account the serotypes prevalent in the geographic areas in which study patients will be enrolled. In case vaccination is not possible or will result in an unfavorable risk benefit ratio as judged by the investigator, vaccination can be postponed until deemed likely to be effective.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients <18 years old should receive vaccination for the prevention of S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae type b prior to LFG316 administration. In case vaccination is not possible or will result in an unfavorable risk benefit ratio as judged by the investigator, vaccination can be postponed until deemed likely to be effective.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMale sterilization (at least 6 m prior to screening). The vasectomized male partner should be the sole partner for that subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive HIV (ELISA and Western blot) test result (checked at screening). Historical local data will be acceptable if it the test was done within one month before start of HSCT conditioning and not more than 3 months before study visit 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with proven TTP as per historical data (as defined by ADAMST13 activity test) and if already available results of ADAMST13 test done at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with eculizumab for TAM.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known or suspected hereditary complement pathway deficiency. This exclusion criterion is not applicable to patients with complement pathway abnormalities/upregulation known to be associated with increased risk of transplant associated microangiopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological diagnosis of ES-SCLC (Note: Extensive-stage disease is defined as disease beyond the ipsilateral hemithorax, mediastinum and ipsilateral supraclavicular area and including malignant pleural or pericardial effusion or hematogenous metastases)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with mixed histology SCLC and NSCLC are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXWBC counts 2500/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ECOG performance status of 2, secondary to the underlying disease, may be enrolled in the Phase II portion of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXINR and aPTT within 1.5 ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus of vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestationsXx_NEWLINE_xXRash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, flucinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, aclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo acute exacerbations of underlying condition in the last 12 months (not requiring PUVA [psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation], methotrexate, retinoids, biologics, oral calcineurin inhibitors, high potency oral steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea) may be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires hospitalization for intravenous (IV) empiric antibiotic therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of liver-confined fibrolamellar or non-fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyc positive lymphoma is defined by:\r\n* Positive for Myc gene rearrangement by fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH) involving various breakpoints (e.g. 8-14, 8-22 and 2-8) AND concurrent gene rearrangements in bcl-2 and/or bcl-6 by FISH OR\r\n* Myc and Bcl-2 overexpression defined by >= 40% Myc and > 50% Bcl-2 expression by immunohistochemistry (IHC); patients may enroll in the study based on the local laboratory evaluation, but these should be confirmed by the University of North Carolina (UNC) Hematopathology Laboratory retrospectivelyXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive for cluster of differentiation (CD)20 via immunophenotypingXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated or who received a maximum of one cycle of combination chemotherapy (i.e. rituximab-cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate and prednisone [R-CHOP], R-EPOCH, or rituximab, hyperfractionated cyclophosphamide, vincristine sulfate adriamycin dexamethasone [R-hyperCVAD]) within 4 weeks of study entry except patients who require dose reduction after the first cycle of off-study R-EPOCHXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees to consume no more than 1 standard unit of alcohol per day during the study and for 30 days from the last dose of alisertib; a standard unit of alcohol is defined as a 12 oz beer (350 mL), 1.5 oz (45 mL) of 80-proof alcohol, or one 6-oz (175 mL) glass of wineXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient data to calculate the International Prognostic Index (IPI) score at baseline:\r\n* Age\r\n* Stage of disease\r\n* Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)\r\n* ECOG performance status\r\n* Number of extranodal sitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of an aurora A kinase-targeted agent, including alisertibXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor from 5 days prior to D1 of alisertib, and/or requirement for constant administration of histone 2 (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior or concomitant malignancies within 3 years of study startXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS: 0-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne of the following is required:Xx_NEWLINE_xXVasectomy or other procedure resulting in infertility (eg, bilateral orchiectomy) for >6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant is able to carry out daily life activities without difficultyXx_NEWLINE_xXMercury (Hg) > 8 gr/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven malignant pleural or peritoneal mesothelioma of epithelioid or biphasic histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are expected to require any of the following therapies between enrollment and completion or discontinuation of the study treatment:\r\n* Immunosuppressive drugs, including corticosteroids, methotrexate, mercaptopurine, azathioprine, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, ATG (anti-thymoglobulin), interleukin 2 (IL2)-receptor antibodies (basiliximab, daclizumab), tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-a antibodies (infiliximab, etanercept, adalimumab)\r\n* Radiotherapy for the target disease\r\n* Surgical therapy for the target diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSarcomatoid histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with obstructed gastrointestinal tract or uncontrolled vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with only one kidney that is ipsilateral to the mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted pacemaker and/or defibrillator ipsilateral to the mesothelioma if it cannot be movedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a total bilirubin =< 2.1 mg/dL within 72 hours of initiating the induction cycle, unless the elevation is due primarily to elevated unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia secondary to Gilbert’s syndrome or hemolysis or non-hepatic origin, and not to liver dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T1 tumors on both cords (T1b)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T2b-T4 true larynx tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary supraglottic tumors that involve the true larynxXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate heart functionXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate lung functionXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Post-allo Part B: Active GVHD Grade 2 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Post-allo Part B:History of veno-occlusive disease requiring defibrotideXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Post-allo Part B: History of Grade 2 or higher hepatic GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously enrolled and treated for at least 9 months in Study NEOD001-001Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled symptomatic orthostatic hypotensionXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline laboratory assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe need for treatment with medications with clinically relevant metabolism by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 isoenzyme within 3 hours before or after administration of SNX-5422 (Appendix B).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol dependence or drug abuse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary obstruction or presence of a percutaneous biliary drain. Note: Subjects with endobiliary stents may participate as long the enrollment criterion relating to serum bilirubin concentration is met.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of AAXx_NEWLINE_xXDuration and extent of current episode of AAXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of active hair lossXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of diffuse, spontaneous terminal hair regrowthXx_NEWLINE_xXHematopoietic Cell Transplantation Specific Comorbidity Index (HCT-CI) < 5 for age < 65, HCT-CI < 4 for age > 65Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received alemtuzumab within 8 weeks of transplant admission, or who have recently received horse or rabbit anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) and have ATG levels of >= 2 ugm/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot receive cyclophosphamideXx_NEWLINE_xX42 days for nitrosureas, mitomycin C, and liposomal anthracyclineXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious pelvic irradiation, prostate brachytherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is a family member or employee of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented objective response or stable disease lasting for 6 months or more to last prior anti-EGFR (cetuximab or panitumumab) in combination with irinotecan or FOLFIRIXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intolerance to irinotecan at dose-intensity of 125 mg/m^2/2 weeks or lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intolerance to 5-FU at dose-intensity of 1800 mg/m^2/2 weeks or lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXEarly stage hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) diagnosed based on the typical hallmark of HCC (hypervascular in the arterial phase with washout in the portal venous or delayed phases)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a documented exon 19 deletion or exon 21 L858R EGFR activating mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe of nonchildbearing potential:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1b Subjects only:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received ASP2215 previously.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression: FDG avid malignancy that is classified as an FDG PET non-responder\r\n* PET non-responders are defined as having < 35% reduction in the FDG uptake of the primary tumor when compared to baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have received only one cycle of the following regimens (with or without epirubicin) during the pre-registration time period and no other therapy for gastric or gastroesophageal junction cancer:\r\n* Oxaliplatin, and capecitabine\r\n* Oxaliplatin, and fluorouracil\r\n* Cisplatin, and capecitabine\r\n* Cisplatin, and fluorouracilXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious concomitant conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to ferumoxytolXx_NEWLINE_xXHerceptin: women who have been previously treated with Herceptin or other monoclonal antibody therapies are eligible for the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have a life expectancy of 3 months or more based on the judgment of the investigators; women who have rapidly progressive symptomatic disease affecting major organ systems such as the liver and lungs will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1,000/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 1.5 times normalXx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF >= 45% at rest (by ECHO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMinor changes from the required initial laboratory data guidelines will be allowed at the discretion of the attending team under special circumstances; the reasons for exceptions must be documented prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate slides of the primary lesion will be available for future review; if available, HER2/neu positivity will be recordedXx_NEWLINE_xXPeritoneal dialysis catheter implantation is identical to that from the Gynecologic Oncology Group (GOG) 252 Protocol and revised from the GOG Surgical Procedures ManualXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any prior exposure to the hypomethylating agents (5-azacitadine or decitabine) are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently or previously treated with conventional chemotherapy, or other agents for metastatic pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (Arm: idelalisib + nab-paclitaxel only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of serious allergic reaction, including anaphylaxis and toxic epidermal necrolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of peripheral neuropathy ? Grade 2 (Arm: idelalisib + nab-paclitaxel and Arm: idelalisib + mFOLFOX6)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-arrhythmic and heart rate lowering drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters not within the protocol-defined rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXCytomegalovirus (CMV) PCR positive at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory results as indicated by protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight between 40 kg and 180 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS of 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious use of interferon, ixazomib or bortezomibXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled thyroid diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXOne of the following is required:Xx_NEWLINE_xXVasectomy or other procedure resulting in infertility (e.g., bilateral orchiectomy), performed at least 6 months before screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not donate sperm from screening through 3 months after final study drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected neuroendocrine/small cell feature.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any antineoplastic treatment post-chemotherapy, including but not limited to aminoglutethimide, ketoconozole, abiraterone acetate, Rad-223, sipuleucel-T, or enzalutamide. Continuing steroids is permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Mobitz II second degree or third degree heart block without a permanent pacemaker in place.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia as indicated by a heart rate of < 45 beats per minute on the screening electrocardiogram (ECG) and on physical examination;Xx_NEWLINE_xXDetectable AR-V7 from circulating tumors (CTCs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of skin, gut and/or liver steroid-refractory GVHD by clinical assessment of treating physician following allogeneic HCT. Patients who fail to respond to steroids by 7 days are considered steroid-refractoryXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of HCT graft failure or multi-organ failureXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV PCR > 500 copies/mL or evidence of end-organ damage due to CMVXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degeneration; the risk factors for RVO are listed below; patients should be excluded if they have the following conditions:\r\n* Uncontrolled glaucoma with intra-ocular pressures > 21mmHg\r\n* Serum cholesterol >= grade 2\r\n* Hypertriglyceridemia >= grade 2\r\n* Hyperglycemia (fasting) >= grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic disease must be such that laboratory values are within 1.5 x normalXx_NEWLINE_xXActive implanted medical device (e.g. deep brain stimulators, spinal cord stimulators, vagus nerve stimulators, pacemakers, defibrillators, and programmable shunts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSkull defect (e.g. missing bone with no replacement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXShuntXx_NEWLINE_xXBullet fragmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSensitivity to conductive hydrogelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with psoriasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking other commercially available medications which may theoretically either stimulate or inhibit autophagy, which are calcitriol and chloroquineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking medications which may lead to interactions with hydroxychloroquine, including penicillamine, telbivudine, botulinum toxin, digoxin, and propafenoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have prior visual field changes from prior 4-aminoquinoline compound useXx_NEWLINE_xXAny level of CD56 expression will be considered sufficient for enrollment on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with IMGN901Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive or clinically symptomatic chronic pancreatitis or disease affecting pancreasXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic disease including multiple sclerosis, Eaton-Lambert syndrome, demyelinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered ineligible for rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate and prednisone (R-CHOP) standard therapy; to be ineligible for R-CHOP, patients must meet at least one of the following criteria are met:\r\n* Prior anthracycline therapy for other malignancies or other disorders whereby if additional anthracyclines are given for DLBCL, the maximum lifetime allowable dose will be exceeded\r\n* Meeting the geriatric criteria of ineligibility for standard R-CHOP if one of the following criteria is present:\r\n** Three or more organ systems with a score of 3 or any 1 organ system with a score of 4 (using the Cumulative Illness Rating Scale for Geriatrics, [CIRS-G])\r\n** Score of 3 or above on the Vulnerable Elders Survey (VES-13)\r\n** Score of =< 9 in the short physical performance battery (SPPB)\r\n** Presence of a significant geriatric syndrome (dementia, delirium, falls, incontinence, malnutrition, and severe osteoporosis) in the past year prior to diagnosis\r\n** Any abnormality in performing activities of daily living (ADLs) or instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who received steroids more than 72 hours prior to study enrollment are eligible but will be analyzed separatelyXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphoblasts may have any positive expression of cluster of differentiation (CD)20 for ofatumumab administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic diagnosis of melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented progressive disease based on radiographic, clinical or pathologic assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOcular MelanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive diverticulitisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of FWGEXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with idiopathic myelofibrosis or myelofibrosis secondary to polycythemia vera or essential thrombocythemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with low risk myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXBorderline resectable- Tumors considered borderline resectable are defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGastroduodenal artery encasement up to the hepatic artery with either short segment encasement or direct abutment of the hepatic artery without extension to the celiac axis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors considered to be unresectable due to local advancement include an absence of distant metastases as well as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHead: Greater than 180 degrees SMA encasement or any celiac abutment or unreconstructible SMV/portal occlusion or aortic invasion or encasement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody: Greater than 180 degrees SMA or celiac encasement or unreconstructible SMV/portal occlusion or aortic invasion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTail: SMA or celiac encasement greater than 180 degrees.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival ? 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic: serum total bilirubin ? 1.5 mg/dL, ALT (SGPT) and AST (SGOT) ?3 x upper limit of normal (ULN) at time of enrollment. If a patient has elevated liver function tests at the time of initial presentation or develops them during work-up and they are the result of a mechanical obstruction of biliary drainage by tumor compression or invasion, a biliary drain may be placed as described in NCCN Practice Guidelines in Oncology V2.2012. If drainage allows for the liver function tests to come within inclusion criteria, the patient may be enrolled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAutoimmune disease (e.g., systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis (RA), etc.). Patients with a remote history of asthma or mild active asthma are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 2 of the study, has a diagnosis of mixed squamous and nonsquamous (or adenosquamous) NSLC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 2 of the study:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas suitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas taken histamine-H2 receptor antagonists and/or neutralizing antacids within 24 hours before the first administration of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a condition that requires the concomitant use of any of the protocol-excluded medications, supplements, or food products during the course of the study .Xx_NEWLINE_xXThis study will be limited to enrollment of Caucasian males onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave confirmed distant metastasis with or without local recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of cavitary or necrotic tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical factors potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant weight loss (> 10% of body weight [BW]) within past 6 months prior to inclusion into the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have a history and physical documented within four weeks of registration and be deemed by a medical oncologist to be ineligible for standard continuous course chemoradiotherapy with cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot lie flat for 20 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any experimental immunotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive diverticulitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHuman immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected persons are eligible if they meet other eligibility criteria including the following:\r\n* No prior acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining condition other than cluster of differentiation (CD)4+ cells nadir < 200/mm^3\r\n* Pre-leukemia CD4+ cell count >= 250/mm^3\r\n* Willing to adhere to antiretroviral therapy regimen with minimal overlapping toxicity and PK interactions with the experimental agents in this study; no zidovudine- and no ritonavir-containing regimens and no 3-drugs-in-1 pill regimens containing pharmacologic boosters are allowed; recommended regimens are integrase inhibitors combined with tenofovir and emtricitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical picture indicative of leukostasis or evidence of disseminated intravascular coagulopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known UGT1A polymorphism, heterozygous or homozygousXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal Coagulation profile.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 2 prior regimens for DLBCL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to PNT2258.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave had a previous extra pleural pneumonectomy (EPP).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRestrictive lung diseases due to parenchymal damage (eg idiopathic lung fibrosis) or pleural adhesions. Patients with lung resection, scoliosis or thorax malformations can be included provided adequate spirometry testing during screening (eg FEV-Forced expiratory volume 1 ? 70%; age, sex and height adapted vital capacity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCongenital coagulation abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have chemo-sensitive disease achieving at least partial response (Cheson 2007 criteria) to last chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXChemo-refractory disease as determined by less than partial response (Cheson 2007 Criteria) to last chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radioimmunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of suitable primary and secondary umbilical cord blood (UCB) units.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement of supplemental oxygen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of other malignancies, except:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFull donor myeloid chimerism; patients after T cell depletion transplant can have a significant mixed T cell chimerism and this can affect the testing of marrow chimerism; in this case, the neutrophil chimerism will be used to determine eligibility for this trial; patients will be excluded if neutrophils are less than 90% donor cells; a higher percentage of host cells could be due to relapse or impending relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXInfections\r\n* ARM A: Without active uncontrolled bacterial, fungal or viral infection\r\n** Cytomegalovirus (CMV)- If CMV viremia is < 137 IU/ml, but patients are on therapy for CMV\r\n** Human herpes virus (HHV)-6 < 40,000 copies/ML and without active trend up\r\n* ARM B: No limitationXx_NEWLINE_xXGVHD\r\n* ARM A: Without evidence of active or prior history of GVHD\r\n* ARM B: Patients with active GVHD, or with GVHD controlled by steroids or other immunosuppressive medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary function\r\n* ARM A: Spontaneous breathing, not requiring ventilatory support\r\n* ARM B: No limitationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of relapsed disease by morphologic, cytogenetic or molecular diagnostic toolsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who underwent TCD boost without counts recovery and are considered for another TCD boost will be treated off protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSpecific ranges/levels of Screening labs that are acceptable per protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing carotid artery disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to dexamethasone, as determined by Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of significant active infection (e.g., pneumonia, cellulitis, wound abscess, etc.) at time of study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with electronic pacemakers or defibrillators are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCNS 1 (< 5/?L WBCs in CSF and cytospin negative for blasts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate committed to HCT independent of participation in this study, with the following requirements:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn the opinion of the HCT center will be ready to begin pre-transplant conditioning within 6 weeks of trial enrollment from a medical and psychosocial standpointXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation at rest or with exercise > 88% as measured by pulse oximeter or PaO2 > 55 mm Hg without need for supplemental oxygen at rest or with activityXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are upright in a wheel chair will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of calculating the performance scoreXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known 11q23 MLL rearrangement are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with an absolute contraindication to corticosteroid administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with clinical or laboratory evidence of active DICXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with prior history of thrombotic microangiopathy or HUS within 3 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known congenital hypercoagulable conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious life-threatening anaphylactic reactions to prior monoclonal antibody-based immunotherapy or any component of the moxetumomab pasudotox formulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor venous access for study drug administration; in this case, patients would require a peripheral or central indwelling catheter for study drug administration; study drug administration via indwelling catheters is prohibited at this time unless silicone based catheters are used; anything other than catheters made from silicone are not allowed with ganetespib therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to provide a screening and post-dose biopsy for biomarker analysis (extension phase only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMesothelin-positive refractory/recurrent solid tumors, other than malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) and pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDA) (Group 1 only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn the extension phase, patients must be willing to provide a screening and post-dose biopsy for biomarker analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with extrapleural pneumonectomy (EPP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with metastatic BCC, histologic confirmation of distant BCC metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 80 x10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of statin drugs or other medications known to associate with rhabdomyolysis; these drugs must be discontinued at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced stage but not metastatic SCC of the oral cavity (III or IVa, b); sites in the oral cavity include oral tongue, floor of mouth, hard palate, gingiva, buccal mucosa, retromolar trigone; often, head & neck tumors may involve other adjacent sites, such as the oropharynx- in these cases, the criteria is that the tumor must appear to have originated in the oral cavity per ear, nose, and throat (ENT)/radiation oncologyXx_NEWLINE_xXKPS 3 or worseXx_NEWLINE_xXDiscontinued a BTKi therapy due to BTKi treatment-related intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXProgression on irinotecan containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenib; subjects permanently withdrawn from study participation will not be allowed to re-enter studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors that harbor either EGFR sensitizing mutations or ALK rearrangement\r\n* EGFR sensitizing mutations include: \r\n** Exon 19 deletion or insertion\r\n** L858R (c.2573 T>G)\r\n** G719X (c.2156 G>C, G>T, or G>A)\r\n** L861Q (c.2582 T>A)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered unresectable or medically inoperable; patients who decline surgery are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior malignancy is acceptable if the subject is considered to be cured; in most cases this will mean a 5-year disease-free period; contact the principal investigator for any specific question regarding this requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in all required evaluations and procedures in this study protocol including swallowing capsules without difficultyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient should preferably have received a pre-transplant conditioning with rituximab and carmustine/etoposide/cytarabine/melphalan/Rituxan (BEAM/R); other regimens which are similar may be accepted at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of connective tissue disorders (eg, lupus, scleroderma, arteritis nodosa).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiologic documentation of disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of uveitis and/or scleritisXx_NEWLINE_xXRetinal pathology beyond normal age-related processesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of a retinal vein occlusion on ophthalmological exam or a history of retinal vein occlusionXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of daily and/or chronic oral or ocular steroids. Individuals must be off daily steroids for at least 3 weeks prior to enrolling into the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to be transfused with blood components.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical history of orthostatic hypotension.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere renal impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere hepatic impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere psoriasisXx_NEWLINE_xXActive thyroiditisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uveitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly doubling white cell count uncontrolled with hydroxyureaXx_NEWLINE_xXCoronary artery disease with angina limiting exercise capabilityXx_NEWLINE_xXJoint disease limiting exercise capabilityXx_NEWLINE_xXMales or femalesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced phase CML or acute leukemia must have failed at least one prior TKI; patients with chronic phase CML must have failed, have resistance or suboptimal response to at least two tyrosine kinase inhibitors, or have intolerance to two prior tyrosine kinase inhibitors; for patients with prior intolerance, they should have received at least 2 TKI and experienced intolerance to one TKI and resistance/suboptimal, a. failure to tyrosine kinase inhibitors will be defined per European-Leukemia-Net (ELN) recommendations, b. resistance or suboptimal response to at least two prior Abl-kinase inhibitor, specifically: i. chronic-phase with resistance to imatinib, dasatinib, nilotinib, bosutinib or ponatinib defined as 1. loss of complete cytogenetic response (CCyR) at any time or failure to achieve CCyR after >= 18 months, 2. loss of major cytogenetic response (MCyR) at any time or failure to achieve partial cytogenetic response (PCyR) after >= 12 months, 3. failure to achieve any cytogenetic response (CyR) (ie, >= 65% Philadelphia chromosome [Ph]+) after >= 6 months, 4. hematologic relapse or failure to achieve complete hematologic response (CHR) after >= 3 months, ii. chronic-phase with suboptimal response to imatinib, defined as 1. failure to achieve PCyR after >= 6 months, 2. failure to achieve CCyR after >= 12 months, iii. chronic-phase with suboptimal response to nilotinib, bosutinib, dasatinib or ponatinib, defined as 1. failure to achieve PCyR after >= 3 months, 2. failure to achieve CCyR after >= 6 months of therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cytogenetic breakpoint cluster region (BCR)-Abl variants and additional chromosomal abnormalities (‘clonal evolution’) will be eligible; cytogenetics to be performed, but results are not required to start therapy in patients with hematologic progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have failed nilotinib, including those who are refractory to nilotinib at any dose or have relapsed on nilotinib at any dose will be eligible for the study; patients currently on nilotinib will continue on their prescribed dose of nilotinib and MEK-162 will be added based on the current cohort level in phase I or at the established MTD in phase II; in the instance the nilotinib dose is greater than the current cohort (in phase 1) or the MTD (in phase 2) patients will be dose reduced to the dosage as prescribed by protocol and then dose escalated as allowed in protocol at the principal investigator's (PIs) discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary diagnosis of uveal melanoma at least 12 mm in largest basal diameter as clinically determined by the treating investigator; cytologic determination of diagnosis is not required; size is based on clinical assessment (e.g. by ultrasound or direct ophthalmoscopy) prior to enucleation or radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk (class 2) uveal melanoma as determined by gene expression profiling (GEP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior crizotinib useXx_NEWLINE_xXA condition that is expected to require concomitant use of any medication listed as prohibited while on study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have potentially resectable non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) by VATS as determined by a multidisciplinary team review; this primary should not have undergone any neoadjuvant chemotherapy (chemo-) or radiation therapy; only those patients undergoing surgery by conventional VATS will be included; (robotic procedures will not be eligible for inclusion in this study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric disorders or other conditions rendering the subject incapable of complying with the requirements of the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXconfirmed SCC of the head and neck, lung, or esophagusXx_NEWLINE_xXpatients requiring total parenteral nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXsubstantially impaired gastrointestinal functionXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic NSCLC with documented EGFR exon 19 deletion or exon 21 (L858R) substitution mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe reactions to cetuximab and/or panitumumab (except for G3 rash and G3 hypomagnesaemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFeeding tube dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of CD20-positive FL:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistology grades 1, 2 or 3aXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-confirmed histopathological diagnosis of FL. Biopsy specimen should be obtained ?2 years prior to randomization, unless medically contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCD20 immunophenotyping performed ?2 years prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to rituximab or severe allergic or anaphylactic reaction to any humanized or murine monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may enroll in this study if they are thought to have no residual disease after TURBTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or concomitant urothelial tumors of the upper urinary tract or urethraXx_NEWLINE_xXBladder capacity of less than 200 mlXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated urinary-tract infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXUrethral strictures that would prevent endoscopic procedures and repeated catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXUpper urinary tract disease (eg, vesicoureteral reflux or urinary-tract stones) that would make multiple transurethral procedures a riskXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical factors that would preclude study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with implantable or wearable electrical devices will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHerbal remedies (e.g., St. John's wort) within 1 week of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma (IHC) without distant extrahepatic metastasis within 90 days of registration; patients with an adenocarcinoma suggestive of a pancreaticobiliary primary with radiographic findings consistent with an intrahepatic cholangio-carcinoma are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXExtrahepatic metastases or malignant nodes beyond the periportal region; celiac, pancreaticoduodenal and para-aortic nodes > 2 cm are ineligible; note that benign non-enhancing periportal lymphadenopathy is not unusual in the presence of hepatitis and is permitted, even if the sum of enlarged nodes is > 2.0 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXMaximum diameter exceeding 12 cm (maximum diameter does not include satellite lesion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic insufficiency resulting in clinical jaundice, encephalopathy and/or variceal bleed within 60 days prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of unresectable or metastatic colorectal cancer which is KRAS and NRAS mutation negative (wild type); patients with any known mutation in KRAS or NRAS codons 12, 13, 59, 61, 117, or 146 will be excluded; mutations of KRAS and NRAS codons not listed above are allowed; biopsy of metastatic lesion is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known mutation in KRAS or NRAS codons 12, 13, 59, 61,117, or 146Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence or history of congenital or acquired hypocoagulability disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease amenable to biopsy and must be medically fit to undergo a biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to take oral medications and/or who have a clinical or radiological diagnosis of bowel obstruction are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXInhibitors of P-glycoprotein efflux transporters\r\n* Concomitant medications that are strong inhibitors of P-glycoprotein efflux transporters should be used with caution during the study; examples of these medications include ritonavir, cyclosporine, verapamil, erythromycin, ketoconazole, itraconazole, quinidine, and elacridarXx_NEWLINE_xXHave localized non-metastatic renal cell carcinoma (RCC) (< pT2, NO, MO), as per the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) seventh (7th) edition criteria; patients who have not had a biopsy must have a solid renal mass suggestive of RCC with confirmation of RCC at screening biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants requiring daily use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), with the exception of =< 81 mg aspirin per day; during study participation, acetaminophen is preferred for treatment of pain; the use of NSAIDs, as needed for pain, is discouragedXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin =< 1.5 x UNLXx_NEWLINE_xXCRC (Colorectal cancer): Patients with metastatic CRC and known KRAS (Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog) status who are eligible for treatment with regorafenib in accordance with the approved labeling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR).Xx_NEWLINE_xXExcluded previous therapies and medications:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented disease progression after receiving at least one prior therapeutic regimen (e.g. pralatrexate, romidepsin, bexarotene, vorinostat)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate 1, intermediate 2 or high risk MDS by IPSSXx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of treatment with eltrombopag, romiplostim or other thrombopoietin receptor (TPO-R) agonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown thrombophilic risk factors. Exception: Subjects for whom the potential benefits of participating in the study outweigh the potential risks of thromboembolic events, as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXCSF cytology positive for malignant cells or symptomatic leptomeningeal carcinomatosis in the Phase 1b portion. In Group 3, subjects are required to have CSF cytology positive for malignant cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXMorphologically confirmed diagnosis of MDS/CMMoL according to FAB or WHO classification, including RAEB-t and MDS/MPNXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational prognostic score-revised (IPSS-R) of >3.5 (Intermediate, High or Very High)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated with hypomethylating agents for MDS/CMMoLXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory to hypomethylating agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cranial nerve palsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have received at lease one agent known to impact survival (abiraterone, enzalutamide, ect.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgression of disease despite androgen ablation shown by objective, documented evidence of disease progression (excluding PSA).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant hepatic dysfunction, renal dysfunction, or metabolic derangement that precludes full-dose chemotherapy at the specified starting dosesXx_NEWLINE_xXObjective documented evidence of disease progression at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXProlymphocytic transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXInability or unwillingness to take supportive medications including a centrally acting appetite stimulant (e.g., mirtazapine or olanzapine) and a peripherally acting appetite stimulant (e.g., low dose glucocorticoids or megesterol acetate).Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf a patient is randomized to the RFA arm, but is deemed not to be an anesthesia candidate, he/she will be placed in the non-randomized SBRT cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an ECOG score =< 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a solitary kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven KS involving skin, with or without visceral involvement, either newly diagnosed or refractory to or intolerant of one or more prior therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSerologic documentation of HIV infection by any of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved tests; alternatively, this documentation may include a record that another physician has documented that the participant has HIV infection based on prior enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and Western blot, or other approved diagnostic testsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants should not have significant abnormalities of the cornea based on history (e.g., dry eye syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome), congenital abnormality (e.g., Fuch’s dystrophy), abnormal slit-lamp examination using a vital dye (e.g., fluorescein, Bengal-Rose), and/or an abnormal corneal sensitivity test (Schirmer test or similar tear production test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersons with tumors known to have biomarkers predictive of resistance to erlotinib therapy (specifically Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog [KRAS] mutations, anaplastic lymphoma receptor tyrosine kinase [ALK] gene rearrangements, and EGFR T790M mutations) will be ineligible for study participation; if the results of molecular studies are not available or known at the time of study registration and subsequently become available, such participants will be considered eligible and if deriving clinical benefit may continue receiving erlotinib at the discretion of the investigator and study chairXx_NEWLINE_xXStage IIIB disease not amenable to surgery or curative intent. Note: It is permissible to use either AJCC Version 6.0 or the AJCC Version 7.0 staging system. For sites that use AJCC Version 7.0, T4M0 patients with other ipsilateral nodules and N0-N2 are still eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf tumor histology is adenocarcinoma, must have wild-type EGFR genotype as assessed by a validated assay that includes exon 19 deletion and exon 21 (L858R) substitution.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of corneal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) resulting in (or as evidenced by) declining platelet or hemoglobin (Hgb) levels within the 4 weeks prior to first dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of transfusion-dependent thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary relapse (i.e., testicular or CNS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn mGPS of 1 or 2 as defined below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXmodified Glasgow prognostic score (mGPS) of 1: CRP > 10 mg/L and albumin ? 35 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXmGPS of 2: C-reactive protein (CRP) > 10 mg/L and albumin < 35 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history (? 3 months) or ongoing partial or complete bowel obstruction unless due to disease under study and corrected with surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn modified Glasgow Prognostic Score (mGPS) of 1 or 2 as defined below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXmGPS of 1: C-reactive protein (CRP) > 10 mg/L and albumin ? 35 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXmGPS of 2: CRP > 10 mg/L and albumin < 35 g/LXx_NEWLINE_xXAn modified Glasgow Prognostic Score (mGPS) of 1 or 2 as defined below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXC-reactive protein >10 mg/L AND albumin ?35 g/L; Score = 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXC-reactive protein >10 mg L AND albumin <35 g/L; Score = 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSquamous or mixed histology (eg, adenosquamous) NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior anti-androgens are permitted but not required (2 week washout from anti-androgens)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior abiraterone and enzalutamide are permitted (2 week washout for both agents)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any prohibited concomitant medications (washout period of 1 week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS equals 2 or less.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic melanoma with at least one lesion that is resectable for TIL generation; the lesion must be at least 1 cm in diameter that can be surgically removed with minimal morbidity (defined as any operation for which expected hospitalization =< 7 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious surgery or radiofrequency ablation (RFA) to the liver is allowed; patients with history of chemoembolization or radio-labeled microspheres are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be on a stable antiretroviral regimen per current International Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) Society guidelines as follows, with no intention of changing the regimen within 8 weeks after ibrutinib initiation:\r\n* Choice of regimen: The specific antiretroviral agents are at physician discretion, and the use of investigational agents currently available on an expanded-access basis is allowed; use of experimental antiretroviral agents or those containing zidovudine (including Combivir and Trizivir) is prohibited\r\n* Patients with mantle cell lymphoma, CLL, or SLL must be on non-cytochrome P450, family 3, subfamily A, polypeptide 4 (CYPA3A4) modulating antiretroviral agents (Stratum C) to be eligible for this study\r\n* Patients may be switched to non-conflicting regimens in order to participate\r\n* Stability of regimen: With the exception of patients on zidovudine-based ART, any changes in antiretroviral regimen must be made at least 4 weeks prior to ibrutinib initiation; patients taking zidovudine-based ART must change to a non-zidovudine-based regimen at least 2 weeks prior to ibrutinib initiation; changes to ART therapy during the study may be made if medically necessary (e.g. toxicity, treatment failure)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXAssessment by the attending thoracic surgeon that radical pleurectomy can be safely achieved in pts with malignant pleural mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPts of all ethnic and gender groups will be included; protocol accrual will be reviewed annually to include a determination of minority and gender representation; if accrual demonstrates under-representation of any group with comparison to disease incidence in that group, then appropriate measures will be undertaken to attempt to increase participation of pts of that minority or gender groupXx_NEWLINE_xXHistorical control data will be derived from patient medical records at the Ohio State University Medical Center (OSUMC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPts who are medically unfit to tolerate surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven non-M3 AML:\r\n* Refractory/relapsed AML OR\r\n* Initial diagnosis of AML in patient >= 60 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXAny organ dysfunction thought to be secondary to disease will be considered separately and the patient will be included at the investigators discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have documented CR or CRp after 1 or 2 cycles of fludarabine + cytarabineXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of a mass in the pancreas, ORXx_NEWLINE_xXModified Glasgow prognostic score (mGPS) of 1 or 2 at Screening (randomized phase only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExternal biliary drainXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXIn countries where EGFR TKIs are available for the treatment of NSCLC, subjects need to have been screened for EGFR mutations and excluded if positive, unless previously treated and progressed on an appropriate TKI therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSolid tumors that meet the following criteria: Measurable disease by Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors 1.1 (RECIST) in at least 1 site. For Castrate Resistant Prostate Cancer (CRPC) measurable disease can also include Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) level. Disease progression with the last line of therapy and at least one prior standard of care regimens, or tumor for which there is no approved therapy, or for which standard therapy is unsuitable or refused. Mutation Status: Solid tumor types, other than prostate, must have a one of the following EZH2 inhibitor sensitizing mutations as determined via local testing: An activating mutation in EZH2 (Y641F/C/S/H/N, A677V/G, and/or A687V; Loss of a component of the SWI/SNF complex, including, but not limited to, ARID1A, SMARCB1 (aka SNF5/INI1/BAF47), SMARCA4 (aka BRG1), or PBRM1 (aka PB1) as determined by molecular testing (bi-allelic loss or mutation) or immunohistochemistry; Loss of BAP1 (ubiquitin carboxy-terminal hydrolase) as determined by molecular testing (bi-allelic loss or mutation) or immunohistochemistryXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a pre-existing central venous access such as a port, Hickmann catheter or a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line) or be willing and able to have one inserted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBased on the results of the mutation test, lymphoma subjects may be enrolled in one of four cohorts: GCB-DLBCL EZH2 mutant cohort: Tumors must contain one, or more, of the following EZH2 activating mutations: Y641F; Y641N; Y641S; Y641H; Y641C; A677G; and/or A687V. GCB-DLBCL EZH2 wild type cohort: Tumors that do not contain one of the above mutations; Subjects with tumors harboring EZH2 mutations other than the seven outlined above will be enrolled in the EZH2 wild type cohort. tFL EZH2 mutant cohort: Tumors must contain one, or more, of the following EZH2 activating mutations: Y641F; Y641N; Y641S; Y641H; Y641C; A677G; and/or A687V. tFL EZH2 wild type cohort: Tumors that do not contain one of the above mutations; Subjects with tumors harboring EZH2 mutations other than the seven outlined above will be enrolled in the EZH2 wild type cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales or females aged 18 or olderXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously undergone metal stent insertionXx_NEWLINE_xXPorphyria or hypersensitivity to porphyrins (constituents of porfimer sodium), gemcitabine, cisplatin or other platinum-containing compoundsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic medical or psychological illnesses that prevent endoscopy proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal blood test resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXDecompensated cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or intend to become pregnant, breastfeeding or intend to breast-feed during this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXKS patients with skin-only disease must have cutaneous lesions amenable to four 3 mm punch biopsies during the course of the study (either four separate lesions measuring >= 4 mm each OR two separate lesions measuring >= 8 mm each)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to lie flat for at least 60 minutes and fit on a PET-CT scannerXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic diarrhea (loose, watery or frequent stools) at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient medication lists will be reviewed by a member of the study team for possible interactions with the nelfinavir; a patient may be deemed ineligible for the study if he/she is taking an essential medication that is known to interact with nelfinavirXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement of one or more of the following organ systems (renal, neurologic, hematologic, cardiac, pulmonary, gastrointestinal) of moderate-to-severe severity as indicated by an “A” or 2 B score on the British Isles Lupus Assessment Group (BILAG), a 2 or higher on the Physician Global Assessment, or severe enough to require hospitalization if the organ involvement was not “captured” on either the BILAG or Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Activity Measure (SLAM) instrumentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have failed at least two forms of immunosuppression:\r\n* Moderate-to-high dose corticosteroids (0.5-1 mg/kg/day**, and/or IV pulse methylprednisolone)\r\n** When cyclophosphamide is the accepted standard of care (renal and neurologic), the maximally tolerated dose of prednisone will be sufficient to meet the corticosteroid criterion\r\n* Azathioprine, methotrexate, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, belimumab, rituximab, or mycophenolate mofetil, in the case of severe and ongoing hemolytic anemia and/or thrombocytopenia, failure of intravenous immunoglobulin treatment will count as the second treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has normal thyroid function tests (thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], free T4) as defined by the testing laboratory, a test abnormality that is asymptomatic and does not warrant medical intervention, or a pre-existing thyroid disorder that is controlled on medical treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with sunitinib or crizotinibXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have experienced a previous grade 3 or 4 anaphylactic reaction to paclitaxelXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate -1 or -2 or high-risk Myelofibrosis (per Passamonti et al 2010)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegaly ? 5 cm on physical examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal Symptom Score ? 13 on the MPN-SAF TSS 2.0, not including the inactivity questionXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 6 months from prior splenic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed RAS mutation (neuroblastoma RAS viral [v-ras] oncogene homolog [NRAS] or Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog [KRAS]) or confirmed PTPN11 mutation, measured on peripheral blood or bone marrow aspirate as part of screening prior to study enrollment; mutation status must be confirmed within 45 days of initiation of therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or predisposing factors to RPED or RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiosensitizing doses of 5-fluorouracil;Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiosensitizing doses of gemcitabine if relapse occurred at least 6 months after completion of gemcitabine;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive or other pulmonary disease with hypoxemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXEighteen years old or olderXx_NEWLINE_xX1 week for non-cytotoxic agents (e.g., interferon, tamoxifen, & cis-retinoic acid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSigned & dated ICF prior to Screening evaluationsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiseases or conditions that obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (? 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously or currently enrolled in Protocol No. TPI-287-17Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated patients who have been counseled on approved alternative therapeutic options. Not a candidate for fludarabine/cyclophosphamide/rituximab (FCR) or has preference to not receive chemotherapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have relapsed or refractory MCLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic bradycardia (heart rate < 50 beats per minute [bpm], hypotension, light-headedness, syncope)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known significant cardiovascular disease or cerebrovascular accident within 3 months of enrollment, or within the timeframe as stipulated in the additional criteria outlined in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires the use of the following concomitant treatments/procedures at any time, per protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXhave blast counts that can be controlled by the use of hydroxycarbamide (500 to 3000 mg daily).Xx_NEWLINE_xXhyperleukocytosis (blast counts >30 000/mm3).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn intraoperative MRI upon resection will confirm the distance of the planned injection sites from the ventricular system prior to the HSV1716 injection; intra-operatively, the neurosurgeon may decide to not inject the HSV1716 or may revise the sites of HSV1716 injection if injection cannot be guaranteed >= 1 cm from the ventricular system; patient will removed from the study if there are not sufficient areas in the tumor cavity to guarantee injection of HSV1716 >= 1 cm from the ventricular systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neurological deficits should have deficits that are stable for a minimum of 1 week prior to registration; this is to be documented at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of prior HSV encephalitis or encephalitis due to other etiologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded to avoid the risk of systemic intrauterine/neonatal HSV infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who participate in this study must agree not to breastfeed from study entry to a period of no less than four months post the HSV1716 injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on systemic anticoagulants are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of relapsed or refractory AML of any French American British (FAB) subtype except M3 and NPM1 genetic mutation detected by molecular assay; AML patients treated at Stanford have NPM1 molecular mutation status checked routinely at time of diagnosis in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA)-certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are unwilling, or who are determined to be medically unfit for or resistant to standard intensive induction chemotherapy; patients who are medically unfit will be determined by the treating primary hematologist and the principal investigator (including but not limited to evaluation of co-morbidities, and response and complications to previous AML treatment strategy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sickle cell disease and sickle cell crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to daily self-administer AMG 337 orally as a whole capsuleXx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for curative surgery or definitive chemoradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has chronic low back and leg pain secondary to Failed Back Surgery Syndrome (FBSS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an average score of 6 or higher for average daily overall pain on the Numerical Rating Scale (NRS) based on the 7 day pain diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject agrees not to add or increase pain-related medication throughout the 12 week randomized evaluation phase of the study (starting at activation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has been implanted with a previous neuromodulation system (PNfS, SCS-PNfS or SCS) or participated in a trial for a neuromodulation systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject's overall Beck Depression Inventory II Score is > 24 or has a score of 3 on question 9 relating to suicidal thoughts or wishes at the baseline visitXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with an infusion pump or any implantable neurostimulator deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an existing medical condition that is likely to require repetitive MRI evaluation in the future (i.e. epilepsy, stroke, multiple sclerosis, acoustic neuroma, tumor)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is immunocompromisedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has documented history of allergic response to titanium or siliconeXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score on diagnostic biopsy specimens of >= 6Xx_NEWLINE_xX>= 3 positive cores within diagnostic biopsy specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo a prostatectomy at Johns HopkinsXx_NEWLINE_xXSexual Health Inventory for Men (SHIM) score >= 17Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of symptomatic pulmonary dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXMSC DONOR: any psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients (or guardians/parents) who are able and willing to give consent (and assent where applicable) and able to attend all study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute medical condition (e.g. pneumonia, sepsis) that is expected to hinder them from completing this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe hematologic, neurologic, or other uncontrolled diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cerebrovascular disease (multiple cerebrovascular accidents [CVAs] or CVA within 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not able or willing to tolerate the required prolonged stationary position during treatment (can be up to 5 hours [hrs] of total table time)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient not candidate for either regional anesthesia or mild sedationXx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwestern Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXV20 =< 40% of total lung volumeXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressed while receiving this gemcitabine regimen or within 3 months of completing gemcitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXProgression was documented,Xx_NEWLINE_xXClear symptomatic deterioration supported by at least two of the following clinical criteria: ? 10% worsening in KPS or ? 1 worsening in ECOG; increasing weakness or fatigue; progressive weight loss; new/worsening pain requiring increased pain medication; new/worsening jaundice, nausea, or vomiting; new/worsening ascites or pleural effusions; other physical or laboratory findings consistent with disease progression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBulky disease (any single mass >10 cm). ->Grade 2 nausea or vomiting, and/or signs of intestinal obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave pathology-proven complete removal of all primary and liver metastatic CRC lesions. Subjects with positive margins will not be eligible for the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCarcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)</=3 times the ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHave pheochromocytoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProstate biopsy must be positive for cancer: clinically localized T1c or T2a, PSA =< 10, Gleason =< 6 at the time of initial diagnosis; as the intent of serial biopsy is to ensure that the disease has not progressed to the stage or grade of requiring treatment, the presence of a negative biopsy following an initial positive biopsy (coupled with clinically localized T1c or T2a PSA =< 10 and Gleason =< 6 for a patient who has had no treatment) will not render the patient ineligible; if the consecutive biopsy is either negative, or if positive and remains clinically localized T1c or T2a, PSA =< 10 and Gleason =< 6, the patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to refrain from the concurrent use of high-dose (200 mg or higher per day) of vitamins, antioxidants, Proscar, Avodart, and anti-inflammatory agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to refrain from drinking any kind of tea (including herbal tea) or using supplements containing green tea for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be willing to limit alcohol to moderate use which is defined as: up to one drink a day for women or two drinks a day for men; examples of one drink include:\r\n* Beer: 12 fluid ounces (355 milliliters)\r\n* Wine: 5 fluid ounces (148 milliliters)\r\n* Distilled spirits (80 proof): 1.5 fluid ounces (44 milliliters)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent consumption of tea (six or more cups per day) or use of supplements containing green tea within one week of randomization; or concomitant use of at least 400 mg per day of a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAID) agent two or more times per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically appropriate candidate for radical cystectomy as per MSKCC attending urologic oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must provide a pretreatment saliva sample for genomic analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXEUS clinically indicated for staging, and/or celiac neurolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radioimmunotherapy within 3 years of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation at rest by pulse oximetry less than 88% or partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) less than or equal to 55 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of microangiopathic hemolysis, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) or hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 100 days post -transplant or any evidence of active graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to pseudomonas exotoxin containing moleculeXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced unresectable hepatocellular carcinoma with branch portal vein thrombosis (confirmed by non-invasive criteria EASL/AASLD, mandatory by histology in non-cirrhotic patients); can be naive or recurrent HCC after curative treatment (> 6 months before randomization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown contraindication to standard-of-care sorafenib including allergic reaction, pill swallowing difficulty, uncontrolled hypertension or history of cardiac disease, significant GI bleed within 30 days, renal failure including dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of chronic obstructive pulmonary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior TACE < 6 months prior to screening phase in case of patients progressing from an intermediate to an advanced stage due to occurrence of PVTXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to angiography or selective visceral catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any disease or condition that would place the patient at undue risk and preclude safe use of TheraSphere treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphopenia, cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) lymphopenia, leukopenia, and anemia will not render patients ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the products that will be administered during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ib: Documented evidence of PTEN mutations, homozygous deletion of PTEN or PTEN negative (H Score <10) by IHC confirmed by local or central assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Documented evidence of c-Met amplification (GCN>5) (fusion transcripts or mutant c-Met may be eligible after discussion with Novartis) or PTEN mutations, homozygous deletion of PTEN or PTEN negative (H Score <10) by central assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving treatment with medications that are known CYP3A, CYP1A2, CYP2C8, CYP2C9 or CYP2C19 substrates with narrow therapeutic index, and cannot be discontinued during the course of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute or chronic pancreatitis or any risk factors that may increase the risk of pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following baseline laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHbA1c > 8%.Xx_NEWLINE_xX6. Have completed baseline quality of life evaluation as assessed by LCSS modified for mesotheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have contraindications to radiotherapy, such as scleroderma, dermatomyositis, or severe cutaneous manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility and availability to complete all prescribed biomarker studies (Screening and after Cycle 2).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal 12-lead ECG (clinically insignificant abnormalities permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of drugs with known cardiotoxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive or other pulmonary disease with hypoxemia (requires supplementary oxygen, symptoms due to hypoxemia or oxygen saturation less than 90% by pulse oximetry after a 2 minute walk) or in the opinion of the investigator any physiological state likely to cause hypoxia of normal tissue.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to a structural compound or biological agent similar to TH-302Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave the following laboratory parameters (may be assessed locally):Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to propranolol, etodolacXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on beta blockersXx_NEWLINE_xXResting heart rate less than 60 bpm at time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXOn chronotropic drugs (acetylcholine, digoxin, diltiazem, verapamil, atropine, dopamine, dobutamine, epinephrine, isoproterenol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known glucose-6-phosphate deficiency, psoriasis, porphyria and psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXMedications that are known to be associated with Torsades de PointesXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of pancreatitis or alcohol abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypertriglyceridemia (> 450 mg/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible with untreated squamous, adenosquamous, or adenocarcinoma cancers of stage IB2-IVA carcinoma of the uterine cervix or stage II-IVA vaginal carcinoma not amenable to curative surgical resection; pathological verification of diagnosis must be obtained and recorded; the presence or absence of para-aortic lymph node metastasis will be based on pre-therapy 18F-FDG PET/CT; if the baseline 18F-FDG PET/CT identifies hypermetabolic para-aortic disease, such patients will not be eligible for participation; the patient must be able to tolerate the requirements for 18F-FDG PET/CT scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD) are excluded due to an inability to administer the antidote for methemoglobinemia, methylene blue; testing for G6PD is not required for study enrollment and optionalXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematological status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recent history of hemorrhage and patients predisposed to hemorrhage due to coagulopathies or structural anomalies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require treatment with therapeutic doses of coumadin-type anticoagulants (maximum daily dose of 1mg allowed for port line patency permitted).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom dexamethasone is contraindicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable stage IIIA or IIIB disease; patients must be surgically staged to confirm N2 or N3 disease; patients may have invasive mediastinal staging by mediastinoscopy, mediastinotomy, endobronchial ultrasound transbronchial aspiration (EBUS-TBNA), endoscopic ultrasound (EUS), or video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe institution’s pre-enrollment biomarker screening at a CLIA certified lab documents absence of T790M mutation in the EGFR TK domainXx_NEWLINE_xXAtelectasis of the entire lungXx_NEWLINE_xXExudative, bloody, or cytologically malignant effusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to the study drug(s) involved in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment for pre-existing hematologic conditions is allowed and includes hydroxyurea, thalidomide, hematopoietic growth factors, Zarnestra, lenalidomide, arsenic trioxide, imatinib, corticosteroids, histone deacetylase inhibitors, azacytidine, midostaurin sorafenib or other targeted agents; use of hydroxyurea for control of blast counts is allowed during the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor expression of NY-ESO-1 or LAGE-1 antigen by IHC or RT-PCR, or evidence of seropositivity to NY-ESO-1 or LAGE-1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 4 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to NY-ESO-1 vaccine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to vaccines or unknown allergens.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for immunological and clinical follow-up assessments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the clinical judgment of the treating physician, is likely to prevent the patient from complying with any aspect of the protocol or that may put the patient at unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPredominantly squamous, adenosquamous or unclear histologic typeXx_NEWLINE_xXDefinition of localized, potentially resectable disease:\r\n* Staging by intravenous contrast-enhanced thin section helical abdominal computed tomography (2.5 mm cuts or less) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (for patients with an IV contrast allergy) using pancreatic protocol; endoscopic ultrasound is required for tissue acquisition and staging confirmation\r\n* No extension to superior mesenteric artery (SMA) and hepatic artery; patent superior mesenteric vein/portal vein (SMV/PV) with < 180-degree abutment and no evidence of invasion\r\n* Clear fat plane between the SMA and celiac axis\r\n* No extension to celiac axis and hepatic artery\r\n* Patent superior mesenteric vein and portal vein\r\n* No evidence of distant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient requires chronic use of immunosuppressive agents (e.g. methotrexate, cyclosporine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving any medications or substances with risk of torsades de pointes; Note: medications or substances on the list “Drugs with Risk of Torsades de Pointes” are prohibited; medications or substances on the list “Drugs with Possible or Conditional Risk of Torsades de Pointes” may be used while on study with extreme caution and careful monitoringXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive for PIK3CA mutation based on central laboratory testingXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS ? 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of phosphodiesterase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent analgesic therapies have failed (worst pain of 4 or above as measured by Brief Pain Inventory [BPI], despite analgesic therapy) OR the subject is experiencing intolerable side effects that preclude analgesic use (resulting in pain of 4 or above, as measured by BPI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are concurrently participating in any other experimental studies that could affect the primary endpoint of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMechanical obstruction that would prevent adequate oral nutritional intake.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss >20% in the previous 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of Gilbert's Syndrome or homozygosity for the Uridine 5-diphospho-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) 1A1*28 alleleXx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for curative pulmonary metastasectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren not in the care or custody of a biological parent, adoptive parent, appointed legal guardian, or legally appointed foster care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of megakaryocyte proliferation and atypia, usually accompanied by either reticulin and/or collagen fibrosis, or, in the absence of significant reticulin fibrosis, the megakaryocyte changes must be accompanied by an increased bone marrow cellularity characterized by granulocytic proliferation and often decreased erythropoiesis (ie. prefibrotic cellular-phase disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLeukoerythroblastosisXx_NEWLINE_xXincrease in serum Lactase Dehydrogenase (LDH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have Low or Intermediate 1 stage of disease as defined by International Working Group (IWG) risk stratification of primary myelofibrosis in the dynamic international prognostic scoring system (DIPSS). In addition, they must show some active hematopoiesis with a cellularity of at least 15%, irrespective of the degree of reticulin and/or collagen fibrosis as defined by Manoharan criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant and lactating women are excluded from the study because the risks to an unborn fetus or potential risks in nursing infants are unknown.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable peptide-MHC pair that can be folded into a tetramer for which MCPyV TAg-specific cells can be generated and reactivity to cell lines expressing MCPyV TAg with the corresponding human leukocyte antigen (HLA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 3 weeks must have passed since any of the following: systemic corticosteroids, immunotherapy (for example, interleukins, MCC vaccines, intravenous immunoglobulin, expanded polyclonal tumor infiltrating lymphocyte [TIL] or lymphokine-activated killer [LAK] therapy), pentoxifylline, other small molecule or chemotherapy cancer treatment, other investigational agents or other agents that target merkel cell carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to generate antigen-specific MCPyV TAg-specific CD8+ T cells for infusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin > 3 x ULN which cannot be attributed to MCC metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of GBM (WHO grade IV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived concomitant TemozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived maintenance TemozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst recurrence (based on radiological or histological evidence of recurrence)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMMSE score 25 or aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted electronic medical device in the brain:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDeep brain stimulatorXx_NEWLINE_xXVagus nerve stimulatorXx_NEWLINE_xXProgrammable shuntXx_NEWLINE_xXSkull defect without replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiological suspicion of pseudoprogression or radionecrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny serious co-morbidity which is expected to affect survival more adversely than GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXMixed (5-95%) or complete (> 95%) chimerismXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) at time of enrollment (history of treated and resolved GVHD is permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive cytomegalovirus (CMV) disease at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIf an open biopsy is performed, the patient must be at least one week post biopsy; this requirement does not apply to patients who undergo stereotactic biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXKarnofsky performance status >= 70 (Radiation Therapy Oncology Group [RTOG] recursive partitioning analysis [RPA] class I & II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust demonstrate basic tablet skills, defined as the ability to open and close an application on the desktop of the tablet, and to be able to advance the screen by swiping left or right (required for the use of tNCF testing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver: Must be considered the patient's primary caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver: Must demonstrate basic computer literacy skills, defined as at least one-hour per week spent using a computer, and have access to an internet terminal (required for the use of oNCF testing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical (e.g. multiple new cranial nerve deficits in the absence of obvious radiographic disease to explain symptoms) or radiographic evidence of leptomeningeal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of histological confirmation for recurrent disease, or if recurrent disease is not readily accessible to biopsy, must have two consecutive carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) or cancer antigen (CA) 19-9 increases, or positron emission tomography (PET) avidityXx_NEWLINE_xXMen and women from all ethnic and racial groupsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergies to sulfonamide, aspirin, any nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), 5-FU or celecoxibXx_NEWLINE_xXAny regular use of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitors as defined by 2-3 times per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of aspirin is NOT an exclusion criterion as long as the daily dose does not exceed 325 mg daily; initiation of ADAPT therapy requires patient to discontinue aspirin for 18 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of significant neurologic or psychiatric disorders, including dementia or seizures that would impede consent, treatment, or follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with partial or complete bowel obstruction due to abdominal carcinomatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking substrates of CYP2C9 should be encouraged to switch to alternative drugs whenever possible, given the potential for drug-drug interactions with the study drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with capecitabine and/or celecoxib is allowed; however, patients with a documented history (at the time of enrollment) of >= grade 3 toxicities with capecitabine or celecoxib are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking any of the following drugs are excluded: inducers or inhibitors of CYP2C9, warfarin, aspirin, corticosteroids, or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown poor metabolizers of CYP2C9 substratesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown deficiency of dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects previously treated on another investigational agent must have a 2-week or more washout before starting cabozantinib, depending on the agent, toxicity profile, and half-life; however, such patients may begin tetracycline dosing after consent is signedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBorderline resectable disease as defined by:\r\n* Staging by intravenous contrast-enhanced thin section helical abdominal computed tomography (2.5 mm cuts or less) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) (for patients with an IV contrast allergy) using pancreatic protocol; endoscopic ultrasound is required for tissue acquisition and staging confirmation:\r\n** American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) stage II\r\n** May have abutment of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA); abutment must be < 180\r\n** Abutment of the celiac axis\r\n** May have abutment or short segment encasement of the common hepatic artery (CHA) \r\n** May have short segment occlusion of the superior mesenteric vein (SMV)-portal vein (PV) confluence if reconstruction is possible\r\n** No evidence of distant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXEndoscopic ultrasound (EUS) with fine needle aspirate (FNA) for cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXCHEMORADIATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be sufficiently recovered from any adverse effect of induction chemotherapy as determined by treating investigator; the duration of this recovery period is anticipated to be 1-3 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not be on full dose CoumadinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not require chronic use of immunosuppressive agents (e.g. methotrexate, cyclosporine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven plasmacytoma. Prior biopsy is acceptable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand the purpose and risks of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHgbA1c of ? 7%Xx_NEWLINE_xXBNP or NT-proBNP within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXBortezomib refractory patients are not permitted on the Phase 2 part of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious psychiatric illness, active alcoholism, or drug addiction that may hinder or confuse follow-up evaluation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of drugs that have a risk of causing QT interval prolongation and/or have a known risk of causing Torsades de Pointes (TdP) before 14 days or the recommended 5 half-life.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented clinical benefit (CR, PR, or patients with SD for 6 months or greater) on prior EGFR TKI (e.g. erlotinib or gefitinib) followed by documented progression according to RECIST.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to administer daily subcutaneous injections at homeXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived thrombolytic agents w/in the previous monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received rapamycin or rapamycin analogs, including ridaforolimus, temsirolimus, or everolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXInfected at time of protocol entry, or receiving antibiotics (other than prophylactic trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with swallowing dysfunction who are unable to swallow BYL719 whole tablets and are not using feeding tubes for study drug administration can participate in the Phase Ib Arm B. For the Phase II, these patients with swallowing dysfunction may participate if able to drink the suspension and results of Arm B confirm the use of this method. Patients with swallowing dysfunction requiring G tube (G/PEG tube) for study drug administration may participate in Phase II if Arm C confirms dispersible tablet via G tube administration is permitted if the administration of drinkable suspension of BYL719 is allowed to be used in Phase II.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior serious infusion reaction to cetuximabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe infusion reaction to any monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of gross hemoptysis (defined as bright red blood of ½ teaspoon or more) will be excluded from this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of thrombotic or hemorrhagic disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor-risk (monosomy 5,7) or complex cytogenetics profile (3 or more cytogenetic abnormalities), or deletion of chromosome 5 (-5), or deletion of chromosome 7 (-7), or positive FLT3-ITD mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive corneal erosions or history of abnormal corneal sensitivity testXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of other histone deacetylase inhibitors (e.g. valproic acid) are prohibited except for histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors or HDAC-inhibitor like agents used for non-cancer treatment (e.g. epilepsy), where a 14 day washout is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive proto-oncogene B-Raf (BRAF) mutation result (Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKPS 60% or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXHistology other than astrocytoma grade IV (GBM or gliosarcoma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of orthostatic hypotensionXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiency or serum creatinine above the normal reference rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have melanoma that is documented to contain a BRAFV600E or BRAFV600K mutation by a FDA-approved test.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the following baseline laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunotherapy, such as interferon, interleukin-2, GM-CSF, ipilimumab, anti-PD1 or other experimental agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to Day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled glaucoma with intra-ocular pressures >21mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects are receiving ongoing treatment with AGS-003 in protocol AGS- 003-004 or AGS-003-006.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to abstain from taking prohibited drugs, either prescription or non- prescription, during the treatment phase of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior gastrectomy (partial or total) for the underlying malignant disease under investigationXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of physical integrity of the upper gastrointestinal tract or malabsorption syndrome (such as jejunostomy probe and gastric or jejunostomy tubes) which may impair the ability to administer or absorb capecitabineXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI ? 85th percentile or waist circumference ? 85th percentile for age and genderXx_NEWLINE_xXExercise/physical activity contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent (within 3 months of study commencement) use of weight loss medication(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXObesity from a genetic cause (e.g., Prader-Willi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAngioimmunoblastic TCLXx_NEWLINE_xXPTCL-unspecifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatosplenic TCLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubcutaneous panniculitis TCLXx_NEWLINE_xXTransformed mycosis fungoides (tMF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary cutaneous gamma-delta TCLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary cutaneous CD8+ aggressive epidermic cytotoxic TCLXx_NEWLINE_xXCHOP 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXCHOP 14Xx_NEWLINE_xXCHOP + etoposideXx_NEWLINE_xXOther CHOP variants: substitution allowed for 1 component with a drug of the same mechanism of action. Additional components, except alemtuzumab, are allowed. Rituximab may be added if not given within 3 cycles of randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen who are sexually active, including those with a pregnant partner, must agree to practice a medically acceptable barrier method contraceptive regimen (eg, condoms) while receiving pralatrexate and for 90 days after the last administration of pralatrexate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrecursor T/NK neoplasmsXx_NEWLINE_xXALCL (ALK+) with IPI score less than 2 at initial diagnosis and CR after CHOP-based therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXMycosis fungoides, except tMFXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary cutaneous CD30+ disorders: ALCL and lymphomatoid papulosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to pralatrexate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 1500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss =< 5% in the previous six months unless weight loss is intentional (per judgment of study medical doctor [MD])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a completed 3D plan and the attending physician must have reviewed and approved the dose volume histograms as follows: total lung volume percentage receiving at least 20 Gy (V20) =< 35%, and mean lung dose =< 20 GyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of second malignant tumor, other than the common skin cancers - basal and squamous carcinomas, within the past 3 years and uncertainty about the histological nature of the metastatic lesions; cases with other types of malignancies should be reviewed and decided by the principal investigator (PI) of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had previous transplants and/or prior mobilization attemptsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had prior radioimmunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPS 0 or 1 on the ECOG scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils ? 1.5x109/LXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented EGFR activating mutations (if already tested)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCervical intra epithelial neoplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with any underlying medical condition that the treating physician considers might be aggravated by treatment or which is not controlled (e.g., elevated troponin or creatinine, uncontrolled diabetes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with an organ allograftXx_NEWLINE_xXBevacizumab will be allowed for patients with non-squamous carcinoma. Prescribing information must be followed and precautions have to be taken into consideration (e.g., patients having presented a serious hemorrhage or recent hemoptysis should not receive bevacizumab).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated chronic phase CML, except for Anagrelide or Hydroxyurea.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown Abl-kinase T315I or T315A mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORT ONLY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant chemotherapy and radiotherapy while on protocol is prohibited; prednisone therapy will not be permitted with the exception of brief courses (=< 14 days) used for inflammatory conditions unrelated to CLL; patients may receive intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) while on protocol; patients may receive erythropoietin, darbepoetin, filgrastim, peg filgrastim, or sargramostim while on protocol; patients with cellular immune cytopenias may receive cyclosporine (pure red cell aplasia, etc.) while on study but consultation with principal investigator (P.I.) (or designee) is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant CRT completed prior to randomisationXx_NEWLINE_xXSCREENING: Patients with clinically evident or histologically proven sarcomas, melanomas, germ cell tumors, or epithelial malignancies metastatic to the lungs, mediastinum, or pleura who can be rendered no evidence of active disease (NED) following standard surgical therapy; note: patients with active disease outside the thorax may be eligible for the study once the extrathoracic disease is definitively treated by local modalities such as radiation, surgery, or radiofrequency ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT: NCI Laboratory of Pathology confirmation of diagnosis of sarcomas, melanomas, germ cell tumors, or epithelial malignancies metastatic to the lungs, mediastinum, or pleura must have been obtainedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other cardiac diseases may be excluded at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI) following consultation with cardiology consultantsXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen partial pressure (pO2) < 60% or carbon dioxide partial pressure (pCO2) >= 50 on room air arterial blood gasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an active infection (i.e., clinical signs or symptoms, including, but not limited to: bleeding/pustulant skin infections; productive cough associated with fever) on antibiotics or with a fever >= 38.5° Celsius (C) within 3 days prior to registration (i.e. date when the patient signs the consent and/or the patient is registered in CORE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with leptomeningeal disease (LMD) or with a history of LMD will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAspartate and alanine aminotransferase =< 2.5 x IULN, bilirubin =< 1.5x IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious medical problem that in the view of the investigator makes therapy difficult to comply with or difficult to interpret toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious medical problem that in the view of the investigator makes therapy difficult to comply with or difficult to interpret toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required before and after MLN8237 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas recurrent or metastatic carcinoma of the colon or rectum with documented histological or cytological confirmation;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be KRAS WT;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas had previous exposure to Betafectin® or Imprime PGG;Xx_NEWLINE_xXINITIAL ENROLLMENT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced cancer must meet one of the following criteria (does not apply to first-degree relatives or individuals with pre-invasive histology enrolling only for EGFR germline mutation testing):\r\n* Patients must have biopsiable disease and be willing to undergo biopsy for molecular profiling or\r\n* Patients must have enough and adequate archival material from a previous biopsy to perform molecular profiling analyses; the adequacy of the material provided will be determined by the principal investigator in conjunction with the laboratories performing the molecular profiling analyses or\r\n* Patients must have previously undergone a successful molecular profiling of their tumor with mutation analysis of any of the genes described or anaplastic lymphoma receptor tyrosine kinase (ALK) break apart fluorescence in situ hybridization, as part of this protocol (crossover patients) or other molecular profiling protocols such as the Lung Cancer Mutation Consortium protocol among othersXx_NEWLINE_xXCaution should be used if patients are required to use a concomitant medication that can prolong the QT interval and efforts should be made to switch to a different medication before the patient begins treatment under an experimental armXx_NEWLINE_xXThe eligibility of patients taking medications that are potent inducers or inhibitors of that enzyme will be determined following a review of their case by the principal investigator; every effort should be made to switch patients taking such agents or substances to other medications before they begin treatment with one of the experimental drug included in this protocol, particularly patients with gliomas or brain metastases who are taking enzyme-inducing anticonvulsant agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXERLOTINIB HYDROCHLORIDE ARM: Patients with a known EGFR TKI resistant mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXSELUMETINIB ARM: Patients must have one of the following as determined by analysis of the primary tumor or a metastatic site in a CLIA certified laboratory:\r\n* Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) mutation or\r\n* Neuroblastoma RAS viral (v-ras) oncogene homolog (NRAS) mutation or\r\n* Harvey rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (HRAS) mutation or\r\n* V-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B (BRAF) mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXSELUMETINIB ARM: Any prior exposure to mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK), rat sarcoma (Ras), or v-raf-1 murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog 1 (Raf) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAKT INHIBITOR MK2206 ARM: Patients must have one of the following as determined by analysis of the primary tumor or a metastatic site in a CLIA certified laboratory:\r\n* Phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase, catalytic subunit alpha (PI3KCA) mutation or\r\n* PI3KCA gene amplification by fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) (gene to chromosome ration > 2) or\r\n* V-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT) mutation or\r\n* Phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXAKT INHIBITOR MK2206 ARM: Patients with diabetes or in risk for hyperglycemia should not be excluded from trials with MK-2206, but the hyperglycemia should be well controlled on oral agents before the patient enters the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXLAPATINIB DITOSYLATE ARM: Previous lapatinib (lapatinib ditosylate) therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXLAPATINIB DITOSYLATE ARM: LVEF < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUNITINIB MALATE ARM: Patients must have one of the following as determined by analysis of the primary tumor or a metastatic site in a CLIA certified laboratory:\r\n* Platelet derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFR-A) mutation or\r\n* PDGFR-A gene amplification by FISH (gene to chromosome ratio > 2) or\r\n* V-kit Hardy-Zuckerman 4 feline sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KIT) mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXSUNITINIB MALATE ARM: Previous sunitinib (sunitinib malate) therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSUNITINIB MALATE ARM: Patients with a pre-existing thyroid abnormality who are unable to maintain thyroid function in the normal range with medication are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known syndromes that alter radiosensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXHas given written consent prior to any trial-related activity is performed. (A trial-related activity is defined as any procedure that would not have been performed during the normal management of the patient).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas had end of trial visit in CS35 prior to approval of the CS35A protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing use of an LH-RH agonist (or antagonist); patients who agree to stop LH-RH agonist therapy will be eligible but may need to wait until their required washout period is over; patients whose washout period is greater than 6 weeks will not be eligible; duration of washout period varies with the formulation of the LH-RH agonist being used and should be 2 weeks after the next dose would be scheduled; specifically:\r\n* For patients receiving a monthly formulations of LH-RH agonist, 6 weeks must pass from the last dose before eligibility;\r\n* For patients receiving a 3-month depot formulation of LH-RH agonist, 14 weeks must pass from the last dose before eligibility;\r\n* For patients receiving a 4- month depot formulation of LH-RH agonist, 18 weeks must pass from the last dose before eligibility;\r\n* For patients receiving a 6- month depot formulation of LH-RH agonist, 26 weeks must pass from the last dose before eligibility;\r\n* For patients with an annual LH-RH implant, 2 weeks must pass after removal of the implant before eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who received treatment with strontium-89 or samarium-153 are excluded, except prior samarium will be allowed provided it was administered > 1 year ago and/or the patient has demonstrated the ability to\r\nreceive cytotoxic chemotherapy without excess myelosuppression after receiving samarium.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to anthracyclines or anthracenediones including doxorubicin, daunorubicin, and mitoxantroneXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated non-availability for study visits/proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have at least 2 measurable lesions that are >= 1.5 cm in one dimension; one of the lesions, must meet additional criteria a or b depending on the treatment arm:\r\n* For Arm A patient must have at least one lesion that is >= 2.0 cm and is amenable to image-guided cryoablation and multiple vaccine injections as determined by Interventional Radiology (including tumors that can be safely accessed using imaging guidance and treated with minimal risk to adjacent structures)\r\n* For Arm B patient must have one lesion that can be excised for in vitro vaccine preparationXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diabetic retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with a QTcF (Fridericia correction formula) > 480 ms on 2 out of 3 electrocardiograms (EKGs) (if first EKG is < 480, no need to repeat, if first EKG is > 480 repeat twice for a total of 3 EKGs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must have advanced solid tumors that have returned after treatment with established approved therapies or be intolerant of established therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects enrolled in Part B must have at least 1 lesion that may qualify as a target lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have adequate hematologic reserveXx_NEWLINE_xXMeets contraceptive requirements defined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who developed autoimmune disorders while on prior immunotherapy, including pneumonitis, nephritis, and neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk NMIBC defined by the following: BCG-unresponsive NMIBC: Persistence of high-grade CIS at 6 months following an adequate course of BCG; or Stage/grade progression at 3 months after induction BCG; or Recurrence of high-grade CIS after achieving a disease-free state (i.e., CR) following induction of an adequate course of BCG that occurs less than (<) 6 months after the last exposure to BCG BCG-relapsing NMIBC: Recurrence of high-grade CIS after achieving a disease-free state following induction of an adequate course of BCG that occurs greater than or equal to (>/=) 6 months after the last exposure to BCG Very high-risk (VHR) BCG-naïve NMIBC: VHR NMIBC, defined as having at least 1 of the following: Multiple and/or large (greater than [>] 3 centimeters [cm]) T1, (HG/G3) tumors; T1, (HG/G3) tumor with concurrent CIS; T1, G3 with CIS in prostatic urethra; Micropapillary variant of non-muscle invasive urothelial carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXResection of all pTa/pT1 papillary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men receiving BCG: Agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from sexual intercourse) or use a condomXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immunosuppression, or conditions associated with congenital or acquired immune deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent febrile illness, urinary tract infection, or gross hematuriaXx_NEWLINE_xXExpression of mesothelin must be confirmed by meeting 1 of the following criteria:\r\n* Mesothelin expression (> 10% of the tumor expressing mesothelin) by immunohistochemistry (IHC) \r\n* Elevated serum SMRP levels (> 0.4 nM/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled for elective thoracic surgery (segmentectomy, lobectomy or bi-lobectomy, pneumonectomy or esophagectomy) and meeting one of the four following risk criteria:\r\n* Female and B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) >= 25 pg/ml (no age limit) \r\n* Male gender < 75 and BNP >= 25 pg/ml\r\n* Male- age >= 75 (No BNP limit)\r\n* History of prior AFXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in sinus rhythmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with stable respiratory status (no respiratory distress)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled for extrapleural pneumonectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with second (2nd) or third (3rd) degree atrioventricular (AV) blockXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients already taking class Ic or III antiarrhythmic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate coagulation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease refractory to either, AI, tamoxifen or fulvestrantXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient physiological reservesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXRECURRENT/ PROGRESSIVE DIPG (STRATUM 1): Platelets >= 100,000/mm^3 (unsupported, defined as no platelet transfusion within 7 days, and recovery from post-transfusion nadir)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRECURRENT/ PROGRESSIVE DIPG (STRATUM 1): Patients who have had > 60 Gy total radiation to the pons (e.g. patients who have received re-irradiation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRECURRENT/ PROGRESSIVE DIPG (STRATUM 1): Patients have had prior histone deacetylase (HDAC), deacetylase (DAC), heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) inhibitors for the treatment of their DIPGXx_NEWLINE_xXRECURRENT/ PROGRESSIVE DIPG (STRATUM 1): Patients have significant acute deterioration in neurologic status in 72 hours prior to enrollment, in the opinion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXRECURRENT/ PROGRESSIVE DIPG (STRATUM 1): Patients have any other significant concurrent illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXRECURRENT/ PROGRESSIVE DIPG (STRATUM 1): Patients who are required to receive any medication which can prolong the QTc intervalXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-PROGRESSED DIPG (STRATUM 2): Patients with DIPG who have not yet progressed by clinical or radiographic criteria\r\n* Please note: patients with a radiographically typical DIPG, defined as a tumor with a pontine epicenter and diffuse involvement of more than 2/3 of the pons, are eligible without histologic confirmation\r\n* Patients with pontine lesions that do not meet these radiographic criteria will be eligible if there is histologic confirmation of malignant glioma World Health Organization (WHO) II-IVXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-PROGRESSED DIPG (STRATUM 2): BSA\r\n* Patients must have a BSA >= 0.80 m^2 for dose 5 mg/m^2\r\n* Patients must have a BSA >= 0.65 m^2 for doses of 10mg/m^2 - 22 mg/m^2\r\n* Patients must have a BSA >= 0.50 m^2 for doses of 28 mg/m^2 - 36 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNON-PROGRESSED DIPG (STRATUM 2): Platelets >= 100,000/ mm^3 (unsupported, defined as no platelet transfusion within 7 days, and recovery from post-transfusion nadir)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNON-PROGRESSED DIPG (STRATUM 2): Patients who have had > 60 Gy total radiation to the pons (e.g. patients who have received re-irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-PROGRESSED DIPG (STRATUM 2): Patients have significant acute deterioration in neurologic status in 72 hours prior to enrollment, in the opinion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-PROGRESSED DIPG (STRATUM 2): Patients have diarrhea > CTCAE grade 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNON-PROGRESSED DIPG (STRATUM 2): Patients who are required to receive any medication which can prolong the QTc intervalXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed surgically resectable by a thoracic surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with no smoking historyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor oropharynx or nasopharynx primary lesions, documentation of viral status is required (e.g. high risk human papilloma virus [HPV] sub-type polymerase chain reaction [PCR], p16 IHC, HPV in situ hybridization [ISH], Epstein-Barr virus-encoded small ribonucleic acid [EBER], etc); tests done on primary tumor specimens from date of initial diagnosis at outside institutions are sufficient to meet this criterionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a resting baseline oxygen (O2) saturation by pulse oximetry of >= 92% at restXx_NEWLINE_xXInsurance approval for SBRT should be obtained prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs with a predisposition to hepatoxicity should be used with caution in patients treated with nivolumab-containing regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAs judged by the Investigator, any evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseases (e.g., severe hepatic impairment, interstitial lung disease [bilateral, diffuse, parenchymal lung disease], uncontrolled chronic renal diseases [glomerulonephritis, nephritic syndrome, Fanconi syndrome or renal tubular acidosis]), or current unstable or uncompensated respiratory or cardiac conditions, or uncontrolled hypertension (blood pressure >= 160/90), active bleeding diatheses or active infection including hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and human immunodeficiency virus; screening for chronic conditions is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXHave on CT imaging done within 28 days of Day 1 findings consistent with advanced ccRCC, including at least one extra-renal measurable target lesion meeting the criteria of RECIST version 1.1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas previously received X4P-001.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParts A and B only: Has received a prior course of axitinib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior pembrolizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters not within the protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLocally advanced, unresectable pancreatic cancer as confirmed by the multidisciplinary input from a hepatobiliary surgeon and as defined on computed tomography (CT) as having tumor abutment of > 180 degrees (> 50%) of the circumference of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) or celiac axis, unreconstructable superior mesenteric vein (SMV) or portal vein (PV) involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand and follow the breathing instructions involved in the respiratory gating procedure or to tolerate compression sufficient to reduce fiducial motion to =< 5 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in which iodine contrast is contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown CD20-negative status at relapse or progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 3b FLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of transformation of indolent disease to DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of progressive disease following completion of first-line chemotherapy (i.e., ongoing CR, PR, or SD per RECIST v1.1 guidelines )Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic or locally recurrent EBV-positive, non-keratinizing and/ or undifferentiated NPC* who do not have curative options such as chemo-radiation or surgery *Subjects will be enrolled based on confirmed histology diagnosis of the NPCXx_NEWLINE_xXTreated with ado-trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1) Part 2b:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreated with trastuzumab Part 2c:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreated with ado-trastuzumab emtansine (T-DM1) (patients with HER2 overexpression only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients tumors must have known PI3K pathway activation defined as EITHER of the following on a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-approved molecular diagnostics test:\r\n* Genomic alteration resulting in loss of phosphatase and tensin homolog (PTEN) function including a whole or partial gene deletion, frame shift mutations, or non-sense mutations; missense mutations in PTEN will not be considered qualifying\r\n* A previously characterized activating mutation in any component of the pathway including: phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase, catalytic subunit alpha (PIK3CA), v-akt murine thymoma viral oncogene homolog 1 (AKT1), phosphoinositide-3-kinase, regulatory subunit 1 (alpha) (PIK3R1), phosphoinositide-3-kinase, regulatory subunit 2 (beta) (PIK3R2), mTORXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been enrolled, or agree to consent to the companion genomic profiling study MSKCC IRB# 12-245Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known concurrent activating retrovirus-associated DNA sequence (RAS)/v-RAF-1 murine leukemia viral oncogene homolog (RAF) mutation or loss of function mutation or deletion in neurofibromin (NF)1 of NF2 resulting in mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase pathway activation; patients are not required to be evaluated for these alterations if not already performedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with an mTOR, AKT, or PI3K inhibitor (including but not limited to GDC-0941, GDC-0980, BEZ235, BKM120, LY294002, PIK-75, TGX-221, XL147, XL765, SF1126, PX-866, D-87503, D-106669, GSK615, CAL101, everolimus, temsirolimus, and ridaforolimus); for agents not listed, the study principal investigator (PI) or Co-PI will make a determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with prior ASCT or allogenic HCT. Subjects ineligible for available curative options after failing ASCT and have met the hematologic criteria are eligible to participate in this study. Subjects with prior allogenic HCT will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to concomitant anticoagulation prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PHASE I: If patient is on erlotinib at the time of signed consent, the patient does NOT need to be discontinued prior to initiation of erlotinib and onalespib; other EGFR-TKIs must be discontinued at least 7 days prior to initiation of erlotinib and onalespibXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PHASE II COHORT A: If patient is on erlotinib at the time of signed consent, erlotinib does NOT need to be discontinued prior to receiving treatment erlotinib and onalespib; last dose of erlotinib must be less than 28 days from when patient signs consentXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR PHASE II COHORT B: (EGFR exon 20 insertions): Prior EGFR-TKIs including erlotinib is allowed; if patient is on erlotinib at the time of signed consent, erlotinib does NOT need to be discontinued prior to initiation of erlotinib and onalespibXx_NEWLINE_xXLocal testing for EGFR-mutations for this study is acceptable provided it was performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified labXx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs that are known to increase torsades de pointes should be avoided; patients must discontinue these medications prior to enrollment on study; selection of alternate concomitant medications with no or minimal torsades de pointes potential is recommendedXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with proton pump inhibitors within 3 days prior to study entry; if treatment with an histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist such as ranitidine is required, erlotinib must be taken 10 hours after the H2-receptor antagonist dosing and at least 2 hours before the next dose of the H2-receptor antagonist; although the effect of antacids on erlotinib pharmacokinetics has not been evaluated, the antacid dose and the erlotinib dose should be separated by several hours, if an antacid is necessaryXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormalities of the cornea based on history (e.g., dry eye syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome), congenital abnormality (e.g., Fuch’s dystrophy), abnormal slit-lamp examination using a vital dye (e.g., fluorescein, Bengal Rose), and/or an abnormal corneal sensitivity test (Schirmer test or similar tear production test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe investigator's belief that the participant is medically unfit to receive eribulin mesylate and pembrolizumab or unsuitable for any other reason.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part 1 and 2, the patient has unresectable disease and has been previously treated with sorafenib, has declined treatment with sorafenib, or does not have access to sorafenib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part 2 and 3, all patients must have an FGF19 IHC result available. Only FGF19 IHC+ HCC patients will be eligible for Part 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least 1 lesion that is measureable using RECIST guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily agonists including OX40, CD27, CD137 (4-1BB), CD357 (GITR). One cohort also excludes anti CTLA-4, anti PDL-1 and anti PDL-1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pre-existing retinal disease on ophthalmologic exam will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have undergone first-line treatment with a high-dose methotrexate-based chemotherapy regimen with or without brain radiotherapy; high-dose methotrexate is defined as >= 3 grams/m^2; methotrexate dose reduction for creatinine clearance < 100 ml/min is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXNasopharyngeal CarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHemoglobin A1C (HBA1C) < 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MPDXx_NEWLINE_xXExpression of mesothelin must be confirmed by meeting one of the following criteria\r\n* Mesothelin expression (> 10% of the tumor expressing mesothelin) by immunohistochemical (IHC) analysis\r\n* Elevated serum SMRP levels (> 0.4 nM/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgically or medically castrated, with testosterone levels of < 50 nanograms/deciliter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a documented diagnosis of CLL/ SLL requiring treatment (per IWCLL guidelines). In addition: a. Presence of at least one clinically measurable lesion: i. nodal lesion that measures ? 1.5 cm in longest dimension (LD) and ? 1.0 cm in longest perpendicular dimension (LPD), or ii. spleen that measures ? 14 cm in longest vertical dimension (LVD) with a minimum of 2 cm enlargement, or iii. liver that measures ? 20 cm in LVD with a minimum of 2 cm enlargement, or iv. peripheral blood B lymphocyte count > 5000/uL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXhas 17p- and/or TP53 mutation; orXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have the following lab values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of TLS per the Cairo-Bishop definition of laboratory TLS (subjects may be enrolled upon correction of electrolyte abnormalities).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales (including those who have had a vasectomy) must practice complete abstinence or use barrier contraception (condoms) when engaging in sexual activity with FCBP as specified in the PPRMP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales must agree not to donate semen or sperm for the duration of the study and for 3 months after the last dose of CC-122.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnderstand that the (investigational Product) IP could have a potential teratogenic risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to abstain from donating blood while taking IP and following discontinuation of IP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree not to share IP with another person.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther than the subject, FCBP and males should not handle the IP or touch the capsules, unless gloves are worn.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe counseled about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure. ARM B ONLY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be either resistant to or intolerant of (ie., treatment failures) the last BCR PI and/or venetoclax. Resistant is defined as relapsed or refractory perXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of second malignancies with life expectancy of < 2 years or requirement of therapy that would confound study results. This does not include the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedicines with high probability to cause QT prolongation or torsades de pointes. Subjects on chronic medications in this category may enroll after discussion with the medical monitor if changing these medications are not in the best medical interest of the patient.Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch, or bifasicular, block.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTroponin-T value >0.4 ng/mL or BNP >300 pg/mL. Subjects with baseline troponin-T >ULN or BNP >100 pg/mL are eligible but must have cardiologist evaluation prior to enrollment in the trial for baseline assessment and optimization of cardioprotective therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent diarrhea or malabsorption ? NCI CTCAE Grade 2, despite medical managementXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown acute or chronic pancreatitis 17. Pregnant or lactating females Arm B only (CC-122 in combination with ibrutinib):Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or demonstrated wild type KIT or PDGF-R, or known or demonstrated mutations of PDGF R, SDH, or NF 1 that are causative for the observed malignancy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part 1 (phase 1, single agent): Patients with a known or presumed pathogenic KIT exon 13 or 14 resistance mutation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParts 2a and 2d: Patients with known or presumed pathogenic KIT exon 13 or 14 resistance mutations. (However, such patients are permitted on the combination arms of Parts 2b, 2c, 2e, or 2f.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could hamper compliance with the study protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation >92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects or legally appointed representatives/caregivers, must personally sign and date the IRB/IEC approved consent form before initiating any study specific procedures or activities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility of patients receiving any medications or substances known to affect or have the potential to affect the activity or pharmacokinetics of temsirolimus will be determined following review of their case by the Principal InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of histone deacetylases (HDAC) or mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of other anticancer agents or treatments except luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) antagonists, LHRH agonists, zoledronic acid and other bone targeting agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of residual disease on final pathology following surgery will be required for immunotherapy; patients with no residual disease at the time of surgery will be removedXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of disease progression on neoadjuvant chemo TXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic ongoing oral steroid use at the time of registration for any condition (such as asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1.5 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of nephrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of (within 24 months prior to enrollment) of kidney, ureter, or bladder stones with clinically significant sequelae (e.g. (painless gross hematuria; pain with or without infection; hydronephrosis, etc); patients with otherwise stable non-occluding kidney stones regardless of stone type incidentally found in computed tomography (CT) scans are eligible; patients with prior history of uric acid stones are eligible regardless of time of onsetXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to stop calcium supplementation (during the first cycle of treatment) or vitamin D supplementation throughout the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with brain metastases must not be taking primidone, carbamazepine, phenobarbital or phenytoin anticonvulsants (Enzyme-Inducing Anti-Epileptic Drugs). Patients changing from these anticonvulsants to others that are allowed must be off the drugs listed above for at least 1 week.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with: a) active infection, b) disease that will obscure toxicity or dangerously alter drug metabolism, c) serious intercurrent medical illness, d) prior documented recurrence with temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) >= LLN and free T4 within normal limits; patients are permitted to receive thyroid hormone supplements to treat underlying hypothyroidism; the thyroid supplement dose must be a stable dose for at least one month prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia defined as heart rate (HR) < 50 beats per minute (bpm); patients with pacemakers are eligible if HR >= 50 bpmXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block + left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking CYP2D6 inhibitors should be carefully monitored, but these drugs are not necessarily contraindicated when used concomitantly with LBH589Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndication for treatment as defined by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) Working Group & International Workshop in CLL Guidelines (2, 3):\r\n* Massive (i.e. > 6 cm below the left costal margin) or progressive / symptomatic splenomegaly OR\r\n* Massive lymph nodes or nodal clusters (i.e. > 10 cm in longest diameter), or progressive / symptomatic lymphadenopathy OR\r\n* Presence of disease-related constitutional symptoms:\r\n** Weight loss >= 10% over the preceding 6 months \r\n** Significant fatigue (i.e., Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group [ECOG] performance status [PS] 2 or worse; inability to work or perform usual activities)\r\n** Fevers higher than 100.5°F or 38.0°C for 2 or more weeks without other evidence of infection\r\n** Night sweats for more than 1 month without evidence of infection OR\r\n* Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of >= 50% over a 2-month period or an anticipated doubling time of less than 6 months OR\r\n* Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by the development of, or worsening of, anemia and / or thrombocytopenia OR\r\n* Autoimmune anemia and / or thrombocytopenia poorly responsive to corticosteroids or other standard therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXNHL SUBJECTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXALL SUBJECTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere or debilitating pulmonary disease (dyspnea at rest, significant shortness of breath, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD])Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of aggressive or highly aggressive lymphoma or Richter’s transformation based on WHO/REAL classification criteria(1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: If both serum and urine m-components are present, both must be followed in order to evaluate response.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following as this regimen may be harmful to a developing fetus or nursing child:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Stevens-Johnson syndrome characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSince induction courses can vary at referring institutions, in cases where the drugs (or doses) are in question, 2 or more members of the study committee will decide on the adequacy of the therapy; likewise, if in cases where high risk status is in question (either based on disease type or risk classification) 2 or more members of the study committee will decide on the adequacy of the therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXMinimal residual disease (MRD) will be defined separately for each test (fluorescence-activated cell sorting [FACS], FISH or cytogenetics) using standard accepted definitions (that may change over the course of this study and are therefore not listed); thus, patients will be considered eligible only in cases where residual leukemia (i.e., MRD) can be detected above control values; in cases where MRD testing is not conclusive or when there is no control value for the test, the attending pathologist will be engaged and patients will only be eligible in cases where there is clear evidence of MRDXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple myeloma\r\n* No prior auto hematopoietic transplantation (HCT) fitting into one of the following categories:\r\n** Early disease stage (first complete response [CR1]/first partial response [PR1]) with high-risk molecular features:\r\n*** By FISH or cytogenetics:\r\n**** t(4;14)\r\n**** t(14;16) \r\n**** t(14;20)\r\n**** -17 or -17p\r\n**** -1p or +1q\r\n*** By cytogenetics:\r\n**** -13 or -13q\r\n*** By gene expression profile (GEP):\r\n**** High risk GEP\r\n** Early disease stage (CR1/PR1) with high-risk clinical features:\r\n*** Plasma cell leukemia at presentation\r\n*** Poor count recovery after chemotherapy, making collections from autologous HCT unlikely to be adequate\r\n** Late disease stage (CR2/second partial response [PR2+]) with high- risk clinical features\r\n*** Minimal (< 50% reduction of serum M protein or free light chains, or if non-secretory, < 50% reduction in marrow plasma cell burden) response or progression after therapy with at least two novel agents, including lenalidomide and bortezomib, who demonstrates chemosensitivity to any other salvage regimen\r\n*** Poor count recovery after chemotherapy, making collections for autologous HCT unlikely to be adequateXx_NEWLINE_xXExtramedullary disease noted during pre-HCT work up can receive a boost of radiation as clinically indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior total body irradiation (TBI) making TMI not feasibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with relapsed or refractory NHL limited to subtypes listed below; the subject must have histologic confirmation of diagnosis according to review at the Cleveland Clinic Foundation, either at initial diagnosis or at any subsequent relapse; (biopsy is not required at relapse, but is suggested; biopsy at outside institution, reviewed at the Cleveland Clinic, is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xX=< 2 regimens of cytotoxic chemotherapy prior to study entry; retinoids, vitamin D analogues, peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor (PPAR) gamma agonists or antagonists, antiandrogens, progestational agents, estrogens, prostate cancer (PC)-SPES, luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH)-analogues, vaccines, cytokines will not be considered \cytotoxics\; patients who have previously received ketoconazole + glucocorticoids will be eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXMen of all ethnic groups are eligible for this trial; efforts will be made to include minority groups and all representative ethnicities and races in the community serviced by Roswell Park Cancer Institute (RPCI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of kidney, ureteral, or bladder stones within the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of proton pump inhibitors or histamine (H)2 blockersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on digoxin will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not have pure uterine sarcomas (i.e., no mixed malignant Mullerian tumors).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with single or multiple cerebellar or cerebral cortex lesions are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an expected minimum life span of 60 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 30%, may be reached by transfusionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic sections for all patients must be submitted for pathology review; failure to submit pathology materials will render the patient non-evaluable for response but evaluable for toxicitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with radiographic signs of excessive intra-cranial mass effect with associated rapid neurologic deterioration, and/or spinal block, are unsafe to undergo blood-brain barrier disruption (BBBD) chemotherapy and are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are immunologically compromised (excluding corticosteroids used for control of tumoral edema) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients at significant increased risk for general anesthesia are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biliary obstruction for which a stent has been placed are eligible, provided the stent has been in place for at least 10 days prior to the first dose of belinostat and the liver function has stabilized; two measurements at least 2 days apart that put the patient in the same hepatic dysfunction stratum will be accepted as evidence of stable hepatic function; there should be no evidence of biliary sepsisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have acceptable, applicable laboratory requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed cGVHD defined by:Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe cGVHD as assessed by NIH cGVHD Diagnosis and Staging Criteria (NCDSC) with at least three organ systems involved OR one organ system with a score of 2 OR lung organ score = 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave either a normal ECG or one with abnormalities that are considered clinically insignificant by the investigator in consultation with the SponsorXx_NEWLINE_xXB cell depleting biologic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXCD19 CAR-T cells based therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXBTK/SYK/JAK/PI3K inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhototherapy-unless administered for acute GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere organ dysfunction manifested during screening period:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring supplemental oxygen at more than 2 L/minXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum cardiac troponin (cTn) level ? 99% percentile of the upper reference limitXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease to be treated by ILI must be distal to the planned site of tourniquet placement (which for the leg is generally the apex of the femoral triangle, or for the arm is distal to the deltoid insertion); if provider feels ILI appropriate with disease in these areas, patients may be enrolled with principal investigator (PI) approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a palpable femoral/radial pulse in the affected extremityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current immunodeficiency disease (e.g. splenectomy or splenic irradiation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known heparin induced thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to return at the regular required intervals for reassessment, or study drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis based on a T-score of <-2.5 at the left or right total hip, left or right femoral neck or lumbar spine (L1-L4) as determined by DEXA scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of a pathologic fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXLytic lesion requiring an impending orthopedic interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXFasting ?-CTX of >1000 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of PMF or Post PV/ET-MFXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk OR intermediate-2 risk defined by dynamic international prognostic scoring system (DIPSS) OR intermediate-1 risk defined by DIPSS and associated with symptomatic splenomegaly and/or hepatomegalyXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females must agree to discontinue nursing before MMB administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSplenic irradiation within 3 months prior to the first dose of MMBXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or other medical condition that would make corticosteroids (i.e. dexamethasone) use contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunction (note: the use of daily steroids does not exclude someone from participating in this study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient was diagnosed with Grade B-D acute GVHD requiring corticosteroid systemic therapy. The subject may have Grade C or D aGVHD involving the skin, liver, and/or gastrointestinal (GI) tract or may have Grade B aGVHD involving the liver and/or GI tract, with or without concomitant skin disease. Acute GVHD is defined as the presence of skin rash and/or persistent nausea, vomiting, and/or diarrhea and/or cholestasis presenting in a context in which aGVHD is likely to occur and where other etiologies such as drug rash, enteric infection, or hepatotoxic syndromes are unlikely or have been ruled out.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had persistent GI GVHD manifested by diarrhea with stool volume < 500 mL/day in the absence of nausea or vomiting may be deemed as having Grade B GVHD if other causes of diarrhea have been ruled out (e.g., C. difficile or cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, oral magnesium administration) and if the low stool volume reflects the effects of fasting or administration of narcotics or antidiarrheal medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has Grade B aGvHD with skin-only involvement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient shows evidence of diffuse alveolar hemorrhage or other active pulmonary disease, which is likely to require more than 2L of oxygen via face mask or an estimated FiO(2) of 28% via other delivery methods in order to sustain an O(2) saturation of 92%.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient shows evidence of severe hepatic veno-occlusive disease (VOD) or sinusoidal obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient shows evidence of encephalopathy as defined by a change in mental status since the onset of aGVHD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have received certain prior immunotherapy or had toxicities relating to prior immunotherapy may not be permitted to enroll. o Must not have required the use of additional immunosuppression other than corticosteroids for the management of an adverse event.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reactions to any unknown allergens or any components of the study drug formulations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive hemolytic anemia requiring immunosuppressive therapy or other pharmacologic treatment; NOTE: patients who have a positive Coombs test but no evidence of hemolysis are NOT excluded from participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose AML is classified as favorable according to the European LeukemiaNet (ELN) disease risk assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has no significant valvular heart disease (trace or mild valvular stenosis or regurgitation is allowed).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is able to stay within 45 minutes driving time of an emergency room for 28 days after doing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has any of the following hematologic parameters:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation (Sp02) of less than 95% on room air.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlasgow Coma Score (GCS) of less than 15.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory evidence of hepatic dysfunction indicated by any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsplenia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has diagnostic biopsy available for the analysis of PIK3CA mutation and Ki67 level.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXMen and members of all ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with underlying heart conditions who are deemed ineligible for surgery by cardiology consultXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma of uveal originXx_NEWLINE_xXNT-proBNP ?650Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXNT-proBNP >5000Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of acquired TTP (initial or recurrent), which includes thrombocytopenia and microscopic evidence of red blood cell fragmentation (e.g., schistocytes).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOthers as defined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine level >200 µmol/L in case platelet count is > 30×10E9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown other causes of thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXCongenital TTP (known at the time of study entry).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOthers as defined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have known PI3K/mTOR pathway gene aberrations (from molecular profiling studies).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have HPV positive HNSCC containing activating PIK3CA mutations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic pericarditis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant treatment with medicinal products that increase the pH (reduce acidity) of the upper gastrointestinal tract, including, but not limited to, proton-pump inhibitors (e.g. omeprazole), H2-antagonists (e.g. ranitidine) and antacids. Patients may be enrolled in the study after a wash-out period sufficient to terminate their effect.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who does not apply highly effective contraception during the study from screening until 90 days after discontinuing study treatment Protocol No. PQR309-003 Protocol Amendment 3, 23 September 2015 PIQUR Therapeutics AG - Confidential Page 16 of 108 (see section 11.3).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have any of the following mood disorders as judged by the Investigator or a Psychiatrist, or who meets the cut-off score of ? 12 the PHQ-9 or a cut-off of ? 15 in the GAD-7 mood scale, respectively, or selects a positive response of '1, 2, or 3' to question number 9 regarding potential for suicidal thoughts in the PHQ-9 (independent of the total score of the PHQ-9) see Appendix 4.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart specific requirements: eligible to receive induction; achieved CR/CRi with standard induction and eligible to receive consolidation; in CR with documented blood count recovery for maintenanceXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate lung functionXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate heart functionXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC with known EGFR mutation or anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) gene translocation (such as EML4-ALK)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are allowed to be on another study concurrent with this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy (or recombinant antibody-related fusion proteins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has radiologically documented evidence of major blood vessel invasion or encasement by cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXThrombectomy, insertion of a caval filter, or use of a fibrinolytic agent to treat the current (index) episode of DVT and/or PE;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny other contraindication listed in the local labeling of dalteparin, enoxaparin, or edoxaban;Xx_NEWLINE_xXUGT1A1 genotype of TA 7 in both alleles (homozygous UGT1A1*28) or TA 8 in either one or both alleles (hetero- or homozygous for UGT1A1*37)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic or acute GI disorders resulting in diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum phosphorus > 2.5; electrolyte repletion is allowed to reach these valuesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with osteonecrosis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin greater than 1.5 mg/dl (>26 µmol/L) unless elevation is thought to be due to hepatic infiltration by AML, Gilbert syndrome, or hemolysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has persistent toxicities from prior anti-leukemic therapies which are determined to be relevant by the Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of GIST.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have demonstrated either disease progression or intolerance to imatinib mesylate, have non-mutant Stem Cell Factor Receptor gene (KIT) GIST, or cannot obtain imatinib in their countryXx_NEWLINE_xXStage 1-3 tumors > 1 cm in maximal diameter, any nodal status, multifocal or multi-centric disease is permitted, no evidence of distant metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or breastfeeding, or plan to be pregnant within projected duration of the trial, starting with the screening visit through 4 months after the last dose of mirvetuximab soravtansine (NOTE: breast milk cannot be stored for future use while the mother is being treated on study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive or chronic corneal disorder, including but not limited to the following:\r\n* Sjogren’s syndrome\r\n* Fuchs corneal dystrophy (requiring treatment)\r\n* History of corneal transplantation\r\n* Active herpetic keratitis\r\n* Active ocular conditions requiring on-going treatment/monitoring such as wet age-related macular degeneration requiring intravitreal injections, active diabetic retinopathy with macular edema, presence of papilledema, and acquired monocular visionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or evidence of thrombotic or hemorrhagic disorders within 6 months prior to first dose of mirvetuximab soravtansineXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired used of folate-containing supplements (e.g. for folate deficiency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTURBT successfully completedXx_NEWLINE_xXVerification received from Argos Therapeutics that ribonucleic acid (RNA) successfully collected from TURBT procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXBe a candidate for radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to abstain from taking prohibited drugs, either prescription or non-prescription, during the treatment phase of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with leptomeningeal disease; metastases to the brain stem, midbrain, pons, medulla, or within 10 millimeters (mm) of the optic apparatus (optic nerves and chiasm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAML relapsed or refractory to at least one attempt at induction or subjects not candidates for aggressive induction regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate hematologic or biologic function as determined by the following laboratory tests:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healed wound;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is taking a drug with a risk to promote QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant treatment with medicinal products that increase the potential hydrogen (pH), reduce acidity of the upper gastrointestinal tract, including, but not limited to, proton-pump inhibitors (e.g. omeprazole), H2-antagonists (e.g. ranitidine) and antacids. Patients may be enrolled in the study after a washout period sufficient to terminate their effect.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart BXx_NEWLINE_xXHematological and biochemical indices within acceptable ranges shown at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part B only:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with uterine carcinosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of BCC with at least 6 nodular lesions that measure 0.5 cm to 5 cm in diameter, located on the head and neck, trunk or extremitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary lesions may be acceptable for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement not to donate blood or blood products during the study and for 7 months after discontinuation of vismodegibXx_NEWLINE_xXBasal cell carcinomas of aggressive subtypes (infiltrative, morpheaform, micronodular)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny BCC that may require Mohs surgery for definitive controlXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known photosensitivity diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects previously treated with a systemic photosensitizer within 4 months of screening dateXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of alcohol of substance abuse, unless in full remission for greater than 6 months prior to the screening visit (day 0) when the consent form is signedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking immunosuppressive medications at the screening visitXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Patients must have:\n\n          -  advanced solid tumors and have confirmed cMET dysregulation\n\n          -  at least one measurable lesion as defined by RECIST 1.1.\n\n          -  recovered from all toxicities related to prior anti-cancer therapies\n\n          -  adequate organ function\n\n          -  ECOG performance status (PS) of 0 or 1\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        Patients must not have:\n\n          -  known hypersensitivity to any of the excipients of INC280\n\n          -  prior treatment with cMET or HGF-targeting inhibitor\n\n          -  known hypersensitivity to digoxin or rosuvastatin or its excipients\n\n          -  symptomatic central nervous system (CNS) metastases who are neurologically unstable\n\n          -  presence or history of carcinomatous meningitis\n\n          -  history of another primary malignancy that is currently clinically significant or\n             currently requires active intervention\n\n          -  Clinically significant, uncontrolled heart diseases, including QTcF ? 450 msec (male\n             patients), ? 460 msec (female patients) on the screening ECG\n\n          -  Thoracic radiotherapy to lung fields ? 4 weeks prior to starting INC280\n\n          -  Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to starting INC280\n\n          -  Patients receiving unstable or increasing doses of corticosteroids.\n\n          -  Impairment of GI function or GI disease that may significantly alter the absorption of\n             INC280\n\n          -  Patients who have received, or are expected to receive digoxin or rosuvastatin within\n             21 days prior to the beginning of the DDI phase (Day 1) and for the duration of the\n             DDI phase.\n\n        Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria may applyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have relapsed or refractory disease following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable blood test results.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart B: Have alterations of FGFR3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave preexisting corneal disease that may interfere with assessment for potential eye toxicity during the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of osteosarcoma at original diagnosis or relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received CDX-011 (CR011-vc monomethyl auristatin E [MMAE]; CDX-011) or other MMAE-containing agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for retinal vein thrombosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPredisposing factors to retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of RVO, neurosensory retinal detachment, or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLVEFXx_NEWLINE_xXNo other history of or ongoing malignancy that would potentially interfere with the interpretation of the Pharmacodynamic (PD) or efficacy assaysXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated or inadequately treated spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other malignancies within 5 years except those with negligible risk of metastasis or deathXx_NEWLINE_xXLab values (hematology and chemistry) within institution's normal laboratory limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXOpen surgery in the ipsilateral breast within 1 year of AVB-620 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of drug-related anaphylactic reactions or allergic reactions; subjects with an active diagnosis of uncontrolled airway hyperactivity, uncontrolled asthma, or asthma requiring oral corticosteroids will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed metastatic or locally recurrent uveal melanoma; because histologic or cytologic confirmation of primary uveal melanoma is not always possible, confirmation of the clinical diagnosis of uveal melanoma by the treating investigator is allowed; clinical diagnosis of uveal melanoma is often made by an ophthalmologist, not by tissue diagnosis; if an ophthalmologist diagnosed and treated a patient for uveal melanoma in the past, it is sufficient for a clinical diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received CDX-011 (glembatumumab vedotin) or other monomethyl auristatin E (MMAE)-containing agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar composition to dolastatin or auristatin (e.g. Auristatin PHE, Auristatin PE, and symplostatin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived transplant care locally and will remain in the Houston area for at least 6 weeks post Viralym-C infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable Viralym-C T cell lineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active acute Graft versus host disease (GVHD) grades II-IV.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRR-AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed/refractory MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXNo signs or symptoms of graft versus host disease other than Grade 1 skin involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown clinically important respiratory impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant germ cell tumors with mixed histology such as embryonal carcinoma, choriocarcinoma, yolk sac tumor or seminoma. Note - this refers to the histology at the time of enrollment, not the histolgy at the time of initial presentation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic evidence of malignant transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave either of the following diagnoses:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapidly increasing peripheral blood blast countsXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion or central serous retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXAssessment of HER2 status in subjects with breast cancer should follow the 2013 American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO)/College of American Pathologists (CAP) criteria (Wolff et al, 2013) as practicable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAssessment of HER2 status in subjects with gastric and gastroesophageal junction adenocarcinoma should follow the criteria published by Rüschoff et al (2012) as practicable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects with breast and gastric/gastroesophageal junction cancers should have HER2 testing performed using an assay kit/methodology specifically FDA-approved for their cancer type as practicable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior cumulative doxorubicin dose must be ? 360 mg/m2; prior cumulative epirubicin dose must be ? 720 mg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements. However they must still undergo pregnancy testing as described in this section.Xx_NEWLINE_xX13.9 mmol/L]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of treatment with immunotherapy (including interferons, interleukins, immunoconjugates), biological therapies (including monoclonal antibodies or other engineered proteins), targeted small molecules (including but not limited to kinase inhibitors), hormonal therapies (except for gonadotropin releasing hormone agonists/antagonists for prostate cancer which may be continued while on study) within 3 weeks of scheduled dosing day 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of trastuzumab, pertuzumab, or ado-trastuzumab emtansine within 4 weeks of scheduled dosing day 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of absolute decrease in LVEF of ? 16 absolute percentage points, or ? 10 absolute percentage points and crossing from > LLN to < LLN on prior anti-HER2 therapy, even if asymptomatic and the LVEF decrease recovered;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHemorrhagic, embolic, or thrombotic stroke within 6 months of scheduled dosing day 1;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of any psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior or currently active small or large intestine inflammation (such as Crohn's disease or ulcerative colitis). Any predisposition for gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity requires prior approval from the Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 sites of measurable disease per Cheson criteria (must measure at least 1.5 cm in any diameter or 1.0 cm in the shortest diameter if one of the diameters is not ? 1.5 cm), one of which must be palpable and easily accessible in a low-risk site (eg, inguinal, axillary, cervical, subcutaneous) for intratumoral injection (denoted as \Lesion A\ in Treatment Cycle 1) and at least one additional untreated lesion that is located outside the radiation field of the treated lesion (Lesion A) and is accessible for an FNA aspirate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of sensitivity to any component of SD-101Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCytologic or histologic proof of pancreatic ductal carcinoma is required prior to study entry; this diagnosis must be confirmed by pathology review at a Dana-Farber (DF)/Harvard Cancer Center (HCC) institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with negative nodal status (N0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic dysfunction defined as MELD Score > 12.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDuring time of study period, subjects must agree not to take any new vitamin supplementation or herbal remedyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of fibrolamellar HCC or tumors of mixed histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic encephalopathy within 3 months prior to the first dose of TKM-080301 and/or requirement for medication for encephalopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requiring daily medication.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently entered on Alopexx Oncology Protocol AO-101Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has received 6 cycles of DI-Leu16-IL2 on Protocol AO-101Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented clinical benefit following 6th cycle of DI-Leu16-IL2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to begin extension study within 8 weeks of receiving 6th cycle of DI-Leu16-IL2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously collected autologous stem cell product met the minimum collection target and minimum infusion targetXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: meets donation eligibility requirements as outlined by 21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1271 and agency guidanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHas BMI > 34.9 kg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas autoimmune cytopenia (anemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a primary or other severe immunodeficiency which predisposes to rapid progression to disseminated AdV diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXTo the best of his or her (or parent/guardian) knowledge, willing and able to participate in all required study activities for the duration of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic subjects are eligible if they are not taking metformin, insulin or sulfonylureasXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have received iodinated contrast dye less than 48 hours prior to screening meet a temporary exclusion criteria to receive metformin; these patients cannot start investigational metformin until 48 hours have elapsed from contrast administration; subjects who are scheduled for iodinated contrast dye administration within 48 hours of definitive surgery are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with plasma bicarbonate less than 22 mEq/L or history of lactic or any other metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myocardial ischemia or peripheral muscle ischemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of excessive alcohol intake which is defined in accordance with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) definitions as more than 1 drink per day for women and more than 2 drinks per day for menXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no available approved therapies that confer clinical benefitXx_NEWLINE_xXActive GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive medications by mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis based on a T-score of <-2.5 at the left or right total hip, left or right femoral neck or lumbar spine (L1-L4) as determined by DEXA scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of a pathologic fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXLytic lesion requiring an impending orthopedic interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXFasting ?-CTX of >1000 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologically stableXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of severe or uncontrolled diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject needs non-emergency cardiac surgery with cardiopulmonary bypass.Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplex/combined procedures (coronary artery bypass graft [CABG] plus valve), double/triple valve repair/replacements, ascending aorta/aortic arch surgeries (without baseline AT level restriction or preoperative heparin requirement). ORXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject needs emergency surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInfective endocarditis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with new oral anticoagulants (Apixaban, Rivaroxaban, Dabigatran) within 48 hours before surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reaction(s) to blood or blood components.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to excipients in the study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to receive allogenic transfusion of blood-derived products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take oral medications and willing to record daily adherance to investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXFL with evidence of large cell transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of other malignancies, exceptXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no known contra-indications to any of the planned agents used in this protocol; etoposide may be substituted by etoposide phosphate (Etopophos) if the patient has a history of hypersensitivity reaction to etoposideXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated patient survival under 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening visceral disease or other severe concurrent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival under 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXALK-rearrangement confirmed by FDA approved testXx_NEWLINE_xXEndogenous erythropoietin levels < 500 units/LXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS with isolated del(5q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXB12 and folate deficient patients with and without clinical symptoms (patients could be rescreened after successful therapy of B12 and folate deficiency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active hepatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously discontinued paclitaxel-based regimes due to drug related toxicity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously discontinued bevacizumab-containing regimes due to drug-related toxicity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWash-out period:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have pelvic irradiation with doses ? 45 Grays (Gy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diabetes or in risk for hyperglycemia should not be excluded from trials with MK-2206, but the hyperglycemia should be well controlled before the patient enters the trial (glycosylated hemoglobin [Hba1c] < 7.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary Ocular MelanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of solid tumor, including lymphomas, at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, patients with optic pathway gliomas, and patients with pineal tumors and elevations of serum or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with sirolimus, cyclophosphamide or topotecan: patients previously treated with any of these drugs as single agents will be eligible for this study; patients previously treated with two of the three drugs will also be eligible, however patients previously treated with all three agents in combination will not be eligible; patients previously treated with sirolimus analogues (e.g. temsirolimus, everolimus, or ridaforolimus) are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function defined as:\r\n* No dyspnea at rest\r\n* No known requirement for supplemental oxygen\r\n* No known active pneumonitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHaematological parameters:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelet count ? 10.0x10(to the 4th power)/?l (? 5.0 x 10(to 4th power)/?l after stem cell transplant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiochemical Parameters:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have an ECOG Performance Score of 0, 1, or 2 (refer to Appendix II).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have histologically or cytologically documented measurable (may be measurable by tumor markers only, such as quantitative RT-PCR for WT1 transcript for AML) advanced stage glioblastoma or AML (not including acute promyelocytic leukemia), known to overexpress the WT1 protein. Note: Determination of WT1 expression will not be assessed prior to patient enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelet count ? 10.0 x 1(to the 4th power)/?l (? 5.0 x 10(to the 4th power)/?l after stem cell transplant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with an extensively disseminated primary glioblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has received any of the following treatments within the specified timeframe prior to dosing:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an extensively disseminated primary glioblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has received any of the following treatments within the specified timeframe:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not able to swallow the lenalidomide capsule as a whole are excluded from this study (capsule cannot be opened, chewed, or crushed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xX13 to 17 years of age inclusive at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWritten patient assent (as appropriate).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitivities, allergies or contraindications to study medications; intolerance of medical tape or sticking plaster.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny conditions associated with non-compliance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent and/or metastatic resectable colorectal cancer, including disease within the abdomen and pelvis with no evidence of extra-abdominal metastases; intra-abdominal disease includes: isolated hepatic metastasis/metastases (see next inclusion criteria point), isolated peritoneal metastasis, or a combination of hepatic and extrahepatic metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 27.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with comorbid medical conditions that render them unfit for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are ineligible if they plan on regular use of NSAIDs at any dose more than 2 times per week (on average) or aspirin at more than 325 mg at least three times per week, on average; low-dose aspirin not exceeding 100 mg/day is permitted; patients who agree to stop regular NSAIDs or higher dose aspirin are eligible and no wash out period is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXhave not been treated with a taxane within six months of C1D1, ANDXx_NEWLINE_xXhave not been treated with weekly paclitaxel after first-line treatment in which weekly paclitaxel plus a platinum is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a non-melanomatous, in situ malignancy or disease that is completely resectable with surgery may be considered after discussion with the Medical MonitorXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of mixed NSCLC with a predominance of the squamous cell typeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors confirmed to have EGFR-activating mutations who are suitable for anti-EGFR therapy (e.g. gefitinib or erlotinib), as determined by the investigator, unless that treatment is unavailable or refused by the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXHave identified a back-up cells source in case of engraftment failure; the source can be autologous, related or unrelatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled serious medical condition such as persistent septicemia despite adequate antibiotic therapy, decompensated congestive heart failure despite cardiac medications or pulmonary insufficiency requiring intubation (excluding primary disease for which CB transplantation is proposed), or psychiatric condition that would limit informed consentXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion:\n\n          1. Received prior treatment with NKTR-102\n\n          2. Free of disease progression since receiving NKTR-102\n\n          3. Adequate bone marrow and organ function\n\n          4. Treatment with NKTR-102 in the extension study to begin within 8 weeks after receipt\n             of their of last dose of NKTR-102\n\n          5. Agree to use adequate contraception\n\n        Exclusion:\n\n          1. Treatment with other anti-cancer therapy between the last dose of NKTR-102 in the\n             prior study and before first dose of NKTR-102 in the extension study\n\n          2. A toxicity that requires a 3rd dose reduction after taking NKTR-102 or are scheduled\n             to receive a dose < 70 mg/m2 upon entry into this study\n\n          3. Pregnancy or lactationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with AML must have had at least 2 prior therapeutic attempts including frontline induction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ALL must have had at least 3 prior therapeutic attempts including frontline induction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale patients with infants must agree not to breastfeed their infants while on this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia defined as HR< 50 bpm. Patients with pacemakers are eligible if HR ? 50 bpm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block + left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with intraocular retinoblastoma, unilateral or bilateral, who would be treated either by systemic chemotherapy, external beam radiation (EBR), or enucleation would be considered for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented hypercoagulable disorders or vasculopathiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients above the age of 60 only with principal investigator (PI) approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with rituximab and with an alkylating agent (eg, bendamustine, cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, chlorambucil, melphalan, busulfan, nitrosoureas) for iNHLXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing alcohol or drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary lymphangitic involvement that results in pulmonary dysfunction requiring the use of oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated SCCHN of oral cavity/soft palate, categories T1N1-2M0,T2N1-2M0,T3N0-2M0,T4N0-2M0 (T4 allowed only if invasion of mandible is negligible) scheduled for SOCXx_NEWLINE_xXno immunosuppressives with 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects to be treated with other than SOCXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcerXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic viral, bacterial immune or other disease associated with abnormal immune functionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant diseases/conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xX3+ by IHC and/orXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of screening assessments (Refer to protocol for further details)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCCND1 amplification and/or loss of p16 as determined by the central laboratory.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of non-target lesions that have not previously been irradiated or biopsied; to allow for collection of needle-biopsies at Screening and after completion of Kevetrin treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrocardiogram (ECG) obtained at Screening which shows QTc prolongation or other medically relevant abnormalities which may affect subject safety or interpretation of study resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received >= 2 daratumumab infusions and be scheduled to receive another doseXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnic groups are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils ? 1500/µLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient Re-enrollment: This study permits the re-enrollment of a patient that has discontinued the study as a screen failure (ie, patient has not been dosed/has not been treated). If re-enrolled, the patient must be re-consented.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAzoospermic males and WOCBP who are continuously not heterosexually active are exempt from contraceptive requirements. However, they must still undergo pregnancy testing as described in this section.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with carcinomatosis meningitis or a history of ocular/uveal melanoma are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXANC < 1,500/µLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or patients who are involuntarily incarcerated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that potentially hamper compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule; those conditions should be discussed with the patient before registration in the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA patient must have previously received anti-PD1 immunotherapy (nivolumab or pembrolizumab) and later experienced disease progression, within 3 months of registration on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of primary uveal melanoma involving the posterior uveal tract in the study eyeXx_NEWLINE_xXUveal melanoma in the study eye originating in the anterior uveal tract (iris)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHereditary or chronic hemorrhagic or coagulopathy conditions (i.e., hemophilia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nodal disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be eligible for Alliance A031201 and must agree to proceed to enroll in A031201Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with visceral disease are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant intercurrent illness that will limit the patient's ability to participate in the study or may result in their death over the next 18 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior progression on one or more androgen-receptor/androgen-synthesis inhibitor therapies (e.g. abiraterone, enzalutamide, apalutamide, TAK-700 and/or galeterone) by Prostate Cancer Working Group 2 (PCWG2) criteria. Prior progression on bicalutamide/nilutamide/flutamide/ketoconazole alone is not allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) score </= 3;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s must be eligible to receive melphalan dose of 200 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntention or plans for cyclophosphamide mobilizationXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with at least one of the following known mutations in the PI-3K signaling pathway, via assays performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-approved setting (Foundation Medicine FoundationOne test will be used; this assay uses a cut-off of 5% allele fraction for mutations; allele fraction will be requested on each sample):\r\n* PIK3CA,\r\n* PIK3CG, \r\n* PIK3R1, PIK3R5 and PIK3AP1 (regulatory subunits), \r\n* AKT and mTOR, or\r\n* PTEN \r\n** Note: PIK3CA amplification is not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood pressure greater than 170/90 or two standard deviations from normal based on age and weight nomogram on three separate measurementsXx_NEWLINE_xXOn a gluten-free diet for at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmune suppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of hydroxyurea or isolated doses of cytarabine for palliation (i.e., control of WBC) are allowed but should be discontinued at least 24 hrs prior to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther agents used strictly with palliative intent might be allowed during this period after discussing with principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown current or a history of hepatitis B or C virus, including chronic and dormant states, unless disease has been treated and confirmed clearedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients can have previous brain metastasis that was treated with stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) if the previously treated lesion is at least 1 cm from the target lesion(s) for this study; the location of the previous SRS treatment location is determined by the SRS MRIXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1,500Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo seizures, focal weakness of any extremity (by neurologic exam), or stroke symptoms in the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of lumbar surgery or other pre-existing spinal conditions that would preclude frequent, safe, reliable lumbar puncturesXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with HER2 activating or other mutations including G309A, D769H, D769Y, V777L, P780ins, V842I, R896C, HER2 in-frame deletion 755–759, L755S, G309A, S310F, S310Y, V659E, R678Q, L755S, L755P, E757A, D769H, D769Y, A775_G776insYVMA, G776V, G776C, G776 insertions, V777L, G778_S779insCPG, P780_781insGSP, L841V, V842I, L869R, R896C, and any others identified where there is reported activity with neratinibXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reaction to neratinib, pertuzumab, trastuzumab, paclitaxel, or any of their componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a comprehensive geriatric assessment and chemotherapy toxicity assessment score between 7-17Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of QT-prolonging medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable pacemaker or implantable cardioverter defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXResting bradycardia < 55 beats/minXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of exposure to the following cumulative doses of anthracyclines:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoxorubicin or liposomal doxorubicin >350 mg/m².Xx_NEWLINE_xXEpirubicin >530 mg/m².Xx_NEWLINE_xXMitoxantrone >90 mg/m² and idarubicin > 70 mg/m².Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf another anthracycline or more than 1 anthracycline has been used, then the cumulative dose must not exceed the equivalent of 350 mg/m² of doxorubicin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXB) Dose Expansion Cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hematological status (without hematologic supportXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown past or current coagulation defects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo dietary supplements allowed during the study period, except multivitamins, vitamin D and calcium.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of intracerebral arteriovenous malformation, cerebral aneurysm, brain metastases or stroke.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology (unless due to vaccination or passive immunization due to Ig therapy) for hepatitis BXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have baseline pulse oximetry > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological, or geographical condition that could potentially interfere with compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Patients must have:\n\n          -  advanced solid tumors and have confirmed cMET dysregulation\n\n          -  at least one measurable lesion as defined by RECIST 1.1.\n\n          -  recovered from all toxicities related to prior anti-cancer therapies\n\n          -  adequate organ function\n\n          -  ECOG performance status (PS) of 0 or 1\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        Patients must not have:\n\n          -  known hypersensitivity to any of the excipients of INC280 or to benzodiazepines or\n             known intolerance and hypersensitivity to caffeine\n\n          -  symptomatic central nervous system (CNS) metastases who are neurologically unstable\n\n          -  presence or history of carcinomatous meningitis\n\n          -  history of another primary malignancy that is currently clinically significant or\n             currently requires active intervention\n\n          -  Clinically significant, uncontrolled heart diseases, including QTcF ? 450 ms (male\n             patients), ? 460 ms (female patients) on the screening ECG\n\n          -  Thoracic radiotherapy to lung fields ? 4 weeks prior to starting INC280\n\n          -  Major surgery within 4 weeks prior to starting INC280\n\n          -  Patients receiving unstable or increasing doses of corticosteroids.\n\n          -  Impairment of GI function or GI disease that may significantly alter the absorption of\n             INC280\n\n          -  Patients who have received or consumed, or are expected to receive or consume\n             midazolam or caffeine-containing products (e.g., tea, coffee, cola), within 2 days\n             prior to Day 1 and during the whole duration of the DDI phase (i.e., from Day -2 to\n             Day 12)\n\n        Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria may applyXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth must be measured within 3 months of enrollment;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCBC (except platelets and hemoglobin), serum chemistry, liver panel, and CPK values ? Grade 1 abnormality as defined in CTCAE v 4.03 dated June 14, 2010Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo desire or plans to father new children during the study and/or have a prior vasectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny pre-excitation syndromes, e.g., Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome;Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically uncontrolled autoimmune disorders, transplant recipients who depend on immunosuppressive therapy, other immunosuppressive conditions including any concurrent condition requiring immunosuppressive/immunomodulating agents;Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation by magnetic resonance (MR) of a gadolinium-enhancing intraparenchymal mass consistent with malignant gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values and anticoagulation management per consensus guidelines, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMember of vulnerable population including prisoners or mentally disabled patients, in accordance with U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) definitionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive NY-ESO-1 expression by reverse transcription (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and/or immunohistochemistry (IHC) will be required for entry, as determined by analysis at the trial central laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXVolume difference of at least 300 mL between the normal and lymphedematous limb based on perometry evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) of 18-30Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history of cellulitis in the affected extremity (within last 3 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent (within last month) or current intensive manual lymphatic drainage (MLD) and/or short stretch bandage useXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable lymphedema (i.e. worsening symptoms/measurements in the past 3 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPalbociclib can be started at week 4, if indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXTransaminases =< 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1250Xx_NEWLINE_xXStatin use in the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has been treated with all FDA approved endocrine therapies or has been treated with all FDA approved endocrine therapies except for tamoxifen (tamoxifen is excluded from the trial)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking medications with known rosuvastatin interactions including cyclosporine, gemfibrozil, lopinavir/ritonavir, atazanavir/ritonavir, coumarin anticoagulants, colchicine, fenofibrates, and niacinXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically documented diagnosis of myelofibrosis (MF) (idiopathic or post polycythemia vera [PV]/essential thrombocythemia [ET])Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate-2/ high-risk disease as per Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) (DIPSS) criteria or intermediate-1 risk disease with one of the following features within one year from screening:\r\n* Red cell transfusion dependency\r\n* Unfavorable karyotype \r\n* Platelet count < 100 x 10^9/L\r\n* Symptomatic splenomegaly\r\n* Peripheral blood (PB) blasts > 1%Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlasts in PB < 20% prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is cleared to undergo paralytic anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPacemaker/defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXbe without neurologic dysfunction that would confound the evaluation of neurologic and other adverse events (AEs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5HT1R or 5HT2BR receptors or sigma nonspecific receptor, with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRAI-refractory disease on structural imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with activating but not sensitizing mutations (exon 20 insertions, EGFR T790M)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with PMF, post-PV MF, or post-ET MF classified as high risk or intermediate risk as defined by the Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS) for PMF or DIPSS Plus, if cytogenetics are availableXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with PMF, post-PV MF, or post-ET MF who are receiving ruxolitinib and meet 2013 Revised International Working Group for Myelofibrosis Research and Treatment (IWG-MRT) and European Leukemia Net (ELN) response criteria with progressive and relapsed disease, with modifications for progressive disease complete remission (CR), partial remission (PR), or clinical improvement (CI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequired screening laboratory values as described in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing alcohol or drug addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXHaemoglobin 9.0 g/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXMixed small cell and NSCLC histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of QT prolongation and/or torsades de pointes (TdP) on electrocardiogram (EKG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny co-morbid condition that poses a greater threat to the patient’s life expectancy than the recurrent myelomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHBsAG positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXor, documented surgically sterile or status post hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a known elevation in serum lactate at screening ? 2x institutional ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has difficulty swallowing large pills.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject currently being treated with biguanides or other agents known to increase risk of lactic acidosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of mineralocorticoid excess or deficiency (not applicable to patients who have already been treated with abiraterone acetate in first line before inclusion).Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant vaccination with yellow fever vaccine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPain scale score >= 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPain with a focus at the involved vertebral body that is not adequately controlled by medical managementXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteolysis of a vertebral body(ies) with or without fracture at a site of metastatic infiltration/multiple myeloma, that poses risk of impending vertebral collapse; this is detected by the following cross-sectional imaging (MRI or CT) conditions:\r\n* In the thoracic spine: \r\n** A >= 50% involvement of the vertebral body with no destruction of other structures or;\r\n** A >= 25% involvement of the vertebral body associated with costovertebral joint destruction or posterior elements involvement\r\n* In the lumbar spine: \r\n** A >= 35% involvement of the vertebral body with no destruction of other structures or;\r\n** A >= 20% involvement of the vertebral body associated with involvement of posterior elementsXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of any serious cognitive or psychiatric problems potentially hampering compliance with the study and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXUncorrected coagulopathy:\r\n* Plavix usage at the time of vertebroplasty or history of taking Plavix less than 7 days prior to procedure (in selected cases, radiation treatment can be initiated, the antiplatelet agent stopped, and vertebroplasty performed after 7 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnatomical considerations:\r\n* If the patient has >= 4 sites; only the 3 most painful sites of disease will be treated; or, in the absence of pain, the 3 levels at greatest risk of impending collapse, based on extent of involvement, presence of posterior element involvement, or biomechanical risk based on location (mid-thoracic area, thoraco-lumbar junction, lumbosacral junction)\r\n* Spinal cord compression with or without peridural spread\r\n* Neurologic compromise due to spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic vertebral fracture and low risk for biomechanical instability and collapseXx_NEWLINE_xXInappropriate risk to the patient such as cardiorespiratory compromise such that safe conscious sedation or prone decubitus cannot be obtainedXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to obtain diagnostic imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking metformin, sulfonylureas, thiazolidinedione, insulin, or other antidiabetic drugs for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with documented diagnosis of a type of sickle cell disorder who require RBC Exchange or RBC Depletion/Exchange treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically stable subjects who have been previously treated for sickle cell disease with RBC Exchange or RBC Depletion/Exchange.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate availability of sickle trait negative, leukoreduced, Blood type (ABO) blood group, Rhesus factor D (Rh (D)) compatible, unexpired replacement RBC products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with sufficient vascular access to accommodate the RBCx procedure as determined by the medical staff responsible for obtaining intravenous access.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are able and agree to report adverse events (AEs) during the required reporting period.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProcedures that occur during acute hospitalization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProcedures prescribed within one week of discharge of a hospitalization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have experienced a serious adverse event associated with an RBCx procedure in the past.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who refuse blood products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas evidence of disease progression under Protocol 8400-401.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to undergo a post-dose core needle biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny history or signs of pulmonary lymphangitic spread;Xx_NEWLINE_xXExperienced a Grade 3 or higher hypersensitivity reaction to monoclonal antibodies or other therapeutic proteins, and the reaction could not be controlled or prevented on subsequent infusion with standard therapies such as antihistamines, 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT3) receptor antagonists, or corticosteroids;Xx_NEWLINE_xXObjective evidence of disease progression on study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are severely underweight (body mass index [BMI] less than 17) or patients with a body surface area (BSA) < 1.4 m^2 as calculated per Dubois 1916 or Mosteller 1987Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombosis due to a known inherited hypercoagulable stateXx_NEWLINE_xXActive implanted medical device (e.g. deep brain stimulators, spinal cord stimulators, vagus nerve stimulators, pacemakers, defibrillators, and programmable shunts), a skull defect (such as missing bone with no replacement), a shunt, or bullet fragmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to conductive hydrogels like the gel used on electrocardiogram (ECG) stickers or transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) electrodesXx_NEWLINE_xXAspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), clopidogrel or any other drug whose goal is to inhibit platelet functionXx_NEWLINE_xXMirels Criteria Score ? 8. (specific to the target humeral lesion and subject to minimum VAS score requirements)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFracture is closed, Gustilo Type I or II.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn the investigator's judgment, functional deficit in the target humerus with an etiology other than bone metastases (e.g. due to vascular insufficiency).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMirels Score < 8 (specific to target humeral lesion).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOpen fractures with severe contamination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtremely comminuted fractures where insufficient holding power of the balloon on the intramedullary canal is probable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave newly diagnosed or recurrent multi-focal Ta, large Ta, high grade Ta, carcinoma in situ (CIS) or T1 bladder cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXDetermined by treating urologist to be a good candidate for BCG induction therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXBe self-reported to be immune-compromised (human immunodeficiency virus [HIV], chronic immunomodulators, chronic corticosteroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathological documentation of sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse > 45 or < 120Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight >= 45 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXTemperature =< 38° Celsius (C) (=< 100.4° Fahrenheit [F])Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit (HCT) >= 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of proven myocarditis, pericarditis, or endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to PARP (poly ADP-ribose polymerase) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that will put the patient at undue risk or discomfort as a result of adherence to study procedures. For example, consider requirement to take mocetinostat with water and recommendation to avoid agents that increase gastric pHXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious medical risk factors involving any of the major organ systems, or serious psychiatric disorders (including but not limited to connective tissue disorders, lung disease, and cardiac or seizure disorders)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known severe macular degeneration, uncontrolled glaucoma, or markedly decreased visual acuityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whom, in the opinion of the investigators, are significantly below their ideal body weightXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on or been intolerant of prior oxaliplatin and irinotecan-containing chemotherapeutic regimen and have disease that is not amenable to potentially curative resection; patients who have a known Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) wild type tumor must have progressed or been intolerant to cetuximab or panitumumab-based chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant intercurrent illness that will limit the patient's ability to participate in the study or may result in their death over the next 18 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXGeneral and DemographicsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of any of the following will exclude a subject from enrollment:Xx_NEWLINE_xXVenous thromboembolism within 1 month prior to signing ICF.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with an ECOG PS other than 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive for KRAS mutation or Squamous cell histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient compliance and geographic proximity that allow adequate follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious concomitant systemic disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of detectable (by physical exam) third-space fluid collectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic or refractory/recurrent HPV-16+ cancer (determined by in situ hybridization [ISH] or a polymerase chain reaction [PCR]-based test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with NSCLC of predominantly squamous histology documented by histology or cytology from brushing, washing or needle aspiration of a defined lesion but not from sputum cytology aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has been treated in the OXiGENE-sponsored Phase 2 study OX4218sXx_NEWLINE_xXWritten documentation of KRAS wild-type status and BRAFV600-mutation with RNF43 mutation and/or RSPO fusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following laboratory values at Screening/baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic mediastinal staging to include endobronchial ultrasound with or without endoscopic ultrasound (endobronchial ultrasound [EBUS] +/- endoscopic ultrasound [EUS]) including evaluation of N3 nodesXx_NEWLINE_xXInternational Association for the Study of Lung Cancer (IASLC) version 7, subset of stage IIIA single station (N2) disease; specifically T1a-T3, N2(+) with no invasion of key structures (e.g., chest wall or diaphragm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient better served by concurrent chemoradiotherapy: the protocol recognizes that institutional standards regarding which patients are best served by operative and nonoperative approaches vary; therefore, consistent with the American College of Chest Physicians (ACCP) guidelines, the protocol recommends multidisciplinary discussion of each patient and enrollment only of patients felt best served by the approach described hereinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with confirmed p53 mutation by molecular analysis and/or evidence of p53 overexpression by immunohistochemistry (>= 10% of cells within the tumor staining positive) will be eligible; this will be assessed semi-quantitatively by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) approved pathology core pathologist, using CLIA approved mutational analysis or immunohistochemistry techniques on formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tissue; in the case of equivocal immunohistochemistry (IHC) results, p53 involvement may be confirmed by detection of p53 molecular analysis on tumor deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA); patients on whom molecular analysis of p53 mutations is already available, will not require IHC analysis; molecular analysis may be performed as an additional research procedure at the end of the study (distinct from eligibility determination) if the principal investigator (PI) deems it of scientific value and research funding is available to cover the costXx_NEWLINE_xX?18 years old, diagnosed with persistent or chronic ITPXx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary immune thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXDrug induced thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have ECOG PS of 0 to 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the following sensitive cytochrome P450 (CYP) substrate medications that have a narrow therapeutic range are excluded from the study unless they can be transferred to other medications prior to enrolling: paclitaxel (CYP2C8), warfarin, phenytoin (CYP2C9), S-mephenytoin (CYP2C19), thioridazine (CYP2D6), theophylline and tizanidine (CYP1A2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking the P-glycoprotein (P-gp) and breast cancer resistant protein (BCRP) transporter-sensitive substrates digoxin and rosuvastatin should be excluded from the study, unless they can be transferred to other medications prior to enrolling. study unless they can be transferred to other medications prior to enrollingXx_NEWLINE_xXActive severe infection that required anti-infective therapy or with an unexplained fever >38.5°C during screening visits or on their first day of study drug administration (at the discretion of the Investigator, subjects with tumor fever may be enrolled)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn subjects with AITL, evidence of meningeal or cerebral disease or a history of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXMediastinoscopy and/or endoscopic bronchial ultrasound (EBUS) and/or endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) for complete surgical staging when clinically indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXBilirubin >=1.5 mg/dL (> 26 mol/L, International System [SI] unit equivalent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to anilinoquinazolins like gefitinib, erlotinib, or BIBW2992Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant disease tested positive for FLT3-ITD or –TKD within 60-day screening periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received crenolanib on RELHEM2 prior to HSCT to continue on to maintenanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHas recognized immunodeficiency disease, including cellular immunodeficiencies, hypogammaglobulinemia, or dysgammaglobulinemia, and/or other hereditary congenital immunodeficienciesXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to follow pregnancy precautions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of MF (either primary or post essential thrombocythemia/polycythemia vera) requiring therapy, including those previously treated and relapsed or refractory, or if newly diagnosed, with intermediate-1 or -2 or high risk according to International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable splenomegaly of more than or equal to 5 cm below left costal margin on physical examXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease-free of other malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced and/or metastatic malignant soft tissue sarcoma of intermediate or high histologic grade. Excluded are the following sarcoma subtypes:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEmbryonal or alveolar rhabdomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXDermatofibrosarcoma protuberansXx_NEWLINE_xXAlveolar soft part sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXClear cell sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXKaposi sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXExtraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received either:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSarcomas arising from bone or cartilage, e.g. chondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma, chordoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody surface area (BSA) ? 2.4 m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be deemed medically fit for SBRT to the abdomen or thorax by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPast history of radiotherapy within the projected treatment field of any of the disease sites to be treated by MRI-guided, online adaptive SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) < 8%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart A: Intolerable AEs due to other PI3K inhibitors, dual PI3K and mTOR inhibitors or AKT inhibitors. Parts B, C, and D: Prior exposure to any of the following: pharmacological inhibitors of AKT, PI3K, or dual PI3K and mTOR kinase activityXx_NEWLINE_xXAs judged by the investigator any evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLocal conditions or systemic illnesses which would reduce the local tolerance to radiation treatment, such as serious local injuries, active collagen vascular disease, etc.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDLBCL of GCB subtypeXx_NEWLINE_xXHas BMI > 34.9 kg/m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV) infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease is confined to locoregional site as confirmed by the CT and/or diagnostic staging laparoscopy to avoid occult peritoneal deposits; diagnostic laparoscopy will be only if absolutely requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has no evidence of jaundice at the time of enrollment; if stent is required to alleviate jaundice, it should be metallic; if patient has a previously placed stent and this is plastic, this should be changed to metallicXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s pain symptoms have remained stable with no adjustment to analgesics within 7 days prior to randomization; patient must be able to swallow entreat medications with no requirement for a feeding tube; patient’s must not have intractable nausea or vomiting which prohibits the patient from oral medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease must be encompassed in a reasonable SBRT “portal” as defined by the treating radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible histology including non-adenocarcinomas, adenosquamous carcinoma, islet cell carcinomas, cystadenomas, cystadenocarcinomas, carcinoid tumors, duodenal carcinomas, distal bile duct and ampullary carcinomasXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastasis on upright chest X-ray (CXR), CT or other staging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAny co-morbid condition of sufficient severity to limit full compliance with the protocol per assessment by the individual treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed/refractory AML regardless of cytogenetic riskXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed/refractory ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS (IPSS score ? 1.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values fulfilling the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients eligible for participation in Study CLTR0310-301 (Phase III study of CPX-351 NCT01696084) or who have already participated in that study are not eligible for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRhythm abnormalities (other than sinus bradycardia with HR < 50 bpm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAV block (other than 1o AV Block with PR > 200 msec)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBundle branch block or QRS ? 120 msecXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal T wave morphology (other than slight flattening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPathological U wavesXx_NEWLINE_xXOther QRS or T/U morphology preventing accurate determination of QT intervalXx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired heart functionXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria Include:\n\n          -  Patient has histologically- or cytologically- confirmed metastatic or advanced-stage\n             solid malignant tumor that is refractory to standard therapy and for whom no therapy\n             exists that would be curative or might provide significant benefit and therefore for\n             whom experimental therapy is a reasonable option.\n\n          -  Patient experienced progressive disease during or following or was intolerant of their\n             most recent treatment regimen.\n\n          -  Patient is male or female aged ?18 years.\n\n          -  Patient has an ECOG performance status of 0 (fully active, able to carry out all\n             pre-disease activities without restriction) or 1 (unable to perform physically\n             strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary\n             nature), as assessed on C1D1, before the first dose of TVB 2640.\n\n          -  Patient has adequate renal function (creatinine ?1.5 times the upper limit of normal\n             [ULN]) or a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of ?50 mL/min.\n\n          -  Patient has adequate hepatic function,\n\n          -  Patient has adequate bone marrow function\n\n          -  Patient has no significant ischemic heart disease or myocardial infarction (MI) within\n             6 months before the first dose of TVB 2640 and currently has adequate cardiac function\n\n        For the Monotherapy Expansion Cohorts of the Study ONLY:\n\n          -  Patient has a specific tumor-type and histology, as designated by the Sponsor based on\n             nonclinical and clinical data obtained prior to enrollment in the Expansion Cohort.\n\n          -  Patient has measurable disease, as determined by the Investigator using RECIST,\n             version 1.1 (1).\n\n        For the Combination Cohorts ONLY:\n\n          -  In addition to meeting monotherapy criteria above, the commercially-available\n             anticancer agent of interest being investigated in combination with TVB-2640,\n             administered according to the dose regimen in the prescribing information, is deemed\n             appropriate for the patient's disease and clinical status.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria Include:\n\n          -  Patient is unable to swallow oral medications or has impairment of GI function or GI\n             disease that may significantly alter drug absorption\n\n          -  Patient has uncontrolled or severe intercurrent medical condition (including\n             uncontrolled brain metastases).\n\n          -  Patient underwent major surgery within 4 weeks before the first dose of TVB 2640 or\n             received cancer-directed therapy or an investigational drug or device within 4 weeks\n             (6 weeks for mitomycin C and nitrosoureas) or 5 half-lives of that agent (whichever is\n             shorter) before the first dose of TVB 2640.\n\n          -  If female, patient is pregnant or breast-feeding.\n\n          -  Patient has evidence of a serious active infection\n\n          -  Patient has a history of other malignancy treated with curative intent within the\n             previous 5 years with the exception of adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer or\n             carcinoma in situ of the cervix.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) resulting in (or as evidenced by) declining platelet or hemoglobin (Hgb) levels within the 4 weeks prior to first dose of study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of transfusion-dependent thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXSequenced therapy, including any of the following:\r\n* Abiraterone acetate followed by enzalutamide\r\n** Primary resistance will be defined per criteria for abiraterone monotherapy primary resistance\r\n* Enzalutamide followed by abiraterone acetate\r\n** Primary resistance will be defined per criteria for enzalutamide monotherapy primary resistance\r\n* Other second-generation investigational anti-androgen/androgen- receptor targeted therapies, including ARN-509\r\n** Primary resistance will be defined per criteria for other investigational anti-androgen monotherapy primary resistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXDiscontinuation of prior therapy for mCRPC: a washout period of 28 days for the following therapies is required: abiraterone, enzalutamide, fluconazole, itraconazole, flutamide, bicalutamide, nilutamide, and other experimental hormonal agents (ARN509, orteronel [TAK-700], etc.), sipuleucel-T (Provenge), other experimental vaccines (PROSTVAC-V/F, etc.), strontium-89, samarium, and radium-223 chlorideXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling, including pharmacokinetics.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical laboratory values as specified below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA medical condition requiring use of pancreatic enzymes; daily, chronic, or regular use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs); or histamine 2 (H2) receptor antagonists. Participants who intermittently use these medications, must meet the following criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo use of H2 antagonist or pancreatic enzymes within 24 hours before the first dose of alisertib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be without neurologic dysfunction that would confound the evaluation of neurologic or other adverse events (AEs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome or other condition that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a partially HLA-matched single UCB unit (>= 4 of 6) with adequate cell dose; UCB units must fulfill eligibility as outlined in 21 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1271 and agency guidanceXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least single haplotype matched (>= 3 of 6) family memberXx_NEWLINE_xXActivating EGFR mutation (exon 19 deletion, L858R, G719X, L861X)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of EGFR activating mutation and absence of EGFR T790M in the tumour associated with the latest disease progression. Only applicable in Part BXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known potentially targetable mutation other than IGF signaling pathway or EGFR or no available treatment for potentially targetable mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXMeningeal carcinomatosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior severe infusion-related reaction to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease that is considered by the investigator to be rapidly progressing or life threatening such as extensive symptomatic visceral disease including hepatic involvement and pulmonary lymphangitic spread of tumour (subjects who are intended for urgent chemotherapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of significant, uncontrolled concomitant diseases that could affect compliance with the protocol or interpretation of results or that could increase risk to the participantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have been pre-identified as having a tumor with CDK4 amplification or mutation, CDK6 amplification or mutation, Cyclin D1 (CCND1) amplification, Cyclin D3 (CCND3) amplification, or p16 (CDKN2A) mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXOther active malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of non-healing wounds or ulcers.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have been pre-identified as having a tumor with an ALK or ROS1 positive mutation, translocation, rearrangement or amplification. The qualifying alteration must be assessed and reported by a CLIA-certified laboratory. ALK positivity as assessed by IHC or FISH are allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any of the following toxicities associated with a prior immunotherapy:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have baseline pulse oximetry > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with EGFR-mutated lung cancer may continue erlotinib if they have been on the drug for >= 3 months with stable disease or a response; erlotinib may also be continued in the case of a progressing tumor after prior response (or > 6 months stable disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must consent to provision of a sample of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays may be conducted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition (e.g. psychological, geographical, etc.) that does not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed inoperable cervical cancer treated with chemoradiation therapy with curative intent and life expectancy of at least 12 months as assessed by the investigator o No CNS/spinal metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous access for repeated blood sampling according to study schedule;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of previous therapeutic HPV vaccination;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny cardiac pre-excitation syndromes (such as Wolff-Parkinson-White);Xx_NEWLINE_xXTattoos or scars within 2 cm of the intended site of injection or if there is implanted metal within the same limb. Any device implanted in the chest (e.g., cardiac pacemaker or defibrillator) excludes the use of the deltoid muscle on the same side of the body;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a malignant stricture of the distal esophagus or gastric cardia requiring stent placement across the gastroesophageal junction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is contraindicated for endoscopic procedure for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient presents with esophagorespiratory fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has previously undergone esophageal stenting or esophagectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXRemoval of stent is scheduled to occur within six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has trouble swallowing or experiences regurgitation for reasons which are not related to his/her esophageal cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other factor identified by the Investigator that would disqualify the prospective patient from participation in the study including but not limited to coagulative disorders and anesthetic risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with 2+ proteinuria/moderate or more at baseline are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with biliary obstruction for whom a biliary drain or stent has been placed are eligible, provided that the drain or stent has been in place for at least 10 days prior to the first dose of Tivantinib, and the subject's liver function has stabilized as defined by 2 measurements at least 5 days apart that put the subject in the same hepatic impairment groupXx_NEWLINE_xX- fluoropyrimidineXx_NEWLINE_xX- irinotecanXx_NEWLINE_xX- bevacizumab or afliberceptXx_NEWLINE_xX- cetuximab or panitumumab for patients with K-Ras wt or Ras wt tumoursXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe haemorrhagic or thromboembolic event in the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNarrow therapeutic index substrates of CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP2C19 and CYP2D6Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have rearrangement involving the MLL gene, including reciprocal chromosomal translocations involving 11q23 by FISH, cytogenetic analysis, polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or next-generation sequencing (NGS) OR partial tandem duplication (PTD) of MLL by PCR or NGS.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may receive hydroxyurea, low-dose cytarabine and/or glucocorticoids to control peripheral blood leukemic cell counts at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXColonic prosthesis (stent) implant in placeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intestinal obstruction and/or clinical signs or symptoms of GI obstruction including sub-occlusive disease related to the underlying disease or a requirement for routine parenteral hydration, parenteral nutrition, or tube feeding within 6 months prior to Day 1 of Cycle 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic daily treatment with NSAID (occasional use for the symptomatic relief of medical conditions, for example headache or fever is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiency or thymidylate synthase gene polymorphism predisposing the patient for 5-FU toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented ALK positivity at the time of initial crizotinib monotherapy using the Vysis Break-Apart FISH assay (or other Food and Drug Administration [FDA]-approved diagnostic test); samples are deemed to be FISH-positive if greater than or equal to 15% of scored tumor cells had split ALK 5? and 3? probe signals or had isolated 3? signal; FISH status must be documented on the Onstudy Form and a copy of the pathology report from the Vysis Break-Apart FISH assay (or other FDA-approved diagnostic test) must be submittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior to registration, patients must have achieved clinical benefit with crizotinib monotherapy and subsequently have systemically progressed; clinical benefit is defined as having stable disease on crizotinib monotherapy for at least 90 days or achieving a confirmed partial or complete response; systemic progression is defined as progressive disease based on Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version 1.1, excluding progression based on brain/CNS metastases aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have had any prior exposure to heat shock protein 90 (HSP90) inhibitors (such as IPI-504 or ganetespib) or non-crizotinib ALK inhibitors (such as AP26113 or LDK378)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered participation in the translational medicine studies; additionally if patient has biopsy accessible disease they must be offered participation in the translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXREGULATORY CRITERIA: As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXCROSSOVER (STEP 2) REGISTRATION: Patients must have progressed systemically on Arm 2 of this study (pemetrexed monotherapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCROSSOVER (STEP 2) REGISTRATION: ANC >= 1,500/ulXx_NEWLINE_xXCROSSOVER (STEP 2) REGISTRATION: Serum bilirubin =< 2 X IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXCROSSOVER (STEP 2) REGISTRATION: SGOT (AST) or SGPT (ALT) =< 2.5 x IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven well-differentiated, low-to-intermediate-grade PNET or GI-NET with elevated (> ULN) biomarkers (serotonin, 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA), chromogranin A (CgA), neurokinin A, and neuron-specific enolase (NSE))Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed progressive disease within 18 months of enrollment on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have clinical evidence of carcinoid-induced heart diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh grade or poorly differentiated NETXx_NEWLINE_xXNo elevated biomarker (>ULN) that can be followedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary tumors of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, or larynx will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary tumors of the sinuses, paranasal sinuses, or nasopharynx, or unknown primary tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior severe infusion reaction to a monoclonal antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of HNCXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling for MLN4924 pharmacokinetic (PK) and pharmacodynamic assessments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable cardioverter defibrillator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe aortic or mitral stenosis or other valvulopathy (ongoing).Xx_NEWLINE_xXchronic insomniaXx_NEWLINE_xXOther preexisting sleep disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment related mortality (TRM) score < 22.9; patients with TRM scores > 13.1, in whom the risk of death within 28 days of beginning induction therapy has averaged 41%, will preferentially be placed on protocol 2642Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote, unlike pharmaceutical company sponsored protocols eligibility is not conditioned on bilirubin, creatinine, or absence of other malignancy within the past 2-3 years; the TRM score incorporates creatinine and thus a high creatinine can in principle be offset by favorable values for the other covariates in the TRM score; bilirubin was not a covariate in the TRM; furthermore, in the doses we are using, dose adjustment of decitabine or ara-C is not indicated in the presence of renal or hepatic abnormalities; our broad eligibility criteria may increase the likelihood that our results will be generalizable; the inability to reproduce results of early phase AML studies has been a problem in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXpatient was currently benefiting from treatment with single agent oral dovitinib or dovitinib and fulvestrant coadministration as determined by the guidelines of the parent protocol and according to the investigator's clinical judgment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXpatient had demonstated complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 2 only: MET+ statusXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be a candidate for radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULN, if knownXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with LDE225 or other hedgehog (Hh) pathway inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo concurrent use of statins (except for pravastatin, if absolutely necessary)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther concomitant malignancies (with some exceptions per protocol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNasopharyngeal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following tumor tissue based genetic alterations: FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3, VEGFA, or PDGFR? amplification; Any FGFR1, FGFR2, or FGFR3 gene fusion; FGFR1, FGFR2, or FGFR3 activating mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors that are invading a major vessel; NSCLC tumors abutting to a major vesselXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypothyroidism defined as serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) higher than 5 mIU/mL while receiving appropriate thyroid hormone therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on a somatostatin analogue for control of hormonal syndromes must be on a stable dose (no change in mg dose of long acting octreotide or lanreotide, changes in dosing interval of +/- 1 week is allowed) for 2 months prior to date of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected non-compliance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have not fully recovered from toxicities associated with previous HCC loco-regional therapies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had histologic verification of osteosarcoma at original diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received eribulin, halichondrin B, or analogues of halichondrin BXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed patients with unilateral group D retinoblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRapid central review confirmation of group D disease based on RetCam images from diagnostic EUA must be obtained before starting treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUnilateral retinoblastoma with group A, B, C, or E eyesXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical or neuroimaging evidence of extraocular disease or orbital optic nerve involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXAML blasts must express CD30 (>= 10% expression as assessed by flow-cytometry or 2+ expression by immunohistochemistry) (whenever possible CD30 expression will be assessed by both methods)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with metastatic or locally advanced and unresectable BRAF wild-type melanoma who have either progressed following previous treatment of immunotherapy, or are not eligible for immunotherapy; patients are defined as \BRAF wild-type\ if they test negative for V600 mutations based on a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified assayXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has disease that tests positive for BRAF V600 mutations based on the results of a CLIA certified assayXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of or intolerance to 5-FU, Oxaliplatin, and IrinotecanXx_NEWLINE_xXAcquired resistance to marketed anti-EGFR mAbs as defined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPretreatment with regorafenib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMagnesium less than 0.9 milligram per deciliter (mg/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight >= 45 kilogram (kg) and a body mass index >= 19 kilogram per squaremeter (kg/m^2)and <40 kg/m^2 (inclusive);Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prohibited medication(s) or herbal preparation as described in the protocol or requires any of these medications during the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal cardiac valve morphology (>=grade 2) documented by echocardiogram (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis] can be entered on study). Subjects with moderate valvular thickening should not be entered on study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with COPD or subjects with increased risk of respiratory depressionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with narrow angle glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo later than 96 hours (h) in the immediate post-operative period; orXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 56 of the approximately 76 patients treated must have measurable disease, defined as at least one, contrast-enhancing lesion measuring at least 1 cm in 2 planes (axial, coronal, or sagittal).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMulti-focal (defined as two separate areas of contrast enhancement measuring at least 1 cm in 2 planes that are not contiguous on either fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) or T2 sequences);Xx_NEWLINE_xX? 4 cm in any dimension.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressed (> 25% increase in evaluable disease) or non-response on Revlimid or within 60 days of stopping RevlimidXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving steroids daily for other medical conditions, e.g., asthma, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritisXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to receive medications by mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXRisk for varices, based on known history of esophageal or gastric varices, evidence of hepatic cirrhosis and/or portal hypertension including biopsy-proven cirrhosis, hypersplenism, or radiographic findings of varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of encephalopathy within last 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis based on a T-score of <-2.5 at the left or right total hip, left or right femoral neck or lumbar spine (L1-L4) as determined by DEXA scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of a pathologic fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXLytic lesion requiring an impending orthopedic interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXFasting ?-CTX of >1000 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXBRAFV600 mutation positive.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication as described in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence/risk of Retinal Vein Occlusion (RVO) or Central Serous Retinopathy (CSR) including: History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes); or Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic examination that is considered a risk factor for RVO or CSR such as: Evidence of new optic disc cupping; Evidence of new visual field defects; Intraocular pressure >21 mmHg as measured by tonography.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoor venous access for study drug administration\r\n* Study drug administration via indwelling catheters is allowed only if the catheter is made of silicone materialXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intolerance or hypersensitivity to paclitaxel and/or adverse events related to paclitaxel that resulted in paclitaxel being permanently discontinuedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of medications that have been linked to the occurrence of torsades de pointes\r\n* Patients will be eligible for the study if they discontinue any of the listed medications two weeks prior to registration and study enrollment\r\n* Stable regimen of antidepressants of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class is allowed (common SSRIs include escitalopram oxalate, citalopram, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline and fluoxetine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Patient must be at least 1 year of age.\n\n        Patient or the patient's legally authorized guardian must be fully informed about their\n        illness and the investigational nature of the study protocol (including foreseeable risks\n        and possible side effects), and must sign an informed consent in accordance with the\n        institutional policies approved by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.\n\n        Patients should have been off other investigational therapy for one month prior to entry in\n        this study.\n\n        Patient must have adequate organ function as below:\n\n        Adequate renal function defined as:\n\n          -  Serum creatinine <2.0 x normal, or\n\n          -  Creatinine clearance or radioisotope GFR > 40 ml/min/m2 or >60 ml/min/1.73 m2 or an\n             equivalent GFR as determined by the institutional normal range\n\n        Adequate liver function defined as:\n\n          -  Total bilirubin <2.0 x normal; and\n\n          -  SGOT (AST) or SGPT (ALT) <5.0 x normal\n\n        Adequate pulmonary function defined as:\n\n        - Pulse oximetry >94% in room air. Lansky (< 16yr) or Karnofsky (> 16 yrs) performance\n        status ? 50% Life expenctancy ? 6 weeks. Women of child bearing age require a negative\n        urine pregnancy test. Clinical status at enrollment to allow tapering of steroids to less\n        than 0.5mg/kg/day prednisone at time of treatment.\n\n        4.5 Disease Status (Eligibility) 4.5.1 Any patient, with one or more of the following\n        EBV-positive type II latency or associated disorders, regardless of the histological\n        subtype: Hodgkin lymphoma Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Lymphoproliferative disorder Severe chronic\n        active EBV infection syndrome (SCAEBV), defined as high EBV viral load in plasma or PBMC (>\n        4000 genomes per ?g PBMC DNA) and/or biopsy tissue positive for EBV\n\n        The disease needs to be in one of the following stages:\n\n        At diagnosis who would be unable to receive conventional chemotherapy or in first relapse\n        AND the patient is not a candidate for HSCT Partial response after conventional therapy.\n        Refractory to conventional therapy for his/her condition. In second or subsequent relapse.\n        Residual disease after autologous, syngeneic or allogeneic HSCT.\n\n        All patients entered into the study ideally will have tumor tissue from the original\n        diagnostic specimen and/or relapse reviewed centrally for confirmation of EBV positive\n        disease. If no specimen is available, local pathology report documenting EBV positivity is\n        acceptable. Appropriate immunophenotyping to confirm the diagnosis will be performed. In\n        addition, in situ hybridization for EBV (LMP1, and/or EBER positivity) will be performed.\n        All central morphologic analysis and immunohistochemical/insitu hybridization staining will\n        be performed in the laboratory of Sherrie Perkins and Rodney Miles at the University of\n        Utah.\n\n        Donor Eligibility for LMP-CTL Third Party Banking (Aim 2.1.2)\n\n          -  Donor must be HIV negative.\n\n          -  Donors must have adequate hematopoietic function defined as absolute neutrophil count\n             > 1000/mm3, hemoglobin > 10 g/dl, and platelet count >50,000/mm3 and be EBV IgG\n             seropositive.\n\n          -  Donors will have peripheral blood collected for LMP specific CTL production. A minimum\n             of 60 cc of peripheral blood x 2 for a total maximum amount of blood of 120cc, will be\n             collected from the donor (subjects must be at least 12 kg or 24 pounds). (See Appendix\n             B) For donors <18 years a maximum of 3cc/kg blood will be taken in an 8 week period.\n\n          -  For donors that are to undergo stem cell collection, the peripheral blood for LMP\n             specific CTL production will be collected prior to the stem cell collection and\n             without a specific day specification.\n\n          -  Donor eligibility must meet criteria as per 21 CFR 1271.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        Currently receiving any investigational agents or have received any tumor vaccines within\n        previous 4 weeks.\n\n        Active acute grade III-IV graft-versus-host disease. Severe refractory intercurrent\n        infection other than EBV. Received alemtuzumab or other anti-Tcell antibody within 28 days.\n        HIV seropositivity. Pregnancy (due to unknown effects of this therapy on a fetus) or\n        lactation. Patients with PTLD post solid organ transplantation eligible for the COG PTLD\n        LMP/CTL protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to >375 mg/m2 of doxorubicin or liposomal doxorubicin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of medications associated with a high incidence of QT prolongation is not allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or signs of active coronary artery disease with or without angina pectoris within the last 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pathologically confirmed colon or rectal cancer who have received and progressed or failed following a fluoropyrimidine, irinotecan, and oxaliplatin based chemotherapy regimens will be eligible for this study; patients who have a known Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS)/v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B (BRAF) wild type tumor should have progressed or failed following cetuximab or panitumumab based chemotherapy; prior bevacizumab or regorafenib exposure is not mandated on this study as some patients are deemed poor candidates for anti-angiogenesis therapy and never receive these agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior intolerance to fluorouracil (5-FU) or oxaliplatin, excluding severe neuropathy that reversed to grade 2 or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion or retinal pigment epithelial detachment - specific criteria have to be met.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one injectable lesion, defined as an easily palpable superficial lesion (cutaneous, subcutaneous or lymph nodal metastasis) that can be accurately localized, stabilized by palpation, and is superficial enough to enable IT injection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate neutrophil and platelet countsXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all genders, races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppressed patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic impairment including cirrhosis, known renal impairment including renal insufficiency or glomerulonephritis and severe cerebral or peripheral vascular disease;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSensitive substrates for cytochrome P450 2C8 or 3A4 (e.g., repaglinide, midazolam, sildenafil);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubstrates for p-glycoprotein transporter (e.g., ambrisentan, digoxin), OCT1 transporter (e.g., metformin), OAT1 transporter (e.g., captopril, furosemide, methotrexate), and OATP1B3 transporter (e.g., atorvastatin, rosuvastatin, valsartan);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSingle solid organ recipients (kidney only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerological evidence of prior Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection as documented by positive immunoglobulin G (IgG) and negative immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies against EBVXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Serologic evidence of prior EBV infection as documented by positive IgG and negative IgM antibodies against EBVXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderlying renal disease with a high risk of disease recurrence in the transplanted kidney, including:\r\n* Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)\r\n* Type I or II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis\r\n* Hemolytic-uremic syndrome/thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically important genital/urinary tract dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 40Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive cytotoxic crossmatchXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current risk for retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate clinical laboratory values within 72 hours prior to study day 1:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic progression by RANO Working Group Criteria will be confirmed by Imaging Endpoints, a central imaging vendor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to the an anthracycline.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or signs of active coronary artery disease with or without angina pectoris.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious myocardial dysfunction defined as ultrasound-determined LVEF < 45% of predicted institutional normal value.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has disseminated intravascular coagulation abnormality (DIC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject required treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5HT1R or 5HT2BR receptors or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKey Inclusion Criteria:\n\n        Male or female age ? 18 years with histologically confirmed diagnosis of melanoma and\n        unresected stage IIIB, IIIC, IVM1a, IVM1b, or IVM1c regardless of prior line of therapy.\n        Subject is candidate for intralesional therapy administration into cutaneous, subcutaneous,\n        or nodal disease and must also have measurable disease, serum lactate dehydrogenase ? 1.5 x\n        upper limit of normal, and Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of\n        0 or 1, and adequate hematologic, hepatic, and renal organ function.\n\n        Key Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        Subject must not have clinically active cerebral metastases, greater than 3 visceral\n        metastases (this does not include lung metastases or any nodal metastases associated with\n        visceral organs) or any bone metastases melanoma, primary ocular or mucosal melanoma,\n        history or evidence of symptomatic autoimmune pneumonitis, glomerulonephritis, vasculitis,\n        or symptomatic autoimmune disease, or evidence of immunosuppression for any reason. Subject\n        known to have acute or chronic active hepatitis B or hepatitis C infection, or human\n        immunodeficiency virus infection will also be excluded. Subject who has active herpetic\n        skin lesions or prior complications of herpes simplex virus type 1 ( HSV-1) infection (eg,\n        herpetic keratitis or encephalitis), and/or requires intermittent or chronic systemic\n        (intravenous or oral) treatment with an antiherpetic drug (eg, acyclovir), other than\n        intermittent topical use will also be excuded. Subject must not have received previous\n        treatment with talimogene laherparepvec.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny other significant co-morbid conditions that would impair study participation or cooperationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent mucositis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors of the lips, sinuses, salivary glands or nasopharynx.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave prosthetic heart valves, major implant or device placed in the last 12 months or history of infection with implant/device that cannot be easily removedXx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly progressing diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived prior GVAX pancreas vaccine or CRS-207Xx_NEWLINE_xXValvular heart disease that requires antibiotic prophylaxis for prevention of endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact with another individual known to be at high risk of listeriosis (e.g., newborn infant, pregnant woman, HIV-positive individual) during the course of CRS-207 treatment until completion of antibiotic regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions, including alcohol or drug dependence, intercurrent illness, or lack of sufficient peripheral venous access, that would affect the patient's ability to comply with study visits and proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXAn individual with an adrenal neoplasm less than 5 cm in size with biochemically confirmed evidence of hypercortisolism (2 out of 3: dexamethasone suppression test [DST] > 3 mcg/dL, elevated urine free cortisol, and/or morning adrenocorticotropic hormone [ACTH] < 2.2 pmol/l) without overt clinical signs and symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have laboratory and physical examination parameters within acceptable limits by standard of practice guidelines prior to surgery as assessed by preoperative anesthesia assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBiochemically and/or radiologically confirmed pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronoma, or adrenocortical carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNonfunctioning adrenal neoplasmXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of metabolic complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Ph+ B-precursor ALL, with any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOR intolerant to second generation TKI and intolerant or refractory to imatinib mesylateXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute or extensive chronic graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) which included the administration of immunosuppressive agents to prevent or treat GvHD within 2 weeks before blinatumomab treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCavitary tumors or tumors invading or abutting large blood vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an interval from previous neurotoxic platinums of less than 6 months and/or from previous other neurotoxic drugs less than 3 months (e.g, taxanes) unless reasonably recovered from all grades of neurotoxicity as judged by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of expectoration of blood within 1 month prior to study start or blood clotting problems.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical history of Heart Failure (HF) with at least 1 prior hospitalization for HF or clinical evidence of HF (without hospitalization) manifested by signs or symptoms of volume overload or elevated intracardiac pressures (e.g., elevated jugular venous pressure, shortness of breath or signs of pulmonary congestion on x-ray or auscultation, peripheral edema) that required/requires treatment with a diuretic for improvement,Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of cardiac involvement by echocardiography with an end-diastolic interventricular septal wall thickness > 12 mm,Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of amyloid deposits in biopsy tissue and presence of a variant TTR genotype and/or TTR precursor protein identification by immunohistochemistry, scintigraphy or mass spectrometryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior liver or heart transplantation or implanted cardiac mechanical assist device.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 10 treatable lesions as evaluated by an experienced interventional oncologic radiologist for eligibility and lesion accessibility as the ablation of more than 10 lesions becomes technically infeasible; these lesions must be treated in a two- to three-week time period from initial interventional radiology evaluation; lung and liver lesions can range from 1 cm to 7 cm for a single lesion and no greater than 5 cm for multiple lesions; there are no size criteria for the osseous lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe lesions will be amenable to a safe, ultrasound/computed tomographic/fluoroscopic guided percutaneous approach; the targeted metastases must be sufficiently separable from the central nervous system, major peripheral motor nerves, bowel, and bladder; all lesions must be amenable to treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown severe ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or evidence of retinal pathology on ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for neurosensory retinal detachment, central serous chorioetinopathy (CSCR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or neovascular macular degeneration Patients will be excluded if they currently have either of the following conditions which have been identified as risk factors for CSCR:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes the subject have a coagulation profile that would allow for the safe performance of surgery under general anesthesia?Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs the subject willing and able to abide by the protocol?Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes the subject have adequate venous access?Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has retinal degenerative disease, history of uveitis, or history of retinal vein occlusion, or history of retinal detachment, or has medically relevant abnormalities identified on screening ophthalmologic examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of myositis or rhabdomyolysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history of acute pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with a diagnosis of mild-moderate or severe CDAD (first occurrence or first recurrence within 3 months) with: Diarrhea: a change in bowel habits with > 3 liquid or unformed bowel movements (UBM) within 24 hours prior to randomization, AND Positive C. difficile toxin test on a stool sample produced within 72 hours prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than one previous episode of CDAD in the 3-month period prior to randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of life-threatening or fulminant CDAD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLikelihood of death within 72 hours from any cause.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of inflammatory colitides, chronic abdominal pain, or chronic diarrhea.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically documented marginal zone lymphoma including splenic, nodal, and extranodal sub-types; subjects with splenic MZL must have an additional measurable lesion, nodal or extranodal, as described in inclusion criteria 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to provide all imaging studies for central radiology review; this central radiology review may be performed retrospectively and will not be utilized for decision making for patients on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED) in the eye unaffected by uveal melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNot removed from trametinib treatment due to the development of unacceptable toxicity that is not manageable with dose reductionXx_NEWLINE_xXexperienced no dose limiting toxicity (DLT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXexperienced no progression of disease per the irRC1Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown immunodeficiency disease, including cellular immunodeficiencies, hypogammaglobulinemia, or dysgammaglobulinemia; and/or other hereditary or congenital immunodeficienciesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically-confirmed metastatic melanoma (Stage IV), carrying BRAF V600E or V600K mutation as determined by testing certified for clinical diagnostic purposes. Previously performed certified BRAF testing is acceptable. If no prior BRAF mutation testing results are available, testing of a distant metastasis is preferred, but testing of a regional metastasis or primary tumor is also acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >=100x10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or expected use of a prohibited medication, including enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs (EIAEDs) during treatment with GSK2118436.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of a prior symptomatic stroke, dementia, or other significant central neurologic condition (i.e. multiple sclerosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA history of known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior extensive anthracycline exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of additional risk factors for Torsade de PointesXx_NEWLINE_xXProlonged QTcFXx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable pacemaker or automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXUGT1A1 genotype of TA 7 in both alleles (homozygous UGT1A1*28) or TA 8 in either one or both alleles (hetero- or homozygous for UGT1A1*37)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic or acute GI disorders resulting in diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a complete response (CR) to their previous regimen must have a cancer antigen (CA)-125 within normal range; this criterion is not applicable to patients who enroll with a partial response (PR) to their previous regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious non-healing wounds or ulcers at the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXCoronary or peripheral artery bypass graft within 6 months of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate autologous graft, defined as an unmanipulated, cryopreserved, peripheral blood stem cell graft containing at least 2 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ cells/kg based on patient body weightXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a diagnosis of FAPXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuropathy Impairment Score requirement of 5-130Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas untreated hypo- or hyperthyroidism;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on therapeutic doses of Coumadin or Lovenox are ineligible to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis based on a T-score of <-2.5 at the left or right total hip, left or right femoral neck or lumbar spine (L1-L4) as determined by DEXA scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of a pathologic fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXLytic lesion requiring an impending orthopedic interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXFasting ?-CTX of >1000 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients enrolling in this trial at Washington University School of Medicine (WUSM), it is required that WUSM patients must also enroll in Human Research Protection Office (HRPO)# 201111001; the genetic analyses for University of Florida (UF) patients will take place at WUSM under the auspices of this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted pacemaker, programmable shunts, defibrillator, deep brain stimulator, vagus nerve stimulator, and other implanted electronic devices in the brain or the spinal cordXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with weekly paclitaxel for recurrent disease (administration of weekly paclitaxel as part of an upfront treatment strategy is acceptable as long as the patient had not progressed while receiving weekly paclitaxel or recurred within 4 months of receiving weekly paclitaxel)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant dental/oral disease, including prior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis/ osteomyelitis of the jaw, or with the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive dental or jaw condition which requires oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healed dental/oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological features of neuroendocrine or bronchioalveolar differentiation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParaneoplastic syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXASS deficiency (defined as <50% ASS expression) demonstrated on tissue specimen by Immunohistochemistry (IHC). Cytology and fine need aspirate specimens are not acceptable for ASS testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease or subject refused surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior epirubicin exposure of > 600 mg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected non-compliance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who had been treated with ADI-PEG 20 previously.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide the blood specimens as required by the protocol; please note that the willingness to participate pertains only to the patient and does not factor in the institution’s ability to participate in any part of the translational componentXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline hemoptysis, per clinician/investigator evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressing infection is defined as hemodynamic instability attributable to sepsis or new symptoms, worsening physical signs or radiographic findings attributable to infection; persisting fever without other signs or symptoms will not be interpreted as progressing infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute graft-vs-host disease (GVHD) grades II-IVXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly patients with v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B (BRAF) V600E mutated tumors will be enrolledXx_NEWLINE_xXCutaneous squamous cell carcinomas (SCC) lesions identified at baseline must be excised; adequate wound healing is required prior to study entry; baseline skin exam is required for all patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 100,000/mm^3 (supportive transfusions will be allowed during induction and maintenance phases to maintain these levels)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy (except for adjuvant immunotherapy) with a BRAF and/or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) and/or extracellular signal-regulated kinase (ERK) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)/percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) – defined as within 24 weeks prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement not to donate blood or blood products or to donate sperm during the study and for at least 6 months after discontinuation of vemurafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II SPECIFIC:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously received romidepsin or AbraxaneXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic coronary artery disease (CAD), e.g., angina Canadian class II-IV; in any patient in whom there is doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXAn EKG recorded at screening showing evidence of cardiac ischemia (ST depression of >= 2 mm, measured from isoelectric line to the ST segment); if in any doubt, the patient should have a stress imaging study and, if abnormal, angiography to define whether or not CAD is presentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking drugs leading to significant QT prolongationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a history of delayed healing/open wounds or diabetic ulcers.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a history of retinal degenerative disease (hereditary retinal degeneration or age-related macular degeneration), uveitis or retinal vein occlusion (RVO), or has other relevant abnormalities identified on screening opthalmologic examination, which may increase the risk of serous retinal detachment (SRD) or RVO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHbA1c ? 8%Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented PIK3CA mutations in all patients in dose escalation and expansion with or without documented genetic alterations in FGFR depending upon dose expansion cohort (either local or central determination)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory data as specified:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of resistance to thalidomideXx_NEWLINE_xXSorror’s co-morbidity factors with total score > 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenstrom's macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously randomized in any other Onyx-sponsored phase 3 trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown contraindication to dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXIs able to take medications orallyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to TAS-102, CPT-11, Bevacizumab, or their componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas had either partial or total gastrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects undergoing renal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following hematologic abnormalities at baseline:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following serum chemistry abnormalities at baseline:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere conduction disturbanceXx_NEWLINE_xXEither achieved complete remission (greater than 12 weeks in duration) with initial induction/consolidation and have experienced relapse of disease or declined treatment with high-dose induction/consolidationXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate lung functionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any gastrointestinal dysfunctions that could interfere with the interpretation of the food effect dataXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known intolerance to low or high fat mealsXx_NEWLINE_xXSickle Cell Disease (HbSS, HbSC, HbS??-thalassemia, or HbS??-thalassemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBetween 2 and 10 sickle cell-related pain crises in the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXOn a chronic transfusion program or planning on exchange transfusion during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline laboratory assessments, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXThe need for treatment with medications with clinically relevant metabolism by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 isoenzyme within 3 hours before or after administration of SNX-5422Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol dependence or drug abuse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, macular degeneration, or any retinal changes detected by ophthalmological examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for induction by daunorubicin + cytarabine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious history of exposure to an anthracycline compound.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are also considered to have progressive disease when:\r\n* New bone or soft tissue lesions (eg, plasmacytomas) are identified; or\r\n* There is an unequivocal increase in the size of previously existing lesions; or\r\n* The development of an otherwise unexplained serum calcium > 11.5 mg/dL is also a marker of progressive disease (PD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenstrom macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing graft-versus (vs)-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to an investigational or marketed agent that can act by EGFR inhibitionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cutaneous disease only are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no evidence of active graft vs host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline functions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit ? 25% or hemoglobin ?9 g/100 mLXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiac stress test (e.g., stress thallium scan, stress echocardiography) with normal results if patient is suspected to have coronary artery disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacity or limited legal capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating levels of rituximab > 75.0 µg/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who present for EGD with dilation for dysphagia symptoms thought secondary to either radiation-induced stricture or anastomotic stricture based on historyXx_NEWLINE_xXEndoscopic finding of a stricture that is not caused by either radiation or anastomotic narrowingXx_NEWLINE_xXNasopharyngeal stricturesXx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prohibited medication(s) as described in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapy or concurrent evidence of intraluminal tumor involving the trachea and esophagusXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0 or 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate clinical laboratory values during the screening period as specified in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are willing to refrain from donating blood for at least 90 days after their final dose of MLN4924 and (for male patients) willing to refrain from donating semen for at least 4 months after their final dose of MLN4924Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking statins who are unwilling or unable to refrain from using statins 24 hours before, the day of, and 24 hours after each MLN4924 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a cardiac pacer whose heart rate is set at a fixed rate and patients on concomitant medication that may limit increase in heart rate in response to hypotensionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe intolerance to cytotoxic agent(s) given in the assigned armXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade >=2 hypercholesterolemia or hypertriglyceridemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known contraindications to the use of a required comedication (gemcitabine or nab-paclitaxel).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent (? 3 months) history of partial or complete bowel obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to be transfused with blood components.Xx_NEWLINE_xXvasectomized partner(s);Xx_NEWLINE_xXhormonal contraceptives (oral, parenteral or transdermal) for at least 3 months prior to study drug administration;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects that have previously been treated with a veliparib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsideration by the investigator, for any reason, that the subject is an unsuitable candidate to receive veliparib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo- or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute nephritisXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease while receiving hormonal therapy or after surgical castration documented by at least one of the following: (1) increase in measurable disease per RECIST 1.1; (2) appearance of new lesions on bone scan consistent with progressive prostate cancer (>= 2 new lesions on bone scans if this is the only measure of progressive disease (PD); (3) rising PSA defined as 2 sequential increases above a previous lowest reference value; each value must be obtained at least 1 week apartXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose of abiraterone acetate is takenXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to steroid useXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with transformed CTCL eligible for CHOP regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult men and women subjects aged 18 to 75, inclusive.Xx_NEWLINE_xXO2 saturation < 92% (on room air), evidence of TLS > grade 2 (according to the Cairo-Bishop criteria (3)) or leukostasis (2).Xx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to high dose Ara-C within 6 months of enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of pulmonary fibrosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of cardiomyopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 only: Patients with a history of severe hypersensitivity reaction to drugs formulated with polysorbate 80 (for example, drugs formulated with polysorbate 80 include, but are not limited to: Aranesp, Eprex, Cordarone, some vaccines).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior allogeneic HSCT; andXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any of the following after transplantation and prior to starting oral Azacitidine:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAzacitidine, decitabine or other demethylating agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPART I: Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPART I: History of oxalate renal calculi; urine oxalate level > 60 mg/d at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPART I: History of iron overload or hemochromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPART I: Participants who consume an excess of alcohol or abuse drugs (an excess of alcohol is defined as more than four of any one of the following per day: 30 mL distilled spirits, 340 mL beer, or 120 mL wine) will not be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: Per oncologist responsible for management of care or follow up, participant must have a predicted lifespan of 6-months or moreXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: ECOG performance status 0-2\r\n* Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group performance status\r\n* Grade 0 = Fully active, able to carry on all pre-disease activities without restriction\r\n* Grade 1 = Restricted in physical strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature e.g. light housework, office work\r\n* Grade 2 = Ambulatory and capable of all self care but unable to carry out any work activities; up and about more than 50% of waking hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: History of oxalate renal calculi; urine oxalate level > 60 mg/d at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: History of iron overload or hemochromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: ECOG performance status of 3-4\r\n* Grade 3 = Capable of only limited self care, confined to bed or chair more than 50% of waking hours\r\n* Grade 4 = Completely disabled; cannot carry on any self care; totally confined to bed or chair and in terminal stages of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: Those who consume an excess of alcohol or abuse drugs (an excess of alcohol is defined as more than four of any one of the following per day: 30 mL distilled spirits, 340 mL beer, or 120 mL wine) will not be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPART II: Those who smoke tobacco products will not be allowed to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 25%Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least moderate dyspnea defined by a BDI score of 6 or less in the self-administered computerized versions of the baseline and transition dyspnea indexes (SAC-BDI/TDI); (this cutoff score is close to the score of 5.7 used to define \moderate dyspnea\ in the publication that validated the instrument and is selected by attending physicians in the pulmonary service as a good indication of \ moderate dyspnea\ in clinical practice; a typical person with BDI of 6, for example, would be a 52 year old woman who has to pause when walking because of dyspnea and/or has eliminated doing an activity because of dyspnea)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to safely complete the six minute walk test (6MWT) as per attending physician's clinical judgementXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory functions clinically stable for the preceding 3 months and expected to be stable for the next 3 months as determined by project principal investigators (PIs) and other pulmonary medicine facultyXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXHypersensitivity to 4-aminoquinoline compounds, including hydroxychloroquine sulfate, chloroquine phosphate and amodiaquineXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6PDH) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXRetinal or visual field changes from prior 4-aminoquinoline compound use such as hydroxychloroquine sulfate, chloroquine phosphate and amodiaquineXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of psoriasisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has active peptic ulcer disease or other hemorrhagic esophagitis/gastritisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose tumors score 1+ by conventional IHC, are non-amplified by FISH testing, and whose tumors score > or = 10.5 by HERmark® testing, are eligible for the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory parameters and organ reserveXx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously been exposed to MGAH22 in this or any other trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be previously untreated with HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing unilateral or bilateral, two-stage, tissue expander-assisted breast reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index ? 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic corticosteroid useXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenström macroglobulinemia (WM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior ado-trastuzumab emtansineXx_NEWLINE_xXOne of the following known rare hereditary conditions: galactose intolerance, primary hypolactasia or glucose-galactose malabsorptionXx_NEWLINE_xXAntecedent hematologic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown adverse cytogenetic riskXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0 to 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival longer than 3 months from enrollment in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate clinical laboratory values during the screening period as specified in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown favorable cytogenetic riskXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatic cirrhosis or severe pre-existing hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index > 40 kg/m²Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unwilling or unable to refrain from using hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA) reductase inhibitors (statins) starting 5 days before the initial study drug administration and throughout the study will not be permitted to enrollXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after MLN8237 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on daily proton pump inhibitor therapy must be able to discontinue use or only require use of antacid or hydrogen (H2) antagonist intermittently; patients who require daily administration of proton pump inhibitor, H2 antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes are not eligible; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of a concomitant medication that can prolong the QT interval is strongly discouraged and patients should be advised to discontinue use of these medications during the study period and alternatives selected when indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE ESCALATION COHORT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed HR+ breast cancer; HR+ is defined as either ERa or PgR being positive, or both; positivity is defined for the purposes of this protocol as:\r\n* Allred >= 4\r\n* IHC 1+, 2+, 3+\r\n* Percentage of positive staining > 10%\r\n** When there is discrepancy between the metastatic and primary tumor results with respect to ERA or PgR status, the metastatic results will hold precedence; when there is discrepancy between the local and University of Wisconsin (UW) pathology results with respect to ER? or PgR status, the UW results will hold precedenceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have measureable or evaluable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on medications with the potential for significant interaction with orteronel; patients may be rescreened and considered eligible for this protocol 7 days after they discontinue these medications; specific considerations include:\r\n* Medications with a known risk for causing torsades des pointes\r\n* Medications with a potential for increasing the QTc\r\n* Medications should be reviewed with attention to:\r\n** Beta-blockers \r\n** Diuretics \r\n** Anti-coagulants\r\n** These medications will not exclude patients from study, but should be brought to the attention of both the treating physician and PI with consideration for closer monitoring, to be determined clinicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related mortality (TRM) score >= 13.1 as calculated with simplified modelXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant illness associated with a likely survival of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 - INDUCTION/RE-INDUCTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have diagnostic/pre-treatment specimens obtained within 28 days prior to registration submitted for cytogenetic (and fluorescent in situ hybridization [FISH] if possible) analysis to determine risk status; high risk classification will be defined as del(5q)/-5, del(7q)/-7, abn3q26 [inv(3)/t(3;3)], 11q23 rearrangement [except t(9;11)], 17p-, t(6;9), t(9;22), complex (at least 3 unrelated abnormalities [abn]), and monosomal karyotype (either loss of two different chromosomes or loss of one chromosome along with a structural chromosome abnormality other than add, ring and mar); karyograms and cytogenetics/FISH analysis reports must be submitted for discipline reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXAs part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 - CONSOLIDATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXTumor must be wild type for the v-Ki-ras2 Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) and BRAF oncogenes, and must have known PIK3CA, AKT mutation status and PTEN expression statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diabetes or in risk for hyperglycemia should not be excluded from trials with MK-2206, but the hyperglycemia should be well controlled on oral agents before the patient enters the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented ALK rearrangement based on FDA approved testXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of any other ALK inhibitors in addition to crizotinibXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline QTc > 470 ms or baseline symptomatic bradycardia < 45 beats per minuteXx_NEWLINE_xXGlioblastoma Multiforme (GBM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have confirmed EGFR amplification by central labXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to temozolomide, dacarbazine, IgG containing agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects that have had more than one disease recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXIntubated and mechanically-ventilatedXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of pneumonia defined as presence of a new or progressive infiltrate(s) on chest radiographXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of Gram-negative organism(s) by either Gram stain or culture of respiratory secretions, or suspected Gram-negative pathogenXx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired oxygenationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a multi-drug resistant (MDR) organism in a pre-therapy respiratory specimen OR at least two risk factors for MDR organismsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected bacteremia secondary to Staphylococcus aureusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL (177 µmol/L) [Exception: Patients with a serum creatinine > 2 mg/dL (177 µmol/L) and being treated with continuous renal replacement therapy (Continuous Veno-Venous Hemodialysis and CVVHemoDiafiltration) or daily hemodialysis will receive the aerosol study drug treatment]Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas an Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation (APACHE) II score < 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving veno-venous extracorporeal circulation membrane oxygenation (V-V ECMO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after MLN8237 administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor, H2 antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes. Intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowed (see section 5.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xX?2 prior doses of fulvestrant are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXa GnRH analog is permitted if the patient had progressive disease on a GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone) analog plus a SERM (Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators) or an AI; the GnRH analog may continue but the SERM or AI must be discontinued.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCongenital or acquired immune deficiency at increased risk of infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically-proven AL amyloidosis, confirmed by positive Congo red stain with green birefringence on polarized light microscopy with evidence of measurable clonal disease that requires active treatment as defined below:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the dose expansion cohorts: in addition to the above, there must be a difference between the amyloidogenic (i.e. clonal) and non-amyloidogenic light chain (dFLC) of at least 50mg/L (5mg/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that were unable to tolerate at least 1 cycle of an alkylating agent plus corticosteroid (e.g. melphalan + dexamethasone) or alternative prior regimen because of severe adverse events (e.g. hypersensitivity reaction) may be considered after discussion with the study PI/Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXObjective, measureable, symptomatic organ involvement, defined as one or more of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGI Tract: biopsy showing amyloid deposition along with symptoms such as GI bleeding or persistent diarrhea (> 4 loose stools/day) Autonomic or Peripheral Nervous System: defined as orthostasis, symptoms of nausea or dysgeusia, recurrent diarrhea or constipation, abnormal sensory and/or motor findings on neurologic exam, or gastric atony by gastric emptying scanXx_NEWLINE_xXMale patients must agree not to donate semen or spermXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 2 or 3 atrioventricular (AV) block (Mobitz type I is permitted) or sick sinus syndrome, unless subject has a pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere diarrhea (? grade 3) not controllable with medication or that requires total parenteral nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergies to carfilzomib or Captisol® (a cyclodextrin derivative used to solubilize carfilzomib)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs, including antiviral (e.g. Valacyclovir)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in whom the required program of oral and IV fluid hydration is contraindicated, e.g. due to severe pre-existing pulmonary, cardiac, or renal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of 5-alpha reductase antagonist (i.e. finasteride, dutasteride) or antiandrogen (i.e. flutamide, bicalutamide) within 6 weeks of day 1 of protocol therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of other medications that may potentially interact with itraconazole within 1 week of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch blockXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block and left anterior hemi block (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXObligate use of a cardiac pacemaker or implantable cardioverter defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CK (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy) or elevated baseline CK levels (? Grade 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior enrollment in the OncoGenex Phase 2 Study OGX-427-02.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther concomitant malignancies (with some exceptions per protocol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have progressed on standard dose/schedule of carfilzomib without having had any carfilzomib related grade 3 or 4 toxicitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have received an alkylating agent unless contraindicated; subjects may have received these agents alone or in combination with other myeloma treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXUric acid, if elevated, must be corrected to within laboratory normal range prior to dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAdultsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CK (Creatine phosphokinase) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects will be adult allogeneic HSCT recipients aged ? 18 years-old (or as applicable, per local law) who were CMV seropositive before transplantation and are CMV viremia negative posttransplant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have a positive CMV viremia test at any time between transplant and the First Dose Day (FDD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have had any anti-CMV vaccine at any time.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF < LLN for the institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal cardiac valve morphology (>=grade 2) documented by echocardiogram (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis] can be entered on study). Subjects with moderate valvular thickening should not be entered on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or Central serous retinopathy (CSR) includingXx_NEWLINE_xXVisible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic examination that is considered a risk factor for RVO or CSR such as evidence of new optic disc cupping; Evidence of new visual field defects on automated perimetry; Intraocular pressure >21 mmHg as measured by tonographyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prohibited medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious anthracycline-based chemotherapy (daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin, mitoxantrone and valrubicin), in any formulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny concomitant disease or condition which would interfere with the subjects' proper completion of the protocol assignment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated non-availability for study visits/procedures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is a family member or employee of the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with islet cell tumors or other non-epithelial cell malignancies of the pancreas.Xx_NEWLINE_xXT1a or b prostate carcinoma involving < 5% of resected tissue and PSA within normal limits (WNL) since resectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following hematologic abnormalities at baseline:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any of the following serum chemistry abnormalities at baseline:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere conduction disturbancesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known osteopenia or osteoporosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who may receive therapeutically effective doses via an external beam approach to the lesion of interest as specified by MSKCC Radiation Oncology Department dose constraint criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with kyphoplasty cement or hardware that would preclude effective catheter placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with paraspinal extension of disease with visceral involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known immune impairment who may be unable to respond to anti-CTLA-4 antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with CNS metastases with active neurologic dysfunction. These patients are excluded because of their poor prognosis and because they often develop progressive neurologic dysfunction that would confound the evaluation of neurologic and other adverse event.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire elective (non-emergency), open (non-laparoscopic), hepatic resection (anatomic or non-anatomic resections of at least one anatomical hepatic segment, or equivalent tissue volume).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe (e.g. anaphylactic) reactions to blood or to any blood-derived product.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious known sensitivity to any Fibrin Sealant Grifols component or any Surgicel® component.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of ?-thalassemia major and a history of at least 100 mL/kg/year of pRBCs or ?8 transfusions of pRBCs per year for the prior 2 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreated and followed for at least the past 2 years in a specialized center that maintained detailed medical records, including transfusion history.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWHO-confirmed MDS, with an International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score of > 1.0 (defined as intermediate 2 or high-risk)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive acute graft vs. host disease >= grade 2 or active extensive chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligibility is restricted to subjects with confirmed EGFR amplification in the EGFR amplified cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a history of immunologic reaction to any Immunoglobulin G (IgG) containing agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a confirmed diagnosis of HbSS, HbSC, HbS?+thal, or HbS?0thalXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is experiencing acute pain typical of vaso-occlusive crisis requiring treatment with parenteral analgesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires hospitalizationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has complications related to SCDXx_NEWLINE_xXNo response or loss of response to Erythropoiesis-Stimulating Agents (ESAs) or erythropoetin (EPO) > 500 mU/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXChromosome 5q deletionXx_NEWLINE_xXIncomplete recovery or incomplete healing of wounds from previous surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior Exposure to Sotatercept (ACE-011)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLow-density lipoprotein (LDL) -cholesterol ?130 mg/dL (individuals with elevated LDL-cholesterol will be referred for clinical management of dyslipidemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (within 6-months) use of lipid-lowering medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or fever > 38.5°C during screening visits or on the first scheduled day of dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must allow biopsy at the time of fiducial placementXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking drugs which affect androgen metabolism (e.g. spironolactone, ketoconazole, finasteride, dutasteride) will not be eligible; patients who received any of these agents within the 6 months prior to evaluation will be reviewed for eligibility by the principal investigator on a case by case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXColorectal adenocarcinoma patients must be known to have CpG island methylator phenotype; CIMP-high phenotype will be defined as hypermethylation at 2 or more of the 6 methylation-specific polymerase chain reaction (PCR) markers (mutL homolog 1, colon cancer, nonpolyposis type 2 [hMLH1], cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A [P16], cyclin-dependent kinase 2 associated protein 2 [P14], amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein-binding, family A, member 1 [MINT1], amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein-binding, family A, member 2 [MINT2], and amyloid beta (A4) precursor protein-binding, family A, member 3 [MINT3])Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment-related mortality (TRM) score =< 9.2 as calculated with simplified modelXx_NEWLINE_xXMay have previously received monotherapy with demethylating agents for MDS or AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant illness associated with a likely survival of < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSubmission of original biopsy for review and verification by participating center hematopathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should receive concomitant therapy with bisphosphonates, regardless of the presence of bony lesions, although study physicians may use their discretion based on presence of renal insufficiency or other mitigating factorsXx_NEWLINE_xXLight-chain (AL) amyloidosis; patients with secondary amyloidosis due to MM are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of disease progression during 6 month period prior to the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take oral medications and willing to record daily adherance to investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have known proteinuria >= 500mg/24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal heart functionXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable coagulation status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of osteonecrosis of the hip or have evidence of structural bone abnormalities in the proximal femur on MRI scan that are considered clinically significant or may have an impact on the interpretation of the scan. Degenerative changes of the hip joint are not exclusionaryXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum CK ?1.5 ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CK (eg, inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease or marked splenomegaly and/or lymphadenopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnexplained weight loss exceeding 10% of body weight over the previous 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFevers >100.5º F or night sweats for more than 2 weeks without evidence of infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive lymphocytosis, with an increase exceeding 50% over a 2 month period or a doubling time of less than 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with G6PD deficiency.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive chemotherapeutic agent(s) associated with moderate, high, or very high risk of emetogenicity for no more than 5 consecutive days for a documented malignancy, or a chemotherapy regimen not previously tolerated due to vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected to receive ondansetron as part of antiemetic regimen (Cycle 1); Expected to receive a 5-HT3 antagonist as part of antiemetic regimen (Cycles 2-6)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing functioning central venous catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight ?3rd percentile for age and gender (and ?3.0 kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent user of any illicit drugs (including marijuana) or current evidence of alcohol abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive stem cell rescue therapy in conjunction with study related course(s) of emetogenic chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic to fosaprepitant, aprepitant, ondansetron, or any other 5-HT3 antagonistXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking other excluded medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take oral medications (capsule must be swallowed with liquid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHormonal therapy with gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists, GnRH antagonists or high dose bicalutamide within 1 month of enrollment unless serum testosterone is within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a score ? 12 on the PHQ-9 questionnaire.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a GAD-7 mood scale score ? 15.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been previously treated:\r\n* >= 3rd line if bone marrow transplant (BMT) candidate OR\r\n* >= 2nd line if not BMT candidate OR\r\n* >= 2nd relapse for BMT candidate OR\r\n* >= 1st relapse for non- BMT candidateXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radioimmunotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed /refractory AML, ALL, or MLL with rearrangement of the MLL gene, including 11q23 or PTD, are eligible for the expanded cohort:Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived and failed all known effective therapies for their disease;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the following clinical laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPT or aPTT < 1.5 times the ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with non-clear cell histology must be ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 3 (ENPP3) positive at pre-screening. This sub-group does not have any prior therapy requirement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with papillary histology: includes unclassified histology with papillary features and must be ENPP3 positive at pre-screening. This sub-group does not have any prior therapy requirement.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any investigational drug (including marketed drugs not approved for this indication) within 4 weeks prior to screening. No time limit applies to the use of marketed drugs approved for this indication provided that the subject has progressed on the treatment and all toxicities attributable to the drug have resolved or returned to baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the ingredients of the investigational product AGS-16C3FXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of eye surgery within 6 months, presence of cataracts or other ocular disorders significantly affecting visionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known sensitivity to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo active peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical indication for a peritoneal portXx_NEWLINE_xXActive use of an epidural catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXAny co-morbid condition that‚ in the view of the attending physician‚ renders the patient at high risk from treatment complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed diagnosis of advanced solid tumor (dose escalation component) or metastatic melanoma (uveal or cutaneous) (doses escalation and MTD expansion components) or platinum-resistant (tumor progression within a year after the completion of platinum-based therapy) ovarian carcinoma (high grade serous, endometrial or poorly differentiated endometrioid) or HCC that has failed treatment with sorafenib or did not tolerate sorafenib or refused sorafenib, or HCC with coexistent BCT that has or has not been treated with chemotherapy, or BCT that has or has not been treated with chemotherapy. For HCC and HCC with coexistent BCT, cirrhotic status of Child-Pugh grade A-B7 must be present. Child-Pugh status should be determined based on clinical findings and laboratory data during the screening period (Appendix C). Subjects on anti-coagulants are to receive 1 point for their INR status, as they are presumed to have a <1.7 baseline PT/INR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease or patient refused surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected non-compliance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who had been treated with ADI-PEG 20 previously.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulation status:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or presence of alcoholism or drug abuse within the past 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition (psychological, geographical) that does not permit compliance with study and follow-up proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional Laboratory RequirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXMale patients must agree not to donate semen or sperm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with non-secretory or hyposecretory MMXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in whom the required program of oral and IV fluid hydration is contraindicated, e.g. due to pre-existing pulmonary, cardiac, or renal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary systemic amyloidosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed thyroid carcinoma with the PAX8-PPARgamma translocation; refractory to radioactive iodine (RAI) as defined by: the tumor does not concentrate RAI; or the patient has had RAI within the last 16 months and has had progression despite that RAI; or the last RAI treatment was > 16 months ago and the patient progressed after at least two RAI treatments; or the patient has received RAI treatments with a cumulative RAI dose of >= 22.2 GBq (600 mCi) \r\n* Not a candidate for surgery or RAI therapy with curative intent \r\n* Lesions that would be treated by external beam radiation therapy (EBRT) based on standard of care can be so treated, but then cannot be used as target lesions unless there has been progression of the lesion since treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease progression in the past 14 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) suppression (< 0.5 mIU/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled malabsorption syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking medications known to increase risk of Torsades de PointesXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal thyroid function (thyroid stimulating hormone [TSH] and free thyroxine [T4]) (clinically euthyroid patients are acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease defined as one or more of the following three criteria (Note: subjects who received an antiandrogen must demonstrate disease progression following discontinuation of antiandrogen):Xx_NEWLINE_xXStructurally unstable bone lesions suggesting impending fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Mobitz II second degree or third degree heart block without a permanent pacemaker in placeXx_NEWLINE_xXHypotension (systolic blood pressure < 86 mmHg or bradycardia with a heart rate of <50 beats per minute on the ECG., unless pharmaceutically induced and thus reversible (i.e. beta blockers).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of ketoconazole, abiraterone acetate or enzalutamide, or participation in a previous clinical trial of ketoconazole, abiraterone acetate or enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or concurrent evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or current risk factors for RVO.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute coronary syndromes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of grade 3 or 4 glioma, including astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, and mixed gliomas, as determined by pre-registration central pathology review (Phase I)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of glioblastoma multiforme (grade 4 astrocytoma) as determined by pre-registration central pathology review; note: gliosarcomas and other grade 4 astrocytoma variants (e.g., giant cell) are eligible; glioblastoma (GBM) with oligodendroglial features are NOT PERMITTED in this study if they are 1p19q co-deleted; sites submitting GBM with oligodendroglial features will be asked to provide results of 1p/19q co-deletion status (Phase II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXOther co-morbidity which would interfere with patient's ability to participate in trial, e.g. uncontrolled infection, uncompensated heart or lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on invasive mechanical ventilation or noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (CPAP or bilevel positive airway pressure) or requiring > 2LPM supplemental oxygen therapy to maintain O2 saturation > 90% due to hypoxemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed parainfluenza at screening by one of the following methods using any sample type: Respiratory Virus Panel, Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA), Qualitative/quantitative RT-PCR test for parainfluenza virus performed at the local laboratory (a confirmatory PCR test will be done at the central lab but is not required to start the patient on study).Xx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed PIV lower tract disease for subjects on mechanical ventilation will be defined as PIV detection in bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) or biopsy within last 7 days of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed PIV lower tract disease for subjects on non-invasive positive pressure ventilation or supplemental oxygen will be defined as all of the following within the last 7 days of screening: New pulmonary infiltrate on chest imaging and at least one PIV sign and/or symptom as defined in section 10.3.6Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of RSV or MPVXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking any other investigational drug used to research or treat PIV.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of allergic reactions to lactose.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of documented Pseudomonas aeruginosa pneumonia confirmed radiographically and by culture from BAL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDOSE EXPANSION COHORT: GIST patients must have had progression on or have been intolerant to imatinib and sunitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may not have ongoing chronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may not have other active malignancies other than indolent malignancies not requiring active therapy which the investigator determines are unlikely to interfere with treatment and safety analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXBecause no dosing or adverse event data are currently available on the use of ENMD-2076 in patients <18 years of age, children are excluded from this study but will be eligible for future pediatric single-agent trials, if applicable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire therapeutic doses of any anti-coagulant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have reached Week 24 of the core protocol in immune-related complete response (irCR), immune-related partial response (irPR), immune-related stable disease (irSD), or immune-related progressive disease (irPD) (unconfirmed) with evidence of tumor inflammatory reaction.Xx_NEWLINE_xX2. If patient is in irPD (unconfirmed) status, they must not have had a decrease in their Karnofsky Performances Scale (KPS) score > 10 points and to be judged to not have \rapid clinical deterioration\ by the investigator since the subject's last tumor measurement leading to irPD assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors to be injected lying in mucosal regions or close to an airway, major blood vessel or spinal cord that, in the opinion of the Investigators, could cause occlusion or compression in the case of tumor swelling or erosion into a major vessel in the case of necrosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xX2. If lesions are too small to be visualized or palpable for accurate injection.Xx_NEWLINE_xX3. Currently in status of irPD (confirmed) or irPD (unconfirmed) without evidence of tumor inflammatory response, or with rapid clinical deterioration, or with a decrease of 10 points or more on their KPS score since their last assessment before irPD (unconfirmed) assessment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent (3 months) history of acute pancreatitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate baseline laboratory assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe need for treatment with medications with clinically-relevant metabolism by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) 3A4 isoenzyme within 3 hours before or after administration of SNX-5422Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high-risk neuroblastoma according to COG risk classification at the time of study enrollment. Patients who were initially considered low or intermediate risk, but then reclassified as high risk are also eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor recurrent/progressive or refractory disease, a biopsy is not required regardless of number of MIBG avid lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXFDG-PET avid (only if tumor known to be MIBG non-avid). These patients must have had a biopsy confirming neuroblastoma and/or ganglioneuroblastoma in at least one FDG-PET avid site present at the time of enrollment done prior to enrollment and at least two weeks subsequent to the most recent prior therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-avid lesion (both MIBG and FDG-PET non-avid). These patients must have had a biopsy confirming neuroblastoma and/or ganglioneuroblastoma in at least one non-avid lesion present at the time of enrollment done prior to enrollment and at least two weeks subsequent to the most recent prior therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with clinically significant enzyme inducers, such as the enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs phenytoin, carbamazepine or phenobarbital, or rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine or St. John's wort within 14 days prior to the first dose of sorafenib and during protocol therapy must not be used as these may interfere with sorafenib metabolism. Non-enzyme inducing anticonvulsants (Keppra, etc.) can be used after discussion with study chair.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematuria ? 1+ on urinalysisXx_NEWLINE_xXAge-adjusted serum creatinine 1.5 x normal for age/genderXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have blood pressure ? 95th percentile for age, height, and genderXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other ongoing serious medical issues must be approved by the study chair prior to registration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with calculated BSA < 0.40 m2 are not eligible for study participation as Sorafenib dosing for this study cannot accommodate subjects of this size utilizing commercially available drug formulation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of venous or arterial thrombosis personally or in a first degree relative before the age of 40 years are not eligible unless the thrombotic event was associated with a central line.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient declines participation in NANT 04-05. (Neuroblastoma Biology Study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical Laboratories:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for at least one comparator drug:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be candidates for at least one of the designated comparator drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence or history of visceral melanoma metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active nodal metastases (e.g., radiologic or clinical evidence of current nodal disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of more than 50 melanoma lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere peripheral vascular disease in subjects whose Study Lesions are located in an extremityXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled thyroid disease or cystic fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication for all comparators:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with contraindications to all of the designated comparator drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma made through radiologic imaging may be eligible, provided they meet the criteria according to the American Association for the Study of Liver Disease, AASLD (Bruix and Sherman, 2005; Bruix and Sherman, 2011)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be candidates for sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has adverse risk disease or AML for which there is otherwise a substantial risk of relapse, which includes but is not limited to: adverse karyotype, FLT3 internal tandem duplication (ITD) mutation, history of antecedent hematologic disorder (AHD), therapy-related AML, history of requiring more than 1 cycle of intensive induction chemotherapy to achieve first remission, and/or presence of persistent MRD (detected by cytogenetics, molecular markers, or flow cytometry) at any point after the initial induction cycle.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine phosphokinase (CPK) ?2.5 × the ULN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a diagnosis of AML associated with karyotype t(15;17).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has persistent and clinically significant Grade ?2 toxicities from induction or consolidation therapy (excluding alopecia, nausea, fatigue, and liver function tests [as mandated in the inclusion criteria]) not readily managed with supportive measures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is oxygen-dependent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe Phase II, single-arm NF Cohort (Arm G) will be required to submit tissue and pathology report for central pathology review.Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to bendamustine, rituximab, or obinutuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 3b FLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of transformation of indolent disease to DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXA positive pre-study drug/alcohol screening (testing at time of screening is not required).Xx_NEWLINE_xXTo define DHL, patients must have evidence of C-myc (defined as: cytogenetic evidence [fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) or karyotype] of C-myc breaks [increased copy number in itself is not considered positivity for C-myc] OR positive IHC defined as >= 40% of the lymphoma cells staining for C-myc) PLUS either:\r\n* Breaks in BCL-2 via cytogenetic studies or\r\n* BCL-2 immunopositivity in >= 70% of lymphoma cells during phase I portion of the trial and >= 50% of lymphoma cells during the phase II portion of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior pomalidomide exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin toxicity including but not limited to erythema, rash, ulceration, and open wound that is still clinically present and considered as acute or chronic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXB1: Refractory or relapsed neuroblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXB2: Recurrent or unresectable low grade gliomas with BRAF tandem duplication with fusionXx_NEWLINE_xXB3: Neurofibromatosis Type -1 associated plexiform neurofibromas (NF-1 with PN) that are unresectable and medically significant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXB4: BRAF V600 mutant tumors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors that have been documented by CLIA or equivalent certified laboratory test to harbor BRAF V600 mutation at diagnosis or relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent or refractory BRAFV600 mutant LGG or LCH tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of NF-1 related cerebral vascular anomaly (such as Moyamoya).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with NF-1 and only PN lesions that cannot be evaluated by volumetric analysis (only applicable to Part B).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor dose escalation and dose expansion in combination with BMS-936558: HL and DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven intracranial glioblastoma multiforme (WHO grade IV glioma) or gliosarcoma. In addition, the Phase 1b cohort will include patients with progressive WHO grade III glioma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be eligible if the original histology was lower grade glioma and a subsequent diagnosis of glioblastoma or gliosarcoma is made.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolling onto Cohort 2b who have been taken off bevacizumab must have had at least a 28 day washout from any previous administration of bevacizumab. It is preferred that patients who fail bevacizumab prior to trial entry remain on bevacizumab in the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on the phase 2 portion of the study may not have more than 2 prior regimens for recurrent disease for glioblastoma/gliosarcoma. Patients on the phase 1 portion of the study may not have had more than 3 prior regimens.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: subjects may not have had a transfusion within 7 days of screening assessment; NOTE: patients who are prophylactically treated with an agent such as warfarin or heparin will be allowed to participate provided that no prior evidence of underlying abnormality in coagulation parameters exists; close monitoring of at least weekly evaluations will be performed until PT/INR is stable based on a measurement that is pre-dose as defined by the local standard of careXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pheochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXDe novo myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS): International Prognostic Scoring System intermediate-1 (IPSS-1) with poor risk cytogenetics or higher IPSSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with secondary MDS/AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be considered eligible for the study if after transplant they achieved hematologic (< 5% blasts) and cytogenetic remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of uncontrolled graft-versus-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary: new onset hypoxiaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of residual disease either by increased blasts count (> 5%) or persistence of previous known cytogenetics abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have received, but are not required to have received, one or two additional cytotoxic regimens for management of recurrent or persistent diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographic condition that would potentially hamper compliance with the study protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of or participation in a clinical trial evaluating and agent that either blocks androgen synthesis (e.g. abiraterone acetate, TAK-700, TAK-683, TAK-44) or targets the AR (e.g., bicalutamide, BMS-641988) (patients who are known to have only received placebo in these studies are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B: T2a-4N0M0 who are not candidates for cohort A or who will not be treated with chemotherapy (due to patient preference or at the recommendation of the treating physician)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort A: Continuous oxygen useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients meeting the following exclusion criteria will be excluded from the functional MRI portion only:\r\n* Metallic implant exclusions will be determined per institutional policies\r\n** Pacemakers and defibrillators are excluded\r\n** Stents etc. will be evaluated according to Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) policy\r\n* Unmanageable claustrophobia\r\n* High risk for nephrogenic systemic fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must consent to an indwelling central venous catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease must be considered unresectable at the time of preoperative evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of sclerosing cholangitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I PATIENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have recovered from the immediate post-operative periodXx_NEWLINE_xXINTRATUMORAL DRUG DISTRIBUTION STUDY PATIENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be undergoing repeat surgery that is clinically indicated as determined by their care providersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED) are not eligible for treatment on this protocol; patients may be on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs or not be taking any anti-epileptic drugs; patients previously treated with EIAED may be enrolled if they have been off the EIAED for 10 days or more prior to the first dose of AZD1775 (MK-1775)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned WBRT based on number (>= 3 lesions) and/or size (>= 1 cm) of brain metastases (BMs); patients who require additional clinically indicated stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) in addition to WBRT will also be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior SRS will also be eligible, provided that there are new, non-irradiated measurable brain lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXContinuation of trastuzumab and pertuzumab are allowed for those patients already on trastuzumab and pertuzumab therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one evaluable lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBRAF V600 mutation-positive tumor as confirmed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-approved laboratory or equivalent (the local BRAF testing may be subject to subsequent verification by centralized testing; centralized testing can confirm V600E and V600K mutations only).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a prohibited medication or herbal preparation or requires any of these medications during the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas leukaemia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with moderate valvular thickening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented presence\r\n* GROUP A: kinesin family member 5B (KIF5B)-RET or related variant RET fusions\r\n* GROUP B: any of the following aberrations\r\n** NTRK fusion\r\n** MET overexpression, amplification, or mutation\r\n** AXL overexpression, amplification, or mutation\r\n* GROUP C: ROS1 fusionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has radiographic evidence of cavitating pulmonary lesion(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther disorders associated with a high risk of fistula formation including percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube placement within 3 months before the first dose of study therapy or concurrent evidence of intraluminal tumor involving the trachea and esophagusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be >= 2 weeks since any investigational agent administered as part of a phase 0 study (also referred to as an “early phase I study” or “pre-phase I study” where a sub-therapeutic dose of drug is administered) at the coordinating center PI’s discretion, and should have recovered to eligibility levels from any toxicitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients age 16-17 years are eligible only if they have a body surface area (BSA) >= 1.7 m^2 or weigh >= 60 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pre-existing thyroid abnormality who are unable to maintain thyroid function in the normal range with medication are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with NF1 and inoperable PN defined as PN that cannot be surgically completely removed without risk for substantial morbidity due to encasement of, or close proximity to vital structures, invasiveness, or high vascularity of the PN; the PN has to cause (stratum 1) or have the potential to cause (stratum 2) significant morbidity, such as (but not limited to) head and neck lesions that could compromise the airway or great vessels, paraspinal lesions that can cause myelopathy, brachial or lumbar plexus lesions that could cause nerve compression and loss of function, lesions that could result in major deformity (e.g., orbital lesions) or are significantly disfiguring, lesions of the extremity that cause limb hypertrophy or loss of function, and painful lesions; patients will be enrolled into stratum 1 or 2 based on PN related morbidity; histologic confirmation of tumor is not necessary in the presence of consistent clinical and radiographic findings, but should be considered if malignant degeneration of a PN is clinically suspected; a PN is defined as a neurofibroma that has grown along the length of a nerve and may involve multiple fascicles and branches; a spinal PN involves two or more levels with connection between the levels or extending laterally along the nerve; in addition to PN, all study subjects must have either positive genetic testing for NF1 or have at least one other diagnostic criterion for NF1 listed below (National Institutes of Health [NIH] Consensus conference):\r\n* Six or more café-au-lait macules (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in post pubertal subjects)\r\n* Freckling in axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have at least one measurable PN, defined as a lesion of at least 3 cm measured in one dimension; patients who underwent surgery for resection of a PN are eligible provided the PN was incompletely resected and is measurableXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Measurability and suitability for volumetric MRI analysis of the target PN must be confirmed with the NCI Pediatric Oncology Branch (POB) prior to enrolling a patient; the target PN will be defined as the clinically most relevant PN, which has to be amenable to volumetric MRI analysis; PN will be classified as “typical PN” versus “nodular PN” versus “solitary nodular PN prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid excessive sun exposure and use adequate sunscreen protection if sun exposure is anticipatedXx_NEWLINE_xXOphthalmologic conditions:\r\n* Current or past history of central serous retinopathy\r\n* Current or past history of retinal vein occlusion\r\n* Known intraocular pressure (IOP) > 21 mmHg (or ULN adjusted by age) or uncontrolled glaucoma (irrespective of IOP); patients with known glaucoma and increased IOP who do not have meaningful vision (light perception only or no light perception) and are not experiencing pain related to the glaucoma may be eligible after discussion with the study chair\r\n* Subjects with any other significant abnormality on ophthalmic examination should be discussed with the study chair for potential eligibility\r\n* Ophthalmological findings secondary to long-standing optic pathway glioma (such as visual loss, optic nerve pallor or strabismus) or long-standing orbito-temporal PN (such as visual loss, strabismus) will NOT be considered a significant abnormality for the purposes of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWhile not an exclusion criterion, unless considered clinically indicated, patients should avoid taking other additional non-study medications that may interfere with the study medication; in particular, patients should avoid medications that are known to either induce or inhibit the activity of hepatic microsomal isoenzymes CYP1A2, CYP2C19 and CYP3A4Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a diagnosis of Gilbert's diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXA bad reaction to AZD5363 or any drugs similar to it in structure or class.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf re-evaluation of a patient’s disease shows unfavorable risk features or intermediate risk features, the patient will be removed from the HOD08 study and consented to the HOD99 or the HOD05 studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cerebral vascular accident (CVA) within 3 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm, history of aortic dissection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an Oncotype DX recurrence score < 18\r\n* If the patient does not already have Oncotype DX recurrence score, specimen (unstained blocks or slides) must be sent to the Genomic Health centralized laboratory in Redwood City, California; please see MA.39 trial specific website for instructions on ordering Oncotype DX testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must consent to provision of samples of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conductedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pT3 or pT4 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXNET and GIST tumors must be unresectableXx_NEWLINE_xXNET subjects must have progressed on or been ineligible for treatment with somatostatin analogues (SSA) and at least one other FDA-approved targeted therapy (everolimus or sunitinib).Xx_NEWLINE_xXGIST subjects must have previously received all FDA-approved therapies (imatinib mesylate, sunitinib malate, and regorafenib) for which they are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed/refractory, pathologically confirmed EBV+ lymphoid malignancy or lymphoproliferative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of available therapy with reasonable likelihood of cure or significant clinical benefitXx_NEWLINE_xXCirculating hepatitis C virus on qPCRXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of locally-assessed, biopsy-proven EBV+ PTLD with a pathology sample available for central reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXMales and females of any ageXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderlying primary disease, for which the subject underwent transplant, is in morphologic remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade ? 2 graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) per the Center for International Blood and Marrow Transplant Research (CIBMTR) consensus grading system at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXActive adenovirus viremiaXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for vasopressor or ventilatory supportXx_NEWLINE_xXHave documented IDH1 R132H gene mutation by local testing and known 1p19q or ATRX mutation status by local testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave central confirmation of primarily non-enhancing disease by MRI with less than or equal to 5 mm slice thickness and up to 1 mm interslice gap on either 2D T2 weighted image, 3D T2 weighted image, or FLAIR, with at least 1 non-enhancing tumor measuring 1×1×1 cm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave KPS of ?60%Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave expected survival of ?12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave had radiation within 6 months of the first dose of AG-120 or AG-881. (Note: Prior biopsy or surgery is allowed.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for taxane monotherapy, as per local investigator assessment (e.g., absence of rapid clinical progression, life-threatening visceral metastases, or the need for rapid symptom and/or disease control which may require combination chemotherapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade >=2 uncontrolled or untreated hypercholesterolemia or hypertriglyceridemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have high-grade serous or endometrioid or high-grade predominantly serous or endometrioid histology, regardless of HRD or germline breast cancer susceptibility gene (gBRCA) mutation status. Patients with non mucinous epithelial ovarian cancer and gBRCA mutation are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had 1 attempt at optimal debulking surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have either CA-125 in the normal range or CA-125 decrease by more than 90% during front-line therapy that is stable for at least 7 days (ie, no increase > 15% from nadir).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate organ function, defined as (Note: Complete Blood Count (CBC) test should be obtained without transfusion or receipt of stimulating factors within 2 weeks before obtaining screening blood sample):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is immunocompromised (patients with splenectomy are allowed).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown EGFR (exon 19 and 21) mutations, ALK translocations, and/or ROS-1 translocationsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patient (Note: patients with splenectomy are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised patient (Note: patients with splenectomy are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of MDS or AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown primary immunodeficiencies, either cellular (e.g., DiGeorge syndrome, T-negative severe combined immunodeficiency [SCID]) or combined T- and B-cell immunodeficiencies (e.g., T- and B-negative SCID, Wiskott Aldrich syndrome, ataxia telangiectasia, common variable immunodeficiency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has spinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for >=2 weeks prior to screening Treatment-Specific Exclusion Criteria:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit at screening and at initiation of idasanutlin > 40%Xx_NEWLINE_xXResistance to/intolerance to hydroxyurea according to modified European Leukemia Net (ELN) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: Agreement to use contraceptive measures, and agreement to refrain from donating sperm during the treatment period and for at least 90 days after the last dose of idasanutlinXx_NEWLINE_xXMeets the criteria for post-PV myelofibrosis as defined by the International Working Group-Myeloproliferative Neoplasms Research and Treatment (IWG-MRT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKPS < 80Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of chronic prostatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of urethral strictureXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of pelvic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to complete quality of life questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent, persistent, and/or metastatic cervical cancer, for which there is not a curative intent option (surgery or radiation therapy with or without chemotherapy). Acceptable histologies are squamous carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and adenosquamous carcinoma. Sarcomas and neuro-endocrine carcinomas are not eligible histologies.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within the Protocol-defined rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires ongoing hydroxyurea (hydroxyurea permitted up to first dose)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCertain scores on an anxiety and depression mood questionnaire given at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted and recovered from all planned induction and consolidation therapy according to the institution's standard of care, and achieved a complete remission (CR)/CR with incomplete platelet recovery (CRp); either first or second CR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas factors conferring high risk of relapse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly lucid patients qualified to consent to neurosurgical procedure will be approached for participation in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have clinically indicated intraoperative sensorimotor, or language mapping, will also have simultaneous (or tandem) i2DOS for functional brain mapping; 10 patients from each cortical mapping area will be imaged; optical maps will be compared to electrophysiological mapsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse with caution:\r\n* CYP2C19 non-sensitive substrates with a narrow therapeutic window and weak inhibitors are permitted if no acceptable alternatives are available as determined by the treating physician; however, caution should be used; consider monitoring with labs or drug levels and dose adjustments of the medication if feasible; other non-sensitive substrates are allowed on study\r\n* CYP3A4/5 sensitive substrates and any non-sensitive substrates with a narrow therapeutic window and weak inhibitors are permitted if no acceptable alternatives are available as determined by the treating physician; however, caution should be used; consider monitoring with labs or drug levels and dose adjustments of the medication if feasible; other non-sensitive substrates are allowed on study\r\n* CYP2D6 inducers, moderate/strong inhibitors or sensitive substrates are permitted if no acceptable alternatives are available; however, caution should be used; other non-sensitive substrates or weak inhibitors of CYP2D6 are allowed on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have active acute bronchiolitis obliterans or bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumoniaXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Does not meet 21 CFR 1271 eligibility requirements, but has a declaration of urgent medical need completed by the principal investigator or physician sub-investigator per 21 CFR 1271Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe medical or psychiatric diseases are INELIGIBLE (patients with stable chronic diseases such as high cholesterol or hypertension ARE eligible); examples of problems that would make patients INELIGIBLE include severe heart failure, or hypoxia due to severe lung diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol abuse problems make patients INELIGIBLE; patients need to be consuming less than or equal to 14 units of alcohol weeklyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history or evidence of lactic acidosis or metabolic acidosis will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma must be documented to contain a v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) V600 mutation by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) approved assayXx_NEWLINE_xXUp to 12 patients with incurable Squamous cell cancers as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA minimum of 4 Squamous Cell Carcinomas of the Head and Neck (Sq-HNC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUp to 6 patients with recurrent/relapsed glioblastoma multiforme (GBM/AnaA) or with grade 3 anaplastic astrocytomas that with a history of progression or recurrence following radiotherapy and an alkylating agent (e.g. temozolomide) Patients with other disease types may be enrolled into the expansion phase upon approval of the Sponsor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExcept for patients with GBM/ AnaA in the Expansion Phase, patients with active CNS malignancy are excluded. Asymptomatic small lesions are not considered active. Treated lesions may be considered inactive if they are stable for at least 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMacular degeneration, uncontrolled glaucoma, or markedly decreased visual acuity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for partial nephrectomy at Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) (open or minimally invasive technique) during which renal ischemia is anticipatedXx_NEWLINE_xXPreoperative eGFR >= 45 cc/min/1.73 m^2 as measured by the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) study equationXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere renal impairment (stage 3B) defined as eGFR < 45 cc/min/1.73 m^2 as measured by the CKD-EPI calculationXx_NEWLINE_xXPart II: Patients with one of the following documented conditions: CML in CP that is Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)-positive (by cytogenetics) or BCR-ABL1-positive by fluorescent in situ hybridization [FISH], or PCR), as well as resistant to at least 2 FDA-approved tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs); or a myeloproliferative neoplasia which includes: PMF and myelofibrosis secondary to polycythemia vera (PV) and essential thrombocythemia (ET) myelofibrosis (MF) (with intermediate-1, intermediate-2 or high risk disease according to the International Working Group [IWG] prognostic scoring system) (i.e., Non-Acute Group patients).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart III:Xx_NEWLINE_xXArm B: Patients with CML in AP or BP, either newly diagnosed or failing TKI therapy (i.e., Acute Group patients);Xx_NEWLINE_xXArm C: Patients with CML in CP after failure of 2 FDA-approved TKIs (i.e., Non-Acute group patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have demonstrated intolerance to dasatinib 100 mg daily will not be eligible for Part III/Arm B or C of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic breast cancer patients must have received a minimum of 1 and a maximum of 3 prior anti HER2 based regimens with documented progression on the most recent regimen which must contain trastuzumab, ado-trastuzumab emtansine or lapatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXMetastatic gastric cancer patients must have received a minimum of 1 and a maximum of 2 prior anti HER2 based regimens with documented progression on the most recent regimen which must contain trastuzumab or ado-trastuzumab emtansineXx_NEWLINE_xXCancer patients greater than 18 years of age who have completed all assessments required to meet the primary objectives of a parental phase 1, 2 or 3 clinical study of iniparib as monotherapy or in a combination regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received and are continuing to derive clinical benefit from iniparib, as monotherapy or in combination with chemotherapy, as determined by the treating physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants (who have been adequately clinically staged by standard clinical guidelines) with primary, untreated, histologically-confirmed, documented invasive squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, or adenosquamous carcinoma of the uterine cervix, International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stages IB2, IIA, IIB, IIIA, IIIB, and IVA; (stage IIA tumors must be greater than 4 cm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic melanoma that expresses the V to E v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B (BRAF) mutation and V to K BRAF mutation assessed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (WNL) (patients may be on thyroid hormone replacement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXSCLC pathologically confirmed at MSKCCXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated extensive stage (ES)-SCLC, defined as those patients with extrathoracic metastatic disease, malignant pleural effusion, bilateral or contralateral supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, or contralateral hilar adenopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with systemic LDE225 or with other Hh pathway inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders (e.g. inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are planning on embarking on a new strenuous exercise regimen that can result in significant increases in plasma creatine kinase (CK) levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXMetformin use in the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of metabolic acidosis, including ketoacidosis or increased risk of lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of renal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary hemorrhage or gross hemoptysis within 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXThis includes but is not limited to cetuximab, panitumumab, erlotinib, geftinib, and lapatinibXx_NEWLINE_xXFor immunoglobulin (Ig) A patients whose disease can only be reliably measured by serum quantitative immunoglobulin (qIgA) ? 750 mg/dL (0.75 g/dL).Xx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known amyloidosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients randomized or previously randomized in any other Onyx-Sponsored Phase 3 trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known cirrhosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindication to dexamethasone.Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing graft-vs-host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccording to current guidelines, patients must be able to take oral medication and to maintain a fast as required for 2 hours before and 1 hour after MLN8237 administration; these guidelines may change pending results from an ongoing food effects studyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygen; or any conditions that could result in excessive toxicity associated with the benzodiazepine-like effects of MLN8237Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of proton pump inhibitor, histamine (H2) antagonist, or pancreatic enzymes; intermittent uses of antacids or H2 antagonists are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere concurrent disease;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCD22 expressionXx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers For Combination Arm only:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of venous or arterial thromboembolism within 12 months prior to enrollment/randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently or previously treated with AMG 386, or other molecules that primarily inhibit the angiopoietins or TEK tyrosine kinase, endothelial (Tie2) receptorXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment within 30 days prior to enrollment with the following: cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, methotrexate, azathioprine, rapamycin, and targeted immune modulators such as abatacept (CTLA-4-Ig), adalimumab, alefacept, anakinra, belatacept (LEA29Y), efalizumab, etanercept, infliximab, or rituximabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to bacterially-produced proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or refractory AML with poor prognostic featuresXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria for group A and B:\n\n          -  Weight loss < 10% in the last three months.\n\n          -  WHO-performance status ? 2\n\n          -  Medical inoperable patients or patients refusing surgery.\n\n          -  Chemotherapy is allowed in neoadjuvant and adjuvant setting, with exclusion of the\n             period 4 weeks pre-SBRT and 6 weeks post-SBRT.\n\n          -  Before patient registration, written informed consent must be given according to\n             ICH/GCP, national and local regulations.\n\n        Risk group A specification:\n\n          -  NSCLC (Cytological or histological proven) patients with peripheral tumors >5 cm with\n             tumor staging cT2bN0M0 or cT3N0M0 (chest wall infiltration is no exclusion criteria,\n             as long as the tumor diameter is > 5 cm).\n\n          -  Single peripheral lung metastasis in inoperable patients with a diameter of > 5 cm. In\n             case of first presentation of metastatic disease, cytological or histological proof is\n             obligated.\n\n          -  In patients without cytological or histological confirmation of NSCLC, a growing\n             FDG-PET positive lesion (SUV >5) is accepted if a contra-indication for invasive\n             diagnostic examination (or refusal) is present.\n\n        Risk group B specification:\n\n          -  Patients with ? 2 simultaneous peripheral lung metastases ? 5 cm of any origin at any\n             location in the lung.\n\n          -  In case of first presentation of metastatic disease, cytological or histological proof\n             is obligated. This is not necessary in case of a history of an already proven\n             disseminated disease.\n\n          -  Patients having ? 2 peripheral lung metastases without unacceptable dose overlap.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Patients with central tumors\n\n          -  Pancoast tumors\n\n          -  Prior radiotherapy treatment to the thorax\n\n          -  Patients receiving any systemic treatment during SBRT\n\n          -  Pregnant patients\n\n          -  Patients previously treated with adriamycin agents in case of heart involvement within\n             the treatment field.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnaplastic histology will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXRecovered or stabilized from prior treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor the MTD expansion cohort, patients will be eligible if they meet one of the following criteria:\r\n* Have an EGFR-sensitive mutation (as G719C in exon 18, E746-A750 in exon 90, L858R in exon 21) and have been previously treated with EGFR inhibitor therapy but have subsequently developed resistance, OR\r\n* Have an EGFR-resistant mutation (as T790M in exon 20), OR\r\n* Do not have an EGFR mutation, but have benefited from EGFR inhibitor therapy (including either >= 4 months of stable disease [SD] OR a >= partial response [PR])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with colorectal carcinoma with tumors that demonstrate a Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXChest X-ray within 1 month of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant’s NSCLC must be considered medically inoperable for a standard lobectomy and mediastinal lymph node dissection/sampling procedure; the participant may have underlying physiological medical problems that would prohibit a surgery due to a low probability of tolerating general anesthesia, the operation, the postoperative recovery period, or the removal of adjacent functioning lung; these types of patients with severe underlying health problems are generally deemed “medically inoperable;\ standard justification for deeming a patient medically inoperable based on pulmonary function for surgical resection of NSCLC may include baseline forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) < 40% predicted, postoperative FEV1 < 30% predicted, severely reduced diffusion capacity, baseline hypoxemia and/or hypercapnia, severe pulmonary hypertension, severe cerebral, cardiac, or peripheral vascular disease; if the participant has medically operable disease but declines surgery after consulting with a thoracic surgeon, he/she will be considered eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo histological or cytological diagnosis of NSCLC; this includes failure to make an intraoperative diagnosis of malignancy at the time of ENBXx_NEWLINE_xXThe primary tumor of any T-stage\r\n* Is within or touching the zone of the “proximal bronchial tree” defined as a volume 2 cm in all directions around the proximal bronchial tree (carina, right and left main bronchi, right and left upper lobe bronchi, intermedius bronchus, right middle lobe bronchus, lingular bronchus, right and left lower lobe bronchi), or\r\n* Within 1 cm of the mediastinal pleura but outside the proximal bronchial treeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are pacemaker or defibrillator-dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXActive disease and indication for treatment based on the IWCLL updated NCI-WG guidelines, defined by presence of at least any one of the following conditions: Evidence of progressive marrow failure as manifested by development or worsening of anaemia and/or thrombocytopenia; Massive (i.e. at least 6 cm below the left costal margin) or progressive or symptomatic splenomegaly; Massive nodes (i.e. at least 10 cm in longest diameter) or progressive or symptomatic lymphadenopathy; Progressive lymphocytosis with an increase of more than 50% over a two-month period or a lymphocyte doubling time of less than 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have adequate physiologic reserve as evidenced by:Xx_NEWLINE_xXZubrod Performance Status (PS) of </= 2; or 3 if of recent onset (i.e. < 2 weeks) and if the compromised performance status is related to uncontrolled pain which is expected to come under control by means of improved pain management.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny prior exposure to gene vector delivery productsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of CVA or TIA in previous six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable angina defined as angina (or anginal equivalent) 2 or more times per week despite medical therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiastolic dysfunction felt to contribute to any clinical sign or symptom.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for anticoagulant therapy other than low intensity treatment to maintain patency of central venous catheters.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas (DIPGs), defined as tumors with a pontine epicenter and diffuse intrinsic involvement of the pons, are eligible without histologic confirmation; patients with brainstem tumors that do not meet these criteria or not considered to be typical intrinsic pontine gliomas will only be eligible if the tumors are biopsied and proven to be an anaplastic astrocytoma, glioblastoma multiforme, gliosarcoma, anaplastic mixed glioma, or fibrillary astrocytoma\r\n* Patients with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, pilomyxoid astrocytoma, fibrillary astrocytoma, gangliogliomas, or other mixed gliomas without anaplasia are not eligible;\r\n* Patients with disseminated disease are not eligible, and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of spine must be performed if disseminated disease is suspected by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient currently requiring supplemental oxygen for his/her daily lifeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is pacemaker dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily smoker for ?6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent substance dependence, other than nicotineXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of medications with smoking cessation efficacyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and for at least one hour after the dose of abiraterone acetate is takenXx_NEWLINE_xXMaintenance of Lupron or antagonist unless previously treated with orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection or other medical condition that would make prednisone/prednisolone (corticosteroid) use contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pre-existing condition that warrants long-term corticosteroid use in excess of study doseXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of significant active infection (e.g., pneumonia, cellulitis, wound abscess, etc.) at time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with electronic pacemakers or defibrillators are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCytological or histological confirmed diagnosis of advanced hepatocellular or renal cell carcinoma; HCC patients should not be amenable to treatment with surgery or to orthotopic liver transplant (Phase I)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFibrolamellar histology HCC, mixed hepatocholangiocarcinoma, hepatic sarcomas and other non-HCC primary liver tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of lobectomy involving > 50% of lobeXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior chemoembolization, radioembolization, radiofrequency ablation (RFA) or other local ablative therapies are permissible if >= 6 weeks from procedure with evidence of progression or new metastatic disease, if applicableXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent diagnosis of primary cutaneous ALCL (those with systemic ALCL are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active cerebral/meningeal disease, including signs or symptoms of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) or any history of PMLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing Torsades de Pointes including: quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide, amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide, erythromycins, clarithromycin, chlorpromazine, haloperidol, mesoridazine, thioridazine, pimozide, cisapride, bepridil, droperidol, methadone, arsenic, chloroquine, domperidone, halofantrine, levomethadyl, pentamidine, sparfloxacin, lidoflazineXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of venous access devices made of materials other than silicone for the infusion of ganetespib; patients with these devices are eligible as long as the device is not used for the infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXIf GBM, previously treated for GBM with surgery and/or radiation, if appropriate, and must have failed both bevacizumab (Avastin) and temozolomide (Temodar), unless either or both are contraindicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have known MGMT methylation and IDH1 mutation status to be screened for study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent history of neoplasm other than the entry diagnosis. Patients with previous cancers treated and cured with local therapy alone may be considered with approval of the Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has any of the following baseline mood disorders (not attributable to GBM) as judged by the Investigator or a Psychiatrist, or meets the cut-off score of ? 12 in the PHQ- 9 or a cut-off of ? 15 in the GAD-7 mood scale for reasons not attributable to GBM; or selects a positive response of '1, 2, 3' to question number 9 regarding potential for suicidal thoughts or ideation in the PHQ-9 (independent of the total score of the PHQ-9)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 2 or worse hypercholesterolemia or hypertriglyceridemia or >8% glycated Hb (HbA1C)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary refractory patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary mediastinal DLBCLXx_NEWLINE_xXTarget PopulationXx_NEWLINE_xXAge and Reproductive StatusXx_NEWLINE_xXTarget Disease ExceptionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with hepatocellular carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any hepatitis (e.g., alcohol or non-alcohol steatohepatitis (NASH), drug-related, auto-immune)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical and Laboratory Test FindingsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies and Adverse Drug ReactionXx_NEWLINE_xXProhibited Treatments and/or TherapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria (must all be answered \Yes\):\n\n          -  Has the patient given written informed consent?\n\n          -  Is the patient between 18 years old and 80 years old inclusive?\n\n          -  Has the patient had histologically proven HGG with recurrence or progression following\n             initial definitive therapy(s) such as surgery with or without adjuvant radiation\n             therapy and/or chemotherapy (confirmed by diagnostic biopsy or contrast-enhanced MRI\n             and evaluable by Macdonald criteria)? Note if first recurrence of GBM is documented by\n             MRI, an interval of at least 12 weeks after the end of prior radiation therapy is\n             required unless there is either: i) histopathologic confirmation of recurrent tumor,\n             or ii) new enhancement on MRI outside of the radiotherapy treatment field.\n\n          -  Does the patient have a single, HGG tumor recurrence/progression that is ? 5 cm in its\n             greatest dimension?\n\n          -  Based on the pre-operative evaluation, is the tumor recurrence/progression a candidate\n             for ? 80% resection?\n\n          -  Has the patient elected not to undergo treatment with the Gliadel® wafer?\n\n          -  Does the patient have a Karnofsky performance status ? 70?\n\n          -  Does the patient have an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ? 1500/mm3?\n\n          -  Does the patient have an absolute lymphocyte count ? 500/mm3?\n\n          -  Does the patient have a platelet count ? 100,000/mm3?\n\n          -  Does the patient have a Hgb ? 10 g/dL?\n\n          -  Does the patient have a normal PT/PTT? (subnormal PT/PTT acceptable)\n\n          -  Does the patient have an estimated glomerular filtration rate of at least 50 mL/min\n             (inclusive) by the Cockcroft-Gault formula?\n\n          -  Does the patient have an ALT < 3 times the upper limit of the laboratory reference\n             range and total bilirubin < 1.5 mg/dL?\n\n          -  If the patient is a female of childbearing potential, has she had a negative serum\n             pregnancy test within the past 21 days?\n\n          -  Is the patient willing to use condoms for contraception for 6 months after receiving\n             Toca 511 or until there is no evidence of the virus in his/her blood, whichever is\n             longer. If the patient is a fertile female, is she willing to use contraception for at\n             least 12 months?\n\n          -  Is the patient willing and able to abide by the protocol?\n\n        Exclusion Criteria (must all be answered \No\):\n\n          -  Has the patient received cytotoxic chemotherapy within the past 3 weeks (6 weeks for\n             nitrosoureas) of the planned surgery date?\n\n          -  Does the patient have, or has the subject had, within the past 4 weeks any infection\n             requiring antibiotic, antifungal or antiviral therapy?\n\n          -  Has the patient had a surgical procedure in the last 28 days or a surgical wound that\n             is not healed?\n\n          -  Does the patient have any bleeding diathesis, or must the subject take any\n             anticoagulants, or antiplatelet agents, including NSAIDs that cannot be stopped for\n             surgery?\n\n          -  Does the patient have a history of allergy or intolerance to flucytosine?\n\n          -  Is the patient HIV positive?\n\n          -  Does the patient have any gastrointestinal disease that would prevent him or her from\n             being able to ingest or absorb flucytosine?\n\n          -  Has the patient received any investigational treatment within the past 30 days?\n\n          -  Is the patient breast feeding?\n\n          -  Has the patient received Avastin® (bevacizumab) for this recurrence/progression, or\n             within the past 5 weeks?\n\n          -  Does the patient have a history of prior malignancy, excluding basal or squamous cell\n             carcinoma of the skin, with an expected survival of less than five years?Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed classical or lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's lymphoma that is relapsed or refractory after at least one prior chemotherapy\r\n* Core-needle biopsies are acceptable if they contain adequate tissue for primary diagnosis and immunophenotyping\r\n* Bone marrow biopsies as the sole means of diagnosis are not acceptable, but they may be used in conjunction with nodal biopsies\r\n* Fine-needle aspirates are not acceptable\r\n* If the original diagnostic specimen is not available, specimens obtained at relapse may be utilizedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXMet diagnostic-positive status tested by immunohistochemistry (IHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 30 days of exposure to an investigational or marketed agent that can act by EGFR inhibition, or a known EGFR-related toxicity resulting in dose modifications (EGFR inhibitors including but not limited to gefitinib, erlotinib and cetuximab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny inflammatory changes of the surface of the eyeXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects have had their PIK3CA gene mutation status assessed prior to enrolling into the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUnacceptable ocular/retinal conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised statusXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients on corticosteroids, they must have been on a fixed dose for 1 week prior to entry if clinically recommendedXx_NEWLINE_xXMay have up to three biological therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-medication that may interfere with study results; e.g. immuno-suppressive agents other than corticosteroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXEnzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAEDs) of the CYP-450 such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbitalXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires therapeutic anti-coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for primary chemoradiation as decided by both medical and radiation oncologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHypertensive medication should be initiated or increased for optimal blood pressure control according to standard public health guidelines prior to starting the ketogenic dietXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperuricemia, history of gout, high uric acid, and/or kidney diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHypertensive medication should be initiated or increased for optimal blood pressure control according to standard public health guidelines prior to starting the ketogenic dietXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperuricemia, history of gout, high uric acid, and/or kidney diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently have or have history of certain study-specified heart, liver, kidney, lung, neurological, immune or other medical conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse more than 3 g/d of acetaminophenXx_NEWLINE_xXProsthetic joint or other artificial implant or device that cannot be easily removed (there are some exceptions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact with another individual known to be at high risk of listeriosis (e.g., newborn infant, pregnant woman, HIV-positive individual) during the course of CRS-207 treatment until completion of antibiotic regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions, including alcohol or drug dependence, intercurrent illness, or lack of sufficient peripheral venous access, that would affect the patient's ability to comply with study visits and proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with recent history of thyroiditisXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic skin disorders that will interfere with subcutaneous injection of the vaccine or subsequent assessment of potential skin reactionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to any component of the vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a medical or psychological impediment to probable compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXDonor must be HIV-1&2 antibody and HTLV-1&2 antibody sero-negative by FDA licensed test.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient must have available the successful collection of a POL62326 mobilized product.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient must have one of the following diagnoses:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient must be HIV-1&2 antibody and HTLV-1&2 antibody sero-negative by FDA licensed test.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient must demonstrate ability to be compliant with medical regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient must not have had (the following therapies within the following timeframe):Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipient must have no evidence of active infection at the time of the transplant preparative regimen or at time of transplantation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of anti-inflammatory agents, with the exception of a baby aspirin regimen per principal investigator's (PI's) discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent active dental problems including infection of the teeth or jawbone (maxilla or mandibular); dental or fixture trauma, or a current or prior diagnosis of osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ), of exposed bone in the mouth, or of slow healing after dental proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has completed a prior study utilizing ABT-806 or 111ln ABT-806 (ABT 806i) and the Investigator believes that continued treatment with ABT-806 is in the best interest of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject discontinued ABT-806 or111ln ABT-806 (ABT-806i) administration before completing the prior study (due to disease progression, toxicity, withdrawn consent, other).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon or minimally daily activities-interfering disease related symptoms.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate bone marrow, renal, hepatic, and metabolic function (tests within normal limits or only minimally altered as assessed ? 7 days before inclusion in the study)Recovery to asymptomatic or minimally altered or to baseline from any adverse event (AE) derived from previous treatment (mild alteration for alopecia, skin toxicity or fatigue are allowed).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of extensive prior pelvic irradiation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing neuropathy or severe fluid retentionXx_NEWLINE_xXHas multicentric Castleman's diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with FLT3 ITD positive AML or AML patients with other cytogenetic abnormalities who are eligible for trials of other targeted investigational agents from which the investigator feels there is greater benefit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecursive partitioning analysis (RPA) class I (Karnofsky performance status [KPS] >= 70%, primary cancer controlled, age < 65, metastases in brain only) or class IIXx_NEWLINE_xXMini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) >= 18 prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXRPA class III (KPS < 70%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo metastases to brain stem, midbrain, pons, or medulla or within 7 mm of the optic apparatus (optic nerves and chiasm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas at least one or more intraoperative visible air leak >= 2 mm following the lung resection surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHad previous open thoracotomy proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to participate in all necessary study activities due to physical or mental limitationsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of symptomatic MM, either newly diagnosed or relapsed/refractoryXx_NEWLINE_xXMonoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS), Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, or smoldering myelomaXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take concurrent aspirin 325 mg dailyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have received tivozanib while enrolled in another protocol, must be tolerating study drug and must currently display clinical benefit. The length of time that a subject must be on the parent protocol before rolling over to this protocol will be dictated by the parent protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnhealed wounds (including active peptic ulcers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening illness or organ system dysfunction compromising safety evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for supplemental oxygen to carry out activities of daily livingXx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance status (PS) 0-1 (a measure of the ability to carry out activities of daily living); subjects with PS 2 are eligible if due to disease related symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXElevated triglyceridesXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking medications known to increase risk of Torsades De Pointes (an abnormal heart rhythm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMixed, non-small cell and small cell tumors or mixed adenosquamous carcinomas with a predominant squamous componentXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive for Flt3-ITD activating mutations during Screening. Local laboratory results must be received prior to enrollment. Patients with a history of Flt3-ITD positive disease may be considered after discussion with the Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave FSH levels indicative of postmenopausal state (i.e., 30-120 IU/L) documented within 21 days of C1D1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are eligible for HSCT but with non-optimal AML disease control (i.e., blasts > 5%) may be enrolled into this study as a bridge-to-transplant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed disease following a prior HSCT may be enrolled into this study as an alternative to a second HSCT or as a bridge-to-transplant regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor Cohort Expansion Phase (Part 2) only: Patients who are positive for the D835 mutation at Screening are excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of D835 mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation for inclusion criteria histologically proven, unresectable, locally advanced or metastatic liposarcoma (dedifferentiated, myxoid round cell, or pleomorphic) or leiomyosarcoma. Participants must have a pathology report indicating the diagnosis of liposarcoma or leiomyosarcoma that has been reviewed by the sponsor before randomization may occur and treated in any order with at least: an anthracycline and ifosfamide containing regimen, or an anthracycline containing regimen and 1 additional cytotoxic chemotherapy regimen do not need to be reviewed by the SponsorXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible diagnoses:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed, refractory, or progressive Hodgkin’s lymphoma meeting one of the following criteria, and autologous BMT is not recommend:\r\n* PR or better prior to transplantation\r\n* Stable disease prior to transplantation, provided that the disease is low-volume and disease control is regarded as sufficient to proceed with BMT; eligibility of such patients will be determined on a case-by-case basis with the principal investigator (PI) or co-PIXx_NEWLINE_xXMDS with at least one of the following poor-risk features:\r\n* Poor-risk cytogenetics\r\n* International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score of intermediate-2 (INT-2) or greater\r\n* Treatment-related or secondary MDS\r\n* MDS diagnosed before age 21 years\r\n* Progression on or lack of response to standard deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-methyltransferase inhibitor therapy\r\n* Life-threatening cytopenias, including those requiring frequent transfusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome negative myeloproliferative disease (including myelofibrosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny previous BMT must have occurred at least 3 months prior to start of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXNo previous allogeneic BMT (syngeneic BMT permissible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf unable to perform pulmonary function tests due to young age, oxygen saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are 13 years old or older and have more than 45 kg of body weight will be eligible after consultation with their pediatric attendingXx_NEWLINE_xXSpecific to the cohorts as designed to enroll patients with tumor protein p53 (TP53) mutations: TP53 mutations are identified by next-generation sequencing in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to the study drugs, their analogs or any component of the productsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of antiarrhythmics or contraindicated medications (including, but not limited to, cisapride, mesoridazine, pimozide, posaconazole, sparfloxacin, thioridazine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs indicated with standard melphalan prednisone (MP) treatment and is not a candidate for high-dose therapy plus stem cell transplantation (HDT-SCT) for 1 of the following reasons: the participant is 65 years of age or older OR the participant is less than 65 years of age but has significant comorbid condition(s) that are likely to have a negative impact on tolerability of HDT-SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to take everolimus orally, once daily at the same time every day either consistently with food or consistently without foodXx_NEWLINE_xXMesenchymal, dedifferentiated, and extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma subtypes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vessels that increase the risk of pulmonary hemorrhage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdipocytic sarcoma, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDedifferentiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXMyxoidXx_NEWLINE_xXRound CellXx_NEWLINE_xXPleomorphic - LeiomyosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXVasectomized partner with confirmed azoospermia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects that have previously been treated with dacarbazine or its analogue temozolomide or eribulin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious and potentially life-threatening arrhythmia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria include:\n\n          -  Male and female patients, 7 to 16 years of age, inclusive, with malignant and/or\n             nonmalignant moderate to severe pain requiring or anticipated to require continuous,\n             around-the-clock, opioid treatment for at least 2 weeks (based on the investigator's\n             judgment);\n\n          -  Patients must have written informed consent provided by the parent or legal guardian\n             and assent provided by the patient, when appropriate;\n\n          -  Patients on incoming opioids must be taking ? 80 mg/day morphine or equivalent if aged\n             12 to 16 years or ? 40 mg/day morphine or equivalent if aged 7 to 11 years prior to\n             the screening visit;\n\n          -  Patients and patient's parent/caregiver must be compliant with the protocol, ie, must\n             be able to perform study assessments and understand and complete the age-appropriate\n             scale to rate pain intensity. Patients must not have a cognitive developmental delay\n             or any other condition that would preclude them from completing the age-appropriate\n             pain scale.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria include:\n\n          -  Patients who are allergic to buprenorphine or have a history of allergies to other\n             opioids (this criterion does not include patients who have experienced common opioid\n             side effects [eg, nausea, constipation]) or who have allergies or other\n             contraindications to transdermal delivery systems or patch adhesives;\n\n          -  Patients with a dermatological disorder, including burn and skin graft sites, at any\n             relevant patch application site that would preclude proper placement and/or rotation\n             of BTDS patches;\n\n          -  Patients with evidence of impaired renal function;\n\n          -  Patients with hepatic impairment;\n\n          -  Patients with history of seizures;\n\n          -  Patients with intracranial pressure;\n\n          -  Patients who have a history of sleep apnea within the past year;\n\n          -  Patients who require mechanical ventilation during study treatment period, are\n             cyanotic, or who have unstable respiratory disease;\n\n          -  Patients with clinically significant structural heart disease or a pacemaker;\n\n          -  Patients with clinically unstable cardiac disease;\n\n          -  Patients who receive or anticipate to receive investigational medication/therapy\n             during study drug treatment period.\n\n        Other protocol-specific inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo known contraindications to intended therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior anthracycline exposure: patients must have had less than 350 mg/m^2 lifetime exposure of anthracycline chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active infection defined as:\r\n* Positive blood culture within 48 hours of study registration\r\n* Need for supplemental oxygen or vasopressors within 48 hours of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to doxorubicin, metformin, or vincristineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a need to continue hydroxyurea while on study\r\n* Please note: patients may continue on hydroxyurea only until the first dose of metformin is to be givenXx_NEWLINE_xXRefractory is defined as experiencing less than minimal response (MR) to or progressive disease (PD) within 60 days after completion of the most recent anti-MM regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of significant cardiovascular, neurological, endocrine, gastrointestinal, respiratory, or inflammatory illness including recent myocardial infarction (within 6 months)or stroke; hypertension requiring >2 medications for adequate control; diabetes mellitus with >2 episodes of ketoacidosis in the preceding 12 months; or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requiring >2 hospitalizations in the preceding 12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of allergic reaction attributable to bortezomib or other compounds containing boron or mannitol (Phase 1b and 2a only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with underlying heart conditions who are deemed ineligible for surgery by cardiology consultXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cerebral/meningeal disease, including history of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously treated relapsed or refractory B-cell iNHLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathological confirmation of carcinoma in the setting of clinical and radiological characteristics which, together with the pathology, are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cirrhosis must have had esophagogastric endoscopy within the previous 6 months prior to study entry for the assessment of varices; if the patient has not had this done they must be willing to undergo this procedure prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of bleeding varices in previous 1 year are excluded (unless patient has subsequently had a liver transplant); those with gastric varices or varices that are deemed as high risk by the endoscopist should be placed on appropriate medical therapy as advised by the gastroenterologistXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of peptic ulcer disease or hemorrhagic gastritis within 6 months of TRC105 administration, unless patient has received adequate treatment for peptic ulcer disease or hemorrhagic gastritis and has evidence of complete resolution documented by esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD); mild gastritis is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) =< 8%Xx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORT B ONLY: documented genetic alteration (mutation or homozygous deletion) in the PTEN gene, identified by the MSKCC Integrated Mutation Profiling of Actionable Cancer Targets (IMPACT) assay platform or other Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-approved testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multifocal peripheral sensory alterations or paresthesias (including tingling) interfering with function, per patient report (example: activities of daily living)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCytomegalovirus (CMV) viremia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCT imaging in screening (based on local evaluation) showing 2 or more clearly demarcated lesions with a largest diameter > 1.5 cm, or 1 clearly demarcated lesion with a largest diameter > 2.0 cm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust not be on any prohibited medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious radioimmunotherapy (RIT) within 6 months of study entry. Subjects who have received RIT must have attained a PR or CR lasting at least 6 months, and must have recovered from any hematologic or other toxicity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXElevated triglyceridesXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking medications known to increase risk of Torsades De PointesXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal Cell Carcinoma (RCC): --Histologic diagnosis of either clear-cell or papillary RCC (metastatic and unresectable, or bilateral, multifocal, unresectable RCC localized to kidneys).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC) --Histologic or cytologic diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPart A: Have the presence of measurable or nonmeasurable disease as defined by the RECIST v1.1 (Eisenhauer et al. 2009) or Revised Response Criteria for Malignant Lymphoma (Cheson et al. 2007) or have measureable disease for multiple myeloma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active alcohol abuse, as determined by the treating investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart B Expansion Cohort 1 (CRPC):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart B- Diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the colon or rectum, head and neck squamous cell carcinoma, uveal melanoma with liver with metastasis, or cholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXIn patients with diseases other than NSCLC, ALK translocation is not required and overexpression of ALK protein may be considered indicative of a genetic abnormality in ALK.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy (or recombinant antibody-related fusion proteins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny drug that results in hepatic enzyme induction such as anti-convulsants (phenytoin, valproic acid, carbamazepine, phenobarbital); Keppra (levetiracetam) is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of St. John’s Wort or rifampin (rifampicin) within the last 8 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent steroids are allowed if dexamethasone dose is =< 16mg daily; if feasible, steroids should be weaned off once sorafenib has been initiatedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be CMV seropositive prior to transplant by CMV immune screen or CMV immunoglobulin G (IgG) or develop detectable disease by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) in the post-transplant settingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who had histopathologically confirmed overall grade 4 GVHD lasting longer than 7 days, from the non-myeloablative therapy, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Adult donors must be CMV seropositive prior to transplant by CMV immune screen or CMV IgG positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous exposure to trabectedinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma, or who have a history of biliary sepsis within the past 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXIn hepatic dysfunction group, patients with hepatic dysfunction who have Gilbert's syndrome. Patients signs of encephalopathy (altered brain function).Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive hemoptysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic diagnosis of malignant pleural mesothelioma (MPM) confirmed at participating institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received mapatumumab or sorafenib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic steroids within 1 week before enrollment except steroids used as part of an antiemetic regimen or maintenance-dose steroids for non-cancerous disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic encephalopathy, per the investigator's evaluation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of clinically significant gastrointestinal bleeding requiring procedural intervention (e.g., variceal banding, transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt procedure, arterial embolization, topical coagulation therapy) within 4 weeks before enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic severe renal insufficiency (glomoerular filtration rate <30 milliliters [mL]/minute/1.73 square meters) or acute renal insufficiency of any severity due to the hepato-renal syndrome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatitis B virus deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) levels >2,000 international units/mL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic cholelithiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of, or current alcohol misuse/abuse within the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown gallbladder or bile duct disease, acute or chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document; as the correlative studies are critical to the clinical and scientific value of the trial, CD4 count/HIV viral load determinations will be required, and participation in the tumor-based correlative studies will be strongly recommended; additionally, investigators MUST request sample donation to the AIDS Cancer Specimen Resource (ACSR); however, the patient may refuse sample donation; patients accrued to the expansion phase of the study will be required to undergo pharmacokinetic samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXDue to availability of effective first- and second-line therapies (as well as disease-specific clinical trials), patients with diagnosis of active Kaposi sarcoma will be excluded from study participation; however, persons with other active malignancy with prior history of Kaposi sarcoma can be considered for participation at the discretion of the Study ChairXx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects assigned to take vorinostat, inability to take oral medications; vorinostat capsules must be administered whole; note: this criterion does NOT apply to subjects treated on the Expansion Cohort (accruals post February 1, 2013)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor subjects assigned to take vorinostat, prior exposure to vorinostat or other known histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitors for cancer therapy; patients should not have taken valproic acid, another histone deacetylase inhibitor, for at least 2 weeks prior to study enrollment; note: this criterion does NOT apply to subjects treated on the Expansion Cohort (accruals post February 1, 2013)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSince zidovudine and stavudine have potential for severe hematological toxicity potentially overlapping with toxicities of the study therapy, treatment with these agents will be disallowedXx_NEWLINE_xXUsing adequate contraceptive measures, be surgically sterile or post-menopausalXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrently enrolled in another clinical study, except for non-interventiona observational studies, or if in a follow up period from a previous studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary hemorrhage or gross hemoptysis within 6 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenstrom macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of a hypersensitivity reaction to PLD, doxorubicin, bortezomib, carfilzomib, or liposomal drug formulations other than PLDXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of reactions to liposomal drug formulations other than PLD should be evaluated individually and if their reactions were felt to have been due to the encapsulated agent, rather than the liposomal component itself they should be excluded at the discretion of the investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II : Diagnosis of recurrent, metastatic or primary unresectable ATC, including ATC as part of a thyroid carcinoma of another histologic subtypeXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of left bundle branch block (LBBB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent medication that may cause QTc prolongation or induce Torsades de PointesXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch blockXx_NEWLINE_xXObligate use of a cardiac pacemaker or implantable cardioverter defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block and left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute MI ? 3 months prior to dosing with study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known sensitivity to capecitabine, any of its components, or other drugs formulated with polysorbate 80Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known sensitivity to 5-FUXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known sensitivity to agents of similar biologic composition as ramucirumab DP or IMC-18F1, or other agents that specifically target VEGFXx_NEWLINE_xXHas an acute/subacute bowel obstruction or history of chronic diarrhea requiring ongoing medical interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have mixed tumors with small-cell elements are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has superior vena cava syndrome contraindicating hydration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant is unwilling or unable to take premedications (folic acid, vitamin B12, or corticosteroids) required by the pemetrexed label.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of fever [oral temperature of 38°C or equivalent] at Baseline. However, this requirement is waived if the subject has a history of fever within in the 24 hours prior to Baseline; or, if the subject reported symptoms of feverishness at some time during the 48 hours prior to Baseline. AND at least 2 out of the following 4:Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation <95% on room air by trans-cutaneous method or need for any supplemental oxygenation or ventilatory support, or increase in oxygen supplementation requirement of ?2 litres for subjects with chronic oxygen dependency. For those subjects with a history of chronic hypoxia (without supplemental oxygen), an oxygen saturation of at least 3% below the patient's historical baseline oxygen saturation will satisfy this criterion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRespiration rate >24 breaths per minute. For those subjects who require ventilatory support or oxygen supplementation, this requirement is waived.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate >100 beats per minute.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnset of influenza symptoms within 6 days prior to study enrolment. Symptoms may include cough, dyspnea, sore throat, feverishness, myalgias, headache, nasal symptoms (rhinorrhea, congestion), fatigue, diarrhea, anorexia, nausea and vomiting.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical symptoms of influenza with positive influenza diagnostic test result or strong suspicion of influenza illness based on clinical symptoms and local surveillance information.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFrench subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security categoryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are known or suspected to be hypersensitive to any component of the study medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who require Extra Corporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) at BaselineXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who require routine/intermittent hemodialysis or continuous peritoneal dialysis (due to inability to provide appropriate dosing schedule for oseltamivir) at Baseline. CRRT modalities are allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXALT 5xULNXx_NEWLINE_xXFrench and Korean subjects: the French or Korean subject has participated in any study using an investigational drug during the previous 30 days.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed venous thromboembolic disease within the preceding 6 months (patient on full dose or prophylactic anticoagulation are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed AML, ALL, CML in blast crisis, or MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXLab values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCr ? 2X ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXUrine M ?200 mg per 24hrXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXLab values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCr ?2X the ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXb. ?1 prior therapy and one of the following abnormalities: 17p del, p53, 1q amp, 1p del, t(4;14)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent clinically significant toxicities from prior chemo ? Grd 1 or Grd 2 neuropathy without painXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXLab values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXa. bortezomibXx_NEWLINE_xXb. an IMiDXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent clinically significant toxicities from prior chemo ? Grd 1, or Grd 2 neuropathy without pain.Xx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXLab values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCan take oral medXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious chemo within 2 wksXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant neuropathy (Grd 3-4 or Grd 2 with pain) at the time of 1st doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious chemo within 2 wksXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant neuropathy (Grd 3-4 or Grd 2 with pain) at the time of 1st doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary AL amyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCytopeniasXx_NEWLINE_xXNight sweats without signs of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXUnintentional weight loss (10% within the previous 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFatigue which interferes with the patient's quality of lifeXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive or massive lymphadenopathy ORXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive or massive organomegaly French subjects: In France, a subject will be eligible for inclusion in this study only if either affiliated to or a beneficiary of a social security category.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBecause the effects of ofatumumab on fetuses and nursing infants are not known, the following are ineligible for study entry:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of St. John’s Wort or rifampin (rifampicin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have a diagnosis of neuroblastoma (International Classification of Diseases for Oncology [ICD-O] morphology 9500/3) or ganglioneuroblastoma verified by histology or demonstration of clumps of tumor cells in bone marrow with elevated urinary catecholamine metabolites; patients with the following disease stages at diagnosis are eligible, if they meet the other specified criteria:\r\n* Patients with newly diagnosed neuroblastoma with International Neuroblastoma Staging System (INSS) stage 4 are eligible with the following: \r\n** v-MYC myelocytomatosis viral related oncogene, neuroblastoma derived (avian) (MYCN) amplification (> 4-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals) and age >= 365 days regardless of additional biologic features\r\n** Age > 18 months (> 547 days) regardless of biologic features\r\n** Age 12-18 months (365-547 days) with any of the following 3 unfavorable biologic features (MYCN amplification, unfavorable pathology and/or deoxyribonucleic acid [DNA] index = 1) or any biologic feature that is indeterminant/unsatisfactory/unknown\r\n* Patients with newly diagnosed neuroblastoma with INSS stage 3 are eligible with the following:\r\n** MYCN amplification (> 4-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals), and age >= 365 days, regardless of additional biologic features\r\n** Age > 18 months (> 547 days) with unfavorable pathology, regardless of MYCN status\r\n* Patients with newly diagnosed INSS stage 2a/2b with MYCN amplification (> 4-fold increase in MYCN signals as compared to reference signals) and age >= 365 days, regardless of additional biologic features\r\n* Patients >= 365 days initially diagnosed with: INSS stage 1, 2, 4S who progressed to a stage 4 without interval chemotherapy; these patients must have been enrolled on ANBL00B1; it is to be noted that study enrollment must occur within 4 weeks of progression to stage 4 for INSS stage 1, 2, 4SXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known contraindication to peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) collection; examples of contraindications might be a weight or size less than the collecting institution finds feasible, or a physical condition that would limit the ability of the child to undergo apheresis catheter placement (if necessary) and/or the apheresis procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that are 12-18 months of age with INSS stage 4 and all 3 favorable biologic features (i.e., non-amplified MYCN, favorable pathology, and DNA index > 1) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are not eligible if they have received local radiation which includes any of the following: 1200 centigray (cGy) to more than 33% of both kidneys (patient must have at least 1 kidney that has not exceeded the dose/volume of radiation listed) or 1800 cGy to more than 30% of liver and/or 900 cGy to more than 50% of liver; emergency local irradiation is allowed prior to study entry, provided the patient still meets eligibility criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have failed (relapsed or refractory) front-line standard anthracycline-containing regimen, such as doxorubicin hydrochloride, bleomycin sulfate, vinblastine sulfate, and dacarbazine (ABVD), vinblastine, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, bleomycin sulfate, mechlorethamine hydrochloride, etoposide, and prednisone (Stanford V), or bleomycin sulfate, etoposide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, cyclophosphamide, procarbazine hydrochloride, and prednisone (BEACOPP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically euthyroid; Note: patients are permitted to receive thyroid hormone supplements to treat underlying hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphocyte predominant histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent T1 disease who do not wish to have cystectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have failed at least two prior courses of BCG with or without recombinant interferon alpha administration or be BCG intolerant. This includes either two six week induction courses of BCG or a 6 week induction course followed by a 3 week mini-induction course of maintenance BCG.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with organ transplantsXx_NEWLINE_xXe. Unstable pulmonary disease requiring hospitalization or emergency room visit within the last 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXf. Immunologically mediated disease (eg, rheumatoid arthritis, autoimmune hepatitis, immune mediated glomerulonephritis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are part of the staff personnel directly involved with this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are family members of the investigational study staffXx_NEWLINE_xXTraumatic catheterization within 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXHas radiologically documented evidence of major blood vessel invasion or encasement by cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXfor intratumoral cohorts, supratentorial HGG (WHO grade III or IV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXtechnically unresectable HGGXx_NEWLINE_xXfor intratumoral cohort, coagulation profile favorable to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXmore than 2 recurrences including present recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXGliadel wafer or wafers implanted within the past 8 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXreceived AvastinXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 21%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have met all pre-entry requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may receive estrogen +/- progestin replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should NOT have undergone any prior cancer directed surgery (exploration, debulking, etc), with the exception of a minor procedure such as biopsy or cytology specimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a CA125: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) ratio of < 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of abdominal free air not explained by paracentesisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with signs or symptoms of gastrointestinal obstruction including those receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), intravenous hydration or tube feedsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of CVA within six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypertensive crises or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= ½ teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a GOG performance status of grade 3 or 4 are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have serious infection or other serious underlying medical condition which would impair the ability of the patient to receive protocol treatment; these need not be specified in the history and physical and can be documented through signature on the eligibility checklist; severe, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking systemic medications that would affect BCC tumors (oral retinoids) or metabolism of Itraconazole (anti-convulsants, corticosteroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of hyperthyroidism that would increase metabolism of ItraconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of other investigational or licensed tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs), or agents which target VEGF or VEGF receptors (i.e., bevacizumab, VEGF-Trap)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma of ocular originXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hematologic malignancies completing a prior idelalisib study with a clinical benefit are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXFor IgA patients whose disease can only be reliably measured by serum quantitative immunoglobulin (qIgA) ? 750 mg/dL (0.75 g/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented relapse or progressive disease on or after any regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXAchieved a response to at least one prior regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments, including hypersensitivity to all anticoagulation and antiplatelet options, antiviral drugs, or intolerance to hydration due to preexisting pulmonary or cardiac impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing graft-vs-host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have one of the following: newly diagnosed CP Ph+CML, CP or AP resistant/ intolerant to imatinib and/or dasatinib, or Ph+ ALL either relapsed after or refractory to standard therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPart A and Part B: Prior exposure to BRAF or MEK inhibitors unless approved by the GSK Medical Monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion, central serous retinopathy or glaucoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXVisible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmologic exam that is considered a risk factor for retinal vein occlusion or central serous retinopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of alcohol or drug abuse within 6 months prior to screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute coronary syndromes (including unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting within the past 24 weeks.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal cardiac valve morphology (subjects with minimal abnormalities can be entered on study with approval from the medical monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUsing a consistent and daily amount of ST with specific nicotine and tobacco-specific nitrosamine (TSNA) levels for the past year;Xx_NEWLINE_xXStable, good mental health (e.g., no recent unstable or untreated psychiatric diagnosis, including substance abuse, as determined by the DSM-IV criteria).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must not be currently using other tobacco or nicotine products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient's blasts cells show expression of WT1 transcript, detected by quantitative Reverse Transcription-Polymerase Chain Reaction (qRT-PCR).The patient received the following therapy according to the Institution's standard of care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPartial Remission (PR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMorphologic complete remission with incomplete blood count recovery (CRi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has received Fludarabine, Clofarabine or Cloretazine within 12 months preceding the ASCI treat-ment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a history of allergic reactions likely to be exacerbated by any component of the study investigational product.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has other concurrent severe medical prob-lems, unrelated to the malignancy, that would significantly limit full compliance with the study or expose the patient to unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumor within or touching the zone of the proximal bronchial tree defined as a volume of 2 cm in all directions around the proximal bronchial tree (carina, right and left mainstem bronchi, right and left upper lobe bronchi, intermedius bronchus, right middle lobe bronchus, lingular bronchus, right and left lower lobe bronchi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be considered medically inoperable as determined by the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXGender is not a criterion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to eggs, lecithin or soy products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypotension requiring vasopressor supportXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject must have received intravenous fluid resuscitationXx_NEWLINE_xXEndotoxin Activity Assay ? 0.60 EAA unitsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of at least 1 new onset organ dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXThere is clinical support for non-septic shockXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has had chest compressions as part of CPRXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has uncontrolled hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor trauma within 36 hours of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has severe granulocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has sustained extensive third-degree burnsXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight < 35 kg (77 pounds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has screening MOD score of ?9Xx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease after 1-2 prior VEGF-directed tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo collecting duct, medullary or sarcomatoid histology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ductal carcinoma in situ undergoing either lumpectomy/radiation or mastectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal WBC (3.5-10.8 x 103µL), PLT (140-400 x 103µL), and HCT (37-52%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo underlying ocular/retinal pathology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo medically documented preexisting auditory damage.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects should be willing to abstain from use of hormonal therapies (e.g. hormone replacement therapy, oral contraceptive pills, hormone-containing IUDs, and E-string) and chronic NSAID's for the duration of the study (chronic use of NSAID's is defined as a frequency >3 times/week for more than two weeks per year and includes low dose aspirin).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient desires not to participate in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to quinalones or chloroquine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of porphyria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlcoholism or hepatic disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of epilepsy or seizures in the past 20 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving concurrent treatment with prohibited medications (refer to Table 1 for details on prohibited medications); Examples include: ampicillin, antacids, cimetidine, cyclosporine, kaolin, magnesium trisilicate, coumarin-type anticoagulants, macrolide antibiotics (e.g., clarithromycin, isoniazid, and erythromycin), anti-HIV agents (e.g., ritonavir and delavirdine), antidepressants (e.g. fluoxetine and fluvoxamine), calcium channel blockers (e.g. verapamil and diltiazem), steroids and their modulators (e.g., gestodene, raloxifene, and mifepristone), and several herbal and dietary components (e.g. bergamottin and glabridin).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe asthma, presently on chronic medications (a history of mild asthma not requiring therapy is eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cognitive impairment or likely to develop cognitive impairment while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAML in second or greater remission, primary induction failure and patients with relapsed disease, peripheral blood blasts < 1000/microliter; patients > 55 years and =< 75 years need to be in morphologic remission at transplant (< 5% blasts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients above >= 65 years old should have an age-adjusted co-morbidity index of =< 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have retinal or visual field changes from prior 4-aminoquinoline compound useXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown glucose-6-phosphate (G-6-P) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXIntubated, mechanically ventilated, with respiratory failure secondary to diffuse, bilateral parenchymal lung disease (as judged by chest x-ray).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygenation index (OI) > 13, but < 37, for two consecutive blood gases which should be separated by at least one hour within 48 hours of the initiation of mechanical ventilation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXArterial catheter placementXx_NEWLINE_xXGlasgow Coma Score < 8 (prior to respiratory failure).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing limitations on care options, (Do Not Attempt Resuscitation Orders, etc).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impending death from another disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients moribund or with other organ failure at possible randomization:Xx_NEWLINE_xXpersistent cardiac tachyarrhythmia >150/minute, or persistent bradyarrythmia < 50/minute, or age appropriate criteria for younger children,Xx_NEWLINE_xXmetabolic acidosis > - 10 milliequivalent (mEq)/L for more than 2 hours,Xx_NEWLINE_xXpersistent arterial oxygen desaturation, arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) < 50 or oxygen saturation (SaO2) saturation < 80%,Xx_NEWLINE_xXhyperkalemia, serum K+ > 6.5 plus widening of QRS complex on EKG (QRS complex corresponds to the depolarization of the right and left ventricles of the heart).Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to participate in Patient-Reported Outcomes assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXRefrain from donating blood or semen as defined by protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal serum chemistry or hematology laboratory valuesXx_NEWLINE_xXThrombotic or thromboembolic events within the past 6 months:Xx_NEWLINE_xXParaplegiaXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is not a candidate for neoadjuvant chemoradiation therapy (i.e., patients with borderline resectable pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma who are known to benefit from neoadjuvant treatment regimens)Xx_NEWLINE_xXViral load has decreased by >= 1.5 logs or viral load < 5000 copies/ml plasma on HAART therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXApproval for allogenic regimen given at Patient Care ConferenceXx_NEWLINE_xXpositive for the ALK fusion gene (test provided by a central laboratory)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Adequate venous access for peripheral apheresis, or consent to use a temporary central venous catheter for apheresisXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: No other medical contraindications to stem cell donation (i.e. severe atherosclerosis, autoimmune disease, iritis or episcleritis, deep venous thrombosis, cerebrovascular accident); patients with a history of coronary artery bypass grafting or angioplasty will receive a cardiology evaluation and be considered on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: History of prior malignancy; however, cancer survivors who have undergone potentially curative therapy may be considered for stem cell donation on a case-by-case basis; the risk/benefit of the transplant and the possibility of transmitting viable tumor cells at the time of transplantation will be discussed with the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with alcoholism may not be treated with disulfiramXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple recurrences are allowable as long as CD4 count or disease-free intervals have been metXx_NEWLINE_xX> 18 months (mos.) and =< 35 years at the time of initial diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xX> 10 kg at the time of apheresis; patients between 10-15 kg. must be approved by the apheresis unit prior to enrollment on protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may receive transfusion if necessary to reach the pre-apheresis hematology parameters; if elevated PT is concluded to be due to a circulating anticoagulant then patient may enroll despite the abnormal laboratory findingXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of Ewing sarcoma (ES), which includes: classical, atypical, and extraosseous ES, peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumors, peripheral neuroepitheliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be judged as being in a state of “no evidence of disease” at the time of enrollment; there is sometimes difficulty in definitively determining whether previously irradiated or surgerized sites are truly sterile, but the judgement should be based on standard imaging using the best judgment of the referring physician and Principal Investigator or her designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have been =< 35 years at the time of initial diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXANC > 750 cells/mclXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are receiving other biologic therapies including cytokines or growth factors not specified by the protocol; herbal supplements will not result in exclusion but should be noted and reviewed with the Principal Investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had a significant response to standard frontline therapy judged as a complete response or a very good partial response (especially for irradiated sites where complete response [CR] is often impossible to ascertain); clear evidence for persistent or progressive cancer or the administration of a salvage regimen for persistent or progressive disease precludes enrollment on Cohort 2; administration of consolidation such as autologous stem cell transplant without evidence for persistent or progressive disease does not preclude enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are receiving other biologic therapies including cytokines or growth factors not specified by the protocol; herbal supplements will not result in exclusion but should be noted and reviewed with the PIXx_NEWLINE_xXLife-threatening, visceral metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXEmotional limitationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry >= 93% at room airXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of St. John’s Wort or rifampin (rifampicin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny malabsorption problemXx_NEWLINE_xXHematology: ANC ? 1.5X109/L; Platelets >100x109/L.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther prior malignancies, except for cured or adequately treated malignancies for which there has been no evidence of activity for more than 5 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of life threatening allergic reactions to food or drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXimmunoplasmacytoma/immunocytoma (Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXpresence of at least one of the following B-symptoms:Xx_NEWLINE_xXfever (>38ºC) of unclear etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXnight sweatsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal organ function tests including blood urea nitrogen (BUN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with current diagnosis of primary cutaneous ALCL (patients who have transformed to systemic ALCL are eligible).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cerebral/meningeal disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with ulcerative chest wall disease defined as non-healing wounds consistent with cancer are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with anthracyclines exceeding the following doses (subjects will be discontinued at 600 mg/m2 lifetime dose irrespective of the number of ThermoDox® cycles received): Free (i.e., non-liposomal) or liposomal doxorubicin > 450 mg/m2 Free epirubicin > 900 mg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline laboratories (repeat labs can be evaluated at baseline to establish eligibility):Xx_NEWLINE_xXANC Granulocytes < 1,500/ microliterXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a medical or psychiatric condition or other circumstances which would significantly decrease the chances of obtaining reliable data, achieving study objectives, or completing the study and/or post-dose follow-up examinations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCerebral vascular accidentXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic coronary artery diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown structural heart disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe recurrence to be treated needs to be the 1st or 2nd recurrence of the AG or GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXStereotactic radiosurgery (SRS):\r\n* Patients must have confirmation of true progressive disease rather than radiation necrosis based upon either PET or Thallium SPECT, MR spectroscopy and MR perfusion or surgical documentation of disease\r\n* At least 12 weeks between completion of SRS and initiation of bendamustineXx_NEWLINE_xXInterstitial brachytherapy: patients must have confirmation of true progressive disease rather than radiation necrosis based upon either PET or Thallium SPECT, MR spectroscopy and MR perfusion or surgical documentation of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients can only be on non-enzyme inducing anti-convulsants; if they are on an enzyme inducing anti-convulsant, they may be converted to a non-enzyme inducing anticonvulsantsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to bendamustineXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to mannitolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically proven intracranial low-grade glioma at initial diagnosis; low-grade gliomas include: astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma and mixed oligoastrocytoma; pilocytic astrocytomas are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired lung function: O2 saturation 88% or less at rest on room air by pulse oximetry; if O2 saturation is =< 88% at rest, further pulmonary function tests (PFTs) should be ordered to confirm normal pulmonary function and eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of noncompliance to medical regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown DPD deficiency;Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of cavitary or necrotic tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXIs considered medically unfit for the study by the investigator as a result of the medical interview, physical exam, or baseline investigations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has experienced radiographic, biochemical, and/or scintigraphic disease progression while on a regimen that includes octreotideXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has received therapeutic radiolabeled somatostatin analoguesXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of MDS or CMMLXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of GI disease, malignant tumors or other conditions known to interfere with ADMEXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cumulative doxorubicin dose > 300 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hypersensitivity to doxil, doxorubicin, hydrochloride (HCL), temsirolimus or its metabolites (including sirolimus), polysorbate 80, bevacizumab or murine productsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be either (1) at high risk for candidiasis (1 month - < 2 years ONLY) or (2) have a definitive diagnosis of invasive candidiasis/candidemia (ICC) (All age groups)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with documented or suspected Candida meningitis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust not be receiving tacrolimus or cyclosporine; use of H2 antagonists such as ranitidine, cimetidine and proton pump blockers such as omeprazole are permissible only in conjunction with corticosteroids in the setting of increased intracranial pressure or for spinal cord compression, as these drugs interfere with cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4); if patients are given such drugs, they must be taken at least 4 hours after intake of everolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94% in room air, if there is clinical indication for determinationXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of H2 antagonists such as ranitidine, cimetidine and proton pump blockers such as omeprazole are permissible only in conjunction with corticosteroids in the setting of increased intracranial pressure or for spinal cord compression, as these drugs interfere with CYP3A4; if patients are given such drugs, they must be taken at least 4 hours after intake of everolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that undergo bronchoscopy and are found to have endobronchial lung cancer that is obstructive or hemorrhagic as evident by inspection or CT scan are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of the second bronchoscopy (if clinically necessary), all patients will undergo routine laboratory tests including a CBC, chemistry 7 panel and coagulation profileXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking antioxidant therapy will be excluded from enrollment due to potential interaction with the potential oxidative mechanism of action of Photofrin®, including:\r\n* Beta-carotene\r\n* Lutein\r\n* Lycopene\r\n* Selenium\r\n* Vitamin A\r\n* Vitamin C\r\n* Vitamin EXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that are not willing to adhere to the photosensitivity guidelines will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight ? 34 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPaget's disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum bilirubin levels =< 1.5 mg/dL; higher levels are acceptable if these can be attributed to active hemolysis or ineffective erythropoiesisXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: \r\n* Part A: Recurrent or refractory neuroblastoma or melanoma\r\n* Part B: Recurrent or refractory neuroblastoma or melanoma\r\n* Part C: Recurrent or refractory osteosarcoma and Ewing sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic parameters defined by:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSolitary bone or solitary extramedullary plasmacytoma as the only evidence of plasma cell dyscrasia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has cytologically proven AML, as defined by the WHO classification. The pretreatment AML karyotype should be documented.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient's blasts cells show expression of WT1 tran-script, detected by quantitative RT-PCR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is in complete remission (i.e. CR1, CR2, …):Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is in morphologic leukemia-free state or in morphologic complete remission with incomplete blood count recovery (CRi).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a history of allergic reactions likely to be exacerbated by any component of the study investigational product.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has other concurrent severe medical prob-lems, unrelated to the malignancy, that would significantly limit full compliance with the study or expose the patient to unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an understanding that the study drug could have a potential teratogenic risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree not to share study medication with another person. All FCBP and male patients must be counseled about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown HIV positivity or active infectious hepatitis, type A, B, or C. Primary AL (immunoglobulin light chain) amyloidosis and myeloma complicated by amyloidosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWithdrawal, at any time, from the preceding gefitinib study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of phenytoin, carbamazepine, rifampicin, barbiturates, or St John's WortXx_NEWLINE_xXSkeletally mature adolescents must weigh at least 45 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected current diagnosis of underlying malignancy including high grade sarcoma, osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, malignant giant cell sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected current diagnosis of non GCTB giant cell-rich tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis/osteomyelitis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXActive dental or jaw condition which requires oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healed dental/oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXIs receiving opioids on a regular schedule, not just as needed to control pain.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a suspected mechanical gastrointestinal obstruction, fecal impaction, or clinically important active diverticular disease as determined by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently using an opioid antagonist or partial antagonist.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with familial adenomatous polyposis who have undergone subtotal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis, total colectomy with ileo-anal pull through (reservoir), and patients with intact colons with 5 or more adenomas in the rectum-sigmoid or reservoirXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) and duodenal adenomatous polyposis without current lower tract adenomatous polyposis i.e. status/post (s/p) ileostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) > 25mg%Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine > 1.5mg%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to stop non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), aspirin, curcumin, tumeric, calcium, vitamin D, green tea, or polyphenol E supplements for the duration of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptoms of active gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) (symptomatic despite medication or current erosive esophagitis on endoscopy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a normal echocardiogram (EF > 50% normal) without any evidence of cardiac chamber hypertrophy, dilatation or hypokinesis. The Sponsor must be provided with copies of these tests BEFORE Sponsor will approve enrollment. In addition, the sponsor must receive a list of current medications taken by the patient before Sponsor will approve enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic to diphtheria toxin a component of the study drug A-dmDT390-bisFv(UCHT1).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThromboembolic events,Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe PI and the Clinical Coordinator will be asked to verify that their referred patients do not have these exclusionary histories listed in 3.2 and a copy of this verification must be sent to the Sponsor before the Sponsor will approve of enrollment. Referring physicians will not need to sign. (Template for verification letter Appendix C).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have presumed resectable or partially resectable malignant glioma based on clinical and radiologic evaluation (pathologic confirmation of malignant glioma must be made at the time of surgery if not previously determined). Patients who have previously received AdV-tk + prodrug on this study may receive an additional AdV-tk + prodrug course at recurrence if eligibility criteria are still met.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on immunosuppressive drugs (with exception of corticosteroid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroblastoma\r\n * Neuroblastoma patients will be eligible if relapse occurs following an autologous transplant or if the patient relapses following initial treatment, but is not eligible for an autologous transplant\r\n * Patients who do not achieve a CR with initial therapy will also be eligible provided they can be rendered free of bulky disease as defined aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXOsteogenic sarcoma\r\n * Patients with osteogenic sarcoma will be eligible if they do not achieve a CR following initial therapy \r\n * Patients who relapse with pulmonary or bone metastases and do not achieve a CR with surgery and/or chemotherapy will also be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXOther patient eligibility requirements\r\n * Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) 1 and HIV 2 negative\r\n * Not pregnant or at risk for pregnancy and willing to use acceptable birth control methods\r\n * No uncontrolled drug of alcohol abuse; patients will be screened for drug and alcohol abuse by a pediatric psychologist who is a member of the HSCT team; this information will not be recorded in the patients’ hospital chart\r\n * Signed informed consent by patient or legal guardian in accordance with research ethics board guidelines or institutional review board (IRB)\r\n * Lansky or Karnofsky performance score of 0, 1 or 2\r\n * Suitable haploidentical donor available\r\n * Cryopreserved autologous stem cells (minimum 1 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation [CD]34+ cells/kg) available for infusion for patient with solid tumors; subjects with solid tumors who have not had stem cells collected for clinical purposes prior to enrolling in the study will undergo autologous stem cell harvest following standard clinical procedures before beginning the study conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXGVHD: Patients will not be eligible for DLI if they have grades 2 – 4 acute GVHD or extensive chronic GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXRapid diagnostic test, PCR, or viral culture positive for influenza in the 96 hours prior to first doseXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms suggestive of influenza-like illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary refractory MMXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or other EGFR inhibiting agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlanine amino transferase (ALT) or aspartate amino transferase (AST) greater than 2.5 times the ULRR if no demonstrable liver metastases or greater than 5 times the ULRR in the presence of liver metastases.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKeratoconjunctivitis sicca or incompletely treated eye infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one of the following symptoms affecting sleep: a) not feeling refreshed on awakening b) difficulty falling asleep c) waking up during the night d) have difficulty falling back asleep at night after awakening e) waking up too early in the morning f) excessive sleepiness during the dayXx_NEWLINE_xXHave any other functional tumors if they have familial Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome 1 or 2 (MEN 1 or MEN 2).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recent history of kidney stones.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recent history of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipated or completed a GSK sponsored pazopanib study and remains eligible for continued treatment with pazopanib and lapatinib (if on combination therapy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXYour doctor does not think you would be a good candidate for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXpredominant clear cell histologyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of macroscopic disease following surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically undifferentiated carcinomas or collecting duct carcinoma, lymphoma, sarcoma or subjects with metastatic renal sites.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients up to 65 years of age at time of registration with a diagnosis of SAA; SAA is defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXTwo out of three of the following (in peripheral blood): neutrophils less than 0.5 x 10^9/L; platelets less than 20 x 10^9/L; reticulocytes less than 20 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of Fanconi anemia must be excluded in patients younger than 18 years of age by diepoxybutane testing on peripheral blood or comparable testing on marrow.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of other \congenital\ aplastic anemias such as: Diamond-Blackfan; Shwachman-Diamond; congenital amegakaryocytosisXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant enrollment in a Phase I studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be diagnosed with neuroblastoma, and categorized as high risk at the time of diagnosis; exception: patients who are initially diagnosed as non-high-risk neuroblastoma, but later converted (and/or relapsed) to high risk neuroblastoma are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 12 months from the date of starting the first induction chemotherapy after diagnosis to the date of ASCT except for the rare occasions as noted below; for tandem ASCT patients, this will be the date of the FIRST stem cell infusion; exception: for those who are initially diagnosed as non-high risk neuroblastoma, but later converted (and/or relapsed) to high risk neuroblastoma, the 12 months restriction should start from the date of induction therapy for high risk neuroblastoma (not from the initial induction therapy for non-high risk disease), to the date of ASCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be enrolled before treatment begins; the date protocol therapy is projected to start must be no later than ten (10) calendar days after the date of study enrollment; patients should be enrolled preferably between day 56 and day 85 after peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) infusion (day from 2nd stem cell infusion for tandem transplant); patients must be enrolled no later than day 200 after PBSC infusion; enrollment must occur after completion of radiotherapy, and after completion of tumor assessment post-ASCT and radiotherapy; informed consent should be obtained within 3 weeks pre-ASCT up to the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXVeno-occlusive disease, if present, should be stable or improvingXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) within normal limits (WNL) \r\n* Supplementation is acceptable to achieve a TSH WNL; in patients with abnormal TSH if free T4 is normal and patient is clinically euthyroid, patient is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRandomization within 112 days of completion of surgical \r\n* The primary region must be included on cross-sectional imaging (e.g. sinus/neck if arising from sinonasal primary; pelvis if genitourinary); radiographic changes considered nonspecific or possibly due to surgery or radiation are not considered evidence of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be discontinued from ipilimumab or nivolumab as monotherapy or with the combination regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects treated with systemic Corticosteroid (CST) within 1 week before randomization and subjects treated with infliximab within 7 weeks before randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects allergic to infliximab, inactive components of infliximab, murine proteins and methylprednisoloneXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable HCC without extrahepatic disease based on CTXx_NEWLINE_xXMELD Score < 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of orthotopic liver transplantation, clinical symptoms of portal hypertension, Whipple's procedure, hepatic artery anatomy incompatible with perfusion or known unresolved venous shuntingXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown esophageal varices at risk of bleeding, including medium or large esophageal or gastric varices, or active peptic ulcerXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils < 1,500/µLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed/refractory AML regardless of cytogenetic riskXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed/refractory ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MDS (IPSS score ? 1.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory values fulfilling the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is either ineligible for or declines radical cystectomy; the investigator must explain that a delay in cystectomy may increase the patient’s chance of disease progressionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny subjects with muscle-invasive TCC (stages T2 - T4) OR any known TCC of the ureter or renal pelvis are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny history of metastatic TCC; subjects with suspected malignant lymphadenopathy in the abdomen or pelvis are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whom, in the opinion of the treating urologic oncologist, should undergo cystectomy due to high-risk featuresXx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (e.g., herpetic keratitis or encephalitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least two bi-dimensionally measurable nodal lesions ? 1.5 centimeters (cm) in its longest diameter by imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of sensitivity to mannitolXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients will have a tuberculin (purified protein derivative [PPD]) skin test or interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) done locally prior to the inclusion into the study. Patients with active tuberculosis (TB) will be excluded from the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) is allowed Exclusion Criteria Specific to Obinutuzumab-Containing Cohorts: Hypersensitivity to obinutuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXFludarabine or Campath within 12 months prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy (e.g., patients in whom dosing with obinutuzumab would be contraindicated for safety reasons)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of confirmed progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXDocetaxel is a CYP3A4 substrate and caution should be taken with its use and any drugs known to interact with it; as part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal productXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical and laboratory test findings outside the protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSkin biopsy specimen of representative lesion obtained at screening of study and deemed diagnostic of mycosis fungoides by principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of subject to be observed for up to 18 months post-screening evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with Sezary syndrome; Sezary syndrome is equivalent to mycosis fungoides that develops to stage IVA/B with B2 (high blood tumor burden) involvement, and as such requires a more aggressive treatment regimen than Valchlor or TSEBTXx_NEWLINE_xXExclusion of people that do not understand the risks, such as decisionally-impaired individuals, prisoners, and vulnerable populationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are scheduled to undergo RARC at our institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects deemed unsuitable candidates and not medically optimized for RARCXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with tumors lying < 1 cm from sensitive structures such as the ureter, prostate or adjacent bowelXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on concurrent anticoagulant, or immunosuppressive medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pre-operative histologic confirmation of a bladder lesion other than transitional cell carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXcT3 or cT4Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects assessed by consultant anesthetist as unsuitable for general anestheticXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute contraindications: venous injury at the level of the femoral veins or proximally; known or suspected thrombosis of the femoral or iliac veins on the proposed side of venous cannulation, ambulatory patientXx_NEWLINE_xXRelative contraindications: presence of bleeding disorders; distortion of anatomy due to local injury or deformity; previous long-term venous catheterization; history of vasculitis; previous injection of sclerosis agents; previous radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have 1-2 intrahepatic foci of HCC and may not be candidates for refuse hepatic resection; patients who are on the organ wait list for orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT) will be considered for this trial as a “bridge” to transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXThe foci of HCC must be in an anatomic location amendable to treatment by both MWA and SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received prior Yttrium-90 radioembolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with 3 or more foci of HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with EGFR- or ALK-positive disease are not eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils >= 1500/uLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of AL amyloidosis as based on detection by polarizing microscopy of green birefringent material in Congo red-stained tissue specimens; the type must have been confirmed unequivocallyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXNT-ProBNP > 8,500 pg/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXIntrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma; a histological diagnosis is mandated; a diagnosis of adenocarcinoma with staining pattern consistent with cholangiocarcinoma and with a clinical presentation consistent with cholangiocarcinoma will be acceptable for enrollment as this is a typical intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma presentationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of biliary stent, internal biliary drain, or prior procedure compromising the ampulla of Vater (diagnostic endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography [ERCP] is permissible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions attributed to:\r\n* Study agent or its metabolites\r\n* Iodinated contrast mediaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior treatment with anthracyclines at cumulative doses of 450 mg/m² or more for doxorubicin or 900 mg/m² or more for epirubicinXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be participating in an Astellas-sponsored ASP8273 study which has completed, at a minimum, the primary analysis or have completed the individual study evaluation period requirements. Subject must not have met any discontinuation criteria in the parent study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject should be deriving clinical benefit without any persistent intolerable toxicity from continued treatment of ASP8273.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who requires the following medications will be excluded:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPermeability-glycoprotein (P-gp) substrates with a narrow therapeutic indexXx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to MD Anderson laboratory protocol PA13-0291Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of major implant(s) or device(s), including but not limited to: \r\n* Prosthetic heart valve(s) \r\n* Artificial joints and prosthetics placed =< 12 months prior to treatment initiation \r\n* Current or prior history of infection or other clinically significant adverse event associated with an exogenous implant or device that cannot be removedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving medications that may increase risk of rhabdomyolysis such as itraconazole, ketoconazole, erythromycin, cyclosporine, amiodarone, verapamil, clarithromycin, nefazodone, ranolazine, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) protease inhibitors, gemfibrozil, posaconazole, danazol, amiodarone, diltiazem, and amlodipineXx_NEWLINE_xXMicrosatellite instability as determined by MSI-plus assayXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHodgkin’s with one of the following: \r\n* Primary refractory (no CR to 1st line or PD within 3 months);\r\n* High-risk relapse (CR1 < 1 year, extranodal relapse or B symptoms); or, \r\n* Refractory relapse: no response (SD or PD) to >= 1 line of salvageXx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance score (PS) < 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take pills by mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXHas biopsy-proven invasion of tracheobronchial tree or tracheo-esophageal fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXInoperable on the basis of co-existent medical problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils < 1.5 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXCentrally located non-small cell lung cancers and squamous cell lung cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for chronic use of full dose aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLegal incapacityXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytologic confirmation of unresectable or metastatic cholangiocarcinoma (intrahepatic, hilar, extrahepatic bile duct)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete a patient medication diary by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a minimum of two metastases per hemithoraxXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active disease outside the thorax may be eligible for study once the extrathoracic disease is definitively treated by local modalities such as radiation, surgery, or radiofrequency ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrollable progression of extra-thoracic disease will be excluded from studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other cardiac diseases may be excluded at the discretion of the principal investigator (PI) following consultation with cardiology consultantsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients enrolled on celecoxib cohort: history of ulcer disease or gastrointestinal bleeding, hypersensitivity or asthma to celecoxib, sulfa drugs, aspirin or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of previous severe allergic reactions to vaccines or unknown allergensXx_NEWLINE_xXHematology and biochemistry laboratory results within the limits normally expected for the patient population, without evidence of major organ failureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a positive fecal occult blood test excluding hemorrhoidsXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability of a patient for immunological and clinical follow-up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed metastatic unresectable well differentiated (low grade and intermediate grade) neuroendocrine tumors (Ki-67 < 20% and mitotic rate < 2 per 10 high power field) that demonstrate progressive disease (by serial computed tomography [CT] or magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] scans) in past 12 months including\r\n* Carcinoid tumors originating anywhere in the body including the gastrointestinal (GI) tract or bronchial tree or thymus\r\n* Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (including functional and non-functional islet cell, insulinomas and glucagonomas)\r\n* Pheochromocytomas\r\n* Gastrinomas (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome)\r\n* Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN type I/II),\r\n* Adrenal carcinomas with NET markers by immunohistochemistry (IHC) or serum\r\n* Somatostatinoma\r\n* VIPoma (vasoactive intestinal peptide)\r\n* Merkel cell tumors\r\n* Medullary thyroid carcinoma\r\n* Neuroendocrine tumors of unknown primary siteXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have progressed on octreotide therapy and/or radioactive isotopes linked to octreotide or its congeners if they had a positive octreotide scan; patients who have negative or mildly positive octreotide scans are exempt from this requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXSomatostatin analogs can be continued at their tolerated dose in patients with functional symptoms related to underlying disease such as in functional islet cell, insulinomas, glucagonomas etcXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes > 1,500/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizures or any neurological conditions resulting in increased risk for seizures are not eligible for study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of the arterial or venous thromboembolism within =< 12 months of study entry are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have a FLT3 mutation, either internal tandem duplication (ITD) or kinase domain mutation or activation loop mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study or history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled infection at the time of enrollment; infections controlled on concurrent anti-microbial agents are acceptable, and anti-microbial prophylaxis per institutional guidelines is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking drugs that are generally accepted to have a risk of causing torsades de pointes (unless these can be changed to acceptable alternatives)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) < 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe intermittent use of proton-pump inhibitors (PPI), H2-antagonists and antacids (including carafate) is only allowed within these guidelines:\r\n* PPI until day (D)-5 prior to the first dose of alisertib and prohibited for the duration of the study,\r\n* H2 antagonists until D-1 and after the dosing of alisertib is done,\r\n* Antacid formulations until 2 hours before dosing and after 2 hours following dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of an aurora A kinase-targeted agent, including alisertibXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of uncontrolled sleep apnea syndrome and other conditions that could result in excessive daytime sleepiness, such as severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease; requirement for supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for constant administration of H2 antagonistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have disease that requires therapy, including intermediate-1, intermediate-2, or high-risk disease according to the International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) or Dynamic-IPSSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior exposure to agents targeting interleukin 6 (IL -6) or the IL-6 receptor are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed patients:\r\n* Second or greater relapse OR\r\n* AML in first relapse AND has received >= 450 mg/m^2 daunorubicin equivalents \r\n* NOTE: for the purposes of determining eligibility for this protocol, the following cardiotoxicity multipliers will be used to determine daunorubicin equivalents:\r\n** Doxorubicin: 1\r\n** Mitoxantrone: 3\r\n** Idarubicin: 3\r\n** Epirubicin: 0.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body surface area >= 0.35 m^2 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological confirmation of urothelial carcinoma and high risk residual disease after neoadjuvant chemotherapy (NAC) and cystectomy as defined by post-operative pathological pT4 or N1-3 disease, or progressive disease during NAC (NAC include methotrexate, vinblastin, doxorubicin and cisplatin [MVAC], dose dense MVAC, gemcitabine cisplatin, or gemcitabine carboplatin); minor histologic variants (< 50%) are acceptable if urothelial carcinoma is predominant variantXx_NEWLINE_xXPure small cell histologic variant or other pure non-urothelial carcinomasXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum sodium level is ? 130 mmol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented surgically sterile or status post hysterectomy (at least 1 month prior to screening).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients residing in prisonXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a willingness to comply with follow-up HRQOL (health related quality of life) surveys and PSA assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXIs unable to comply with learning and documenting penile rehabilitation, including oral 5-phosphodiesterase inhibitor use, vacuum pump therapy use, and/or injectable medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXIs allergic to aminoglycoside antibiotics (such as gentamicin and/or streptomycin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently enrolled in another study; concurrent enrollment in another study is prohibited expect for the control arm which can be used for other protocols with HRQOL endpoints with similar instrumentsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to participate in follow-up clinical appointments at MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoldering MM.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented active systemic amyloid light chain amyloidosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere is no line limit for the dose escalation cohort and the dose expansion cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXHave undergone clearance after baseline ophthalmologic exam (at least fundoscopic exam, visual acuity, intraocular pressure, assessment of visual fields and measurement of color vision)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThree biopsies, one pretreatment, one after BMN673 alone and one after one of the combinations of BMN673/AT13387 will be voluntary in the expansion and dose escalation cohorts; however, biopsies will be required in at least 8 patients of the 20 patients to be enrolled in the expansion cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXInorganic phosphorus =< ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXHomozygous UDP glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1 (UGT1A1)*28 (i.e. 7 TA repeats) gene alleles; the UGT1A1 test should be conducted per local institutional practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of corneal or retinal disorder/keratopathy including but not limited to bullous/band keratopathy, corneal abrasion, inflammation/ulceration, keratoconjunctivitis, confirmed by ophthalmologic examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of:\r\n* Tissue calcification including, but not limited to, the soft tissue, kidneys, intestines, myocardium and lung with the exception of calcified lymph nodes and asymptomatic coronary calcification\r\n* Endocrine alterations of calcium/phosphate homeostasis, e.g., parathyroid disorders, history of parathyroidectomy, tumor lysis, tumoral calcinosis etcXx_NEWLINE_xXRAS wild-type status (by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments [CLIA] certified assay that includes all known mutations in Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog [KRAS], Harvey rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog [HRAS], and neuroblastoma RAS viral [v-ras] oncogene homolog [NRAS])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients genotyped for UGT1A1*28 polymorphism with *1/*1 or *1/*28 genotypeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with both variant alleles (*28/*28)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any polymorphism in UGT1A1 other than *1 or *28 (e.g, *6)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnresolved diarrhea and bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented cerebral metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with MF who are eligible for enrollment in the pacritinib “PERSIST-2” study at Washington University School of Medicine (WUSM) (NCT02055781) Human Research Protection Office (HRPO) 201406075Xx_NEWLINE_xXObjective evidence of disease progression on study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with markedly decreased visual acuityXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Gilbert’s syndrome unless homozygosity for the uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucuronosyltransferase 1 family, polypeptide A1 (UGT1A1)*28 mutation has been excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown homozygous for UGT1A1*28 mutation from prior testing or family historyXx_NEWLINE_xXMeasurable metastatic melanoma with at least one lesion that is resectable for TIL generation, plus one other lesion that can be measuredXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least a partial remission before allo-SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) as defined as EBV viral load >= 10,000 copies per mL of whole blood; EBV viral load testing is only required if the patient has clinical signs or symptoms suggestive of active EBV infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection with cytomegalovirus (CMV) as defined as CMV viral load >= 10,000 copies per mL of whole blood; CMV viral load testing is only required if the patient has clinical signs or symptoms suggestive of active CMV infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 150 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to human, humanized, or murine monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis and staging of de novo acute GvHD of the GIT (any site except isolated “upper” GIT disease);\r\n* Patients must be classifief as \high risk\ by the combined Minnesota (MN)/Center for International Blood and Marrow Transplant (CIBMTR) grading\r\n* Biopsies should be obtained by full endoscopy including esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) and flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy; however, it is not necessary to have confirmation of GvHD diagnosis before initiating IASA therapy; such is not recommended\r\n* If other diagnoses are excluded, it is not necessary to biopsy all potentially involved sites in the GIT to initiate therapy\r\n* It is possible that other diagnoses may be present as well, and this should not exclude eligibility so long as they are distinct (this statement is generic, but applies especially to various types of infective colitis; that said, concomitant anti-infective therapy must be on-going)\r\n* Although this study is designed for patient with high-risk de novo, acute GvHD of the lower gastrointestinal tract, selected patients with more advanced, even “steroid refractory” acute GvHD may be considered for this study providing they fulfill two criteria: 1) have no history of prior IASA; and 2) are personally approved by the principal investigator (PI), or in his absence, his designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant (presumed) risk factors for toxicity due to IASA therapy including, but not limited to: major uncorrectable coagulopathy, bowel perforation, ongoing bacteremia, mesenteric insufficiency, are exclusionary; in these or any questionable cases, discussion with the PI is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled, severe infective processesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any hepatitis (e.g., alcohol or non-alcohol steatohepatitis [NASH], auto immune, or grade 3-4 drug-related hepatitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Richter’s transformation are not allowed in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent/metastatic radioiodine refractory disease that has progressed within the past 6 months with at least 1 lesion increasing by 0.5 cm in diameter or with increasing bone metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign a durable power of attorneyXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoldering MM.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an enhancing solid renal mass =< 3.0 cm on radiological examinationXx_NEWLINE_xX< 90% solid component on screening cross-sectional imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects deemed unsuitable candidates and not medically optimized for partial nephrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with tumors lying < 1 cm from sensitive structures such as the ureter, renal vessels or adjacent bowelXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on concurrent anticoagulant, or immunosuppressive medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects assessed by consultant anesthetist as unsuitable for general anestheticXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have normal baseline thyroid function tests (thyroid stimulating hormone [TSH], triiodothyronine [T3], thyroxine [T4]); a history of hypothyroidism and/or hyperthyroidism is allowed, as long as the patient has stable well-controlled thyroid function for a minimum of 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hypersensitivity to microcrystalline cellulose, mannitol, crospovidone, colloidal silicon dioxide, magnesium stearateXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of previously collected autologous stem cells (at least 3.0 x 10^6 cluster of differentiation [CD]34 cells/kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTSER genotype *2/*2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with phaeochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete medication diary by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of the following inducers are prohibited =< 12 days prior to registration\r\n* Avasimibe\r\n* Bosentan (Tracleer®)\r\n* Carbamazepine (Carbatrol®, Epitol®, Equetro™, Tegretol®, Tegretol-XR®)\r\n* Efavirenz (Sustiva®)\r\n* Modafinil (Provigil®)\r\n* Phenobarbital (Luminal®)\r\n* Phenytoin (Dilantin®, Phenytek®)\r\n* Rifabutin (Mycobutin®)\r\n* Rifampin (Rifadin®)\r\n* St. John’s wortXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving erythroid stimulating agents (erythropoietin [EPO]: Procrit, Aranesp)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to BRAF or MEK inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or predisposing factors to RVO (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal degenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated creatine kinase (CK) (e.g., inflammatory myopathies, muscular dystrophy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, spinal muscular atrophy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumor located peripherally within the lung (peripheral defined as not touching any surface within 2 cm of the proximal bronchial tree in all directions) and not touching the mediastinal pleuraXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with central tumors within the proximal tree or touching the mediastinal pleuraXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoked an average of less than 10 cigarettes per day during past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly one subject per household may participateXx_NEWLINE_xXRoom air oxygen saturation of > 94%Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to participate in the long-term follow-up protocol (2006-0676)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking prohibited medication listed in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXOral, implantable, or injectable hormone contraceptives are not considered effective for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXJudged by the study doctor to be a suitable candidate for a radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate size on trans-rectal ultrasound (TRUS) measurement less than 50 gramsXx_NEWLINE_xXFavorable operative risk defined as American Society of Anesthesiology Score (ASA score) =< 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior history of pelvic fractures or hip replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXLarge pelvic or intra-abdominal massesXx_NEWLINE_xXA known diagnosis of Wilson’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinical symptoms consistent with active gastritisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring iron supplementation will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly developed inoperable brain metastases (first occurrence) without associated hemorrhage or midline shiftXx_NEWLINE_xXLactate dehydrogenase (LDH): there is no restrictionXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical history including histopathological documentation of sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNY-ESO-1 expression in tumor by immunohistochemistry (IHC) is not required prior to screening consent; however, patients must have NY-ESO-1 expression to proceed with the leukapheresis; additionally patients must also meet the following criteria to proceed with leukapheresis (any exceptions to this will require prior approval by the Apheresis director and Principal Investigator):Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory evaluation:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBasic metabolic and hepatic function panelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse > 45 and < 120Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight >= 45 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXTemperature =< 38 Celsius (C) (=< 100.4 Fahrenheit [F])Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit (HCT) >= 30%Xx_NEWLINE_xXResearch blood including 40 mL of blood in a heparinized tube for peripheral blood mononuclear cell (PBMC) collection and 10 mL of blood for serum collection (generally in a red top tube) within 30 days of leukapheresis collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of synovial sarcoma or myxoid/round cell liposarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNY-ESO-1 positive by IHC (for this study, even a small level of positivity is acceptable); for patients with < 5% NY-ESO-1 by IHC positivity, the level of staining should be discussed with the patient and they should be informed that this will likely effect the efficacy of the therapy; this conversation must be documented in the patient's medical chartXx_NEWLINE_xXIf there is a patient with an NY-ESO-1 expressing soft tissue sarcoma who would be otherwise eligible for the trial, which is either not synovial sarcoma (SS) or myxoid/round cell liposarcoma (MRCL) or there is controversy about the diagnosis, eligibility will be decided by the PIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have NY-ESO-1 specific cells already produced or in production; these cells may be either in the process of their final expansion (for fresh infusion) or expanded and frozen at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom we are unable to generate NY-ESO-1 specific cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known history of proven myocarditis, pericarditis, and/ or endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXAges 50-70 years,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a single lesion with a maximum size of ? 12 mm with ? 10 mm of capsular contact as confirmed by MR imaging,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas ? 33% positive biopsy coresXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to visualize prostate gland adequately on transrectal ultrasound imaging during enrollment evaluation,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of bladder neck contracture,Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre interested in future fertility,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a concurrent major debilitating illness,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave any active implanted electronic device (e.g., pacemaker),Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre unable to catheterize due to a urethral stricture disease,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave had prior transurethral prostatectomy (TURP), or urethral stent,Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a score >= 12 on the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ)-9 questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient selects a response of “1, 2 or 3” to question number 9 on the PHQ-9 questionnaire regarding potential for suicidal thoughts or ideation (independent of the total score of the PHQ-9)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 30 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for immediate or urgent treatment with daily vemurafenib and for whom the intermittent schedule of vemurafenib employed during the 19-day period for this trial is not clinically acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent dyspnea at rest, owing to complications of advanced malignancy or any requirement for supplemental oxygen to perform activities of daily livingXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who need to take CYP3A4 inhibitors, such as cyclosporine, sirolimus, tacrolimus, verapamil, danazol, gemfibrozil, ketoconazole, or macrolide antibiotics (e.g., azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin) will be excluded; prior use of these agents is acceptable, as long as they are stopped at least a week prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of rhabdomyolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who consume more than 3 alcoholic beverages per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently treated with metformin or a statin or who have been treated with metformin or a statin in the past 6 months are ineligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have taken 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors (finasteride or dutasteride), saw palmetto, or PC-SPES within the last 6 weeks are ineligible for this study; patients taking other herbal supplements, vitamins, or other alternative medications are eligible for this study, as long as they were started > 2 months prior to study entry, have remained on a stable regimen, and will remain on a stable regimen for the duration of participation on this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed cluster of differentiation (CD) 20+ DLBCL with IPI between 3-5Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have HERV-K(HML2) viral load of >= 1 x 10^4 using a gag primer reverse transcriptase (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assayXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with lymphomas that are considered potentially curable, all curative attempts should be exhausted before the patient is considered eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known allergic reaction to lamivudine or tenofovir DFXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on drugs that interfere with renal function or drugs that compete with tenofovir for active binding sites (i.e. intravenous cidofovir, acyclovir, ganciclovir, and valganciclovir)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient using herbal and dietary supplements that may interact with CYP3A4Xx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate <50 beats per minute;Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch block;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal baseline Troponin-I.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: use of luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists (e.g., leuprolide or goserelin) is not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to treat with anastrozole for at least 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be currently taking (or have taken in the past 6 months) medication for active, chronic conditions, including rheumatoid arthritis, carpal tunnel syndrome, tenosynovitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, gout, fibromyalgia, or severe osteoarthritis involving the hands, wrists, hips, knees, feet or ankles; this includes analgesic medications or medications being taken with the purpose of treating pain or that may have an effect on pain (e.g. anti-depressants for help with pain or neuropathy, corticosteroid shots for arthritis); (Note: patients taking daily low dose aspirin are allowed to participate in this trial)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have worst pain rated as no worse than 3 out of 10 on the following question (i.e., a pain score of 0, 1, 2, or 3): “In the past week, how much pain have you had on a scale of 0 to 10, where 0 equals no pain and 10 means the worst pain you can imagine; \ NOTE: this question regarding patient’s pain should be completed within one week prior to registration; this question may be asked orally prior to consent up to 7 days prior to registration; the response will be recorded on the registration checklistXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active collagen vascular diseases, such as: systemic lupus erythematous, scleroderma, or dermatomyositisXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative inked histologic margins from mastectomy pathology (no invasive cells at margin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo significant post mastectomy complications requiring an unplanned re-operation or admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics; re-operation for margins evaluation, nodal completion and routine reconstruction is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiation oncologist intends to treat all target volumes and respect all normal tissues in accordance with the dosimetric constraints described (simulation before registration recommended)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiation oncologist is NOT planning to utilize a chest wall/scar boostXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have undergone immediate reconstruction at the time of mastectomy or be planning to undergo reconstruction within 8 months after radiationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo past or current use of mixed opioid agonist/opioid antagonists or other opioid antagonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo acute gastrointestinal conditions, such as: obstruction, fecal impaction, obstipation, acute surgical abdomen, ongoing need for manual maneuvers to induce bowel movements (such as digital evacuation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScore of < 9 on the PHQ-4Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a FSFI desire subscale baseline score less than 3.3\r\n* NOTE-Both the PHQ4 and FSFI must be completed by the patient and data entered in Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) at Step 1 registration to determine eligibility within 10 days prior to registration; both of these scores will be calculated in the OPEN system once submitted as part of Step 1 registration; an error message will appear once the patient begins Step 2 registration if one or both of the scores make the patient ineligible; in this situation, continue to complete Step 2 with the reason the patient will not continue on the study as “Other” and specify ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAntidepressants for mood and hot flashes, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI’s) will be allowed if patients have been on a stable dose for the last 60 days and the dose is not expected to change during the course of the study; only subthreshold or low dose antidepressants will be allowed, not antidepressants that have been titrated up to the highest doses for depression management (i.e. Effexor 37.5 -75 mg or Lexapro 5-10 mg or Celexa 10 – 20 mg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProficient in English (due to number of questionnaires not validated in other languages)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of the FSFI and PHQ4; both questionnaires will be required and data entered at the time of step 1 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPRIOR TO STEP 2 RANDOMIZATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of the following baseline quality of life forms: PHQ4, FSFI, PROMIS sexual function and satisfaction, PROMIS fatigue short form 8a, impact of treatment scale, patient reported outcomes (PRO)-Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) items, and revised dyadic adjustment scale; these quality of life forms will be required and data must be entered in RAVE at step 2 registration; if available at the time of step 1 registration, step 2 registration can take place immediately after step 1, but cannot occur more than 30 days after step 1; women who do not currently have a partner do not have to complete the revised dyadic adjustment scale; enter “no partner” for this formXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or history of anorexia or bulimia in the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of drugs metabolized by CYP2D6; these are called CYP2D6 substratesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis or fibromyalgiaXx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive pelvic exenteration surgery, surgeries which include partial or total vaginectomy with or without reconstruction; radical vulvectomy with or without remove of clitorisXx_NEWLINE_xXMales are not permitted to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing abrupt discontinuation of alcohol, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, and antiepileptic drugs after chronic useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impaired decision making as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of bupropionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious or concurrent use of flibanserinXx_NEWLINE_xXBe scheduled to receive an antiemetic regimen that does not contain Akynzeo; in addition, the antiemetic regimen must conform with American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO) Clinical Practice Guidelines at cycle 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: patients 80 years of age or older must have approval from an oncologist or their designee to participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave clinical evidence of current or impending bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave severe hepatic impairment, severe renal impairment, or end-stage renal disease as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXBe taking benzodiazepinesXx_NEWLINE_xXBe taking anticholinergic medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXBe taking amifostine (Ethiofos)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with glioblastoma, gliosarcoma, small cell or large cell glioblastoma, glioblastoma with oligo features, glioblastoma with primitive neuroectodermal tumor-like components (GBM-PNET) features, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, or anaplastic oligoastrocytoma who are clinically stable and have completed radiation therapy (excluding stereotactic radiosurgery) > 21 days and =< 24 months prior to enrollment; NOTE: clinical stability will be defined as a stable or improved Karnofsky performance status (KPS) compared to the prior monthXx_NEWLINE_xX>= 6 score on the worst fatigue question of the BFI (Brief Fatigue Inventory, question 3); it is not required for the patient to complete the entire BFI to meet this criterionXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergone surgery (gross total or subtotal resection) or biopsy and will have been treated with concurrent radiation therapy and chemotherapy as standard of care for glioblastoma, gliosarcoma, small cell or large cell glioblastoma, glioblastoma with oligo features, glioblastoma with primitive neuroectodermal tumor-like components (GBM-PNET) features, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, or anaplastic oligoastrocytoma patients; Note: radiation must be completed, but chemotherapy is allowed; patients who are currently using Optune device will be eligible to participate in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of steroid psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently using any other pharmacologic agents or nonpharmacologic interventions to specifically treat fatigue, including psychostimulants, antidepressants, acupuncture, etc. will be excluded; Note: antidepressants used to treat items other than fatigue (such as hot flashes or depression) are allowed if the patient has been on a stable dose for >= 30 days prior to registration and plans to continue for the duration of the trial; erythropoietin agents to treat anemia are allowed; exercise is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or active glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXMotivated to stop smoking, as indicated by a score of 6 or above on the Contemplation LadderXx_NEWLINE_xXNo allergies to and not currently using vareniclineXx_NEWLINE_xXNo suicidal thoughts as indicated by a positive (1+) response to question 9 on the PHQ9Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXNot currently on renal dialysis or has a history of significant renal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNo recent history (=< 90 days) of substance abuse (outside of tobacco) defined by National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) as:\r\n* If male, drinking > 14 alcoholic beverages per week for past 1 month\r\n* If female, drinking > 7 alcoholic beverages per week for past 1 month\r\n* Use of cocaine, heroin, club drugs (i.e., 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)/“ecstasy”), methamphetamine, or hallucinogens (e.g., lysergic acid diethylamide [LSD]) at any time during the past 1 month\r\n* Use of marijuana on a weekly basis for the past 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXNo other household member or relative participating in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients at institutions that elect to confirm eligibility locally may be pre-registered at the same time as they are randomizedXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of radionecrosis will be based on a clinical onset of symptoms and radiological findings of radionecrosis at 3-24 months following radiosurgery, with or without pathological confirmationXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic brain radionecrosis to at least one lesion following radiosurgery treatment for brain metastases where symptomatic is defined as:\r\n* New or increasing headache associated with mass effect, sensory or motor abnormality, cognitive changes, speech difficulty, balance or coordination difficulty, cranial nerve deficits\r\n* Symptoms are persistent or worsening despite administration of at least dexamethasone 4 mg daily for 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical eligibility supported by central imaging real-time review\r\n* The presence of at least the following conventional magnetic resonance (MR) image characteristic:\r\n** Conventional MR\r\n*** Lesion quotient of < 0.3, where lesion quotient is defined as the proportional value of the maximum axial cross-sectional area of the transverse relaxation time (T2)-weighted defined lesion over the maximum axial cross-sectional area of the contrast-enhancing lesion on the longitudinal relaxation time (T1)-weighted post-gadolinium sequence on a comparable axial sliceXx_NEWLINE_xXIf the conventional MR findings are not seen, the following dynamic susceptibility-contrast (DSC) MR characteristics may be used to meet eligibility for this study:\r\n* DSC MR\r\n** The cut-offs below will be based on gradient echo type echo planar imaging (GRE- EPI) DSC perfusion images, acquired without using a gadolinium pre-load:\r\n*** Relative cerebral blood volume (rCBV) < 1.5 in the enhancing-lesion relative to normal-appearing white matter (NAWM)\r\n*** Percentage of signal recovery (PSR) >= 76%, where PSR is determined by comparing the lower signal intensity during passage of the contrast bolus with the post-contrast signal intensity on the signal intensity-time curveXx_NEWLINE_xXNo bevacizumab =< 3 months of study registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXCentral imaging real-time review (72 hour turn around) to confirm eligibility (for institutions that opt to utilize central imaging review to confirm eligibility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen measurement (BUN) < 30 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to participate in patient-report outcomes (MDASI-BT, DSQ-C, LASA) questionnaires; assistance by research personnel is acceptable if participant has disabilities that make reading or writing difficultXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of psychotropic medications (anti-depressants, anxiolytics, sleeping aids, narcotics) is permitted (patient will be asked to list any that have been taken within the last 3 days on the recent medication sheet) if dose is stable over previous 12 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported cognitive problem plus a measured memory deficit (score =< 7 on single trial of eligibility pre-screen Hopkins Verbal Learning Test-Revised [HVLT-R] form C)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine, memantine, methylphenidate, dextroamphetamine, or any other specific cognition enhancing drugs are not allowed; for patients who have used these medications they must not have used them within 4 weeks prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXTraumatic brain injury, multiple sclerosis, acute severe fatigue, chronic fatigue syndrome or fibromyalgiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMeet Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)-V criteria for insomnia and score >= 10 on the Insomnia Severity IndexXx_NEWLINE_xXHave contraindications to functional testing or yoga participation according to the treating physician or the physician's designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXHave practiced yoga >= 1 day a week within the 3 months prior to enrolling in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBe planning to start yoga on their own during the time they are enrolled in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a confirmed diagnosis of sleep apnea or restless leg syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the cognitive ability to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient wishes to become pregnant\r\n* Note: patients who have undergone oocyte/embryo/ovarian tissue cryopreservation at breast cancer diagnosis and/or have a previous history of assisted reproductive technology (ART) are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be without clinical evidence of loco-regional and distant disease, as evaluated according to institutional assessment standards and documented in the patient recordXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has been informed of and agrees to data transfer and handling, in accordance with national data protection guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be accessible for follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of noncompliance to medical treatments and/or considered potentially unreliableXx_NEWLINE_xXScore >= 10 on the Generalized Anxiety Disorder-7 Questionnaire (GAD-7) and/or a score >= 8 on the Patient Health Questionnaire-9 Item (PHQ-9), indicating clinically significant anxiety or depressive symptoms, respectivelyXx_NEWLINE_xXResidency in a rural zip code defined as below by the Rural-Urban Commuting Areas (RUCA) version 3.1; residential zip codes are assigned a RUCA code based on size of its largest population center and commuting patterns; a spreadsheet with eligibility by zip code will be provided to all participating sites\r\n* Rural: 4.0, 4.2, 5.0, 5.2, 6.0, 6.1, 7.0, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4, 8.0, 8.2, 8.3, 8.4, 9.0, 9.1, 9.2, 10.0, 10.2, 10.3, 10.4, 10.5, and 10.6Xx_NEWLINE_xXResidency in one of the following states: Georgia, Illinois, Minnesota, Missouri, New Mexico, North Carolina, North Dakota, South Carolina, Virginia, and WisconsinXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have access to a telephone; if a patient does not have access to a phone or has difficulty paying for minutes for a mobile phone, the research team should contact the Wake Forest investigators or site coordinators to arrange for assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent psychotherapy (regular appointment[s] with a psychologist, counselor, or therapist within the last 30 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlobal cognitive impairment based on education-adjusted scores (details below) on the Telephone Interview for Cognitive Status-modifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXActive suicidal ideation with plan and intentXx_NEWLINE_xXHearing loss that would preclude participating in telephone sessions (determined by brief hearing assessment administered by research staff at each National Cancer Institute Community Oncology Research Program [NCORP] component); individuals who can compensate for hearing loss through the use of a hearing device or telecommunication device for the deaf (TDD) phone, and through the use of such devices are able to communicate with the study therapist by telephone, will be included; if the therapist cannot communicate with the participant by telephone, the participant will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of ALL, in first remission; enrollment on a Children Oncology Group (COG) therapeutic study for ALL is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving continuous oral 6MP during the maintenance phase of therapy for ALL (held only for toxicity or illness), and will be returning to the clinic every 4 weeks for scheduled appointments while enrolled on COG ACCL1033 (between days 1 and 141)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a designated parent or caregiver who is willing to enter into a mutual agreement with the patient to participate in a daily supervised medication administration routineXx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to use the MEMS® TrackCap™ (e.g., not using a pillbox or prescribed liquid 6MP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParent/caregiver and patient (if 12 years and older) must be willing to use a cellular telephone to receive medication reminders via text messaging during study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have undergone a cone biopsy or loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP); depth of invasion must be =< 10 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have met the pre-entry requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clear cell or neuroendocrine cell typesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with depth of invasion > 10 mm on first cone biopsy (or LEEP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one geriatric assessment domain meet the cut-off score for impairment other than polypharmacyXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have taken within 21 days prior to step 1 registration, be currently taking at the time of step 1 registration, or planning to take once registered to step 1 a beta blocker, ARB, or ACE inhibitor in order to be randomized (Arms 1 and 2)\r\n* Patients currently taking a beta blocker, ARB, or ACE inhibitor at the time of step 1 registration are eligible to register for the non-randomized observational cohort (Arm 3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have LVEF >= 50% by 2-dimensional (D) echocardiogram within 28 days prior to registration; the echocardiogram must be obtained from a S1501 validated ECHO laboratory (lab) and submitted for central review by the S1501 ECHO core lab; ECHO should not be submitted for central read until patient has been otherwise deemed eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be dialysis dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have uncontrolled asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to submit blood specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXSites must seek additional patient consent for the future use of specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 2 REGISTRATION (Randomization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use (previous 30 days) of a tobacco dependence treatment including bupropion, varenicline, and nicotine replacement because the person is trying to quit; use of bupropion for depression does not exclude the patient from participating; the occasional use of tobacco dependence treatment (e.g., nicotine replacement therapy [NRT]) to avoid using tobacco in public spaces is not considered to be an exclusion criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who use e-cigarettes and who are not smoking cigarettes; dual users (those who use both e-cigarettes and cigarettes) will be included in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of a physical or cognitive impairment that would prevent a person from engaging in survey research (such as blindness, deafness, or dementia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKEY INFORMANT: Member of the lung cancer screening team who is (or would be) responsible for implementation and/or supporting smoking cessation support for patients receiving lung cancer screening; this will include the program champion (intervention clinic only) and is likely to include: imaging facility program directors, health care providers (e.g., physicians, radiological technicians), and other staff (e.g., receptionist); coordinators of centralized services for tobacco cessation at the component/subcomponent would also be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXKEY INFORMANT: Agrees to participate in a confidential 1-on-1 semi-structured interview with the research teamXx_NEWLINE_xXKEY INFORMANT: Agrees to have the interview taped, transcribed and qualitatively analyzedXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Lives in a state where their institutions’ PC clinicians are licensed to practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Relative or friend who is identified by the patient participant and lives with the patient or has contact with them at least twice per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: They have cognitive or psychiatric conditions as determined by the treating oncologist to prohibit study consent or participationXx_NEWLINE_xXA parent (referred to as “parent” in this proposal and includes a parent or legal guardian) of a patient age 3 to 17 years of age who is newly diagnosed with any type of malignant disease on an inpatient oncology unitXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers that are illiterate will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient enrollment must occur within 4 calendar months following completion of CRT\r\n* Reminder: after patient enrollment, baseline testing followed by randomization must occur within 2-4 months after completion of CRTXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have an identified caregiver who is willing and able to oversee the training practice during the intervention period (ie, for 5-9 weeks starting approximately 3 months after completion of CRT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have access to a telephone and phone number where they can be reachedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pontine glioma are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an estimated survival of less than one year are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a motor, visual, or auditory handicap that prevents computer use (e.g., unresolved posterior fossa syndrome) are not eligible to participate in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with full-scale intelligence quotient (IQ) < 70 per previous testing OR existing diagnosis of/educational classification as a student with an intellectual disability are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1 REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade II and III gliomas IDH mutant gliomas including; diffuse astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, oligoastrocytoma, anaplastic oligoastrocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation from the enrolling site confirming the presence of IDH mutation and 1p/19q status; the provided information must document assays performed in clinical laboratory improvement amendments (CLIA)-approved laboratories and be uploaded prior to Step 2 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) < 30mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXDefinitive evidence of multifocal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with infra-tentorial tumors are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of neurologic or psychiatric disease believed to impact cognitive functionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following baseline neurocognitive assessments must be completed and uploaded prior to step 2 registration: HVLT-R (recall, delayed recall, and recognition), TMT parts A and B, and COWA; the neurocognitive assessment will be uploaded into a folder in the NRG Medidiata RAVE System for evaluation by Dr. Wefel; once the upload and scoring of the tools are complete, a notification will be sent within 3 business days to the research associate (RA) to proceed to step 2; in order for the patient to be eligible, at least 5 of the 6 neurocognitive assessments must be able to be scored (i.e. free of any errors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of all items on the following baseline quality of life forms: MDASI-BT, LASA QOL, WPAI-GH and Employment Questionnaire; these quality of life forms will be required and data entered at step 2 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave chronic nausea that has been present for at least one week (worst daily score > 3, 0-10 visual analogue scale) or vomiting at least five times over past one weekXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen of any body mass index (BMI) undergoing a laparotomy procedure for a presumed gynecologic malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are morbidly obese (BMI >= 40) undergoing laparotomy for any indicationXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with laparotomy incisions left open due to case classification as \contaminated\ or \dirty\Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with laparotomy incisions unable to be closed primarily due to tissue or fascial damageXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen undergoing panniculectomy at the time of laparotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with sensitivity to silverXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported current smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a working telephone numberXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a valid home addressXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of tobacco products other than cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of tobacco cessation medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAnother household member enrolled in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication for nicotine patch useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient and partner are married or cohabitating and relationship duration >= 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has an Impact of Events Scale (IES) score >= 16 and/or partner has an IES score of >= 17 at the time of initial screening for eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXNeither has a significant hearing impairment precluding intervention session participationXx_NEWLINE_xXLive within one hour commuting distance to the center where they were recruitedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a doctor diagnosis of COPDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is a current or ex-smoker with a smoking history of >= 10 pack yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary closure of woundXx_NEWLINE_xXFlap coverage or skin graftXx_NEWLINE_xXRepeat surgeries for oncologic reasons (positive margins)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that may affect the patient’s ability to participate in this trial, e.g. known or suspected active alcohol or drug abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown inherited predisposition to thrombosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe hepatic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been treated with mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas undergone immediate reconstructive surgery with placement of a tissue expander or permanent implant at time of mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of bolus is permitted, but not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAfter completion of all three screening questionnaires, participant must score accordingly on at least one questionnaire to be eligible:\r\n* Score >= 8 on the anxiety subscale of the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS)-Anxiety/Depression Scale OR\r\n* Score >= 4 on the Distress Thermometer OR\r\n* Score > 5 on the Modified Cancer Acceptance ScaleXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling/able to attend brief introductory session and use assigned device for the assigned period of time (15 minutes once or twice per day), at least 5 days per week for 12 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPaid employment (full time or part time) at time of consentXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to use and read a smartphone (iPhone or Android)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a smartphone (iPhone or Android)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas low confidence in requesting workplace accommodations (based on a brief screening survey). Low confidence is defined by having a score of 7 or lower on any of the five measuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having any immediate reconstructive procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are having bilateral mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who take long acting opioid medication useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded if they are having their mastectomy performed with tumescenceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients weighing < 40 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight less than 300 pounds (lbs.), as dictated by the weight limit for dual x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scanner and Saris CycleOps Phantom 5 bicycleXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular access to a smart phone, tablet or computerXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement of assistive devices (e.g., cane) for ambulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPlans for moving to a new home or workplace during, pre-, or post-intervention periodXx_NEWLINE_xXElective surgery anticipated during, pre-, or post-intervention period (e.g., breast reconstruction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaving musculoskeletal pain, defined as regional (joints, extremities, back, neck) or more generalized (fibromyalgia or chronic widespread pain)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaving a pain rating of 4 or greater in worst pain on a 0-10 numerical rating scale in the preceding week (patients with a neuropathic component to their pain that involves the extremities or back will be eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave non-musculoskeletal pain syndromes (headache, facial pain, chest pain, visceral abdominal pain) if these are the sole source of pain, but can be present as co-morbid conditions as long as a patient has a primary musculoskeletal pain condition defined as aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXPhantom limb painXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a pending pain-related Veterans Administration (VA) or social security or worker's compensation (comp) disability claim by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an implanted electronically charged medical deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must be scheduled for a total laparoscopic or robotic-assisted hysterectomy for a gynecologic conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is not eligible if the surgeon does not plan to use a uterine manipulatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHave reliable internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXHave their own e-mail address, or be willing to sign up for a new oneXx_NEWLINE_xXNot in a committed relationship for at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPeople without internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had at least one prior episode of fever and neutropenia (ANC < 500/mm^3 or expected to fall below < 500/mm^3) during doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide (AC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking lithiumXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pain or dysesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients able to complete pain assessment and quality of life surveysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with multiple osseous sites are eligible; however should not treat more than 3 separate radiation treatment fields concurrentlyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with surgery for osseous metastases are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a current, untreated spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with painful metastases to hands and feet that need to be radiated on protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously treated with radioactive isotope (e.g. strontium [Sr]89) within 30 days of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXIn addition to the above, subjects meeting the following criteria will be enrolled in the pre-phase arm of the study, until the accrual target for that arm is reached:\r\n* Age >= 70 years OR KPS =< 70\r\n* Pathologically confirmed diagnosis of DLBCL, with or without simultaneous or antecedent indolent lymphoma\r\n* Previously untreated for DLBCL\r\n* Intended initial treatment to include >= 2 cycles of R-CHOP; rituximab, etoposide, prednisone, vincristine, cyclophosphamide, and doxorubicin hydrochloride (R-EPOCH); or rituximab, cyclophosphamide, etoposide, procarbazine, and prednisone (R-CEPP) using standard doses and schedule; R-CHOP chemoimmunotherapy may be given every 14 days or every 21 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously enrollment in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scoring >= 11 on the Blessed Orientation-Memory-Concentration Test (BOMC) (implying cognitive impairment) will be excluded since their ability to reliably complete the questionnaire will be in doubtXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing RC and IC formation in an elective setting for non-metastatic cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival < 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSalvage RCXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to perform basic activities of daily living (as determined by referring study recruiter at intake)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBedridden, or physical debilitation such that study participation would not be feasible or would create undue hardshipXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is at high risk for bowel perforationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has constipation that was not primarily caused by opioids, as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of irritable bowel syndrome, signs of active gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding, acute surgical abdomen, bowel stents, indwelling peritoneal catheter, mechanical GI obstruction, fecal impaction, or fecal ostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has motility/neurologic disorders including autonomic failure (spinal cord lesions, tumor invasion of nerves) and/or poorly controlled endocrine/metabolic disorders (hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, diabetes, hypothyroidism), as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary defined as participating in 2 or less days of dedicated physical activity per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXConsistent daily access to a smartphoneXx_NEWLINE_xXA text messaging plan that includes a minimum of 150 text messages a month at no additional costXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipates in 3 or more days of dedicated physical activity per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXNo access to a smart phone or text messaging plan less than 150 messages per monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical or psychological contraindication to participation at the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported sexual dysfunction (Derogatis Interview for Sexual Functioning [DISF]-Male [M]-II score =< 20 in the sexual desire domain), and/or fatigue (Functional Assessment of Chronic Illness Therapy [FACIT]-Fatigue [F] score < 30), or physical dysfunction (self-reported difficulty in walking a 1/4 mile or climbing two flights of stairs, and short physical performance battery score [SPPB] between 4 to 9)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere untreated sleep apnea (treatment is defined as therapy with continuous positive airway pressure [CPAP], bilevel positive airway pressure [BiPAP], adaptive servo ventilation [ASV], or other positive air pressure device)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 40 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any of the following medications within the past 6 months: clarithromycin, telithromycin, chloramphenicol, itraconazole, nefazodone, cobicistatXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of the following treatments for erectile dysfunction (ED): penile implants, vacuum pump devices, intra-cavernosal injectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of any of the following cancers: stage 1-4b (includes 4a) oropharyngeal, hypopharyngeal, nasopharyngeal, salivary gland or oral cavity; stage 3-4b (includes 4a) laryngeal; any unknown primary head and neck cancer with cervical metastasis that will be addressed with treatment to bilateral necks and mucosa; any thyroid cancer that will be addressed with treatment to the bilateral necks; or other head and neck cancers medically approved by one of our Radiation Oncology collaborating medical doctors (MDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOvert cognitive difficulty demonstrated by not being clearly oriented to person or place or timeXx_NEWLINE_xXZubrod performance status > 2, or self-reports either not being up and about more than 50% of waking hours or unable to provide self-careXx_NEWLINE_xXOrthopedic, neurologic, or musculoskeletal disability that would interfere with the functional task of standing on a weight scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXConsented to enroll in a trial with a toxicity endpointXx_NEWLINE_xXIn phase 2, subjects are also required on accrual to be referred to palliative careXx_NEWLINE_xXDesignated by the patient as a person closely involved in their careXx_NEWLINE_xXTEMPLATE MODIFICATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXANTIBODY PROPHYLAXIS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal sinus rhythm with resting heart rate >= 80 bpm on screening electrocardiogram (EKG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to ivabradineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other established indications for ivabradine: stable, symptomatic chronic heart failure (HF) with a left ventricular ejection fraction ? 35% and in sinus rhythm with a resting heart rate (HR) ? 70 bpm, who are taking maximally tolerated doses of beta-blockers or have contraindications to beta-blocker useXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of documented anaphylaxis or contraindication to any of the study medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of toremifeneXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant cognitive impairment or documented psychologic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMyasthenia gravis or other neuromuscular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not eligible for standard anesthetic induction, e.g., those needing rapid sequence induction or awake fiberoptic bronchial intubationXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) status > 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with DCIS, LCIS, ADH, or ALH (the most recent, highest risk lesion is the “index lesion”) between January 1, 2012 and September 30, 2016Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreated and followed at one of the study sites (including affiliated network sites) and for whom treatment and surveillance data are available, for at least 1 year of follow up after date of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients identified by treating physician as being unsuitable for contactXx_NEWLINE_xXA caregiver of a participating lung cancer survivor\r\n*An enrolled survivor may designate one primary caregiver to participate in the study; (a caregiver cannot participate without an enrolled survivor)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIncarcerated individuals or individuals detained within the legal systemXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily access to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitively capable to use the phone unassisted as verified by research staffXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Within 12 months of beginning AETXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: At least 18 months of AET recommendedXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cognitive or hearing impairment that is documented in the medical record (one that would make it difficult to comprehend and remember the material covered during study phone sessions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXApproval from their treating physician to engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient-assessed ability to walk and engage in moderate physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more significant medical conditions that in the physician’s judgment preclude participation in the walking interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a feeding tube previously placedXx_NEWLINE_xXScore in the range of 'very low' or 'low' food security status on the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Household Food Security Module (score of 3 or higher)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLiving independently (no patient in an assisted living facility) in New York City (NYC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIAN: Has a Doctor of Medicine (MD) or Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine (DO) degreeXx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIAN: Is the treating physician providing care to a patient enrolled to the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas physical limitations that would prevent participation (e.g. blindness)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOCUS GROUPS:\r\n* Has a household member who has already participated (or agreed to participate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatinine =< 3mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to the internet during the 4-hour online course and at least once per month to participate in post-training virtual meetings, discussion board postings, email, and periodic audio chat conferencesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a computer, tablet, or smartphone (iPhone or Android) with built-in camera and microphoneXx_NEWLINE_xXHave basic proficiency in the use of a computer, including word processing and emailXx_NEWLINE_xXCommit to the STOP Program by completing the online course and sharing lessons learned with other CCPs at the monthly virtual meetings that will take place during the 6 months following course completionXx_NEWLINE_xXFOCUS GROUP: IC to a Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) patient with GBM who died a year or more agoXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED INTERVENTION: Current ICs to a patient with GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED INTERVENTION: Score of > 4 on the Distress Thermometer (DT) and indication that this distress is related in some way to the caregiving role per self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the judgment of the consenting professional, clinician or principal investigator (PI) and/or as per medical record, severe psychopathology or cognitive impairment likely to interfere with the participation or completion of the protocol or ability to provide meaningful information.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of a low-risk PCa diagnosis as evidenced by clinical features of the\r\nfollowing criteria:\r\n* PSA test at diagnosis =< 15 ng/ml\r\n* Localized PCa (cT1/T2,N0,M0)\r\n* Biopsy Gleason grade 2-6 OR (or 3+4 AND <=33% cores are positive for adenocarcinoma)\r\n** A minimum of 10 diagnostic cores taken by a systematic directed approach. Sampling may be obtained by target transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) imaging.\r\n* No treatment yet\r\n** No previous radiation or simultaneous use of androgen deprivation\r\n** Prior use of 5-alpha reductase inhibitor is allowed if they have been stopped for 6 or more months and biopsy performed when patient was not\r\ntaking the drug\r\n* English language proficient and ability to provide informed consent form (ICF)\r\n* Managing urologist considers them a candidate for active surveillanceXx_NEWLINE_xXIf their managing urologist does NOT deem them as a candidate for active surveillance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXVisual or hearing impairment that would prevent ability to engage in the telephone session or study materialsXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who receive Oncotype Dx testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPARENT/CAREGIVER: One or both parents self-identify as Hispanic/Latino and the primary participating parent/caregiver is monolingual or bilingual Spanish speakingXx_NEWLINE_xXCHILD: Children treated for ALL or AML or LL aged 5-12 years and their parents/caregiversXx_NEWLINE_xXCHILD: Child understands English and is enrolled in school (but can be bilingual)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent or current participation in educational/behavioral intervention study with similar focusXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported shortness of breath (a score of 2 or greater on the Modified Medical Research Council Dyspnea Scale)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA treating clinician that feels the patient is inappropriate for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHospitalized patients with high-risk AML, defined as:\r\n* Newly diagnosed patients with AML \r\n* Newly diagnosed AML with antecedent hematologic disorder\r\n* Newly diagnosed therapy-related AML\r\n* Relapsed AML\r\n* Primary refractory AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXInternet access through computer, laptop, tablet, or other mobile deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXAble/willing to have an online interaction with a Reimagine Pillar GuideXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2: Must be a current or recent former smoker (defined as smoked within past 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2: Must have an active telephone numberXx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICAL STAFF: Nurses, physicians, physician assistants, or support staff and perform direct patient care in the thoracic oncology clinicXx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICAL STAFF: Primary care physicians, radiation oncologist, medical oncologist and other providers (i.e. nurse practitioners, navigator, social worker etc.) who refer patients to thoracic clinic will also be recruited for interviews about delivery of tobacco treatment servicesXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2: Patients needing immediate medical intervention, for example, conditions such as; hypercalcemia causing lethargy and confusion, acute respiratory distress, dehydration, and/or hypotensionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a spouse/partner other or close family member who he/she defines as the primary caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with diminished mental capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXChildrenXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver is deaf or has significant hearing impairment and thus cannot use the telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient lives with a partner (spouse/significant other – includes homo- and heterosexual couples)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with diminished mental capacityXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPain at baseline as measured by a BPI worst pain score average of >= 3; the BPI worst pain score average will be based on the worst pain scores completed by the patient in the 7 consecutive pretreatment days; a minimum of 4 days of pain scores must be completed by the patient in the 7 day window in order to calculate the average worst pain score; the investigator will optimize the subject’s pain regimen prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to radium-223Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived systemic therapy with radionuclides (e.g. strontium-89, samarium-153, rhenium-186 or rhenium-188) for the treatment of bone metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic nodal disease, i.e. scrotal, penile or leg edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received radiation without adequate relief from metastatic bone pain as determined by the patient and treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with NRS (0-10 scale) pain score ? 4 irrespective of medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXTargeted bone/tumor interface are ExAblate device accessible and are located in ribs, extremities (excluding joints), pelvis, shoulders and in the posterior aspects of the following spinal vertebra: Lumbar vertebra (L3 - L5), Sacral vertebra (S1 - S5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWorst pain NRS still ? 4 AndXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have from 1 to 5 painful lesions and only the most painful lesion will be treated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an acute medical condition (e.g., pneumonia, sepsis) that is expected to hinder them from completing this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on anti-arrhythmic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXKPS Score < 60 (See \Definitions\ below)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cerebrovascular disease (multiple CVA or CVA within 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not able or willing to tolerate the required prolonged stationary position during treatment (approximately 2 hrs.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to communicate with the investigator and staff.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with persistent undistinguishable pain (pain source unidentifiable of the targeted lesion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 18.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of somatostatinXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant food allergies which would make the subject unable to consume the food provided (soy or nut allergy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEnroll =< 3 months post-diagnosis (as soon as possible after diagnosis is desirable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReside in a non-metro county of the United States according to the United States Department of Agriculture (USDA) Rural-Urban Continuum Codes (6 -9) (RUCC) or at a rural zip-code by the USDA Rural Urban Commuting Area (RUCA) codes (10.X)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave regular access (e.g. home or work) to high speed/satellite broadband Internet on desk/laptop or wireless iPad, Android or iPhone throughout the 3 months of the study\r\n* Several iPads with wireless plan will be available to women who are eligible, but do not have computer accessXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an email address at which to receive CaringGuidance promptsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a baseline Distress Thermometer score of >= 4, or an Impact of Events Scale score of >= 9, or Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale score of >= 16 (i.e. clinically meaningful thresholds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea with an average intensity >= 4 on the dyspnea NRS (range 0-10) over the past week.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSeen at an outpatient clinic at MD Anderson Cancer Center or The Harris Health System (LBJ) Hospital General Oncology Clinic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium (i.e., score >13 on the Memorial Delirium Assessment Scale; range 1-30).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation < 90% despite supplemental oxygen > 6 L/minute.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious allergic reactions to dexamethasone.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPostsurgical open wound that has not healed at the time of enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMegestrol use at the time of study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation at the time of study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh anxiety score (>=15/21) on the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny expected corticosteroid use during study enrollment at higher doses than will be used in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xX101 Subject was previously enrolled in Study 20062004.Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe CIPN, defined by symptoms such as numbness, tingling, or pain ratings of 4 or greater on a 0–10 NRS scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXIf taking anti-neuropathy medications, they are on a stable regimen (no change in 3 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed patients with stage 1 through 3a BC scheduled to receive a 12-week, 16-week, 18-week, 20- week, or 24-week chemotherapy regimen, adjuvant or neoadjuvantXx_NEWLINE_xXBC patients scheduled to undergo chemo regimen other than the 12-week, 16-week, 18-week, 20-week, or 24-week regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXBC patients scheduled to go on aromatase inhibitors after treatment\r\n* Note: at MSH only, there is another ongoing Breast Cancer R01 and in order to avoid conflicting with that protocol and overburdening patients, the study will exclude BC patients scheduled to go on aromatase inhibitors. We can easily reach recruitment goals with this approach)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently employed in night shift workXx_NEWLINE_xXConfounding underlying medical illnesses which may cause fatigue (e.g., severe anemia not controlled by medication, per self-report corroborated by medical chart review (e.g., hemoglobin [Hb] < 10gm/dl))Xx_NEWLINE_xXEye diseases which limit the ability of light to be processed (e.g., untreated cataracts, severe glaucoma, macular degeneration, blindness, pupil dilation problems or retina damage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere sleep disorders (e.g., narcolepsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere psychological impairment (e.g., hospitalization for depressive episode in the past 12 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious use of light therapy to alleviate fatigue or depressive symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXLives outside of the United States throughout duration of studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the psychological ability and general health that permits completion of the study requirements and required follow up; patients must be willing to complete neurocognitive assessments at pre-specified time points outlined in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe CIPN, defined by symptoms such as numbness, tingling, or pain ratings of 4 or greater on a 0-10 numeric rating scale (NRS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf taking anti-neuropathy medications, they are on a stable regimen (no change in 3 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXMen that utilize English or Spanish as their primary spoken or written language and identify with a Latino ethnicity and/or cultureXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score of 6 - 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreated with intent to cureXx_NEWLINE_xXHad their cancer care primarily managed by either Johns Hopkins Medical Institution (JHMI) or Peninsula Regional Medical Center (PRMC), with JHMI or PRMC primarily responsible for the patients’ survivorship careXx_NEWLINE_xXHas private insurance, or covered by Medicare or MedicaidXx_NEWLINE_xXNot treated with intent to cureXx_NEWLINE_xXDid not have cancer care primarily managed within one of the 4 participating clinics, or JHMI or PRMC is not primarily responsible for the patients’ survivorship careXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have health insurance at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXHave evidence of at least mild clinical depression on a standardized screening questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to commit to intervention schedule (6 weekly group meetings)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActively practicing mindfulness meditationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas another serious or chronic medical or psychiatric condition that contributes to substantial physical or emotional disability that would detract from participating in either of the intervention programs or from the measurement of intervention outcomesXx_NEWLINE_xXBe a resident of the United States of AmericaXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight > 10 kg (22 lbs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a hematologic malignancy with hypoproliferative thrombocytopenia and is expected to have PLT count(s) ? 10,000/µL requiring ? 2 PLT transfusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXFibrinogen ? 100 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has previously been enrolled in this study and received at least 1 per protocol PLT transfusionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is anticipated to need washed or volume reduced PLT during the course of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresently with or a history of acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML), idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), or hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSplenomegaly (presence of a palpable spleen whose border could be felt more than 4 cm below the costal margin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or diagnosis of a disease affecting hemostasisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking, or participating in a clinical study involving PLT substitutes, PLT growth factors, or pharmacologic agents intended to enhance (ie, antifibrinolytic agents) or decrease PLT hemostatic functionXx_NEWLINE_xXWireless internet connection or a home computer that is connected to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXBeing able and willing to attend study appointmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXIf visual, hearing, or cognitive impairment will interfere with interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXThis study was designed to include women and minorities, but was not designed to measure differences between them; males and females will be recruited with no preference to gender; minorities will actively be recruited to participate; no exclusion to this study will be based on raceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be >= 6 months from craniotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have subjective complaints of cognitive deficitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not have home access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who, based on the physician’s opinion, are unable to participate in neurocognitive testing and/or neurocognitive rehab secondary to significant neurologic deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXRace: African-Americans and non-Hispanic whitesXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk patients (as defined by the American College of Sports Medicine risk-stratification schema using the American College of Sports Medicine [ACSM]/American Heart Association exercise pre-participation questionnaire) who do not receive medical clearance from a physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medical or psychological conditions that would make participation unsafe or inhibit our ability to test our primary hypothesis, e.g. Parkinson’s disease, severe dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xX21 year of age or olderXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to perform basic activities of daily living (ADLs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to hear normal conversationXx_NEWLINE_xXReporting a severity of 3 or higher on fatigue using a 0-10 standardized scale at intake.Xx_NEWLINE_xXResiding in a nursing homeXx_NEWLINE_xXBedriddenXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Significant developmental delay per patient, parent, or physician reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Pregnant (per patient report)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Any medical contraindication to exercise according to a physician or physician’s designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Current physical activity level exceeding Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines for activity (60 min of moderate-vigorous exercise/day for 5+ days/week (wk) including 3+ days of vigorous intensity activities and muscle-strengthening exercises on 3+ days/wk and bone strengthening exercises on 3+ days/wk for children < 18 and 150 min of moderate vigorous exercise or 75 min of vigorous exercise/wk and 2+ days of muscle strengthening activities for adults >= 18); the CDC guidelines are used to determine exercise prescription in our intervention; individuals already exceeding the guidelines would be unlikely to benefit from participatingXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Significant developmental delay per patient, parent, or physician reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Pregnant (per patient report); if participant becomes pregnant during the course of the study, she will be removed from further participationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave outpatient visits at least once a monthXx_NEWLINE_xXAre ambulatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to access the internet and watch videos onlineXx_NEWLINE_xXValid email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported sleep duration of 6 hours per night or lessXx_NEWLINE_xXEndorses fatigue as determined by eligibility screening and a score of < 43 on Functional Assessment of Chronic Illness Therapy-Fatigue Scale (FACIT-F)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBeing evaluated or likely to be evaluated for a medical cause of fatigue (e.g., anemia, hypothyroidism) during the study; (per provider report)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave diagnosed, untreated sleep apnea or sleep apnea suspected by a physician but which has not been unevaluated (as assessed by screening questions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor aim 3: Receiving CTX for a cancer diagnosis on a 7, 14, or 21 day schedule with the CTX dose given on day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas subjective sleep disturbance (i.e., a self-rated score of fairly bad or very bad on question 13 of the Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index [during the past month, how would you rate your sleep quality overall? 0=very good; 1=fairly good; 2=fairly bad; 3=very bad])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) by the Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) staging systemXx_NEWLINE_xXAlready have an ongoing regular yoga practice within 2 months of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with non-palpable malignant lesions, requiring image guided localization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing lumpectomy (partial mastectomy) procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXFamilies of all children < 17 years of age admitted to the hospital during the study period who screen positive for secondhand smoke exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXFamilies of all children who have at least one custodial parent smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXFamilies of all children who are in the hospital for >= 24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren in foster care or with unclear custody (i.e. children admitted with non-accidental trauma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust use a condom if having sex with a pregnant womanXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to complete an acceptable cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPET) at baseline, defined as at least one of the following:\r\n* Achieving a plateau in oxygen consumption concurrent with an increase in power output\r\n* Respiratory exchange ratio >= 1.1 (RER)\r\n* Volitional exhaustion with a rating of perceived exertion >= 17 (RPE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to complete an acceptable muscular strength test (assessed using calculated one-repetition maximum [1-RM]) at baseline in the opinion of the fitness specialist, exercise physiologist, or trained designee administering the testXx_NEWLINE_xXMust use a condom if having sex with a pregnant womanXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have had treatments with GnRH agonists/antagonists and/or anti-androgens within 1 year of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent enrollment on other clinical research studies that contain an interventional therapy is not permitted while subjects are receiving pasireotide or within 5 half lives of finishing pasireotide; however, subjects may concurrently enroll in non-interventional studies (e.g. biobanking, mobile health tracking)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of unexplained syncope or family history of idiopathic sudden deathXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of hypocortisolismXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of pituitary hormone deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown gallbladder or bile duct disease, symptomatic cholelithiasis, acute or chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have confirmed and measurable sickle cell disease, defined by sickle cell anemia (SS) or sickle beta (SB) thalassemia confirmed by hemoglobin fractionationXx_NEWLINE_xXApproval from their treating physician to engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient-assessed ability to walk and engage in moderate physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in other CGA studies will not be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAlready walking or engaging in other physical activity > 120 minutes per week as documented via subject self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to walk or engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more significant medical conditions that in the physician’s judgment preclude participation in the walking interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with type I hypersensitivity reactions to chemotherapy agents including, but not exclusive to, platins, taxanes, or monoclonal agents as evidenced by typical immunoglobulin (Ig)E-mediated symptoms (ie. flushing, hives, dyspnea, wheezing, nausea, itchy eyes, nasal congestion, hypotension, angioedema) or tryptase level elevated above baseline during an infusion reaction\r\n* For various reasons, some, but not all, patients enrolled in the desensitization program may not have positive skin test data to confirm an IgE-mediated reaction; these reasons include 1) cutaneous toxicity of the drug precluding testing, 2) limited sensitivity of skin testing for the drug being tested, 3) lack of adequate testing reagent and controlsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with breakthrough reactions requiring multiple desensitization interventions including failed 16-step protocols or intervention with additional antihistamine (requiring > 50 mg of short-acting 1st-generation antihistamine – i.e. diphenhydramine or hydroxyzine -or > 10 mg of long-acting 2nd generation antihistamine – i.e. cetirizine or loratadine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically unable to undergo desensitizationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to omalizumabXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known diagnosis of a primary mast cell disease (ie. mastocytosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERS: Primary caregiver for study eligible patientXx_NEWLINE_xXHereditary metabolic bone disease or skeletal dysplasia (e.g., osteopetrosis or osteogenesis imperfecta [OI]) or primary hyperparathyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically significant fractures as defined by International Society for Clinical Densitometry (ISCD) (a long bone fracture of the lower extremities, vertebral compression fracture, or two or more long bone fractures of the upper extremities) indicated by a cast or a spine x-ray within the last 2 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXImpending invasive dental procedure that would be expected to occur during study participation (through day 360)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute thrombocytopenia in patients with hematological malignancies who are in remission and are receiving myelosuppressive consolidation chemotherapy that is expected to induce marrow aplasia for at least 2 weeks or;Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected chronic thrombocytopenia in patients with relapsed or refractory hematological malignancies or;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving procoagulant agent including desmopressin acetate (DDAVP), recombinant human antihemophilic factor (FVII) or prothrombin complex concentrate within 24 hours of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDisseminated intravascular coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXFibrinogen level < 150 mg/dlXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known lupus anticoagulant or positive antiphospholipid antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of arterial or venous thromboembolic disease 6 months prior to screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-ambulatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent diagnosis of organic brain syndrome, dementia, mental retardation, or significant sensory deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be undergoing a myeloablative allogeneic hematopoietic cell transplant with one of the following conditioning regimens:\r\n* Busulfan (>= 12.8 mg/kg IV or PO) and cyclophosphamide (>= 120 mg/kg)\r\n* Total body irradiation (TBI) (>= 1200 cGy) and etoposide (60 mg/kg)\r\n* TBI (>= 1200 cGy) and cyclophosphamide (120 mg/kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGLIOMA PATIENTS: Standard of care next generation sequencing via a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified platform must be available and at a minimum include IDH, RB, and ATRX statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be on enzyme-inducing antiepileptic drugs (EIAEDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXprogression of disease at the time of EnrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBRAF V600E mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXimplanted devices that cannot be easily removedXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen aged 18 and above;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the vulva (VIN2 or VIN3) caused by infection with HPV types 16 and/or 18 confirmed at screening visit;Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven differentiated VIN;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergy to imiquimod 5% cream or to an inactive ingredient in imiquimod 5% cream;Xx_NEWLINE_xXBulky disease (> 10 cm) at diagnosis or at relapse/refractory disease confirmationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive B symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXLVEF of at least 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to >375 mg/m2 of doxorubicin or liposomal doxorubicin or ?675 mg/m2 of EPI.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOthers:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on immunosuppression are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one \target lesion\ to be used to assess response, as defined by RECIST 1.1 criteria. Tumors within a previously irradiated field will be designated as \non-target\ lesions unless previous progression is documented;Xx_NEWLINE_xXGOG performance status 0-2 (refer to Appendix A);Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of blood clot;Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients who have received prior HSCT, there can be no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD) and greater than 60 days must have elapsed since the HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cerebellar toxicity or cerebellar neurological findings on examXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior treatment with IFN-gamma will be eligible, if they previously tolerated IFN-gamma, however patients must be off of IFN-gamma for at least three weeks before initiation of therapy on this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXIs eligible for definitive CRT and not considered for primary surgery based on investigator decisionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of immune-mediated pneumonitisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with nodular lymphocyte-predominant HLXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXHepatic function at screening and enrollment as defined by the NCI organ dysfunction working group (NCI-ODWG) criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic or impending spinal cord compression or cauda equine syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is not currently on hemodialysis and/or peritoneal dialysis for management of chronic kidney disease or acute failure/conditions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has no unstable renal function, defined as a change in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) (calculated with the MDRD equation) of > 25% for patients with mild and moderate renal impaired or as a change in eGFR > 30% for patients with severe renal impaired, from screening to enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic or impending spinal cord compression or cauda equina syndrome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreen-detected, estrogen receptor (ER) positive DCIS of the breast proven on core needle biopsy, defined as 10% ER positive cells; the presence of a focus suspicious for microinvasion will be allowed; the size of the DCIS in the core biopsy sample must total 5 mm (multiple cores can be summed) and must be estimated on the deepest step section (if step sections are taken)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid exposing breast skin to natural or artificial sunlight (i.e. tanning beds) for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDCIS presentation as a palpable massXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin lesions on the breast that disrupt the stratum corneum (e.g. eczema, ulceration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of endometrial neoplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thromboembolic disease (history of varicose veins and superficial phlebitis is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smokersXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent users of potent inhibitors of tamoxifen metabolism must be able to discontinue their use and switch to an alternative medication for the duration of participation, under the advice of their physician; if the physician feels that an alternative medication is not appropriate for the subject and the current medication is medically necessary, the subject will not be eligible; the drugs are listed below; many of these are not in clinical use at the moment; bupropion, celecoxib, chlorpheniramine, chlorpromazine, cimetidine, citalopram, clemastine, clomipramine, clozapine, cocaine, delavirdine, desipramine, diphenhydramine, doxepin, duloxetine, escitalopram, fluoxetine, haloperidol, halofantrine, hydroxyzine, imipramine, isoniazid, ketoconazole, methadone, methimazole, mibefradil, miconazole, nicardipine, paroxetine, pergolide, perphenazine, pioglitazone, pyrimethamine, quinidine, quinine, ranitidine, ritonavir, ropinirole, sertraline, terbinafine, thioridazine, ticlopidine, tranylcypromine, trazodone, tripelennamineXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERMS) and aromatase inhibitors (AIs) including tamoxifen, raloxifene, anastrozole, letrozole, or exemestane for prevention or therapy within 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXMen are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has agreed to abide by all protocol required procedures including study related assessments, and management by the treating institution for the duration of the study and long term follow-up.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a diagnosis of high grade myxoid liposarcoma / myxoid round cell liposarcoma confirmed histologically and by the presence of the reciprocal chromosomal translocation t(12;16)(q13;p11) or t(12; 22) (q13;q12)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has advanced (metastatic or inoperable) high grade myxoid liposarcoma / myxoid round cell liposarcoma. Inoperable refers to a tumor lesion in which clear margins cannot be obtained without leading to significant functional compromiseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is fit for apheresis and has adequate venous access for the cell collection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive serology for HTLV 1 or 2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have relapsed or refractory MDS.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has MDS evolving from a pre-existing myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B: Patients must not have any visceral lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must, in the opinion of the treating physician, be candidates for intralesional administration into cutaneous, subcutaneous, or nodal lesions; patients must have at least 2 injectable lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) obtained prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have active herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (e.g., herpetic keratitis or encephalitis) which requires intermittent or chronic treatment with an anti-herpetic drug other than intermittent topical useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have organ allograftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking for future researchXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXTanyN+M0 or T3-4N any M0 tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXDisease must be clinically limited to the esophagus or GEJ; GEJ tumors must be Siewert type I-IIIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have surgically resectable disease treatable by esophagectomy, as assessed by a thoracic surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors with significant involvement of the proximal stomach which, in the opinion of the treating thoracic surgeon, would require an esophagogastrectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject agrees to avoid sperm donation during the study and for at least 3 months after final enzalutamide administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOthers:Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of suitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling for TAK-659.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedications or supplements that are known to be moderate reversible inhibitors of CYP3A within 5 times the inhibitor half-life (if a reasonable half-life estimate is known) or within 7 days (if a reasonable half-life estimate is unknown) before the first dose of study drugs. In general, the use of these agents is not permitted during the study for this combination except in cases in which an AE must be managed. See a list of nonexhaustive moderate CYP3A reversible inhibitors based on the US FDA Draft DDI Guidance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPermanently discontinued from any Medivation sponsored study with talazoparib alone or in combination with another agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have had external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) or locoregional therapies such as radiofrequency (RF) ablation must show evidence of subsequent progressive disease (substantial size increase of ?20%) to be deemed a target lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to lenvatinib, everolimus (or other rapamycin derivatives), or any of the excipientsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive and current use of illegal recreational drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be classified into one of two cohorts of recurrent or persistent endometrial cancer of any histology:\r\n* The first cohort (MSI/POLE cohort) includes endometrial cancers that are: MSI-H as determined by immunohistochemical complete loss of expression (absence of nuclear immunoreactivity) of at least one of the mismatch repair genes MSH2, MSH6, MLH1 and PMS2; this test is now done routinely for every newly diagnosed endometrial cancer patient in most centers in the United States (US); and/OR: POLE-mutated, i.e. endometrial cancers known to harbor mutations in the exonuclease domain (amino acid residues 268–471) of polymerase e (POLE) as determined by targeted sequencing or other next generation sequencing assay; any Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-approved genomic test documenting mutations in the exonuclease domain of POLE gene (amino acid residues 268–471) in the tumor will be accepted as proof of presence of POLE mutations and will lead to classification into this patient cohort\r\n* The second cohort (MSS cohort) includes: endometrial cancers that are MSS as determined by normal immunohistochemical nuclear expression of all the mismatch repair genes MSH2, MSH6, MLH1 and PMS2; tumors which have not been sequenced for POLE mutations (i.e. their POLE mutations status is unknown) but are MSS, will be included in this cohortXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not use natural herbal products or other “folk remedies” while participating in this study; herbal medications include, but are not limited to St. John’s wort, kava, ephedra (ma huang), gingko biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA), yohimbe, saw palmetto, and ginsengXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part A, participants must have histologically confirmed solid tumors, CNS tumors, or lymphoma based upon biopsy or surgery at initial diagnosis and/or relapse/progression; the only exception to histologic confirmation is for pediatric tumors that are routinely diagnosed exclusively by standard clinical imaging criteria: diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma and optic pathway gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Part B, participants must have one of the following diagnoses histologically confirmed:\r\n* Neuroblastoma with evidence of mycn/myc positivity based on any of the following:\r\n** MYCN amplification (> 4 copy amplification) from Children's Oncology Group (COG) reference laboratory or other Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified laboratory; or\r\n** Mycn protein expression >= 1+ according to validated assay in Children’s Hospital Los Angeles (CHLA) Clinical Pathology Laboratory; or\r\n** Myc expression >= 1+ according to validated assay in CHLA Clinical Pathology Laboratory\r\n* One of the following mature B cell lymphoma diagnoses:\r\n** Diffuse large B cell lymphoma\r\n** Burkitt lymphoma\r\n* An extra-cranial, solid tumor, other than neuroblastoma, with evidence of MYC or MYCN-alteration based on either of the following:\r\n** MYC or MYCN amplification from a CLIA-certified laboratory\r\n** MYC or MYCN high copy gain from a CLIA-certified laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXIn order to limit dose deviations due to rounding, patients must have a body surface area of at least 0.5 m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXBreastfeeding mothers are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take abiraterone acetate on an empty stomach; no food should be consumed at least two hours before and or at least one hour after the dose abiraterone acetate is takenXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of medications that may alter pharmacokinetics of abiraterone or apalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXPreparative regimen: both reduced intensity and ablative regimens are permitted; each center will pre-specify the regimen they intend to use during the conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPredominant donor chimerisms as measured by CD3 and CD33 (or other myeloid marker)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXT deplete HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXUmbilical cord HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the critical care unit, or use of mechanical ventilation or use of renal replacement therapy at any time post HCT and prior to administration of ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of progressive disease as compared to pre-HCT (persistence of disease is permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed head and neck cancer (squamous cell histology), and may be poorly differentiated, stages IVA, IVB, and select cases of stage III or any stage that meets criterion\r\n* Human papilloma virus (HPV) status is required prior to randomization for oropharyngeal primary tumors, other anatomic sites will be classified as HPV- unless requested per the treating physician\r\n* Epstein Barr virus (EBV) status is required prior to randomization for nasopharyngeal primary tumors, other anatomic sites will be classified as HPV- unless requested per the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infectious disease considered by the Investigator to be incompatible with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired heart functionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven diagnosis of glioblastoma or other grade IV malignant glioma (including variants of glioblastoma i.e., gliosarcoma, giant cell glioblastoma, etc.).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with up to two recurrences are allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have failed no more than one regimen of bevacizumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAge ? 22Xx_NEWLINE_xX7 days from administration of non-cytotoxic agents [e.g., interferon, tamoxifen, thalidomide, cis-retinoic acid, etc. (radiosensitizer does not count)]Xx_NEWLINE_xXImplanted pacemaker, defibrillator or deep brain stimulator, other implanted electronic devices in the brain.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSkull defects such as missing bone flap, a shunt, or bullet fragments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to bevacizumab or severe adverse event with bevacizumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to conductive hydrogels.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with T-cell Lymphomas.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior allogenic transplants.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients intolerant to prior immunotherapy (unable to continue/receive due to immune-related AE).Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known allergies to egg products, neomycin, or tetanus toxoidXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior adverse reaction to tetanus toxoid-containing vaccinesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave previously completed or withdrawn from this study or any other study investigating prexasertib or a checkpoint kinase I (CHK1) inhibitor or have shown hypersensitivity to any of the components of the prexasertib formulationXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable advanced or metastatic non-clear cell RCC to include but not limited to:\r\n* Papillary RCC, any type\r\n* Unclassified RCC\r\n* Translocation RCC\r\n* Chromophobe RCC\r\n* Collecting duct RCC\r\n* Medullary RCC\r\n* Clear cell RCC or any histology with >= 20% sarcomatoid features will be eligible\r\n* Other non-clear cell histologies that are not included above need to be discussed with the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical signs or symptoms of active GI obstruction or requirement of routine parenteral nutrition or tube feedingsXx_NEWLINE_xXA candidate for:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject agrees to return device to Mentor if device is explantedXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician determines implant volume appropriate for the patient taking into account the subject's BMI and chest widthXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is a current smoker, or has smoked within 3 months prior to enrollment, or plans to resume smoking within 3 months post-enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed or suspected diagnosis of the following rheumatological autoimmune diseases or immune compromised status: SLE, Sjogren's syndrome, scleroderma, polymyositis, or any connective tissue disorder, rheumatoid arthritis, crystalline arthritis, infectious arthritis, spondyloarthropathies, any other inflammatory arthritis, fibromyalgia, or chronic fatigue syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently has a condition that could compromise or complicate wound healing. Note, obesity alone is not an exclusion. All surgical risk factors (obesity, diabetes, smoking history, and prior radiation) should be considered in totality for proper subject selectionXx_NEWLINE_xXAnatomic or physiologic abnormality that could lead to significant postoperative adverse eventsXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated need for use of ADM/mesh at the time of implant or implant exchangeXx_NEWLINE_xXWorks for Mentor or the study doctor or is directly related to anyone who works for Mentor or the study doctorXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented MSI-H or dMMR-positive tumor as determined by local laboratory for Part 1B and Part 2B pembrolizumab combination MSI-H/dMMR expansion cohorts only.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented ICOS positive expression using an analytically validated immunohistochemistry (IHC) assay by central laboratory for Part 1B and Part 2B biomarker cohorts only.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of allergic reaction to ropivacaine or other local amide anestheticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous pain disorders or drug abuse requiring chronic narcotic useXx_NEWLINE_xXVulnerable populations (adults unable to consent, individuals who are not yet adults, wards of the state, prisoners)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing free flaps for reconstruction of head and neck surgical defects at University of California (UC) Davis Medical Center (UCDMC), including but not limited to, head and neck cancer defects, osteoradionecrosis (ORN), and traumaXx_NEWLINE_xXVulnerable population: adults unable to consent, individuals who are not yet adults (infants, children, teenagers), pregnant women, and prisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline weight-bearing physical activity less than 150 min·wk^-1 using the Paffenbarger physical activity questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported ability to walk 400-meters (approximately one city block) without sitting, leaning, or the help of another person or walkerXx_NEWLINE_xXWritten physician approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other condition that may impede testing of the study hypothesis, make it unsafe to engage in the physical activity program, or make the participant not available for end of study assessments (determined by the investigative team)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior chemotherapies are permitted, except with prior treatments with taxanes, vinca alcaloids, gemcitabine, eribulin, ixabepilone, platinum drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a history of Raynaud’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with partial or complete limb amputationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient cannot be on the following medications: GABA analogues (such as Neurontin, Lyrica), tricyclic antidepressants (such as amitriptyline or nortriptyline)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdult caregivers of patients undergoing autologous or allogeneic HCT at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH), and they must attend the HCT consent visit with the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXA relative or a friend who either lives with the patient or has in-person contact with him or her at least twice per week and is identified as the primary caregiver for transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant uncontrolled psychiatric or other co-morbid disease, which the primary oncologist believes prohibits the ability to participate in study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious cancer genetic testing or counseling, or prior germline multigene panel testingXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated attention difficulties (T-score of at least 65 on attention questionnaire or 1 or more standard deviations below mean on direct attention measures)Xx_NEWLINE_xXComputer capability at home or provided a departmental iPad Mini to borrow for study purposesXx_NEWLINE_xXPain in the abdomen with an average daily pain rating of >= 4 out of 10, using the following question from the Brief Pain Inventory (BPI): “Please rate your pain by circling the one number that best describes your (abdominal) pain/discomfort on average over the past week (Scale 0-10; 0= No pain, 10= Pain as bad as you can imagine)”Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of an allergic reaction or previous intolerance to transcutaneous electronic nerve stimulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with implantable drug delivery systems, e.g. Medtronic SynchromedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with heart stents or metal implants such as pacemakers, automatic defibrillators, cochlear implants, aneurysm clips, vena cava clips and skull plates (metal implants for orthopedic repair, e.g. pins, clips, plates, cages, joint replacements are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive RT with curative intent with the expectation that some portion of the mucosa of the upper aerodigestive tract will receive a dose of at least 50 gray.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of intolerance of oxycodone.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing opioid daily use of > 60mg morphine sulfate equivalent for reasons not related to LAHNC.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnder formal pain management contract with a pain management specialist.Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of monoamine oxidase inhibiting (MAOI) medication.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with AML or high-risk MDS receiving non-intensive therapy including hypomethylating agents, single-agent chemotherapy, targeted therapy agents, single or combination non-intensive agents offered on a clinical trial, or any other chemotherapy offered for patients with AML and high-risk MDS that does not require a prolonged 4-6 week hospitalization including the following populations:\r\n* Newly diagnosed AML\r\n* Relapsed or primary refractory AML\r\n* Newly diagnosed high-risk MDS\r\n* Relapsed or primary refractory high-risk MDSXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult caregivers (> 18 years) of patients who have agreed to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXA relative or a friend upon whom the patient relies for help and who likely to be present during hospitalizations or clinic appointments, or willing to participate by phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXExperience ? 2 concurrent symptoms (fatigue, sleep disruption, depressive symptoms, and/or cognitive dysfunction as measured by 4 screening instruments)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe either phase advanced or delayed (morning or evening types by the Horne-Ostberg Morningness-Eveningness Questionnaire [MEQ] ? 59 or ? 41)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSightedXx_NEWLINE_xXMentally competent to consentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a current diagnosis of major Axis I psychiatric disorders (e.g. depressive disorders), neurological impairments, or muscular dystrophiesXx_NEWLINE_xXReport severe depressive mood (Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale [CES-D] > 24)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTake prescribed sedative hypnotics or steroids; individuals who have eye conditions (glaucoma or retinal disease), problems triggered by bright light (e.g., migraine), or take photosensitizing medications (e.g., some porphyrin drugs, antipsychotics, antiarrhythmic agents) will be excluded for safety of using bright lightXx_NEWLINE_xXAre of limited decision making capacity, including those who score 16 or less on the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are in complete remission or have a stable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of at least moderate CRF over the past month as defined by a CRF score of 4 or more on a 0-10 numerical rating scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants who are deemed qualified for yoga movements according to the Yoga Qualifying Movements Screening Checklist (a checklist developed by researchers at the University of California, Los Angeles to promote yoga safety through assessing the eligibility of each patient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects currently on supplemental oxygen supportXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects currently admitted to an inpatient unit at Michigan MedicineXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a minimum appointment time of 60 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with visual impairment or blindness will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smokers who would like help quitting (? 5 cigarettes per day and/or have a breath carbon monoxide [CO] reading of ? 8 parts per million [ppm)]Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to engage using at least one of the intervention formatsXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment in another cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXDo not have access to at least one intervention formatXx_NEWLINE_xXHave contraindications for NRTXx_NEWLINE_xXDo not have contact information (e.g., address, telephone number)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThey endorse active addiction to another substance (e.g., illicit drugs or alcohol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPeople who self-report having a severe mental illnessXx_NEWLINE_xX(Patient participation) First outpatient consultation visit with a palliative care specialistXx_NEWLINE_xX(Patient participation) Normal cognitive status, defined as a normal state of arousal and an absence of obvious clinical findings of confusion, memory deficits or concentration deficits, as determined by the patient's physicianXx_NEWLINE_xX(Caregiver participation) accompanied the patient to the clinic visitXx_NEWLINE_xX(Caregiver participation) is identified by the patient as someone who is actively involved in their overall careXx_NEWLINE_xX(Caregiver participation) is willing to participate in the study and able to complete the questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xX(Physician participation) a palliative medicine specialistXx_NEWLINE_xX(Physician participation) seeing the patient in consultation on the day of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xX(Physician participation) willing to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave undergone a lumpectomy or mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to initiate a supervised exercise program (free from any cardiovascular, respiratory or musculoskeletal disease or joint problems that preclude moderate physical activity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave not experienced a weight reduction >= 10% within past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently participate in less than 60 minutes of structured exercise/weekXx_NEWLINE_xXDo not smoke (no smoking during previous 12 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to the exercise facility at University of Southern California (USC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional ADT agents may be concurrently administered (abiraterone, bicalutamide, enzalutamide, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen must be obese (BMI > 25) and sedentary (< 60 minutes of structured exercise per week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of any musculoskeletal, cardiorespiratory or neurological diseases that preclude the participation in exercise must be evaluated by their physician to assess if they are suitable to proceed on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAre planning reconstructive surgery with flap repair during trial and follow-up periodXx_NEWLINE_xXAre unable to travel to the exercise facility at USCXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant insomnia as evidenced by an Insomnia Severity Index score >= 12Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas internet access at homeXx_NEWLINE_xXMotivated and able to follow the demands of the SHUTi program, to keep sleep records, complete self-report symptom reports and make changes in their sleep schedule, including restricting their sleepXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior attempt(s) to treat insomnia using cognitive-behavioral treatment for insomniaXx_NEWLINE_xXIntention to adjust (decrease or increase) use of sedative, hypnotic, or over-the-counter (e.g., Benadryl, Unisom) medications that can affect sleep during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed, untreated sleep apnea or sleep apnea suspected by a physician but which has not been unevaluated, or other sleep disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXEmployment that involves irregular sleep patterns, such as shift-work or frequent long-distance travel that involves adjusting to different time zones, or employment in a position that could impact public safety (such as operating heavy machinery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to modify or reduce excessive alcohol use that is likely to interfere with an individual’s sleepXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to participate safely in all program sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere visual or auditory impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere and/or uncontrolled comorbidity precluding safe participation in a physical activity programXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: >= 65 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Family member/friend identified by the patient as the primary caregiver before and after surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: >= 21 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot currently regularly practicing yoga (defined as at least once a month)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be indicated for major head and neck surgery, defined as surgeries with an anticipated post-surgical hospital stay of 4 or more days; examples of major surgeries include, but are not limited to, total laryngectomy, large oral cavity, oropharyngeal, salivary gland, or soft tissue resections requiring free flap or major regional flap (e.g. pectoralis major flap), and large skull base procedures requiring extensive skull base reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to tolerate oral intake by mouth or per enteral feeding tubeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently taking IMPACT or other immunonutrition products (arginine-containing supplements) will be excluded; other forms of nutritional supplementation, such as caloric supplementation, tube feeding, or other dietary supplements are allowed on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXExcluded patients will be allowed to participate in the trial on an observational basis onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXSarcoma clinic patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s attending medical oncologist would not be surprised if the patient died in the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient scores >= 7 on the Mini-Mental Adjustment to Cancer cognitive avoidance subscaleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is willing and able to consent and travel to the class location for 6 weekly 2-hour sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a family member or close friend eligible and interested in participating in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFCG is willing and able to consent and travel to the class location for 6 weekly 2-hour sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient reports a score of > 2 on the Activities and Function item from the Patient Generated Subjective Global Assessment (PG-SGA; the patient-reported version of the Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group score)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient makes 3 or more errors on a validated 6-item cognitive screener or exhibits significant psychiatric or cognitive impairment (e.g., dementia/delirium, retardation, active psychosis) that in the judgment of the investigators would preclude providing informed consent and study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently treated with any of the following contraindicated medications:\r\n* Saquinavir, Lopinavir, Amprenavir, Atazanavir, Delavirdine \r\n* Mexiletine (and other types of sodium-channel blocker antiarrhythmics)\r\n* Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine, Lamotrigine\r\n* Amiodarone \r\n* Dronedarone \r\n* Dihydroergotamine \r\n* CimetidineXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to participate in study assessments and the eight-week interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported completion of at least an eighth-grade educationXx_NEWLINE_xXPost lumpectomy or mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-report of moderate to high levels of stress using the Perceived Stress ScaleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of neurological disease (e.g., Parkinson’s Disease, dementia, mild cognitive impairment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of head injuryXx_NEWLINE_xXReport of at least 90 minutes of mindfulness activity (e.g., meditation, yoga) per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to lie on the back for an hourXx_NEWLINE_xXHave been diagnosed with lymphedema (LE) at least one year prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave arm lymphedema on one side onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave confirmed LE based on bioimpedance measurements with an LDex score of > 7.1 (which corresponds to a bioimpedance resistance ratio of 2 standard deviations [SD] above normative values)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave stable arm LE; LE will be considered “stable” if during the 3 months prior to study enrollment there was no arm infection requiring antibiotics, no change in ability to perform activities of daily living related to LE, and no subjective report of significant persistent changes in limb volumeXx_NEWLINE_xXBe mentally and physically able to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBe able to attend the sessions at the University of California, San Francisco (UCSF) Parnassus campusXx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral upper extremity LEXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent infection or lymphangitis involving the affected armXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing LE prior to their BC diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a condition that precludes measurement of LE using bioelectrical impedance spectroscopy (BIS), including pregnancyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of previous experience with smoking or marijuanaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent (weekly) use of cannabisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on supplemental oxygen or history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCompromised immunityXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT ONLY: Patients with a diagnosis of HGG or low grade glioma (LGG), based on radiographic or pathologic diagnosis of grade III or IV listed in the medical records, or patients with a malignancy that has metastasized to the brainXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT ONLY: Having a spouse/romantic partner (including same-sex) and who is willing to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT & PARTNER: Have access to internet connectivityXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT ONLY: Regularly (self-defined) participation in psychotherapy or a formal cancer support groupXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT ONLY: Cognitive deficits that would impede the completion of self-report instruments as deemed by the clinical teamXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is able to tolerate endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with an esophageal stent in situ at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject, as deemed by treating investigator has contraindication to endoscopy or Spray Cryotherapy Procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresent for CNBXx_NEWLINE_xXWho underwent or who will undergo lung resection at Brigham and Women’s Hospital (BWH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWith diagnosis of malignant or benign diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with baseline immobility (i.e. wheelchair-bound, use of any walking assistance device, or gait alterations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cognitive deficitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a phone for contact with health coachXx_NEWLINE_xXUsability Testing and the randomized control trial (RCT): have access to a computer, a smartphone or an i-Pad/tablet equivalent with internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a clinical diagnosis of cancer that are within +/- 3 days of initiating treatment with sorafenib, sunitinib, or regorafenib.\r\n* Note: patients treated with a combination regimen that includes sorafenib, regorafenib, or sunitinib are eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior diagnosis of hand-foot skin reaction are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not use topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone). Topical over-the-counter antibiotics (e.g., Neosporin) and skin protectants (e.g., Vaseline, Aquaphor) for local skin fissures on hands and feet.\r\n* Note: Patients are allowed to use topical medications on other body parts, besides the hands and feet, but must use qtips or gloves for application.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking nitrates (e.g., nitroglycerin, isosorbide mononitrate, isosorbide dinitrate) and/or alpha blockers (e.g., tamsulosin, prazosin, afluzosin, silodosin) are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to communicate or cooperate with the investigator due to language problems, poor mental development, or impaired cerebral function are not eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an interest in being part of a study to evaluate yoga-derived exercises and eager to practice some kind of relaxation exercise daily for 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no fever or evidence of infection or other coexisting medical condition that would preclude epidural placementXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic narcotic use, defined as 30 days or more of preoperative daily narcotic use, measured from the date of surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXAnaphylaxis to local anesthetics or narcoticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious or current neurologic disease affecting the lower hemithorax or belowXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of therapeutic anticoagulation within 5 days of surgery (not including venous thromboembolism prophylaxis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient refusal to participate in randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with previous ventral hernia repair, cosmetic abdominoplasty or anterior abdominal wall reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXIs medically, psychiatrically, or otherwise unable to participate (as determined by a physician or study principal investigator [PI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in qualitative interview during phase 1 (Dana-Farber Harvard Cancer Center [DF/HCC] 16-396)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 0: Ability to stand and walk unassistedXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1 & 2: Ability to stand and walk unassistedXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1 & 2: Own and use a smartphone or be willing to use a smartphoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having robotic prostatectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least moderate pain (pain score >= 4) at recruitmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPalliative Performance Scale (PPS) of 60 or higher at recruitmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnicities will be included.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to spend time for the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects will be excluded if they do not attend pre-operative clinic dedicated to RC subjects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with allergies to any supplements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with galactosemia will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously unable to tolerate either supplement due to taste or gastrointestinal (GI) side effects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny previous immunotherapy with immune checkpoint inhibitors such was nivolumab, atezolizumab and others in the class.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious HSCT procedure (autologous or allogeneic) pregnancyXx_NEWLINE_xXEye Diseases which limit the ability of light to be processed (e.g., untreated cataracts, severe glaucoma, macular degeneration, blindness, pupil dilation problems or retina damage)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere sleep disorders (e.g., Narcolepsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere psychological impairment (e.g., hospitalization for depressive episode in the past 12 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious use of light therapy to alleviate fatigue or depressive symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXFocus groups consisting of men who live, work, or worship in the 4 predetermined neighborhoodsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently reside in one of the four selected high risk neighborhoodsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of localized low grade glioma (e.g., pilocytic astrocytoma, optic pathway glioma, oligodendroglioma, ganglioglioma, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma [PXA]), craniopharyngioma, ependymoma, or germ cell tumorXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate vision and hearing for valid completion of study measuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric condition that would preclude or take precedence over study participation (e.g., active psychosis, suicidal ideation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntelligence quotient (IQ) below 70 based on baseline/screening assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment with psychotropic medication (psychostimulant, antidepressant, anxiolytic, antipsychotic) within the past two weeks, unless being prescribed specifically as an anti-emeticXx_NEWLINE_xXParent/legal guardian/caregiver that speaks English available to assist in participant’s trainingXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant cognitive impairment as determined by either an intelligence quotient (IQ) of =< 70 or by clinician judgmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor psychological condition that would preclude completion of the interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand the description of the study and willing to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand the exercise programXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to maintain daily exercise logsXx_NEWLINE_xXTelephone or email access and agreement to engage with the research personnel via phone or emailXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to complete the baseline assessment questionnaires or functional assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent fracture or acute musculoskeletal injury that precludes the ability to weight bear fully on all 4 limbs in order to participate in an exercise interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXNumeric pain rating scale of >= 7 out of 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyopathic or rheumatologic disease that impacts physical functionXx_NEWLINE_xXBrief Fatigue Inventory (BFI) score > 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are actively suicidal or homicidalXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions felt to be clinically contributing to fatigue based on the investigator’s history, physical examination, and assessment: anemia (hemoglobin less than 10 g/dl), hypothyroidism (thyroid stimulating hormone greater than 4.6 MCU/mL), uncontrolled pain, medical problems associated with fatigue: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, congestive heart failure, renal disease, hepatic dysfunction, autoimmune disease, neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson’s disease, and poorly controlled sleep apneaXx_NEWLINE_xXMedications felt to be clinically contributing to fatigue based on the investigator’s history, physical examination, and assessment; those may include: antidepressants, chronic use of long-acting anxiolytics or neurolepticsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin is allowed but must be trackedXx_NEWLINE_xXOther exclusion criteria include: illicit drug use, shift work, current dieting, excessive regular use of alcohol (more than two 5 ounce glasses of wine or equivalents/day) or a history of binge drinking (more than 7 drinks/24 hour period) within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have massages on a regular basis; regular massage usage will be operationally defined as receiving 4 or more massages/year for the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects currently employing any other complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) manual therapy and/or holistic therapies to treat a perceived health problem; however, since past experience with CAM therapies should not confound any of the analyses of the experiments proposed in this study, we will not exclude individuals who have engaged in a CAM manual therapy in the past, nor will we exclude individuals who practice yoga or meditation for well-being, take vitamins or use nicotineXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Unpaid individuals involved in assisting the cancer patient with activities of daily living and/or medical tasksXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT AND CAREGIVER: Oriented to place, person, and timeXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT AND CAREGIVER: Have an active telephone service, either cellular or landlineXx_NEWLINE_xXAre able to tolerate surgery (i.e., segmentectomy, lobectomy or bilobectomy) as indicated by standard clinical pre-op evaluation, including pulmonary function tests and cardiac evaluation (if indicated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to either wireless internet (WiFi) or cellular service and permission/ability to download the wearable fitness device app on an apple device, android, or computer (or willingness to use a study-provided iPod to allow the data to be uploaded to the study team)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExhibit American College of Sports Medicine contraindications to exercise which include a resting heart rate of > 120 beats per minute (bpm), blood pressure > 180/100 mmHg or unstable anginaXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: Not serving as the primary decision maker for their health-related decisionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: Having a non-hematologic malignancy reason for undergoing transplantation (e.g. aplastic anemia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Not completing participation in phase I of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXA healthcare professional, a patient or caregiver in the Radiation Oncology Department at the University of PennsylvaniaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny healthcare professional or patient/caregiver not working in or being seen at Radiation Oncology Department at the University of PennsylvaniaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have intact preoperative erectile function, sufficient for penetrative intercourse without medication nor assistive device, as defined by a Sexual Health Inventory for Men/International Index of Erectile Function (SHIM/IIEF)-2 score 22 or higher, which is collected as part of routine care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline erectile dysfunction, as defined by the use of medications or devices to assist erection, lack of baseline erections, or a SHIM/IIEF-2 21 or lower, which is collected as part of routine care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of successful intraoperative nerve sparing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic, metabolic, or vascular diseases that may negatively impact erectile function, such as: diabetes mellitus, peripheral vascular disease, coronary artery disease, stroke, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, multiple systems atrophy, epilepsy, or spinal cord injury.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are able to follow-up in person during the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient on stable analgesic regimen for > 7 days without escalation during study period with rescue or immediate release medication every 3 hours or longerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are willing and able to maintain a daily pain diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient weight >= 50 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXTransportation issues interfering with return study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high disposition of laryngospasm or apneaXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline tachycardia, heart rate (HR) > 100Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizures, elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obstructive states (e.g. severe head injury, central congenital or mass lesions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that may increase intraocular pressure (e.g. glaucoma, acute globe injury)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrolled depression or other psychiatric comorbidity with psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of nasal or sinus anomalies or dysfunction e.g. allergic or infectious rhinitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with lesions to the nasal mucosaXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of medication abuse/misuse (e.g. unsanctioned dose escalation, broken opioid agreement etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPorphyria (possibility of triggering a porphyric reaction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of difficult intravenous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXIntractable vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXSarcoma of lower extremity locationXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected primary wound closure performed at the time at surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXAny histologic subtypeXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst or recurrent presentationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo vascular invasion or resection/repair/reconstruction that results in decreased perfusion of the extremityXx_NEWLINE_xXSarcoma location other than lower extremityXx_NEWLINE_xXVascular invasion or resection/repair/reconstruction that results in decreased perfusion of the extremityXx_NEWLINE_xXVascular disease resulting in clinically apparent compromise in blood flow to the treatment extremity (i.e. peripheral vascular disease with diminished pulses, venous insufficiency with clinical evidence of vascular congestion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reactions to whey or milk proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will also be excluded if they report lower extremity (LE) surgery or injury to the LE in the past 3 months or a past medical history of primary hyperparathyroidism; or rhabdomyolysisXx_NEWLINE_xXReports moderate fatigue on most days within the past week (i.e., at least 4 out of the last 7 days), rated as >= 4 on a 0 (no fatigue) to 10 (worst fatigue) scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to complete study tasks as evidenced by at least the following: fluent English speaker; hearing and language comprehension; and, sufficient literacy to complete study forms and questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXDepression or anxiety as defined either by ongoing pharmacological treatment for depression or anxiety or a Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS) score >= 11 on initial screening; those individuals taking psychoactive medications for treatment of hot flashes are eligible if they have been on a stable dose for at least three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDementia as assessed by a mini-mental status exam (MMSE) score < 24 on initial screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of the following medications for seven days prior to and during study participation:\r\n* Stimulant medications\r\n* Sleep medications\r\n* Carbamazepine/Tegratol\r\n* Cough/cold medicines (e.g. Dextromethorphan, Triaminic, Robitussin, Vics Formula 44)\r\n* Flunarizine/Sibelium\r\n* Propnolol/Inderal\r\n* Sulpiride\r\n* Pergolide\r\n* Rivastigmine/Exelon\r\n* Carbidopa/levodopa or levodopa\r\n* Ropinirole/Requip\r\n* Nicotine patchXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported consumption of > 14 alcoholic drinks per week or positive screening on the CAGE questionnaire in relation to the past year; NOTE: A single, standard alcoholic drink is defined as 10 grams of alcohol, which is equivalent to 285 mL of beer, 530 mL of light beer, 100 mL of wine or 30 mL of liquorXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin conditions involving open sores on the scalp that would prevent proper application of the electrodesXx_NEWLINE_xXHairstyles that obstruct placement of the electrodes including cornrows, dreadlocks, braids or other hair accessories that cannot be removedXx_NEWLINE_xXIs scheduled to undergo cystoscopy with bladder resection procedure under general anesthesia requiring neuromuscular relaxation using rocuronium bromide to secure airway and requiring neuromuscular reversal at The University of Texas Monroe Dunaway (MD) Anderson Cancer Center - Mays Clinic (ambulatory care building [ACB]-outpatient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClassified by the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) as class I - IVXx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for use of laryngeal mask airway (LMA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere renal impairment as measured eGFR less than 30 per institutional laboratoryXx_NEWLINE_xXIs known or suspected to have a (family) history of malignant hyperthermiaXx_NEWLINE_xXIs known or suspected to have neuromuscular disorders (ex: myasthenia gravis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurvival 2-5 years after last HCT when first approached for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of internet and email accessXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical or other issue prohibiting computer use, reading or ability to comply with all study procedures or unable to communicate via phone (e.g., significant vision, hearing or cognitive impairment, major illness, hospitalization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXResiding in an institution or other living situation where health care decisions are not made by the participant (e.g., hospitalized, prisoners, living in a rehabilitation facility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not complete baseline patient-reported outcome (PRO) assessment items required to determine stratification or whether the survivor meets inclusion and exclusion criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent liposomal doxorubicin or any other liposomal agentXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Diagnosed with a primary HNC and going to receive at least 4 weeks of RT with at least 20 fractions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Having an informal family caregiver (spouse, romantic partner, adult child, or sibling) who is willing to participate. If patients do not have one consistent primary caregiver for the duration of the study, they may be accompanied to the yoga sessions by an alternate caregiver who meets eligibility criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Regularly (self-defined) participated in a yoga practice in the year prior to diagnosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Cognitive deficits that would impede the completion of self-report instruments as deemed by the clinical team.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo significant hearing impairment that would prevent participation in sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXLive within a 1 hour commuting distance from Rutgers Cancer Institute of New JerseyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a diagnosis of differentiated thyroid cancer who have undergone total or near-total thyroidectomy and are candidates for iodine I-131 (I-131) treatment at Thomas Jefferson University Hospital (TJUH) are eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have previously undergone or plan to undergo thyroidectomy; for those patients who have previously undergone surgery, pre-operative labs, including complete blood cell count with differential must be availableXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic subjects are eligible if they are not taking metformin, insulin or sulfonylureasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with plasma bicarbonate less than 22 mEq/L or history of lactic or any other metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myocardial ischemia or peripheral muscle ischemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a current history (in the past 30 days) of heavy drinking which is defined in accordance with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) definition as more than 8 drinks per week for women and more than 15 drinks per week for men. A standard drink contains .6 ounces of pure alcohol. Generally, this amount of pure alcohol is found in 12-ounces of beer, 8-ounces of malt liquor, 5-ounces of wine, 1.5-ounces or a “shot” of 80-proof distilled spirits or liquor (e.g., gin, rum, vodka, or whiskey). While on study, patients should limit their alcohol consumption to no more than 8 drinksXx_NEWLINE_xXAll medications other than those that may cause myelosuppression are permitted except those that are contraindicated with metformin under current Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommendationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of celiac disease or non-celiac gluten sensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXNo documented bacteremia at time of initial screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXNo obvious medical conditions or physical handicaps which would preclude an exercise regimen as determined by the radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical handicap that would prevent participation in programXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted for surgery lasting > 1 hour and requiring urinary catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have had emesis or required antiemetics in the 48 hours prior to starting the BEAM conditioning regimen; also patients required to take antipsychotics, appetite stimulants, or other medications with antiemetic effects will be excluded if those medications cannot be replaced by therapeutic equivalentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have been drinking > 5 alcoholic drinks daily for the last yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of anxiety-induced (“anticipatory”) nausea and vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on strong CYP 3A4 inducers or inhibitors who are unable to have those agents replaced with clinical alternatives prior to beginning the study; length of washout period will be 7 days; notably, in the case of allogeneic transplant recipients requiring cyclosporine or tacrolimus, no empiric dose adjustments will be required due to close level monitoring and adjustments, which are standard in Oregon Health & Science University (OHSU) protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects unable to discontinue benzodiazepines will not be allowed as hypnotics; additional antiemetics will be allowed for rescue but not for prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with personal or family history of QT prolongation, uncorrected electrolyte abnormalities, congestive heart failure, bradyarrhythmia, conduction disturbances and those taking antiarrhythmic medicinal products or other medicinal products that lead to QT prolongation or electrolyte abnormalities; relevant information will be collected during medical history takingXx_NEWLINE_xXBe first-generation immigrantsXx_NEWLINE_xXSpeak Chinese (Mandarin and/or Cantonese)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave not had recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXHave moderate to severe levels of fatigueXx_NEWLINE_xXHave hypothyroidism and anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXWho are using acupunctureXx_NEWLINE_xXThe child has a significant cognitive impairment that might hinder participation (determination made in consultation with attending physician, oncologist, and parents)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing pain in the axilla affecting ability to use extremity for activities of daily living or requiring medication for treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown contraindications to peripheral nerve block placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving brain RT for intracranial disease (including recurrent head and neck tumors with base of skull or intracranial extension) or for prophylactic cranial irradiation, over 2-6 weeks period of timeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior trauma or orthopedic surgery to the cervical vertebral column/spineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient requires a neck brace for medical reasonsXx_NEWLINE_xXSkull or bony defect in the area contacting the immobilization strapsXx_NEWLINE_xXRT delivered by clinical setup only (no CT simulation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConditioning Regimen: Patients expecting to receive any type of myeloablative HSCT conditioning regimen are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired laboratory parameters: Patients able to adequately perform pulmonary function testing per American Thoracic Society/European Respiratory Society (ATS/ERS) guidelines, as determined by the enrolling investigator and trained respiratory therapistsXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic supplemental oxygen requirement or hypoxemia < 92% blood oxygen saturation (SpO2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical asthma (variable and recurrent symptoms of airflow obstruction and airway hyper-responsiveness)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInability to perform pulmonary function testing (PFT), as determined by the enrolling investigator or PFT labXx_NEWLINE_xXAll races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is being treated with oxymetazoline for allergic rhinitis or has a disorder or current medication use likely to adversely affect normal functioning of the nasal mucosaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has uncontrolled or rapidly escalating background painXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has bradyarrhythmiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is considered medically unstableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is thought to be at risk for misuse, abuse, addiction or overdose for schedule II controlled substance, as evidenced by the following:\r\n* An Opioid Risk Tool (ORT) score of greater/less than or equal to 8.2 \r\n* A review of the California Prescription Control Monitoring Program (PDMP) Controlled Substance Utilization Review and Evaluation System (CURES) report demonstrates multiple prescribing providers and/or multiple pharmacies in the last 30 days; the CURES report will also be used to verify opioid use, opioid dose, and current prescribing providersXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has a 5-year breast cancer risk 1.67% or lifetime risk of 20% according to the Gail model; or has a prior diagnosis of lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a primary care provider at Columbia University Medical Center (CUMC)/New York Presbyterian (NYP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has access to short message service (SMS) text messaging or emailXx_NEWLINE_xXPROVIDER ELIGIBILITY: The participant is a healthcare provider at Columbia University Medical Center with a high-risk patient identified in the research database (IRB-AAAO1761 or IRB-AAAP4151)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWorkshop A (2017 - 10 weeks- City of Hope)\r\n* Either one of the following:\r\n* City of Hope (COH) cancer patient (all types and at any time point of their disease) OR\r\n* Caretaker/friend family member of the cancer patientXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to complete the entire workshop, including the interviews and questionnaires (there is no predetermined qualification with regard to the ability to hold an artist tool; accommodations and creative solutions will be made to facilitate participation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAges 25-65 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXParent must live at least 50% of the time in the home and have a child 5-17 years old living at home who has been told their parent’s cancer diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCO-PARENTSXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-parents must reside with the consenting eligible cancer participant (and child) at least 50% of the time and be actively participating in the care of the childXx_NEWLINE_xXIf a biological parent lives in the home, and is physically well themselves, this person must be the co-parentXx_NEWLINE_xXCHILDRENXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren aged 5-13 years of age will participate with a waiver of assentXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren aged 14-17 will assent to participate in the research study by signing a separate assent formXx_NEWLINE_xXParents and co-parents selecting the telephone version of the intervention may live any distance from the University of WashingtonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded if they are enrolled in hospice at time of enrollment; however, they will be allowed to continue in the study if they enroll in hospice after beginning the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe triad will be ineligible if any member lives in the home less than 50% of the timeXx_NEWLINE_xXIf any member of the triad retracts consent or assent prior to completion of the post-intervention surveys, then all members will be excluded from the study thereafterXx_NEWLINE_xXThe child will be excluded if he or she has learning challenges as assessed by the patient or co-parent; patients and co-parents will be instructed to consider any formal diagnoses of a learning disability of the presence of an Individual Education Plan (IEP) when making this assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXLow grade disease positive for estrogen and progesterone receptorsXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 30 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of any musculoskeletal, cardiorespiratory or neurological diseases that preclude the participation in exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf ambulatory and without use of assistive walking devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXIs not a candidate for immediate hysterectomy, following evaluation by a physician, due to desire to preserve fertility, due to degree of obesity, due to comorbidities, or due to patient refusal of hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI =< 29.9 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any musculoskeletal, cardiorespiratory or neurological diseases that preclude the participation in exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXIs not self ambulatory and relies on the use of assistive walking devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXIs a candidate for immediate hysterectomy, following evaluation by a physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXIn judgement of a physician, is not a candidate for progestin agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXAverage nausea numeric rating scale >= 4/10 over past 24 hours at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete study assessments, including keeping a daily diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium (i.e. Memorial Delirium Rating Scale > 13)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of bowel obstruction at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected to use other 5HT3 antagonists or NK1 antagonists during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXContinuation of over-the-counter therapies for nausea and/or vomiting during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOn cytotoxic chemotherapy in the high/moderate/low emetogenic risk categories or oral antineoplastic agents in the high or moderate emetogenic risk categories according to the latest National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guideline within 2 weeks of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOn scheduled CYP3A4 substrates with narrow safety range at the time of study enrollment (alfentanil, cyclosporine, dihydroergotamine, ergotamine, pimozide, quinidine, sirolimus, tacrolimus)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to participate in CR programXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting CVDXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of fatigue on FACIT-F subscale of =< 34 on a 0 to 52 scale (in which 52 = no fatigue and 0 = worst possible fatigue)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of moderate to severe depression as determined by a HADS depression score of =< 13Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of unintentional weight loss ranging from >= 2 - =< 15% in last 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be willing to engage in telephone follow up with research staffXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have telephone access to be contacted by the research staffXx_NEWLINE_xXRegularly engaged in moderate or vigorous-intensity exercise for at least 5 times a weekXx_NEWLINE_xXMale patients with a history of untreated hypogonadismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on drugs that may prolong the PR or QRS interval durations, such as any of the class I/sodium (Na+) channel blocking antiarrhythmic medications should be avoided (e.g. flecainide, procainamide, propafenone, quinidine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with untreated clinically relevant hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently on investigational therapies will be evaluated by the PI on a case by case basis and study participation approval will be obtained from the treating oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: Access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Not adherent to thorough SSE (i.e., did not check every area of the body at least once during the past 2 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Not adherent to sun protection recommendations (i.e., mean score < 4 [which corresponds to “often”] on a 5-point scale [from 1 = “never” to 5 = “always”] that assesses the frequency of engaging in four sun protection behaviors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who will be treated at the Johns Hopkins Hospital, Sibley Memorial Hospital or who will be treated by oncologists in the community as long as we will have access to treatment recordsXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen must be willing to receive follow up care either at Hopkins or with their local oncologist for at least 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who have a smart phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients requiring oxygen at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of more than mild valvular stenosis or regurgitation, prosthetic valves or pacemaker on their baseline echocardiogramXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor image quality on baseline echocardiogram or anatomic limitations that preclude the acquisition of good quality images such as recent mastectomy or surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not have a smart phone onto which the Under Armour application can be downloadedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unwilling to wear the Under Armour (UA) health bandXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious anthracycline exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXRhythms other than sinus rhythmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unwilling to come to the Johns Hopkins campus to have the required testing performedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who plan to receive chemotherapy at Dana-Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI) to treat recurrent, incurable gynecologic cancers (i.e., ovarian, uterine, and cervical that has recurred despite >= 1 prior treatments)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOwn a smart-phone (Android or i-Phone operating system [iOS])Xx_NEWLINE_xXCapable of downloading and running the study application (app)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDo not have cognitive or visual impairments that would preclude use of the appXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe cognitively impairments or who appear too weak, emotionally distraught, agitated or ill to participate, as judged by either the research study staff or an oncology provider, will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are currently actively tracking their steps using wearable technology or smartphone apps will also be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Admitted to the acute palliative care unitXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Delirium as per Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders 5 (DSM-V) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Hyperactive or mixed delirium with RASS >= 1 in the past 24 hours (h)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: On scheduled haloperidol for delirium (=< 8 mg in the past 24 h)or rescue haloperidol of >= 4 mg for restlessness/agitation in the past 24 hXx_NEWLINE_xXFAMILY CAREGIVERS: Patient’s spouse, adult child, sibling, parent, other relative, or significant other (defined by the patient as a partner)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFAMILY CAREGIVERS: At the patient’s bedside at least 4 h/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: History of myasthenia gravis or acute narrow angle glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: History of Parkinson’s disease or Alzheimer’s dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: On scheduled chlorpromazine within the past 48 hXx_NEWLINE_xXPlastic surgery involvement for oncoplastic reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has recurrent hyperparathyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s oncologist advises against the trial – in which case they can choose to receive stimulation with letrozole + gonadotropinXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not plan to undergo ovarian stimulation and oocyte retrieval prior to diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning on remaining in New York City (NYC) for at least 7 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXLicensed taxi driver for at least three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently owns a cell phone, uses text messaging services and is willing to accept text messages for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPart-time driver (fewer than 5 shifts/week, totaling less than 35 hours per week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any cardiovascular disease (CVD) or any other medical conditions (e.g. severe osteoarthritis) that will prevent him from walkingXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have refractory CINV defined as nausea and/or vomiting that occurs after the first cycle of cancer targeted therapy despite guideline-based prophylaxis and after first-line rescue medication with either a dopamine receptor antagonist, steroid, and/or benzodiazepineXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR PARENTS: Parents of children who are scheduled to receive cancer-directed therapy at Seattle Children's HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR PARENTS: Parents of children who has provided written informed consent (child aged 18 years and older), written assent (child aged 13-17 years), verbal assent (child aged 7-12 years)Xx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR PATIENTS: Child has provided written informed consent (child aged 18 years and older), written assent (child aged 13-17 years), verbal assent (child aged 7-12 years)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR PARENTS: Parent is cognitively or physically unable to participate in interactive interviewXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Planning to receive ongoing care from a participating oncologist.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Willing to be seen at least monthly.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERS: Family member or friend of an eligible patient.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIANS: Oncology nurses and oncologists practicing at participating clinics.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Lacks decision-making capacity, as determined by the patient's oncologist.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Unable to complete baseline interview.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERS: Unable to complete the baseline interview.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 months was passed since the hysterectomy at time of visit 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index of 30.0 – 49.9 and body weight < 300 poundsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to exercise safely on a treadmill\r\n* Eligibility to exercise safely on a treadmill will be determined by physical examination during visit 1; if during visit 2 the subject is unable to complete or exercise safely on a treadmill, then the subject will be considered as withdrawn from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is not participating in regular physical exercise (more than 60 minutes of moderate intensity or 30 minutes of vigorous intensity exercise per week) or weight reduction dietingXx_NEWLINE_xXHave reliable transportation to the testing facilitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a personal mobile device compatible for the activity monitorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented opportunistic CMV infection, or reactivation; the criteria include (both of the following criteria must be met)\r\n* Patients may have asymptomatic viremia (> 1000 copies/ml) OR presence of symptoms secondary to CMV infection, AND\r\n* Patients must have ONE OF THE NEXT FOUR CRITERIA:\r\n** Absence of an improvement of viral load after >= 14 days of antiviral therapy with ganciclovir, valganciclovir or foscarnet (decrease by at least 1 log, i.e. 10-fold) or \r\n** New, persistent and/or worsening CMV-related symptoms, signs and/or markers of end organ compromise while on antiviral therapy with ganciclovir, valganciclovir or foscarnet, or\r\n** Have contraindications or experience adverse effects of antiviral therapy with ganciclovir, valganciclovir or foscarnet\r\n** Second recurrence of CMV viremia, CMV-related symptoms, signs and/or markers of end organ compromiseXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have evidence of a serologic response (i.e. be seropositive) against CMVXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be capable of undergoing a single standard 2 blood volume leukapheresis or donation of one unit of whole bloodXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects who receive a radial forearm free flaps in the included time period, including subjects with head and neck cancer, traumatic defects, chronic wounds, or any other problems that require a radical forearm free flap for reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had a distal, anterograde fasciocutaneous flapXx_NEWLINE_xXAll smokers and tobacco users will be included in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have had an osteocutaneous or musculocutaneous flapXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have a radial forearm flap with a proximal skin flap or subjects that receive a “reverse” radial forearm flapXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician verification of ability to participate in the interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive or hearing impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to provide meaningful consent (i.e., impairment such that descriptions of the research are not clearly understood)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a health problem that precludes safe participation in the interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXRe-initiating ADT after being on holiday for longer than their ADT dosage (e.g. If the man’s dosage is every six months and he has been off ADT for more than six he is eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReachable consistently by telephone; andXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to travel to University of Kansas Medical Center (KUMC) for data collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXNot reachable consistently by telephone; andXx_NEWLINE_xXNot able to travel to KUMC for data collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophageal carcinoma, undergoing minimally invasive esophagectomy with intrathoracic anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a history of gastrointestinal dysmotility or functional gastroparesis, including diabetic gastroparesis, central and peripheral nervous system disorders, renal failure, medication side effects, including chronic dependence of promotility agents, anticholinergic antispasmodic agents, or daily narcotic useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a history of previous gastric or duodenal surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a history of duodenal ulcer or duodenal fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible patients must have access to a mobile phone with internet and text messaging capabilitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible patients must be able to navigate websites, fill out forms on the web, communicate by email, and have regular access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with no regular access to the internet or a mobile phone and those who are unable to fill out forms on the web or navigate websitesXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are already meeting four or more of the six target dietary behaviors: >= 5 servings/day of vegetables, >= 3 servings/day of whole grains, >= 2 servings/week of dark meat fish, no processed meat, no sweetened beverages, and =< 1 alcoholic drink/day (d) for women and =< 2 alcoholic drinks/d for menXx_NEWLINE_xXA first-, second-, or third-degree relative (e.g., son, brother, nephew, or cousin) of an individual with a documented BRCA1 or BRCA2 pathogenic variantXx_NEWLINE_xXFamily history suggestive of a hereditary cancer syndrome not attributable to the BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation in their family, based on pedigree review by the study teamXx_NEWLINE_xXAn uncertain risk of carrying the familial BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation (e.g., because it is not clear on what side of the family the mutation is segregating), based on pedigree review by the study teamXx_NEWLINE_xXHave one or more children who are BRCA1 or BRCA2 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, social, familial, or geographical reasons that would prevent scheduled visits and follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXHemochromatosis or other iron storage disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented consent to participation to include the following study specific procedures:\r\n* Be able to provide up to six serial stool collections at home and deliver to FedEx location that day as per standard operating procedure\r\n* Have three 10-ml blood samples taken during a routine clinic visit\r\n* To not take probiotic supplements except as oriented\r\n* If randomized to the probiotic-supplemented group (the yogurt-based supplement Activia), be willing to comply with daily intake and record this intake as a component of a dietary log; the patient will be asked not to take any yogurt or yogurt-containing foods beyond this\r\n* If randomized to the probiotic-restricted group, agree not to consume yogurt or yogurt-containing foods\r\n* Maintain a dietary log and stool frequency logXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known intolerance to lactose or other constituents of ActiviaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo plan to initiate a new program that could affect well-being during the study period (e.g., psychotherapy, new exercise regimen, meditation classes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther factors that at the discretion of the investigators would adversely affect study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients seen by palliative care, thoracic oncology, pulmonary medicine, or emergency care at MD Anderson Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea numeric rating scale at rest >= 3 of 10 (average over last 24 hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-hypoxemic (i.e. oxygen saturation > 90% on ambient air)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to tolerate high-flow oxygen/airXx_NEWLINE_xXMemorial Delirium Rating Scale > 13Xx_NEWLINE_xXHemodynamic instabilityXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation or non-invasive ventilationXx_NEWLINE_xXFrequent use of rescue opioids > 8 x/day or rescue bronchodilators > 8 x/day over last 24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently requiring high flow oxygen for oxygenationXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmission to the MSKCC Adult BMT service for an outpatient HSCT for a hematologic malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT procedure scheduled within two months of consentXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically and cognitively able to participate in the study as determined by the investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT CGs: Physically and cognitively able to participate in the study as determined by the investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT DYADS: In addition to meeting the inclusion criteria for HSCT patients and HSCT CGs, both parties must provide mutual agreement to participate as a dyadXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT CLINICIANS: Member of MSKCC BMT patient care team for at least one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically and cognitively unable to participate in the study as determined by the investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT CGs: Physically and cognitively unable to participate in the study as determined by the investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT DYADS: Patients or CGs who are participating in this study as individualsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust either be getting her first mammogram or based on prior experience be expecting level 3, 4 or 5 painXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have two breastsXx_NEWLINE_xXMay not have taken ibuprofen or other pain medication within the last 12 hours (aspirin [ASA] 81 mg dose is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have a contraindication for using lidocaine: e.g. no history of allergic reactions to lidocaineXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have broken or irritated skin (as determined by the study nurses or delegated research staff)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLymphedema Group: Lymphedema, symptomatic of stage II or III based upon screening responses; or lymphedema index (L-Dex) reading of >= 7 at initial visitXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphedema Group: Has compression sleeveXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphedema Group: Willing to do guided and home yoga practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphedema Group: Medical clearanceXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions that would prohibit the safe implementation of a yoga practice (e.g., vertigo, compromised mental status)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive yoga practice < 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo Lymphedema Group: No known lymphedema or intermittent swelling, not symptomatic of stage II or III lymphedema (L-Dex >= 7)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo Lymphedema Group: Willing to do guided and home yoga practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXNo Lymphedema Group: Medical clearanceXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke >= 5 cigarettes (cig)/day during the last weekXx_NEWLINE_xXBe open to biomarker feedbackXx_NEWLINE_xXNot actively trying to quitXx_NEWLINE_xXDuring the first in-person session (phase 1), a smoker must have elevated carbon monoxide (CO) to confirm final eligibility (CO >= 10 ppm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXApproved to be contacted by the treating oncologist/nurse practitionerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients not available for follow-up testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any pre-existing medical conditions that would be a contraindication to exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXBe in a complete remission.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave impaired quality of life (report a score of 5 or less on question 30 of the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer Quality of Life Questionnaire [EORTC QLQ C30] “How would you rate your overall quality of life during the past week?” [Answers range from 1 – very poor to 7 – excellent]).Xx_NEWLINE_xXWill also include, as a control, sickle cell patients being admitted for an elective procedure and post-operative surgery patients admitted after elective proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in the intensive care units will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to understand and operate the mobile device independently; therefore we will exclude those the provider team considers unable to do soXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who, in the opinion of the investigators, will be unable to comply with a supervised exercise regimen based on their developmental stageXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 36 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPerformance scale (PS) 0-3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll ethnicities eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to refrigerator or freezerXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any alimentary tract obstruction or other condition preventing oral alimentationXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for enteral or parenteral nutrition at time of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIncarcerated individualsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients already seeing pharmacy as a part of their careXx_NEWLINE_xXOncology Clinician: Current Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) Cancer Center oncology clinician (board-certified physicians or mid-level practitioners)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGeriatrics Clinician: Current MGH Geriatric Medicine clinician (board-certified physicians or mid-level practitioners)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPalliative Care Clinician: Current MGH palliative care clinician (board-certified physicians or mid-level practitioners)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to receive care at MGHXx_NEWLINE_xXNo medical problems for geriatric clinician to address (e.g. comorbidities, polypharmacy, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to attend in-person PCO workshop at a location convenient to themXx_NEWLINE_xXWill allow participation of patients at any time since diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who report that they are unable to complete basic functional (e.g., driving, walking) and self-care (e.g., bathing, dressing) activities because of their likely inability to attend the required in-person intervention sessionXx_NEWLINE_xXWEBSITE VISITORS: Have visited the personal website of a PCO participantXx_NEWLINE_xXWEBSITE VISITORS: Have not visited the personal website of a PCA participantXx_NEWLINE_xXAnesthetic plan must include arterial line (femoral, radial, brachial, dorsalis pedis) either prior to induction of anesthesia or immediately after induction of anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have an accurate pre-op height and weight and BSA (body surface area) calculation for CO (cardiac output) monitoring on FloTracXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have a thoracic epidural placed pre-operatively for perioperative analgesia; epidural will be loaded with 2 mg of duramorph after induction of anesthesia and will be started at a rate of 6 ml/hr upon the conclusion of the surgery; a solution of 0.1 % bupivacaine with 2 mcg/ml epinephrine will be used for analgesia; epidural rate will be adjusted for optimal coverage and stable hemodynamicsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients < 55 kg or > 140 kg, based on literature regarding accuracy of FloTracXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sustained preoperative dysrhythmias, based on literature regarding accuracy of FloTrac (i.e., atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen diagnosed with breast cancer stages I-III initiating first line adjuvant aromatase inhibitor (AI) therapy with any of the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved AIs (anastrozole, exemestane, letrozole)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior tamoxifen use is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily use of n-3 PUFA concentrates or capsules or any other supplements that might interact with n-3 PUFA supplements if > 375 mg per day of eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)/ docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) within six months of study initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having no reconstruction are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have access to the internet through computers or mobile devices (smart phones and tablets)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a C-reactive protein (CRP) > 3 mg/LXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a Single Item Screening Scale for Fatigue score of >= 4 (out of 10 points, 0 being no fatigue and 10 being severe, incapacitating fatigue) to be eligible for the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXNo patients will be enrolled from vulnerable populations, including neonates, children, prisoners, or institutionalized individualsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a current or past history of schizophrenia will also be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving antidepressants, mood stabilizers, antipsychotic medications or benzodiazepines or drugs known to affect the immune system (e.g. glucocorticoids, methotrexate) will also be excluded or at the PI’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who exhibit signs of an infection at screening will be rescheduled when symptoms have resolvedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who exhibit signs of infection or a significant change from baseline test measurements via safety labs will be informedXx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted a minimum of 8 years of educationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following breast cancer surgery complications; persistent seroma requiring aspiration, wound dehiscence, infection, prolonged drain output, lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of neurologic illness such as stroke, multiple sclerosis, multi-infarct dementia, or Parkinson’s disease or history of dementia or chronic fatigue syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXAny use of an assisted walking deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXEating disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history of falls or balance problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven sarcoma located in the extremitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 20 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXImpairments in physical function, as defined by a score < 9 on the SPPB pre-screenXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical clearance from an oncologist or primary care physician stating the participant is able to participate in an unsupervised, moderate-intensity physical activity programXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving a pain intensity rating of >= 5; a pain score of 5 is considered to be moderate painXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment evident patients will be evaluated with Folstein Mini-Mental Status Examination and excluded with a score less than 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient at University of Michigan Gynecologic Oncology ClinicXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive depression screen (PHQ-9 score >= 8) or current antidepressant treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXReport < 150 minutes of weekly moderate-to-vigorous physical activity (MVPA) on the Global Physical Activity Questionnaire (GPAQ)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically able to engage in physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be willing and able to receive email newsletters via computer or smartphone for 12 months’ AND/OR willing and able to receive texts via cellphone for 12 months\r\n* Participants must have a personal email address to receive newsletters\r\n** If a participant does not have an email address but has access to a smartphone or a computer, at the baseline data collection visit Columbia University Medical Center (CUMC) study staff will create a free personal Google Gmail email account.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be willing and able to travel to CUMC for data collection and optional blood draws at two baseline visits, 6-month and 12-month visit; if needed and depending on staff availability, optional blood draws can be completed at a participant’s home by a certified phlebotomist from our research teamXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must not be active smokers within the past 30 days; active smoking is defined as any smoking, even a puff; if identified as a smoker, the individual will be referred the New York (NY) State Smoking Cessation Quit line (nysmokefree.com) which is available in English and SpanishXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - STUDY 1: Cancer adult patients undergoing neurotoxic chemotherapy (agents including platinums, vinca alkaloids, taxanes, proteasome inhibitors and interferons) will be eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION - STUDY 1: Lower extremity major amputationXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION - STUDY 1: Have other medical conditions that may affect their balance and gait, or are unable to ambulate without assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION - STUDY 1: Under the circumstance that a subject develops CIPN during study 1, the subject will be withdrawn from the study but may be asked to participate in study 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary 6 months before the baseline visit defined as those individuals not participating in a regular exercise program or not meeting the minimal physical activity recommendations from the General Surgeon which is accumulating 30 minutes or more of moderate physical activity on most days of the weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be new to the Survivorship Clinic (within 12 months of first visit).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute coronary event within the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of cytotoxic or immunosuppressive drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic glucocorticoid or acute glucocorticoid or other synthetic steroid intake within the last monthXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic diarrhea or malabsorptive diseases (e.g., Crohn’s disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSupplemental oxygen dependencyXx_NEWLINE_xXDysphagia or requirement for artificial feedingXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe cGVHD diagnosed and staged per National Institute of Health (NIH) criteria; responses to Janus kinase (JAK) inhibitors have not been restricted to specific organs, so any organ involvement is eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNIH lung score 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a surgical indication for pancreatectomy (pancreaticoduodenectomy, distal pancreatectomy, total pancreatectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is willing to consent to randomization of lavage vs. standard lavageXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is not willing to consent to EIPL-S lavage vs. EIPL-D lavage vs. standardXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown benign or indolent disease, including benign pancreatic cystic tumors or pancreatic endocrine tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant insomnia as evidenced by an Insomnia Severity Index score >= 12Xx_NEWLINE_xXMotivated and able to follow the demands of the CBTI-CS program, to keep sleep records, complete self-report symptom reports and make changes in their sleep schedule, including restricting their sleepXx_NEWLINE_xXIntention to adjust (decrease or increase) use of sedative, hypnotic, or over-the-counter medications that can affect sleep (e.g., Benadryl, Unisom) during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXHave diagnosed, untreated sleep apnea or sleep apnea suspected by a physician but which has not been unevaluated or other sleep disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXEmployment that involves irregular sleep patterns, such as shift-work or frequent long-distance travel that involves adjusting to different time zones, or employment in a position that could impact public safety (such as operating heavy machinery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to modify or reduce excessive alcohol use that is likely to interfere with an individual’s sleepXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a documented visit with an oncologist during the previous 6-monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave pain severity (arithmetic mean of four pain severity items) >= 2 on Brief Pain Inventory (BPI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave worst pain >= to 4 (0-10 numeric rating scale [NRS]) in the preceding weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing penile prosthesis surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on chronic pain medications (ie. chronic = more than once every two days for greater than 2 weeks) excluding aspirin, acetaminophen and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body mass index (BMI) > 40Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic pain syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking more than 81 mg of Aspirin dailyXx_NEWLINE_xXReports a fall within the past 1 year OR self-reports that they are concerned about fallingXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identifies as partner, spouse or caregiver of a patient who is eligible as a patient participant and who has consented to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has taken the anti-emetic agents within the last 48 hours prior to the start of treatment with study drug: (1) 5-hydroxytryptamine (HT)3 antagonists (ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, tropisetron, etc.); palonosetron is not permitted within 7 days prior to administration of investigational product; (2) phenothiazines (prochlorperazine, fluphenazine, perphenazine, thiethylperazine, chlorpromazine, etc.); (3) benzamides (metoclopramide, alizapride, etc.); (4) domperidone; (5) cannabinoids; (6) neurokinin (NK)1 antagonist (aprepitant); (7) benzodiazepines (lorazepam, alprazolam, etc); (8) herbal medications or preparations in doses designed to ameliorate nausea or emesisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has ongoing vomiting, retching, dry heaves, or clinically significant nausea caused by any etiology, or has had such symptoms within 24 hours prior to the start of day 1 of the study intervention, or has a history of anticipatory nausea and vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, social, familial, or geographical reasons that would prevent scheduled visits and follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Patients will be excluded from participating in this research study if they:\r\n* Are already receiving palliative care in the outpatient setting\r\n* Need immediate palliative care and/or hospice care (as determined by their oncology team)\r\n* Have active, untreated, unstable, serious mental illness (e.g., active, untreated psychotic, bipolar, or substance-dependence disorder) interfering with ability to participate\r\n* Have a cognitive impairment (e.g., delirium, dementia) interfering with ability to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported new onset since initiation of treatment cognitive dysfunction as determined by telephone screen using the brief (3 questions) assessment established by Ercoli et al. (endorsement on all three questions):\r\n* Do you think or feel that your memory or mental ability has gotten worse since you completed your breast cancer treatment? \r\n* Do you think that your mind isn't as sharp now as it was before your breast cancer treatments?\r\n* Do you feel like these problems have made it harder to function on your job or take care of things around the home?Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for an elective surgery requiring general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiology (ASA) physical status I-IIIXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 30 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXMallampati I-IIIXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to bite upper lip via Upper Lip Bite Test (ULBT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInter-incisor distance > 2.5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXThyromental distance > 6 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXFull range of motion in the neckXx_NEWLINE_xXASA IV-VXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire prone positioning for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXLiquid only diet < 2 hrs and/or solids < 8 hrsXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk of regurgitationXx_NEWLINE_xXExhibits signs of respiratory tract pathology (including a sore throat preoperatively)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to bite upper lip via Upper Lip Bite Test (ULBT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInter-incisor distance < 2.5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXThyromental distance < 6 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXLimited neck movementXx_NEWLINE_xXAirway pathology/facial abnormalityXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of hepatopetal flowXx_NEWLINE_xXCholedochoenteric anastomosis; transpapillary biliary stent, or sphincterotomy of duodenal papillaXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute contraindication to intravenous iodinated contrast (history [Hx] of significant previous contrast reaction, not mitigated by appropriate pre-medication)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to arteriography and selective visceral catheterization:\r\n* Severe allergy or intolerance to contrast media, narcotics, sedatives, or atropine\r\n* Bleeding diathesis not correctable by usual forms of therapy\r\n* Severe peripheral vascular disease precluding catheterizationXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to hepatic artery embolization:\r\n* High risk of hepatic failure, indicated by the constellation of greater than 50% liver replacement by tumor, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) > 425 mU/ml, serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)(aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) > 100mU/ml; and bilirubin > 2 mg/dl\r\n* Portal vein occlusion without hepatopetal collateral flow demonstrated by angiography; or portal hypertension with hepatofugal flow\r\n* Hepatic encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipated in a previous elotuzumab protocol (including, but not limited to HuLuc63-1703, CA204007, CA204009, or CA204011) and is deemed by the investigator to be deriving benefit from elotuzumab and/or other study drugs as defined by the previous protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXMales and Females, ages 18 and olderXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects previously discontinued from an elotuzumab study for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXHave been scheduled for an intramedullary nailing (IM) surgery with the department of Orthopaedic Oncology at University of Texas (UT) MD Anderson Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXAre willing and able to use a smartphone or tablet comfortablyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to mobile hot spot, wireless internet, and/or cellular serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a caregiver or assistance at home who can assist with collecting physical therapy (PT) measuresXx_NEWLINE_xXThe oncologist \would not be surprised if the patient died in the next year\Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to receive ongoing care from a participating oncologist and willing to be seen at least monthlyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinician inclusion criteria:\r\n* Oncology staff nurses who undergo training to deploy CONNECT, oncologists, and practice managers at participating sites will be eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to complete the baseline interviewXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG PS of 3 (capable of limited self-care; confined to a bed or chair > 50 % of waking hours) or 4 (cannot carry on any self-care; totally confined to bed or chair)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs per medical record, radical prostatectomy (RP) conducted either at Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) or at another institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per medical record, =< 9 months post-RPXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per medical record, moderate erectile functioning pre-surgery (i.e., 15 or greater on the International Index of Erectile Function [IIEF] Erectile Function Domain [EFD] score, or graded their erections as a 1 or 2 on the standard 5 point Urology Erectile Function scale, or have a score of 6 or greater on the 1-10 pre-surgery erectile function scale on the SMRP assessment or have a total score of 15 or greater on items 2-7 on the Prostate Quality of Life Survey: Sexual Domain)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self report or as per medical record starting penile injections as part of the erectile rehabilitation program at MSKCCXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth cavernous nerves fully resected as per surgery report (nerve sparing score of 8 in MSKCC surgeon note), or documented in the progress note that the nerves were fully resectedXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self report, specific injection phobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave reported pain as a concern as well as psychological distress on a National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) screenerXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) (26 - 40 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory or able to engage in walking for at least 45 minutes per intervention visitXx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary lifestyle, as engaging in less than 100 minutes structured aerobic walking, cycling or swimming per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere musculoskeletal disease: severe muscle or joint disorders due to disease or trauma, amputations, or any condition that significantly impair physical capabilities, as defined by the physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-ambulatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent diagnosis of organic brain syndrome, dementia, mental retardation, or significant sensory deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1: PATIENT ELIGIBILITY: At least 1.5 years from treatment (which is a typical time for preparation to transfer to long-term follow-up care)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1: PARENT ELIGIBILITY: Caregiver of a pediatric cancer survivor age 18-25 who was primary caregiver at diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1: PROVIDER ELIGIBILITY: Health professional who works with childhood cancer survivors ages 18 to 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 2: PEER MENTOR ELIGIBILITY: Age 21-29Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 2: PEER MENTOR ELIGIBILITY: Self-reported primary responsibility for care and “complete readiness” using the Readiness for Transition QuestionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 2: PATIENT ELIGIBILITY: Currently does not independently self-manage follow-up care according to self-report (i.e., reports low readiness to assume total responsibility for care [score of 1 or 2 out of 4 on overall readiness item OR scores < 3 on any of the 10-item responsibility scale) using the Readiness for Transition Questionnaire)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 3A: AYA SURVIVOR ELIGIBILITY: Age 18-29Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 3A: AYA SURVIVOR ELIGIBILITY: At least 2 years from treatment for any pediatric cancer diagnosed at age 0-19Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 3B: PEER MENTOR ELIGIBILITY: Age 21-29Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 3B: PEER MENTOR ELIGIBILITY: Self-reported primary responsibility for care and “complete readiness” using the Readiness for Transition QuestionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 3B: PATIENT ELIGIBILITY: Currently does not independently self-manage follow-up care according to self- report (i.e., reports low readiness to assume total responsibility for care [score of 1 or 2 out of 4 on overall readiness item OR scores < 3 on any of the 10-item responsibility scale) using the Readiness for Transition Questionnaire)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1: PATIENT EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Physician- or self-reported cognitive delay or impairment that would prevent self-management of healthcareXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1: PARENT EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Patient has physician- or caregiver-reported cognitive delay or impairment that would prevent self-management of healthcareXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 2: PATIENT EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Physician- or self-reported cognitive delay or impairment that would prevent self-management of healthcareXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 3A/3B: PATIENT EXCLUSION CRITERIA: Physician- or self-reported cognitive delay or impairment that would prevent self-management of healthcareXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is self-identified as African-AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is obese (body mass index [BMI] >= 30 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have home internet or smartphone accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has severe disabilities limiting moderate physical activity, such as severe orthopedic conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has successfully lost 5% of body weight in the previous 6 months or has had bariatric surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is anticipating leaving the area within the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible treatment sites are:\r\n*Weight bearing sites\r\n** Pelvis (excluding pubis) \r\n** Femur\r\n** Sacrum and/or sacroiliac joints\r\n** Tibia\r\n** Up to 5 consecutive cervical, thoracic or lumbar vertebral bodies\r\n** Lumbosacral spine\r\n*Non-weight bearing sites\r\n** Up to 3 consecutive ribs\r\n** Humerus\r\n** Fibula\r\n** Radius +/- ulna\r\n** Clavicle\r\n** Sternum\r\n** Scapula\r\n** Pubis\r\nIf multiple sites are treated, the treatment site is included as weight-bearing if any of the sites include the pelvis, sacrum, femur or tibiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPainful metastases to the skull, hands, feet are not eligible treatment sites, but can be treated off study with conventional fractionation at the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXA score of >= 4 on the Distress Thermometer (DT) and indication that this distress is related in some way to the caregiving role; potential participants will be asked whether or not their distress is in any way related to their caregiving experience; individuals who answer \no\ will be asked whether or not their distress started or has gotten worse since the patient began treatment or was diagnosedXx_NEWLINE_xXEither a score of > 15 on the Brief Penn State Worry Questionnaire OR a score >= 12 on the Brooding Subscale of the Rumination Response ScaleXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self-report, is a regular smoker (daily use)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self-report, is a heavy drinker (regularly having more than 14 alcoholic beverages per week for men, 7 for women)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self-report, engaging in night shift workXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self-report, currently engaged in ongoing psychotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAYA Inclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Ever diagnosed with cancer;\n\n          -  Knows his or her cancer status;\n\n          -  Ages of 14 up to 20 years;\n\n          -  Ability to speak English;\n\n          -  Consent from the legal guardian for adolescents aged 14-17;\n\n          -  Consent from a surrogate for adolescents aged 18-20;\n\n          -  Assent from adolescent aged 14-17;\n\n          -  Consent from adolescent aged 18-20;\n\n        Inclusion Criteria for Legal Guardians of Adolescents Age 14-17:\n\n          -  Legal guardian of assenting adolescent participant;\n\n          -  Knows cancer status of adolescent;\n\n          -  Adolescent willingness to discuss problems related to cancer with them;\n\n          -  Age 18 or older;\n\n          -  Ability to speak English;\n\n          -  Consent to participate; Consent for his/her adolescent to participate;\n\n        Inclusion Criteria for Surrogates of AYAs Age 18-20:\n\n          -  Selected by adolescent aged 18 to 20;\n\n          -  Knows cancer status of adolescent;\n\n          -  Age 18 or older;\n\n          -  Ability to speak English;\n\n          -  Willingness to discuss problems related to cancer and EOL;\n\n          -  Consent to participate;\n\n        Exclusion Criteria - for AYA or surrogate decision-maker:\n\n        Developmental delay; foster care; active homicidality or suicidality, depression in the\n        severe rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXApproval from the treating clinician to engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient-assessed ability to walk and engage in moderate physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more significant medical conditions or other issues that in the physician’s judgment preclude participation in the walking interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXIndication for operative intervention being chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pre-existing neuropathic pain conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-smokersXx_NEWLINE_xXConsumption of dietary supplements or medications such as steroids that could affect metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled painXx_NEWLINE_xXDiet restrictions including vegetarianism, veganism, soy-free dietXx_NEWLINE_xXAre willing to attempt increase in physical activity levelXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a co-survivor (friend or family member) willing to participate in this research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave high-speed access to the internet at home or work; this could be broadband, digital subscriber line (DSL), and/or access on a smartphone or tablet via a wireless providerXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to attend study visits at the University of Wisconsin (UW) – MadisonXx_NEWLINE_xXSurvivors must not have previously received an SCP or are unwilling to receive oneXx_NEWLINE_xXSurvivors must not be performing >= 100 minute (min)/week of moderate-vigorous physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that would interfere with the safety of moderate-to-vigorous intensity physical activity; participants will be screened for safety using the validated Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny individual considered to be that of a “vulnerable group”, including pregnant women and prisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of plasma cell dyscrasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAppropriate homebound setting as defined by one of the following:\r\n* Lodging at Memorial Sloan-Kettering (MSK) residence\r\n* Staying at home or a \home equivalent\ in any one of the zip codes; home equivalent is defined as a residence which may or may not be the primary residence of the patient\r\n* \Home equivalent\ must pass the \Home Environment Screening Tool\ for homebound stem cell transplantation (not required for MSK recognized lodging facility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate caregiver support as defined by:\r\n* Single or multiple informal caregivers willing and able to provide 24 hour a day, seven day a week supervision of the transplant recipient in their home or \home-like\ environment\r\n* Caregiver willing and able to fulfill the basic stem cell transplant caregiver education requirements as determined by caregiver and healthcare team, including social workerXx_NEWLINE_xXHave Wi-Fi connectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSorror co-morbidity index > 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate housing arrangementsXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate caregiver arrangementsXx_NEWLINE_xXYBCS: Access to an internet connectionXx_NEWLINE_xXHCP: HCP of breast cancer patients/HCP designated by a YBCS study participant: oncologists and their advanced nurse practitioners; and primary care providers in family medicine, internal medicine and gynecologyXx_NEWLINE_xXHCP: Access to an Internet connectionXx_NEWLINE_xXTo be randomized, participants must have the presence of at least 1 reproductive health issue (e.g., birth control practices, fertility concerns, hot flashes, or sexual dysfunction/vaginal discomfort) and 70% adherence on reporting daily hot flashes through text messages during the 1-week run in periodXx_NEWLINE_xXReceives ongoing care from a medical oncologist at the Seidman Cancer Center (SCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIdentifies a DCG involved in his/her care, support, or care planningXx_NEWLINE_xXDCG: Identifies himself/herself as a DCG for the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXDCG: Lives > 1 hour travel time away from the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXDCG: Will be able to access internet (phone, computer, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDCG: Cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXReferred to Section of Speech Pathology and Audiology for swallowing evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXTracheotomy or oxygen dependence at time of MBSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) < 24 will be ineligible for participation in the therapeutic trialXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for abdominal-based autologous breast reconstruction (deep inferior epigastric perforator [DIEP], muscle-sparing [MS]-transverse rectus abdominis [TRAM], or TRAM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant preoperative chronic pain (requiring daily narcotics) or neuropathic pain (requiring daily use of pregabalin or gabapentin) within the previous 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking a third-generation AI (e.g., anastrozole [Arimidex], letrozole [Femara], or exemestane [Aromasin]) for at least 3 months with sufficient time left in their AI prescription to complete all study assessments (e.g., at least one year left on AIs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExperiencing ongoing pain and/or stiffness in one or more joints, which started or worsened after initiation of AI therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving a baseline worst pain score over the past week on the Brief Pain Inventory–Short Form (BPI-SF) of >= 3 on a 0 to 10 scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to be randomized to experimental conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXInflammatory, metabolic or neuropathic arthropathies at the time of recruitment; this includes international classification of diseases (ICD) 10 codes M05-M14Xx_NEWLINE_xXFibromyalgia (ICD 10 code M79.7)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNon-steroidal joint injection within the last 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of narcoticsXx_NEWLINE_xXConsistent with previous chemoprevention adherence research, patients will be excluded due to the presence of the following psychiatric conditions:\r\n* A lifetime history of dementia (ICD 10 codes F01-, F02-, F03-, F04-);\r\n* A lifetime history of a psychotic disorder (ICD 10 codes: F20-F-29);\r\n* A current diagnosis of a manic episode (ICD 10 codes F30-);\r\n* Current uncontrolled major depressive disorder (ICD 10 codes F33-);\r\n* A current diagnosis of any mental and behavioral disorders due to psychoactive substance use (excluding nicotine-related diagnoses) (ICD 10 codes: F10- F19-, except for nicotine-related diagnoses); and,\r\n* Current intoxicationXx_NEWLINE_xXAnd/or in the rare instance of the presence of a comorbidity that does not fall into any of the above mentioned exclusion criteria, but that is clinically determined to significantly interfere with the patient’s ability to participate in the study (e.g., cognitive impairment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe child does not have learning challengesXx_NEWLINE_xXParents will be excluded if they are enrolled in hospice at time of enrollment; (however, they will be allowed to continue in the study if they enroll in hospice after beginning the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParents will be ineligible if their child lives in the home less than 50% of the timeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the ability to access the internet at least once per week, and this can occur in the patient’s home, relatives’ homes, work setting, or Dana-Farber (in addition to coffee shops, libraries, etc. if applicable); having a computer is not required; an iPad will be provided to any patient who needs one for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to tolerate enteral drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned chemotherapeutic regimen for subject must meet all of the following criteria:\r\n* A known myelosuppressive regimen which includes a combination of at least two of the following agents: actinomycin, carboplatin, cisplatin, cyclophosphamide, daunorubicin, doxorubicin, etoposide, ifosfamide, topotecan\r\n* At least 4 consecutive cycles\r\n* Cycle length is either 14 or 21 days\r\n* Regimen must either alternate chemotherapeutic agents in an X-Y-X-Y format, such that the same chemotherapy is given every other cycle (e.g. vincristine/doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide | ifosfamide/etoposide), or repeat the same chemotherapeutic agents each cycle in an X-X-X-X format (e.g. repeated cycles of cisplatin/etoposide/bleomycin); questions regarding whether or not a patient’s chemotherapy plan meets inclusion criteria will be decided by the study chairXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of gastric or duodenal ulcers or hyperacidity syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXIncarcerationXx_NEWLINE_xXIs scheduled to undergo radical prostatectomy (i.e. robot-assisted or open-approach)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently not practicing yoga as a form of exercise and/or meditationXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have uncontrolled painXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have neurological or musculoskeletal co-morbidity inhibiting exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas never been diagnosed by health care professionals to have absolute contraindications to exercise testingXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo phlebotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXIs NOT scheduled to undergo radical prostatectomy (i.e. robot-assisted or open-approach)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently practicing yoga as a form of exercise and/or meditationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas uncontrolled painXx_NEWLINE_xXHas neurological or musculoskeletal co-morbidity inhibiting exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been diagnosed with psychotic, addictive, and major cognitive disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been diagnosed by health care professionals to have absolute contraindications to exercise testingXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to undergo phlebotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for major pancreatectomy (i.e., pancreaticoduodenectomy, total pancreatectomy, or a distal pancreatectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXKnowledge of the internet and how to use web-based programsXx_NEWLINE_xXBe able to complete a steep ramp testXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician consent to participate in vigorous aerobic or resistance exercise trainingXx_NEWLINE_xXMen with small cell neuroendocrine tumors or features of small cell diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXExperiences shortness of breath, chest discomfort, or palpitations when performing activities of daily livingXx_NEWLINE_xXHas difficulty climbing a flight of stairs due to physical impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHas been told by a doctor to have a heart condition and recommended only medically supervised activityXx_NEWLINE_xXHas chest pain brought on by physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXHas developed chest pain in the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXMen participating in vigorous exercise for 75 minutes or more per week, and/or structured resistance exercise on three or more days per week are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMen who do not complete the baseline lifestyle and quality-of-life questionnaires and food frequency questionnaire (FFQ) will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXUreteral stent in place at study registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient reports pain, spasms, or urgency symptoms after stent placement, which are thought to be unrelated to other causes as per the patient or healthcare provider or both (documentation in the medical record is unnecessary)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive cholecystitisXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent daily smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least moderately interested in quitting and willing to choose a quit smoking date within the next 12 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable psychiatric disease (psychotic disorders or major depression identified using Brief Psychiatry Rating Scale [unless stable in treatment for 3 months]) - smokers with stable psychiatric disease will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipating in a current smoking cessation treatment (counseling or using nicotine replacement therapy [NRT], bupropion, or varenicline)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS ONLY: Have a romantic partner with whom they have resided for a minimum of 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS AND PARTNERS: Not oriented to time, place, or person as deemed by the clinical teamXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS AND PARTNERS: Regular (self-defined) participation in psychotherapy or a formal cancer support groupXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS AND PARTNERS: Prior enrollment in a couple-based mind-body intervention research study (protocols 2011-1179, 2013-0496, 2014-0036) conducted by the principal investigator including phase 1 or phase 2 of the current studyXx_NEWLINE_xXObese breast cancer survivors and their overweight or obese partnersXx_NEWLINE_xXPartners will be cohabiting with the cancer survivor and have a BMI >= 25, be healthy enough to participate in a home-based walking program (per medical provider clearance; Phase I, part B and Phase II only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPain score >= 4 on a 0-10 numeric pain scale and/or grade 3 neuropathic symptoms according to the National Cancer Institute’s 4 point grading scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must report neuropathic pain for a minimum of 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo plans to change pain medication regimen during the course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking any antipsychotic medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduling to undergo robot-assisted radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients willing and able to complete the EPIC questionnaire in its entiretyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of incontinence defined as any pad use for urinary leakage in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) including chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML) with at least one of the following poor?risk features:\r\n* Poor?risk cytogenetics\r\n* International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) score of intermediate (INT)?2 of greater\r\n* Treatment?related or secondary MDS\r\n* MDS diagnosed before age 21\r\n* Progression on or lack of response to standard deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?methyltransferase inhibitor therapy\r\n* Life?threatening cytopenias, including those requiring frequent transfusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhiladelphia chromosome negative myeloproliferative disease (including myelofibrosis)\r\n* Intermediate-2 or high risk score by Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (DIPSS) Plus is required for a diagnosis of myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic malignancy in complete remission with minimal residual disease (MRD) detectable by conventional cytogenetics, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), flow cytometry, or molecular testingXx_NEWLINE_xXAny previous autologous HSCT must have occurred at least 3 months prior to start of conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXNo previous allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of chronic untreated trauma (unrelated to their cancer), psychiatric hospitalization or suicide attempt(s) in the past 5 years, or current moderate to high suicide risk based on our pilot study and other study experience that such patients often require more intensive resources.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute graft versus host disease (GVHD) fitting one of the following categories:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-Risk aGVHD (ARM 1)\r\n* Pediatric or adult hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT) recipients with high-risk acute GVHD, as determined by the refined Minnesota Medical (MN) acute GVHD risk score OR high risk on the basis of blood biomarkers (Ann Arbor score 3); patients in this arm must start treatment within the first 7 days after onset of high-risk aGVHD orXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent (within prior 3 months) thrombus, irrespective of anticoagulation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy as assessed on baseline blood hCG levelXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling or unable to stop supplemental sex hormone therapy (estrogen, progesterone, and/or testosterone preparations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of documented anaphylaxis or contraindication to any of the study medications or standardized intra-operative medications; these include Dilaudid, fentanyl, and bupivacaineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pain at rest or with movement measured by numeric rating scale (NRS) > 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with significant cognitive impairment or documented psychologic impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to epidural catheter placement including bleeding diathesis (essential thrombocythemia, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, von Willebrand disease, and hemophilia A or B), neurological dysfunction (multiple sclerosis, subacute myelo-opticoneuropathy or preexisting lower limb neurological deficit), prior extensive spinal surgery or major spinal deformity, pre-operative use of anti-coagulant with planned use of therapeutic dose of anti-coagulant in post-operatively, documented pre-operative coagulopathy (international normalized ratio [INR] greater than 1.3 not on Coumadin or partial thromboplastin time [PTT] greater than 42), platelets less than 100,000/uL, or evidence of infection at potential epidural siteXx_NEWLINE_xXCirrhotic patients; when incidentally discovered intra-operatively, patients will be excluded from the study and replaced, but will be followed for primary and secondary endpointsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with poor performance status preoperatively such that they are unable to walk up two flights of stairsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPracticing mindfulness meditation for an average of more than 1 hour/week or have taken mindfulness training in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of Alzheimer’s disease, dementia, or other neurologic deficit that could impact decision-makingXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoner or incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment on the St. Jude Lifetime Cohort (SJLIFE) protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXLives within a 45 minute drive of greater Memphis area ATC Fitness CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXContra-indications to resistance training or protein supplementation (e.g. renal) (physicians will verify if they can participate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of advanced cancer (defined as metastatic or recurrent) with fatigue >= 4/10 (0-10 scale) on the Edmonton Symptom Assessment Scale (ESAS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNormal cognitionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of significant anxiety or depression as determined by a total HADS scores of < 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXWill exclude patients with current, active peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular participation in moderate- or vigorous-intensity physical activity for >= 30 minutes at least 5 times a week and strength training for >= 2 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a self-reported history of diagnosed sleep disorders (e.g., obstructive sleep apnea, insomnia), comorbidities associated with poor sleep or fatigue (e.g., chronic fatigue syndrome), or a job with night shiftsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior non-tolerance of gabapentinXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of patient reported PONV, chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) or motion sicknessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled for paravertebral blockXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing nausea and vomiting, defined as nausea or vomiting requiring pharmacological treatment greater than 3 times in the week preceding screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent acknowledged use of any illicit drugs, medical marijuana (including Marinol), or evidence of alcohol abuse as defined by The American Psychiatric Association criteria; this includes patients who are currently in the recovery processXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of NF1 through germline mutation OR clinical diagnosis; for the clinical diagnosis of NF1 all study subjects must have two or more diagnostic criteria for NF1 listed below (National Institutes of Health [NIH] Consensus Conference):\r\n* Six or more cafe-au-lait spots (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in postpubertal subjects)\r\n* >= 2 neurofibromas or 1 plexiform neurofibroma\r\n* Freckling in the axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must self-report having chronic pain for at least the past 3 months that has interfered with their daily functioning, as assessed by the Pain Interference Index (must get a mean score of 2.0 or higher, or score a 3 on three or more individual items)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have regular access to a computer or tablet with internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent pain level >= 3 and at least one prior score >= 3 on a 0-10 scale as reported in inquiries of electronic health records (EPIC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActively receiving care at the Duke Cancer Center, Durham Regional Hospital, or Duke Raleigh HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXAble/willing to have an online interaction with a Pillars4Life group weekly for nine weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXOverweight or obese (> 25 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary physician consent to engage in physical activity unsupervisedXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory or able to engage in walking for at least 15 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary lifestyle, as engaging in less than 100 minutes structured aerobic walking, cycling or swimming per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently (previous 6 months) engaged in structured exercise either aerobic or yoga basedXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere musculoskeletal disease: severe muscle or joint disorders due to disease or trauma, amputations, or any condition that significantly impair physical capabilities, as defined by the physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-ambulatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent diagnosis of organic brain syndrome, dementia, mental retardation, or significant sensory deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXPartial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2):fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) ratio =< 300 mmHg OR a peripheral capillary oxygen saturation (SaO2):FiO2 =< 357Xx_NEWLINE_xXProbability of survival is at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of do not resuscitate (DNR)/do not intubate (DNI) orders at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of left heart failure as the main etiology for respiratory compromiseXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of active intrathoracic malignancy (primary or metastatic) in the lungs or pleural space that is a significant cause of respiratory insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute chronic obstructive disease exacerbation as the primary etiology for respiratory failureXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of accessory respiratory muscle use with breathingXx_NEWLINE_xXShock (need for vasopressor therapy or mean arterial pressure [MAP] < 60 despite fluid administration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOliguric acute renal failure (urine output < 500 ml/day) unless already on hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient already on NIPPV at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXpH < 7.30 or partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) > 50 (if available)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFixed upper airway obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXAirway or facial trauma that would hinder the use of a NIPPV maskXx_NEWLINE_xXGlasgow Coma Scale (GCS) < 8 or inadequate airway protective reflexesXx_NEWLINE_xXUndrained pneumothorax/pneumomediastinumXx_NEWLINE_xXCopious secretions (> 20 cc/hr sputum production or > 100 cc's hemoptysis/24 hrs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRisk for gastric aspiration (ie; ileus, esophageal or bowel obstruction, active vomiting)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to receive NIPPVXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory arrestXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to ambulate and complete the 6 minute walk test without use of a walker, cane, or any assist devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXALS PATIENTS: Already on a stable dose of riluzole for at least one monthXx_NEWLINE_xXALS PATIENTS: Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis Functional Rating Scale-Revised (ALSFRS-R) with < or equal to 2 point decline in last monthXx_NEWLINE_xXTECHNOLOGY REQUIREMENT: Patients will need to own a smart phone that can interface with the Jawbone Up 24Xx_NEWLINE_xXTECHNOLOGY REQUIREMENT: Patients willing to provide their own internet access for this study; this will include either a data plan or wireless-fidelity (Wi-Fi) access on the patient’s smart phone for use of the Jawbone App; they will also need internet access (through their smart phone or home computer) for setting up a Self-Generated Health Information Exchange (SGHIx) account; patients are welcome to use the free guest Wi-Fi access within the Duke outpatient clinic area for the purpose of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXTECHNOLOGY REQUIREMENT: Patients will need a home computer or adaptor with universal serial bus (USB) port to charge the Jawbone Up 24Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of cardiovascular disease that would make physical activity risky at the discretion of the providerXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who is unable to comprehend and operate the activity tracker at the discretion of the enrolling providerXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician (oncologist) clearance to participate in exercise at moderate to high intensityXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal body temperature (=< 100 degrees F)Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to highly active level of physical activity (e.g. currently participating in >= 60 minutes of moderate aerobic activity weekly)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOrthopedic or other restrictions or contraindications to high-intensity (cycling) exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of fever (>= 100 degrees F)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 25 kg/m^2; andXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically able to undertake a diet and exercise programXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent, recent (< 1 year), or planning to join a weight loss program or take appetite suppressantsXx_NEWLINE_xXDoctor of medicine (MD) confirmed cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol or narcotic abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of arterial or venous thromboembolic event within 12 months prior to study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive hemoptysis or history of clinically relevant hemoptysis as determined by the treating physician; patients who had history of transient minor hemoptysis after bronchoscopic biopsy are eligible unless deemed otherwise by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1: Signed consent forms and completed surveys that will be returned to the study team by mailXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2: CRC survivors 6 months or greater post-treatment, who additionally do not follow guidelines for physical activity (PA) (150 minutes of moderate to strenuous exercise weekly), and average, at least 6 hours/day of sedentary behaviorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with islet cell/neuroendocrine or papillary cystic neoplasmXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment documented in the medical recordXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to provide meaningful consent (e.g., women with severe cognitive impairment such that the descriptions of the research are not clearly understood will be excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing or initiating active surveillanceXx_NEWLINE_xXLow to moderate fitness level at baseline (to be assessed via interview with the exercise staff and through the CPET)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical clearance based on medical chart review and normal electrocardiogram (ECG) (administered by a trained health professional) to undergo a symptom-limited cardiopulmonary exercise test and aerobic training interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to achieve and complete an acceptable cardiopulmonary exercise test defined as follows: achieving peak or plateau in oxygen consumption concurrent with increased power output; a respiratory exchange ratio >= 1.1 or volitional exhaustion-rating of perceived exertion > 19Xx_NEWLINE_xXNON-RANDOMIZED OBSERVATIONAL COMPONENT ELIGIBILITY:\r\nUndergoing or initiating active surveillanceXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-RANDOMIZED OBSERVATIONAL COMPONENT ELIGIBILITY:\r\nMedical clearance based on medical chart review and normal electrocardiogram (ECG) (administered by a trained health professional) to undergo a symptom-limited cardiopulmonary exercise test and aerobic training interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-RANDOMIZED OBSERVATIONAL COMPONENT ELIGIBILITY:\r\nEnglish-speakingXx_NEWLINE_xXBlind or having a history of eye disease including, but not limited to, macular degeneration, or other diagnosed retinal problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergone laser corrective eye surgery in the past 30 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXRecently started on anti-depressant medications (past one month for those on selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors [SSRI] and past two months for those started on monoamine oxidase inhibitors [MAOI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing gynecologic surgery via midline vertical laparotomy at University of Wisconsin Hospital and Clinics (UWHC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the ability to understand visual and verbal pain scalesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be eligible for epidural placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is a prisoner or incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of opioid dependence requiring rehabilitation or the use of opioid antagonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXAnemia (defined as having a hemoglobin level less than 11.7 g/dL for white women, following the Ohio State University (OSU) hospital’s criteria, and 11.5 for African American women, based on data from Beutler and Waalen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmokingXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who routinely take fish oil, krill oil, or flaxseed (oil, pills, or powder) or consume more than two portions of oily fish per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with blood pressures above 180/100 or below 80/50Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedication exclusions will include steroids as well as statins and other medications with anti-inflammatory actionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAntidepressant users who have been medicated for at least three months will not be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to undergo study assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants will be recruited by BMT registered nurse (RN) coordinators and physicians prior to patient admission to the Pediatric BMT Unit; caregiver (age 18 years or older) of any patient eligible to undergo autologous or allogeneic BMT and any patient (age 10 years or older) eligible to undergo autologous or allogeneic BMT will be recruited during the “Pre-Transplant Work-up” stage in the outpatient settingXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver (age 18 years or older) of a patient who will be hospitalized to undergo first-time autologous (self) or allogeneic (alternative donor) BMT in the University of Michigan Mott Children’s Hospital Pediatric BMT UnitXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers with children (patients) who are younger than 10 years of age may be eligible to participate even though their children are too young to assent or participate themselvesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who will be hospitalized to undergo first-time autologous or allogeneic BMT will be given the opportunity to assent/consent and participate in the study; with his/her permission, the patient will also be provided with their own iPad® BMT Roadmap information system to useXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient will also be provided with their own Philips Equivital® non-invasive, wearable activity monitoring device that will track activity and rest levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been readmitted to Pediatric BMT unit after initial transplant (not already in the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDistal symmetric pain distribution (both feet, with or without pain in hands)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScore of 4 or more on Douleur Neuropathique 4 (DN4) neuropathic pain questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXPain duration > 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient report of average daily pain intensity > 3 on 0-10 Numerical Rating Scale (NRS) in the past weekXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be able to lie supineXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be deemed at \high risk\ of developing vertebral body fracture by having at least one of the following characteristics: \r\n* Spine Instability Neoplastic Score classification of \Indeterminate\ deemed as a score from 7 to 12\r\n* Pre-existing vertebral body fracture\r\n* Planned radiation dose of 24 GyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with gross disease involving only the posterior elementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have > 50% vertebral body collapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatents with cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients deemed not be a candidate for cement augmentation for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have frank mechanical painXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with both pedicles involved with gross disease at the level of potential cement augmentationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with scleroderma or discoid lupusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be diagnosed with a primary glioma and have refractory partial onset seizure activity (defined as 3 or more seizures in a 28-day period) on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic regimen that can include, but not limited to the following: levetiracetam (Keppra) or Keppra XR, lamotrigine (Lamictal) or Lamictal XR, gabapentin (Neurontin), tiagabine (Gabitril), topiramate (Topamax), valproic acid (Depakene)/valproate (Depacon), zonisamide (Zonegran), lacosamide (Vimpat), and clonazepam (Klonopin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 29%Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic excessive use of psycho-pharmaceuticals, alcohol, illicit drugs, or narcoticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious history of suicidal ideation, homicidal ideation, depression leading to hospitalization or mood disturbance leading to hospitalizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients who present for an initial consultation at the Dana Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI) for myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or a hematologic malignancy (transplantation consultation excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have to present on one of the three days per week that geriatric assessments are available, and be willing to be seen for geriatric co-management on one of the two geriatrician clinic daysXx_NEWLINE_xXAverage dyspnea Borg Scale >= 4 of 10 with severe exertion over the past weekXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation > 90% on ambient air at time of assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSeen at Supportive Care, cardiopulmonary center, thoracic radiation oncology or thoracic medical oncologyXx_NEWLINE_xXResting dyspnea modified Borg Scale > 7 of 10 at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium (i.e., Memorial Delirium Rating Scale > 13)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute pulmonary embolus or pulmonary infarction in the last weekXx_NEWLINE_xXThrombosis of lower extremities in the last weekXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute myocarditis, pericarditis, or endocarditis in the last weekXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic aortic stenosis or syncope in the last weekXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected dissecting aneurysmXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled arrhythmias causing symptoms or hemodynamic compromise in the last weekXx_NEWLINE_xXAirway obstruction requiring stenting within 1 week of study enrollment or scheduled during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to walk without an assistive deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete a minimum of 4 days of in-home activity monitoring before operationXx_NEWLINE_xXOpen, hybrid, robotic, laparoscopic, or laparoscopic-assisted procedure exceeding 2 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently residing in nursing or assisted living facilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients to be treated with RT for curative intentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are currently taking melatonin must discontinue melatonin for 5 days before enrolling in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFatigue brought on by conditions other than cancer such as (the indicated tests are required only if that mechanism of fatigue is suspected):\r\n* Uncontrolled hypothyroidism (thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH] > 10 IU)\r\n* Hypercalcemia (calcium > 11 mg/dL) calcium (Ca)=SerumCA + 0.8* (Normal/Albumin –PatientAlbumin)\r\n* Decompensated congestive heart failure\r\n* Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease requiring oxygen replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking daily antihistamines for allergies, asthma, or other indications, not including bone painXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking daily nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), with the exception of aspirin, for chronic conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHematologic malignancies including acute and chronic leukemias, myelodysplastic syndromes, and myelomaXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment entails significant risk for symptomatic mucositis likely to require opioid analgesia, as per the discretion of treating physician/nurse practitioner (NP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no exceptions to exclusion; the Data and Safety Monitoring Committee (DSMC) will not approve exceptionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas another painful condition requiring chronic use of opioid analgesic, gabapentin, or pregabalinXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of angioedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets < 150 mg/dL or history of thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXpT1 breast cancer, excised with negative margins\r\n* Low risk-pTis breast cancer, excised with negative margins\r\n* Criteria for low risk-pTis:\r\n** Screen-detected\r\n** Low to intermediate nuclear grade\r\n** =< 2.5 cm in size\r\n** Resected with negative margins at >= 3 mmXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a proportion of ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) in the core biopsy specimen which is compatible with extensive intraductal component (EIC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHaving 2 clinical pain ratings of >= 3 gathered as part of their routine clinic visits at least 3 weeks apart but not more than 12 months apartXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment as indicated by a baseline Folstein Mini-Mental Status Examination of < 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires voriconazole to prevent or treat invasive fungal infection (IFI) post HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving one of the following drugs and cannot be discontinued at least 24 hours before starting therapy, including: pimozide, quinidine, astemizole, ergot alkaloidsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving or anticipated need for methadone as co-administration with voriconazole potentially increases methadone exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identify as LatinaXx_NEWLINE_xXCan identify at least one primary, adult caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to come to MD Anderson Main Campus (Texas Medical Center) for interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXLower extremity neuropathy per patient report attributable to oxaliplatin, docetaxel or paclitaxel (neurotoxic chemotherapeutic agent) as determined by patient history of neurotoxic agent administration and no history of other attributable causes such as diabetic neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA home that is deemed, upon inspection, in suitable condition to serve as a medical home, within a 90-minute driving distance of DukeXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of a caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of homeopathic medications or probiotics that may impact gut microbiotaXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER:Xx_NEWLINE_xXIdentified by patient as their primary caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXElective craniotomy for supratentorial brain tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst craniotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) I-IIIXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXTraumatic lesions/hematomasXx_NEWLINE_xXEmergency caseXx_NEWLINE_xXNecessity of awake procedure requiring intraoperative participation of patient due to the presence of the lesion in eloquent brain areasXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically confirmed T3-T4 and N0-N2, M0 adenocarcinoma of the rectum with the inferior margin within 16 cm from the anal vergeXx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXReport sleep disturbance of 8 or greater on the Insomnia Severity Index (ISI), and report insomnia that began or got worse with diagnosis of cancer or treatment with chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSleep apnea or restless leg syndrome (RLS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to walk unassisted without oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire with “No” answers to all questions; if patient responds with any YES answers, OR IS OVER AGE 69, approval must be obtained from the patient’s primary care provider (PCP) or treating medical oncologist to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to fast for 12 hours for blood work and basal metabolic rate (BMR) measurementXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have a baseline activity level of < 150 minutes/wk of moderate to vigorous activity as calculated using the moderate to vigorous components of the Leisure Time Exercise Questionnaire (LTEQ) for physical activity (completed during screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are oxygen dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Have parent-reported or documented difficulties in attention, processing speed, memory, or learning as assessed by the screening questions (a score of at least 3 on any one of the 4 questions or the participant having >= 1/2 standard deviation [SD] decline in test scores, scores < 85, or special education services or accommodations).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Must have a parent or legal guardian willing to complete the parent proxy behavioral questionnaires and help their child participate in the study procedures at home.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Have regular access to a computer (either personal computer [PC] or Mac with a built-in Universal Serial Bus [USB] port).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Must be willing to register online and install the software to use an age-appropriate activity monitor and website, which will include sharing some personal identifiable information, to allow the participant to track their physical activity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPARENT OR GUARDIAN: Parent or Guardian of participating subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: A child with diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG) or recurrent high grade brain tumors will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Significant medical problems, such as severe uncontrolled illnesses, or physical impairments that prohibit the child from exercising at moderate to vigorous levels based on the clinical judgment of the examining physician or nurse practitioner.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Currently engaging in > 3 hours of moderate to vigorous physical activity per week, as reported in the exercise screening questions completed at the pre-study screening evaluation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Significant cognitive, behavioral, or emotional impairments as judged by an investigator that would prevent the child from understanding or completing the intervention or assessment measures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Currently on or planning to begin active neoplastic therapy, as the side effects may significantly impair ability to participate in physical activity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSUBJECT: Unable to travel to National Institute of Health (NIH) for the evaluations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPARENT OR GUARDIAN: Parent or guardian of an ineligible subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLoss of a child at least 6 months ago who had been diagnosed with cancer as reported in the child's medical record or by parent reportXx_NEWLINE_xXLoss of a child 39 years old or younger as reported in the child's medical record or by parent reportXx_NEWLINE_xXBiological or adoptive parent or stepparent as reported in the child's medical record or by parent reportXx_NEWLINE_xXScore of 34 or greater (>= 34) on the Prolonged Grief (PG)-13 at screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXResiding in New York, New Jersey, Connecticut, or Pennsylvania for part 1 step 1 (P1S1); residing in New York for P1S2; and residing in New York or New Jersey or ability to complete sessions in New York or New Jersey for part 2, as reported in the child's medical record or by parent reportXx_NEWLINE_xXSUPPORT PROVIDER: Has been identified by the bereaved parent participant as a support or someone important to bereaved parentXx_NEWLINE_xXSUPPORT PROVIDER: Must reside in New York or New Jersey or ability to complete sessions in New York or New JerseyXx_NEWLINE_xXAnother parent or primary caregiver of the child has been enrolled in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor the part 2 randomized controlled trial (RCT), participated in part 1, step 1 or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe pain, as specified by a baseline pain rating score of 5 or above on a scale from 0 (no pain) to 10 (worst pain imaginable) despite current opioid therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPain management plan (as developed by Interventional Pain Service, patient and primary service) that includes placement of an intrathecal drug delivery system for pain managementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not a candidate for intrathecal drug therapy due to coagulopathy, concurrent necessary use of blood thinners, presence of systemic infection, drug allergy to analgesic agent, evidence of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) obstruction or other technical factorXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for partial nephrectomy of renal massXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXIf biopsy of mass has been done, pathology must be consistent with renal cell carcinoma (RCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSolitary kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple or bilateral renal masses when more than one mass is operated on at the same time or within 4-months of each otherXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently practicing nurseXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved in direct patient careXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identify in one of the following primary practice roles--case managers, clinical nurse specialists, nurse practitioners, managers/coordinators, nurse navigators, patient educators, and staff nursesXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch nurses, nurses without direct patient care, and nurse managers/directors (i.e. not involved in direct patient care)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack of email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary, as defined as < 60 minutes of recreation or work requiring modest PA/week based on the 7 day physical activity recall questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical limitations (e.g., orthopedic, central nervous system) that contraindicate participation in a low to moderate intensity home-based walking programXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted to Burke Services (WBG 5th floor) with plans for inpatient myelosuppressive chemotherapy (with standard of care or protocol regimens) (this will include induction for patients with low risk APL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will not be excluded on the basis of sex, racial or ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute coronary syndrome as defined by active chest pain, dynamic electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, troponin greater than 2.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive blood lossXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented wish against transfusion for personal or religious beliefsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient cannot previously have been on the trial for another induction, salvage, or consolidation attemptXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must also meet at least two of the following criteria related to lifestyle: 1) consume less than 3 servings of fruit and vegetable/day; 2) engage in less than 75 minutes moderate/vigorous activity per week, defined as anything that causes small increases in breathing or heart rate for a sustained amount of time (e.g., brisk walking, bicycling); and 3) engage in a mind-body practice less than 4 times a monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with communication barriers (e.g., hard of hearing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with extreme mobility issues (e.g. unable to get in and out of a chair unassisted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSecondary AML arising out of myeloproliferative neoplasms (as per the revised 2008 WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms and acute leukemias) and MDS/myeloproliferative (MPD) neoplasms other than CMML (as per the revised 2008 WHO classification of myeloid neoplasms and acute leukemias); refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts with thrombocytosis (RARS-T) classified as MDS/myeloproliferative neoplasm (MPN) neoplasm, unclassifiable will be excluded; AML patients with presenting features suspicious of underlying unrecognized MPD such as marked splenomegaly (>= 20 cm) and or thrombocytosis (> 400,000 per microliter) will be excluded; patients with relapsed or refractory AML will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of treatment with recombinant thrombopoietin (TPO) or TPO-receptor (R) agonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-compliant to medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo appropriate caregivers identifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXHIV1 (human immunodeficiency virus-1) or HIV2 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPreceding allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who has undergone a single or double umbilical cord blood transplant (UCBT) except those with primary myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXBetween day +28 and day +42 status post myeloablative or nonmyeloablative UCBT (single or double cord blood transplant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of an HSCT due to an oncological diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXReport a clinical pain score of >= 3/10Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Patient is within the recruitment window of discharge home to 6 weeks post-discharge home dateXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or judged to be cognitively impaired (e.g., dementia, retardation, psychosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, or >= 3 urinary tract infections per year since starting AI therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree not to use any additional estrogen during the five year study period; however, use of non-estrogen containing lubricants prior to sexual intercourse, or otherwise, is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cachexia, dizziness, bone pain, or severe nausea (as judged by the investigator)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant pancreatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with allergies to any of the ingredients in the nutritional supplementXx_NEWLINE_xXPerforming less than 150 minutes of structured moderate-intensity or strenuous intensity exercise per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete an acceptable baseline cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPET), in the absence of high risk electrocardiogram (ECG) findings or other inappropriate response to exercise as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to achieve an acceptable peak baseline CPET, as defined by any of the following criteria:\r\n* Achieving a plateau in oxygen consumption, concurrent with an increase in power output\r\n* A respiratory exchange ratio >= 1.10\r\n* Attainment of maximal predicted heart rate (HR max) (i.e., within 10 beats per minute [bpm] of age-predicted HR max [HR max = 220-Age[years])\r\n* Volitional exhaustion, as measured by a rating of perceived exertion (RPE) >= 18 on the BORG scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to be randomized to one of the study armsXx_NEWLINE_xXRoom air desaturation at rest =< 85%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of east Asian ancestry (Chinese, Japanese, or Korean origin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPermission from treating/study physician to participate in RTXx_NEWLINE_xXMilk protein intolerance/allergies (lactose intolerance is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects currently using N-acetylcysteine, alpha-lipoic acid supplements, or dry whey protein supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic and/or orthopedic limitations that preclude the participation in the training program (e.g. bone metastases that may pose a high risk of pathologic fracture)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDietary eligibility requirements from a 7-day food record fruit and vegetable (FV) intake less than < 5.5 servings/day, not including potatoes and iceberg lettuceXx_NEWLINE_xXBe chronically fatigued as defined by having a >= 4 on the Brief Fatigue InventoryXx_NEWLINE_xXCannot supplement with fish oil and other omega-3-fatty acidsXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 18.5 or > 35 kg/m^2 will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a diagnosis of untreated hypo- or hyper- thyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXReasonably good healthXx_NEWLINE_xXWritten clearance for the procedure from the patient’s oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be capable and reliable to participate in all study related proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking Digitalis are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with chronic kidney disease or concomitant parathyroid diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of high-grade osteosarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHearing level threshold =< 25 dB at all frequencies in both ears to be evaluable for evaluation of pantoprazole's effect on cisplatin ototoxicity; patients with hearing loss can be enrolled but will not be evaluable for ototoxicity objectiveXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving histamine type 2 (H2) antagonists (cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, nizatidine) or proton pump inhibitors 9lansoprazole, omeprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole, raberprazole, dexlansoprazole) AND unable to hold the drug for 24 h prior to and 24 h after each cisplatin course on cycles 1-4Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of enfuvirtide resistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXActive extramedullary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of a caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXExperiencing disability as indicated by a score of >= 3 on the Vulnerable Elder surveyXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or worse cognitive impairment as indicated by a score of 3 or less on the Callahan six-item cognitive screening toolXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a Hamilton Rating Scale for Depression (HAM-D) 24-item score of more than 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXFailed to receive satisfactory improvement from one prior antidepressant medication at or above the minimal effective dose and duration in the current depressive episodeXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has any metallic object in or around their headXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXHas unstable suicidal ideation as determined by the patient's treating psychiatristXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant history of head injury/trauma as defined by loss of consciousness for more than one hourXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurring seizures resulting from the head injuryXx_NEWLINE_xXClear cognitive sequelae from the head injury and cognitive rehabilitation following the injuryXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of concomitant medications that substantially increase seizure risk; such drugs could include neuroleptics (ex. haloperidol, droperidol), clozapine, tricyclic antidepressants (ex. amoxapine, clomipramine), bupropion (particularly the immediate release -IR- formulation) donepezil, psychostimulants (ex. methylphenidate), theophylline and/or other drugs that reduce the seizure threshold; for individuals on any of these medicines, a study clinician will evaluate the drugs and doses to determine the risks and benefits; these will then be discussed with the individual's Primary Care Physician to determine if the individual should be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with mucositis pain refractory to topical management, defined as any self-reported pain score of >= 2 in the 24 hours prior to enrollment despite use of topical agents as prescribedXx_NEWLINE_xXActive substance abuse at time of registration (alcohol, drugs, non-prescription use of controlled substances)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with history of allergic reactions to ketamineXx_NEWLINE_xXEach patient must satisfy at least one of the following criteria:\r\n* The patient must have a clinically documented condition associated with CMV (e.g. interstitial pneumonia, hepatitis, retinitis, colitis) Or\r\n* The patient must have microbiological evidence of CMV viremia or tissue invasion as attested by viral culture, or detection of levels of CMV DNA in the blood or body fluids consistent with CMV infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must also satisfy at least one of the following criteria:\r\n* The patient's CMV infection is clinically progressing or CMV viremia is persistent or increasing (as evidenced by quantitation of CMV DNA in the blood) despite two weeks induction therapy with antiviral drugs; or\r\n* The patient has developed CMV viremia as attested by viral culture, or detection of levels of CMV DNA in blood or body fluids while receiving prophylactic doses of antiviral drugs to prevent CMV infection post-transplant; or\r\n* The patient is unable to sustain treatment with antiviral drugs due to drug associated toxicities (e.g. myelosuppression [absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 1000 ul/ml without filgrastim (GCSF) support] or nephrotoxicity [corrected creatinine clearance =< 60 ml/min/1.73 m^2 or serum creatinine > 2 mg/dl])Xx_NEWLINE_xXDysfunctions of lungs, liver, gastrointestinal tract, hematopoietic and central nervous systems will not affect eligibility for this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must meet the following clinical criteria to receive CMVpp65-CTL infusions\r\n* Stable blood pressure and circulation, not requiring pressor support\r\n* Evidence of adequate cardiac function as demonstrated by electrocardiogram (EKG) and/or echocardiography\r\n* A life expectancy of at least 3 weeks, even if requiring artificial ventilation\r\n* There are no age restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXDONORS IN GROUP 1 (HISTORICAL DONORS): Donors in Group 1 would have already been determined to be eligible and will have donated blood or leukocytes to establish CMV-specific T-cells under Institutional Review Board (IRB) # 05-065, 07-055, 95-024, or 11-130; there are no additional eligibility requirements for these donorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are moribundXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are allergic to or not tolerant of EMLA cream, propofol, or fentanyl will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having their LPs done by students will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xX=< 2 prior chemotherapeutic regimensXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 29%Xx_NEWLINE_xXApproved rescue medication for the treatment of nausea and vomiting is permitted at the discretion of the investigator; the rescue antiemetics allowed will include: ondansetron, granisetron and lorazepamXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior nitrosourea (e.g. lomustine, carmustine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived any drug with potential anti-emetic effect within 24 hours prior to the start of study-designated chemotherapeutic agent: 5-hydroxytryptamine type 3 (HT3) receptor or substance P/neurokinin 1(NK1) receptor antagonists; dopamine receptor antagonists (metoclopramide); phenothiazine anti-emetics (prochlorperazine, thiethylperazine and perphenazine); diphenhydramine, scopolamine, chlorpheniramine maleate, trimethobenzamide; haloperidol, droperidol, tetrahydrocannabinol, or nabiloneXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing vomiting from any organic etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPain or symptoms of neuropathy or pain of >= 1 month (30 days) duration for which the patient wants interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants have to relate that tingling or pain was at least a four out of ten problem during the prior week, on a 0-10 scale where zero was no problem and ten was the worst possible problem and expected to have tingling or pain of at least 4/10 at the time of the first treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with implantable drug delivery systems, e.g. Medtronic SynchromedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with heart stents or metal implants such as pacemakers, automatic defibrillators, aneurysm clips, vena cava clips and skull plates; (metal implants for orthopedic repair, e.g. pins, clips, plates, cages, joint replacements are allowed as are central venous access devices)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSkin conditions such as open sores that would prevent proper application of the electrodesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on gabapentin or pregabalin; note: (all patients on these medications will be weaned off of them prior to study initiation; the study team will provide instructions on how to do this)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPerforming less than 150 minutes of structured moderate-intensity or strenuous intensity exercise per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXExercise intolerance, defined by a VO2peak below that predicted for active age- and sex-matched individualsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to be randomized to one of the study armsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete an acceptable baseline cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET), in the absence of high-risk electrocardiograph (ECG) findings or other inappropriate response to exercise as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to achieve an acceptable peak baseline CPET, as defined by any of the following criteria:\r\n* Achieving a plateau in oxygen consumption, concurrent with an increase in power output;\r\n* A respiratory exchange ratio >= 1.10;\r\n* Attainment of maximal predicted heart rate (HRmax) (i.e., within 10 beats per minute [bpm] of age-predicted HRmax);\r\n* Volitional exhaustion, as measured by a rating of perceived exertion (RPE) >= 18 on the BORG scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXRoom air desaturation at rest =< 85%Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a Distress Thermometer score of 4 or greater or a score of >= 6 on the Depression or Anxiety subscale of the Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn the investigator's judgment, participants must have satisfactory cognitive function to provide valid informed consent and participate in Geriatric Specific Psychoeducational Intervention; the Blessed Orientation-Memory-Concentration test (BOMC) will be used as a cognitive screening tool; patients must have a BOMC score less than or equal to 11Xx_NEWLINE_xXAs per self-report or review of the patient’s medical record, if the patient is taking anti-depressant medication, fewer than three months on the same dose of anti-depressant medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXActively participating in protocol 07-094 or 11-021Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients MUST also be ready to receive a cycle of chemotherapy that predictably renders neutropenia at least 70% of the time OR has a risk of febrile neutropenia of at least 20%; this can be any cycle number; it does NOT need to be the FIRST cycle of chemotherapy they are to receive; it is also OK if the patient will be getting granulocyte stimulation factor support; however, if the patient meets above criteria and the chemotherapy he/she will receive causes neutropenia 70% of the time or confers a risk of febrile neutropenia of at least 20%, but is not listed, please contact study Karen Moody, MD, overall study principal investigator, for clarification of eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXAspleniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not fed orally (gastrostomy [G]-tube dependent, total parenteral nutrition [TPN]-dependent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a smart phone, be able to have their oral oncolytic filled at the University of Michigan Comprehensive Cancer Center pharmacy and be newly prescribed capecitabine (Xeloda)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not have a smart phone, have a serious mental illness or cognitive impairment, e.g., psychosis or dementia, do not speak English or cannot fill their oral oncolytic prescription at the\r\nUniversity of Michigan Comprehensive Cancer Center pharmacy will be unable to participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 22 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to follow prescribed diet interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI < 25 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight change > 5% within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of insulin or sulfonylureads for glycemic control, or history of ketoacidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIntestinal obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who refuse to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXArea to be irradiated representing 1-10% of total body surface area (TBSA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) =< 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to document symptoms and treatment details as often as needed, not to exceed daily notesXx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to have photographs of the affected area taken regularlyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of ErbituxXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin disease in target irradiation areaXx_NEWLINE_xXSmokerXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smoker of >= 10 cigarettes per day, on averageXx_NEWLINE_xXUnreliable phone accessXx_NEWLINE_xXAny Food and Drug Administration (FDA) contraindication for NRT use, including: allergy to nicotine patches and/or nicotine lozenges; severe kidney or liver disease; unstable angina or serious arrhythmia; epilepsy or seizure disorder; myocardial infarction in the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive response to local anesthetic peripheral nerve block performed under imaging guidance, defined as a >= 50% change in Visual Analog Scale (VAS) pain intensityXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderlying cervical segmentation or other cervical spinal anomaly that results in differential nerve root pressuresXx_NEWLINE_xXLocation of pain is outside the distribution of the ICBN, can be directly attributable to trauma to a nerve other than the ICBN, or is consistent with trauma during breast surgery to a nerve other than the ICNB (e.g. medial and lateral pectoral nerve; long thoracic nerve; thoracodorsal nerve; other intercostal nerves)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prisoner and.or other vulnerable personXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who underwent a linear closure on the face at University Hospitals (UH) Mohs clinicXx_NEWLINE_xXBreakthrough dyspnea, defined as dyspnea with an average intensity level over the past 7 days of at least 3/10 on a numeric rating scale upon significant exertion or continuous dyspnea =< 7/10 with worsening upon significant exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory and able to walk with or without walking aidXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea at rest >= 7/10 at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSupplemental oxygen requirement > 6 L per minuteXx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium (i.e. memorial delirium rating scale > 13)Xx_NEWLINE_xXResting heart rate > 120 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of active opioid abuse within the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere anemia (hemoglobin [Hb] < 7g/L) if documented in the last month and not corrected prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS ONLY: Having an informal caregiver (spouse, romantic partner, adult child, sibling, or friend) who is willing to participate; if patients do not have one consistent primary caregiver for the duration of the study, they may be accompanied to the yoga sessions by an alternate caregiver who meets eligibility criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS ONLY: Regularly (self-defined) participated in a yoga practice in the year prior to diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS ONLY: Cognitive deficits that would impede the completion of self-report instruments as deemed by the clinical teamXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients seen in the outpatient palliative care clinic or inpatients seen by the palliative care consult team or the fatigue clinicXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of fatigue on a numerical scale during the last 24 hours of more or equal to 4 on a 0 to 10 scale on which 0 equals no fatigue and 10 worst possible fatigueXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of relatively intact cognition defined by normal Mini Mental State Questionnaire according to age and education level; a score of 24 or above is usually considered normalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient willing to keep a daily fatigue diary, engage in daily telephone follow up with a nurse and after 7 days of treatment either return for a follow up visit or this can be done over the telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on methylphenidate or has been on methylphenidate within the last 10 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, clonidine, psychostimulants, concurrent steroids or other medications specifically for fatigueXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXCAGE questionnaire score is 2 or above on a 0 to 4 scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not meet recommended guidelines for PA (< 100 min of moderate activity and < 75 min of vigorous activity per week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a smart phone (or can borrow a study-provided iPod Touch) and willing to use it for the mobile app and Facebook groupXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to install and share data from the FitBit Flex smart phone app with the investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXYoung adults (YA) survivors who are currently meeting PA guidelines, or individuals who are determined by the investigators to not be physically able to participate in an independent exercise intervention such as hospitalized, wheel chair bound, unable to ambulate independently, on oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXSeparate episode of VTE or arterial thrombosis within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDisorders of hemostasis including von Willebrand disease, hemophilia, platelet function disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of disseminated intravascular anticoagulation (DIC) as determined by the patient’s primary providerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of alloimmunization (defined as platelet refractoriness with panel reactive antibody [PRA] > 25%) at the time of or prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be receiving a fractionated total body radiation (FTBI) based- myeloablative conditioning regimen; (acceptable conditioning regimens include total body irradiation [TBI] + cyclophosphamide or TBI + etoposide)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of research participant to understand the basic elements of the protocol and/or the risks/benefits of participating in this pilot study; a legal guardian may substitute for the research participantXx_NEWLINE_xXLactose intolerance or intolerance to milk productsXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitively able to complete interviews as judged by the study teamXx_NEWLINE_xXDeclined participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects are experiencing bothersome hot flashes per the study questionnaires.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to obtain and take an acceptable form of vitamin B6.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects are currently taking vitamin supplementation which includes vitamin B6 at doses > 10 mg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of cancer related pain currently treated with first line strong oral opioid analgesics such as morphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone, hydromorphone or hydrocodoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment with a Memorial Delirium Assessment Scale (MDAS) score of 7 or higher or diagnosed with neurocognitive impairment by the treating SCC physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-malignant painXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of alcohol or substance abuse by using Cut-down, Annoyed, Guilty, Eye-opener adapted to include Drug use questionnaire (CAGE-AID) score of 2 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving methadone or transdermal fentanyl due to reasons such as long and variable half-life and transdermal rather than oral route for delivery of opioidsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with opioid induced neurotoxicity (OIN) as the primary reason for OR as they may manifest symptoms of cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a 5-year survival rate of 50% or greater as deemed by their oncologist, surgeon, or other relevant attending physician (suggesting a reasonable rate of cure or prolonged medical survival with state-of-the-art medical care).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmong patients treated in the urban centers, we will specifically target patients who live more than 40 miles away from the clinic as they are more likely to experience problems with access to care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of mental retardation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute suicidal behavior.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 year after HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor psychiatric diagnosis that impairs cognitive functioning or is not controlled at the time of the approach.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions precluding participation in the intervention or likely to lead to death within 6 months, as determined by the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted to the hospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to follow instructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with disposition to be transitioned to inpatient hospice or inpatient palliative care unitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cognitive dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are admitted for observation for < 48 hours will be excluded from the study, as one day would be difficult to provide the necessary informationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients admitted to the intensive care unitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ESAS > 4/10 on dyspneaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring oxygen more than 2 litersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are current meditation practitionersXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV seropositive (recipient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConditioning and immunosuppressive regimens according to institutional guidelines are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically indicated subunit (Engerix-B for HBV, Gardasil for HPV) or killed vaccine (e.g. influenza, pneumococcal, or allergy treatment with antigen injections)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlemtuzumab or any equivalent in vivo T-cell depleting agent (or CD34+ selection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAntiviral medications with known therapeutic effects on CMV such as ganciclovir/valganciclovir (GCV/VAL), foscarnet (FOS), Cidofovir, CMX-001, maribavir; acyclovir has no known therapeutic efficacy against CMV and is allowable as standard of care to prevent herpes simplex virus (HSV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProphylactic therapy with CMV immunoglobulin or prophylactic antiviral CMV treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medications that might interfere with the evaluation of the investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuropathic pain score >= 4 on a 0-10 numeric pain scale (numeric rating scale [NRS]) and/or grade 3 or higher neuropathic symptoms according to the National Cancer Institute’s 4 point grading scale.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had neuropathic symptoms for a minimum of 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo plans to change pain medication regimen during the course of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHormonal (e.g., tamoxifen or arimidex, etc.) and targeted (tarceva and avastin, etc.) therapies allowed as long as they will be continued during the course of the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to come to MD Anderson for the intake and follow up data acquisition and to receive their equipment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to allow research staff to come to their homes or to return the equipment to MD Anderson (MDA) in the case of equipment malfunction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLive within a 50 mile radius of MD Anderson’s main campus.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking any antipsychotic medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen or women with a history of CRF as defined by a score >= 4 on the numeric analogue scale (0 – 10) (Eligibility Question Fatigue Scale)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of ginseng capsules for fatigue, within the last 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatable causes of fatigue have not been ruled out, at least by history and exam criteria, by the treating provider, such as uncontrolled pain, hypothyroidism, or insomnia; NOTE: if these are considered to be the primary cause for the patient’s fatigue then the patient is not eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pain requiring opioid pain medication; NOTE: over the counter analgesics such as Tylenol or ibuprofen are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of full anticoagulant doses of coumadin or heparin (exception: 1 mg/day of coumadin for preventing catheter clots is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any over the counter herbal/dietary supplement marketed for fatigue or energy (for example, products containing any type of ginseng, Rhodiola rosea, high doses of caffeine, guarana, or anything called an “adaptogen”)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment cannot begin prior to re-registering to the crossover phase and will ideally begin =< 7 days after registration for the crossover phaseXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for an abdominal gynecological surgery (i.e. uterine, ovarian) to remove a mass that is suspected to be malignantXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitively able to complete assessments as judged by the study teamXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to the internet and an active email accountXx_NEWLINE_xXHas gastrointestinal symptoms with severity score of =< 60 out of 100 visual analog scale for irritable bowel syndrome (VAS-IBS) in at least 2 out of 7 items measuredXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to eat by mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated length of hospital stay is 10 days or moreXx_NEWLINE_xXHas intestinal obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic to yogurtXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing elective craniotomy for supratentorial tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXEmergency craniotomiesXx_NEWLINE_xXInfratentorial tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who need intraoperative evoked potential monitoring which precludes the scalp blockXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known cranial defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on medications for chronic painXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or previous neurological disease, which may adversely affect swallowingXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requiring oxygen dependence, as this is a contraindication of EMSTXx_NEWLINE_xXHas all of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAge >= 40 (to reduce the likelihood of enrolling patients with obstruction due to primary sclerosing cholangitis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of a biliary hilar stricture OR intrahepatic but no extrahepatic biliary ductal dilation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown radiographic evidence of a Bismuth-Corlette type 1 biliary stricture.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis without suspicion of dominant hilar stricture.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown IgG4-mediated cholangiopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant peri-hepatic ascites interfering with safe/effective PTBD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown regional malignant-appearing adenopathy or extra-biliary mass, indicating the need for concurrent endoscopic ultrasound with fine needle aspiration (EUS-FNA).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or PTBD for hilar obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgically altered luminal anatomy other than prior Billroth reconstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXStandard general contraindications to ERCP or PTBD (e.g. hemodynamic instability, uncorrected coagulopathy).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll gynecologic laparoscopic/robotic surgeries EXCEPT diagnostic laparoscopiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable candidate for laparoscopic/robotic gynecology (GYN) surgery as per discretion of the surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXIf patient agrees to participate in the optional patient reported outcomes portion of the study, patient must be English speaking and willing to complete the MD Anderson Symptom Inventory (MDASI) questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic pain syndrome or requiring/using chronic pain medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing diagnostic laparoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients planning to undergo hand-assisted laparoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Willingness to participate in all study activities including data collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Willing to identify a FCG (immediate or extended family member) to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXFCGs: Willingness to participate in study activities including data collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: In hospice careXx_NEWLINE_xXFCGs: Find conversations around religion or spirituality emotionally upsettingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with paranasal sinus or nasopharyngeal carcinoma who are about to undergo radiation therapy; patients with paranasal sinus or nasopharyngeal carcinoma who have completed radiation therapy 3-6 months prior to enrollment who then show olfactory loss on a screening test (University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test [UPSIT] – score of 34 or 33 or lower out of 40, depending on female/male); both those patients undergoing chemotherapy and those who did not will be eligible, and this factor will be assessed as a possible confounder/contributor in a multi-regression analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXNo race-ethnic restrictionXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly requirement for organ function is for patients to have competency to consent and participate in the study; in the arm of the study which requires patients to have olfactory dysfunction before enrollment, an UPSIT score will be used to identify these patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERSXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to live with the patient for the duration of RTXx_NEWLINE_xXCARE-RECIPIENTSXx_NEWLINE_xXNo more than 6 weeks after completion of initial lymphedema therapy for head and neck lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete the onsite training and home self-care activities for LEF managementXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to come to MD Anderson Main Campus (Texas Medical Center) for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient self-reported ESAS psychological scale score (sum of anxiety and depression scores) between 4 and 11 (and/or) individual anxiety or depression score between 4 and 7 on a 0 to 10 numeric scale, where 10 is the worst possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a computer with an internet connection at homeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of substance dependence in the past six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubnormal intellectual potential (intelligence quotient [IQ] below 80)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent suicide risk or significant intentional self-harm in the last six months sufficient to preclude treatment on an outpatient basisXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-report of a discrepancy between present and optimal level of cognitive, emotional, and/or physical functioningXx_NEWLINE_xXA Mini-Mental State Exam Score (MMSE) of at least 26Xx_NEWLINE_xXConditions that could affect participation in yoga such as spinal disease or unstable jointsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of antipsychoticsXx_NEWLINE_xXBladder cancer, undergoing radical cystectomy and ileal conduit diversionXx_NEWLINE_xXFollow-up either here at University of Southern California (USC) or centers that are available to transfer the requested clinical and radiological dataXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious scar or mesh at the level of ileal conduitXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing elective open radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional surgery at the same time as RC (e.g. nephroureterectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of type III antiarrhythmics (e.g. amiodarone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic pain and/or daily opioid useXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive screen for sexual dysfunction that is causing distress based on the National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) survivorship guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with relapsed disease post-HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted to Lunder at Massachusetts General HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted electivelyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipated during a previous admissionXx_NEWLINE_xXObese – defined as a body mass index (BMI) >= 35 kg/m^2 as calculated in the Epic computer recordXx_NEWLINE_xXSensitivity to silverXx_NEWLINE_xXApproval from their treating physician to engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient-assessed ability to walk and engage in moderate physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more significant medical conditions that in the physician’s judgment preclude participation in the walking or strength training interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to walk or engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability and willingness of a parent or caregiver to deliver acupressure for ages 5-17; for young adults ages 18-21 participation of a parent, close friend or family member/caregiver is preferred but not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXStudy materials will be available in English or Spanish; if families would like to be part of the trial, but do not speak either of these two languages, arrangements can be made to include them using University of California at San Francisco (UCSF)'s translation servicesXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipate in the specified study visits and laboratory testing including three (20 mL) blood draws and three 24 hour urine collectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic use of any herbal or dietary supplement containing apigenin within the 3 months prior to entry on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of tamoxifen, raloxifene, or any of the aromatase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically able to exercise and have physician consent from their treating physician to start a physical activity programXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to and are able to use the internet at a minimum of once per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient proficiency and confidence to use the internet and follow video-based instructions, as determined by the eligibility questionnaire to be completed by the participantXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to be randomizedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently physically active (> 90 minutes of moderate or vigorous physical activity per week) as determined by Leisure Score Index of Godin Leisure-Time Exercise Questionnaire [LSI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously on ADTXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiovascular, respiratory or musculoskeletal disease or joint problems that preclude moderate physical activity; examples would include unstable angina, recent myocardial infarction, oxygen-dependent pulmonary disease, and osteoarthritis requiring imminent joint replacement; moderate arthritis that does not preclude physical activity is not a reason for ineligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to tolerate thin liquids by mouth at the time of admissionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with evidence of diarrhea as defined by three or more loose or liquid stools per day or loose watery stool (greater volume of stool), that occurs more frequently than usual and lasting for more than three days prior to admission, history of inflammatory bowel disease, irritable bowel syndrome, colectomy or bariatric surgery, celiac diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 1 (STAKEHOLDER INPUT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 1: Current outpatient statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 1: Internet access at homeXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 1: Clinical evidence of cognitive or psychological impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 1: PrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.1 (EVALUATION STUDY)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.1: Current outpatient statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.1: Internet access at homeXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.1: Clinical evidence of cognitive or psychological impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.1: PrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.2 (PILOT STUDY)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.2: Current outpatient status (participation will be suspended during hospitalization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.2: Internet access at homeXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.2: Clinical evidence of cognitive or psychological impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.2: PrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I AIM 3.2: Currently participating in other psychosocial studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II AIM 2 (RANDOMIZED CONTROLLED TRIAL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II AIM 2: Current medical oncology outpatient status (participation will be suspended during hospitalization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II AIM 2: Internet access at homeXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II AIM 2: Clinical evidence of cognitive or psychological impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II AIM 2: PrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II AIM 2: Currently participating in other psychosocial studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV seropositive (recipient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned medications from the time of HCT to day 70 post-HCT:\r\n* Live attenuated vaccines\r\n* Medically indicated subunit (Engerix-B for HBV; Gardasil for human papilloma virus [HPV]) or killed vaccines (e.g. influenza, pneumococcal, or allergy treatment with antigen injections)\r\n* Allergy treatment with antigens injections\r\n* Alemtuzumab or any equivalent in vivo T-cell depleting agent; this includes anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) and post-transplant cyclophosphamide\r\n* Antiviral medications with known therapeutic effects against CMV such as ganciclovir (GCV)/valine (VAL), foscarnet (FOS), cidofovir, hexadecyloxypropyl-cidofovir (CMX-001) and maribavir; acyclovir has no therapeutic efficacy against CMV and is allowable as standard of care to prevent herpes simplex virus (HSV)\r\n* Prophylactic therapy with CMV immunoglobulin or prophylactic antiviral CMV treatment\r\n* Other investigational product - concurrent enrollment in other clinical trials using an investigational product is prohibited\r\n* Other medications that might interfere with the evaluation of the investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXApproved to be contacted by the treating urologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients participating in a structured exercise program in the past 6 months (mos)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients not available for follow-up testsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving the initial course of chemotherapy including \r\n* Paclitaxel 135 mg/M2 IV over 3 hours on day 1 and \r\n* Cisplatin 75 mg/M2 IP on day 2  OR  \r\n* Paclitaxel 80 mg/m2 IV days 1, 8 and 15 and \r\n* Carboplatin AUC 6 IP on day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are able to complete the assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have met pre-entry requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are known to be hypersensitive to aprepitant, granisetron or any of the components of the patch or to dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are pregnant or nursing; to date, no fetal studies in animals or humans have been performed; the possibility of harm to a fetus is likelyXx_NEWLINE_xXReside in Southern CaliforniaXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible metastatic lesions: 1) a solitary spine metastasis; 2) two contiguous spine levels involved; or 3) a maximum of 3 separate sites; each of the separate sites may have a maximal involvement of 2 contiguous vertebral bodies; epidural compression (arrow) is eligible when there is a >= 3 mm gap between the spinal cord and the edge of the epidural lesion; a paraspinal mass =< 5 cm is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXThere can be multiple small metastatic lesions shown in other vertebral bodies; the metastatic lesion of each spine should be less than 20% of the vertebral body as opposed to the diffuse vertebral involvement; these small lesions are often seen in the MRI even when bone scan or PET was negative; most of these lesions are not clinically required to be treated and are therefore not included in the target volume of this protocol; only the painful spine (pain score >= 5) is to be treatedXx_NEWLINE_xXNumerical Rating Pain Scale within 1 week prior to registration; the patient must have a score on the scale of >= 5 for at least one of the planned sites for spine radiosurgery; documentation of the patient's initial pain score is required; patients taking medication for pain at the time of registration are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurological examination within 1 week prior to registration to rule out rapid neurologic decline; patients with mild to moderate neurological signs are eligible; these neurological signs include radiculopathy, dermatomal sensory change, and muscle strength of involved extremity 4/5 (lower extremity for ambulation or upper extremity for raising arms and/or arm function)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with epidural compression are eligible provided that there is a >= 3 mm gap between the spinal cord and the edge of the epidural lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a paraspinal mass =< 5 cm in the greatest dimension and that is contiguous with spine metastasis are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-ambulatory patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXSpine instability due to a compression fractureXx_NEWLINE_xX> 50% loss of vertebral body heightXx_NEWLINE_xXFrank spinal cord compression or displacement or epidural compression within 3 mm of the spinal cordXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with rapid neurologic declineXx_NEWLINE_xXBony retropulsion causing neurologic abnormalityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients allergic to contrast dye used in MRIs or CT scans or who cannot be premedicated for the use of contrast dyeXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) of 25-33 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are diabeticXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose BMI falls outside the eligible range (< 25 kg/m^2 or > 33 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with Rheumatoid Arthritis and other inflammatory diseases that would impact the correlative studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXIf patients have a caregiver, patients should agree to bring a caregiver to one of their hospital visits or have the caregiver schedule a separate study visitXx_NEWLINE_xXFluent in reading, comprehension and communication in the English language; (persons who are unable to meet this requirement are excluded from the current proposal)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of dementia (Mini Mental State Examination [MMSE] >= 23) but some evidence of cognitive impairment (each subject will be required to answer in the affirmative: ‘do you have problems with memory and attention since having chemotherapy, and do you believe chemotherapy contributed to the problems?’)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable hemoglobin and hematocrit level based on complete blood count (CBC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects must be willing to be monitored for adequacy of nutritional intake during the intervention, as is the current standard of clinical practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of estrogens (oral, dermal or vaginal), progesterone (oral or topical), or androgens during the previous 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of over the counter steroid hormonal supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of n-3 fatty acids or high dose antioxidant supplements other than what is provided in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with metabolic abnormalities (e.g. thyroid disorders, insulin dependent diabetes, rheumatologic disease etc.); subjects with metabolic disorders (a) who are otherwise eligible, (b) treated for hypothyroidism by their primary MD with Synthroid (levothyroxine) and (c) with the approval of the Moffitt treating oncologist will not be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of another antiemetic agent (5HT3 antagonists, phenothiazines, butyrophenones, cannabinoids, metoclopramide, or corticosteroids) within 72 hours prior to day 1 of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXLactating patients must agree not to nurse a child while on this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants will be recruited by BMT register nurse (RN) coordinators and physicians prior to patient admission to the BMT Unit; caregiver of any patient eligible to undergo autologous or allogeneic BMT and any patient eligible to undergo autologous or allogeneic BMT will be recruited during the “Pre-Transplant Work-up” stage in the outpatient settingXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver of a patient who will be hospitalized to undergo first-time autologous (self) or allogeneic (alternative donor) BMT in the University of Michigan Mott Children’s Hospital BMT UnitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will be hospitalized to undergo first-time autologous or allogeneic BMT will be given the opportunity to assent/consent and participate in the study; with his/her permission, the patient will also be provided with their own iPad® BMT Roadmap information system to use; qualitative interviews will be conducted in patients with their assent/consentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a permanent ostomy or anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients discharged to another inpatient facility (hospice, skilled nursing facility, long term acute care hospital [LTACH], or acute rehab) or patients discharged home with hospice will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients that are transferred to another unit prior to discharge will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least a fifth grade educationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown major psychiatric or neurological diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent (< 4 week) first diagnosis of a borderline-resectable pancreatic adenocarcinoma, assigned to receive neoadjuvant therapy and surgery at University of Colorado Cancer Center, physician clearance to participate in exercise programXx_NEWLINE_xXAny significant comorbid conditions that would interfere with or preclude participation in an exercise intervention, including orthopedic conditions such as advanced osteoarthritis, mobility-limiting amputations or chronic injuries, or mobility-limiting acute orthopedic injuriesXx_NEWLINE_xXWidespread chronic pain conditions such as fibromyalgiaXx_NEWLINE_xXParents or adult primary caregiver (e.g., grandmother) of children ages 5 to 17 in treatment remission and has completed intensive therapy for ALL or AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXParents of childhood cancer survivors who are now 18 years or older and who were previously treated for ALL or AML (do not need to live with the child)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne or both of the parents will self-identify as Hispanic/Latino, the primary participating parent will be either Spanish speaking, bilingual, or is bilingual but identifies their primary language as English and will live with the childXx_NEWLINE_xXParents of ALL or AML survivors with a history of a major psychiatric condition that precludes participation (e.g., psychosis, severe depression, active substance abuse)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExisting history of severe cognitive impairment in the child as reported by the parents or documented in the child's City of Hope medical recordsXx_NEWLINE_xXParent/Caregiver: parents or adult primary caregiver (e.g., grandmother) of children treated for ALL or AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXParent/Caregiver: one or both of the parents will self-identify as Hispanic/Latino, the primary participating parent will be either Spanish speaking, bilingual, or is bilingual but identifies their primary language as English and will live with the childXx_NEWLINE_xXChild: child is age 5 to 17 years, 11 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXParent/Caregiver: parents with a history of a major psychiatric condition that precludes participation (e.g., psychosis, severe depression, active substance abuse)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChild: survivors with a history of a major psychiatric condition that precludes participation (e.g., psychosis, severe depression, active substance abuse)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChild: existing history of severe cognitive impairment (intelligence quotient [IQ] =< 70) as reported by the parents or the child's City of Hope medical records, or by the child's performance score on the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) Working Memory and Processing Speed index measures administered in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patients prescribed medications for chronic pain and/or neuropathy will be excluded, including patients under treatment of a pain specialist or substance-abuse programsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on dialysis or with transplanted organsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients already enrolled on other studies of systemic pain control agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients across all stages of diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXReport sitting for >= 8 accumulated waking hours on a typical dayXx_NEWLINE_xXAre willing and able to attend 3 study visits at the University of Wisconsin (UW)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre willing to attempt reduction of sitting timeXx_NEWLINE_xXAre able to move from sitting to standing without difficulty and to walk 1 blockXx_NEWLINE_xXUse the internet on a regular basisXx_NEWLINE_xXCMV seropositive (recipient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConditioning and immunosuppressive regimens according to institutional guidelines are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically indicated subunit (Engerix-B for HBV; Gardasil for human papillomavirus [HPV]) or killed vaccines (e.g. influenza, pneumococcal, or allergy treatment with antigen injections)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlemtuzumab or any equivalent in vivo T-cell depleting agentXx_NEWLINE_xXAntiviral medications with known therapeutic effects on CMV such as ganciclovir (GCV)/valganciclovir (VAL), foscarnet (FOS), Cidofovir, CMX-001, maribavir; acyclovir has no known therapeutic efficacy against CMV and is allowable as standard of care to prevent herpes simplex virus (HSV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProphylactic therapy with CMV immunoglobulin or prophylactic antiviral CMV treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medications that might interfere with the evaluation of the investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXMinorities will be recruited; no exclusion to this study will be based on raceXx_NEWLINE_xXGlucocorticoid use is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have history of or presence of Mobitz type II 2nd degree or 3rd degree atrioventricular block or sick sinus syndrome, unless patient has a pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with collagen vascular disease are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking immunosuppressive medications (other than dexamethasone) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubstantial dementia (based on Folstein Mini Mental State Examination < 24 out of 30)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute medical conditions, such as acute flare-up of joint condition or infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol intake > 3 oz/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXHemiplegia or lower limb amputationXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant orthopedic or muscluloskeletal condition that does not allow weight bearingXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to maintain safe stance and walk, either with or without an assistive deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXHave not attended or scheduled an upcoming appointment for GC at the time of recruitmentXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived a referral letter for GC from their MCC physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXOf Ashkenazi Jewish descentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a mailing address and working telephone numberXx_NEWLINE_xXAsthma or other reactive airway diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSleep apneaXx_NEWLINE_xXChange in pain medications/sleeping medications/anxiety medications/antiemetics during the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not completed their initial steroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas an outpatient appointment within University of North Carolina (UNC) Chapel Hill Lineberger Comprehensive Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to complete the UNC GAXx_NEWLINE_xXHas at least one functional deficit as defined by GA screenXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to be randomized into either study armXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to safely participate in outpatient rehabilitation programXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to safely participate in outpatient rehabilitationXx_NEWLINE_xXThis study will be conducted in people scheduled to undergo baseline LDCT as part of the City of Hope (COH) LCS programXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a firm diagnosis of cGvHD, in accordance with National Institutes of Health (NIH) guidelines; patients with “overlap syndrome” are also eligible, but patients with recurrent, late onset and/or persistent acute GvHD (alone) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPreferentially, patients should have active refractory-cGvHD; any degree of severity (as per NIH criteria) and/or pattern of organ involvement may be considered; (that said, patients with more severe and/or extensive chronic GvHD are expected to be the usual candidates for LD-TLI protocol therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIdeally, patients' refractory cGvHD should be controlled to a degree that would potentially permit no additional requirement for systemic IST before and following TLI =< d -15 and >= d +45, respectively (NOTE: Relatively minor dose modifications of ongoing medications and topical therapies will be exempt)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe ability to administer protocol doses of TLI (i.e., 100, 150, 200, 250 or 300 cGy) without exceeding cumulative doses of radiation must be established; for patients with prior radiotherapy exposure, this determination will be made by Dr. Greven (or her designee) using published guidelines for excessive organ exposure; (in rare cases, this may apply to retreatment; if so, all of eligibility requirements must be met again)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNOTE: If such hematologic abnormalities are present and deemed due to the process of cGvHD, these requirements may be waived with the approval of the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCancer patients with pain that is not curable and who have not responded to opioids at reasonable dosesXx_NEWLINE_xXMinimal expected survival time of one monthXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to verbally report painXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to indicate pain on a VASXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to undergo a 4-hour (h) intrathecal catheter placementXx_NEWLINE_xXOther therapeutic and palliative options have been exhaustedXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of meningitis or encephalitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave fatigue and/or two other target symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave been cleared by their provider to engage low to moderate intensity physical activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded if they are hospitalizedXx_NEWLINE_xXHave been using a Wii FitXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXChemotherapy must be planned for at least 4 cycles of full-dose anthracycline or taxane based chemotherapy regimen\r\n* Defined as one of the following regimens: \r\n** Adriamycin 60 mg/m2 with cyclophosphamide 600 mg/m2 \r\n** Epirubicin 90-100 mg/m2 with cyclophosphamide 600 mg/m2 \r\n** Doxorubicin 50 mg/m2 with 5-fluroruacil 500 mg/m2 and cyclophosphamide 500 mg/m2 \r\n** Paclitaxel 80 mg-90/m2 weekly (every three weeks constitute a cycle), or 175 mg/m2 every 2-3 weeks as a single agent \r\n** Docetaxel 100 mg/m2 as a single agent \r\n** Docetaxel 75 mg/m2 with cyclophosphamide 600 mg/m2 \r\n** Docetaxel 75 mg/m2 with carboplatin area under the curve (AUC) of 6 and traztuzumab at standard doses\r\n* Concurrent traztuzumab at standard doses is allowed\r\n* Concurrent pertuzumab at standard doses is allowed\r\n* Administration of chemotherapy on a dose dense schedule is allowed as clinically indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with cold agglutinin disease or cold urticariaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving chemotherapy with concurrent anthracycline and taxane (AT or Taxotere-Adriamycin-Cytoxan [TAC])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal history of migraine, cluster or tension headachesXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have lichen planus or lupusXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are underweight (defined as a body mass index [BMI] < 17.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo hearing impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXArthralgia is moderate to severe joint symptoms-pain, stiffness or achiness-defined as a score of >= 3 on the Patient Reported Outcomes Measurement Information System (PROMIS) Pain Intensity scale (inquiring about pain, stiffness or achiness); the “at its worst” score will be used to determine study eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient-assessed ability to walk unassistedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently walking =< 30 minutes/day for < 5 days a week (via self-report)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician permission to engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more significant medical conditions that in the physician’s judgment preclude participation in the walking interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than moderate to severe joint symptoms-pain, stiffness or achiness-defined as a score of =< 3 on the PROMIS Pain Intensity Short Form (SF) 3a (inquiring pain, stiffness or achiness); the “at its worst” score will be used to determine study ineligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently walking, on average, more than 150 minutes per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXLiving within a 50 mile radius of the City of HopeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing allogeneic transplant must have, or be scheduled to have, an external tunneled central venous catheter (CVC) (Broviacs, Hickmans, tunneled percutaneously inserted central catheter [PICCs], etc.) and/or non-tunneled percutaneously inserted central catheter (PICC) that is expected to remain in place for an additional >= 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAll other oncology patients that will receive chemotherapy with/without transplant must have, or be scheduled to have, an external tunneled CVC (Broviacs, Hickmans, tunneled PICCs, etc.) that is expected to remain in place for an additional >= 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with only totally implanted CVCs or ports are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic, severe, generalized skin breakdown (such as generalized blistering, burns, severe graft versus host disease [GVHD] with open sores, etc.) are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled to receive broad-spectrum prophylactic antibacterial therapy are ineligible; patients only receiving prophylaxis for Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) (trimethoprim [TMP]/sulfamethoxazole [SMX]) or encapsulated organisms (penicillin) are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients using prophylactic antimicrobial locks in the CVC at the time of enrollment and those who are scheduled to receive antimicrobial locks in the CVC as part of a treatment plan are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have started consolidative chest irradiation by the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurological function class of 0-2Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeuropsychological tests will be performed by a trained examinerXx_NEWLINE_xXLong-term follow up must be possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving prior external beam irradiation to the head or neck, including any form of stereotactic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with epilepsy requiring permanent oral medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not take memantineXx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted in person pre–test counselingXx_NEWLINE_xXCommunication difficulties to include\r\n* Uncorrected or uncompensated hearing and/or vision impairment\r\n* Uncorrected or uncompensated speech defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXA probability of 60% or higher of a lung lesion being malignant as calculated by Bayesian analysis derived from clinical and radiographic criteria or, alternatively, biopsy proven diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIncarceration/ward of the state statusXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute contraindications by pulmonary function testingXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 25 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have lost >= 5% of their usual body weight over the preceding 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of cancer-related cachexia defined as an involuntary weight loss of at least 5% of the pre-illness body weight over the previous 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXObesity (body weight > 140 Kg)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent active excessive alcohol or illicit drug useXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere depression as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXOther causes of cachexia such as: liver disease (aspartate aminotransferase [AST] or alanine aminotransferase [ALT] > 3 x normal levels); renal failure (creatinine > 1.5 mg/dL), untreated thyroid disease, class III-IV congestive heart failure (CHF), acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), other cancer diagnosed within the past 5 years other than non-melanoma skin cancer, severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) requiring use of home oxygen (O2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that would prevent the subject from performing the research procedures (e.g., unstable coronary artery disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of growth hormone, megestrol, Marinol, or any other anabolic agents, appetite stimulants (including corticosteroids other than dexamethasone at the time of IV chemotherapy administrations), tube feeding, or parenteral nutrition during the 1 month prior to entering the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identify as Hispanic or LatinaXx_NEWLINE_xXBe capable of speaking and reading SpanishXx_NEWLINE_xXHave no documented or observable visual, auditory, psychiatric, or neurological disorders that would interfere with participation (e.g., blindness, deafness, psychosis, or dementia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXBreast cancer survivors (BCS) with other major disabling medical, psychiatric, or substance abuse conditions (e.g., anxiety, depression, alcohol/tobacco problems) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPEER NAVIGATORS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 25 years of age who self-identifies as African-AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously participated in any type of research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas at least high school educationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a valid driver’s licenseXx_NEWLINE_xXOwns an operational vehicleXx_NEWLINE_xXHas access to a personal computer with internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously identified cognitive impairment, which in the judgment of the principal or associate investigators would compromise the donor’s ability to understand the educational materials or the board game rules and procedures, and is likely to interfere with the study procedures or resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXVision and hearing (eyeglasses and/or hearing aid permissible) sufficient for valid test administration and cooperation with examinationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of a reliable parent or legal guardian who is willing and able to complete all of the outcome measures and fulfill the requirements of the study, including administration of medications and accompanying the participant to all study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to perform the testing procedure (for example, because of aphasia, motor deficits affecting the dominant hand, or intelligence quotient [IQ] < 70)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of stroke or head injury associated with loss of consciousness within 12 months of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of grade 2 depression or anxiety or treatment with antidepressants, antipsychotics or monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAO) inhibitors within 30 days of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously enrolled on the trial are not eligible; therefore, patients with AL who were on study during intensive chemotherapy are not eligible to be enrolled during the HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with chronic active arthritisXx_NEWLINE_xXGirth >= 2 cm circumferential difference and/or volume >= 200 mL compared to the uninvolved upper extremity at any 4 cm segmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to commit to a long term follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of other extremity lymphedema (primary or secondary)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXArtificial joints in the upper quadrantsXx_NEWLINE_xXArterial insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXMedication(s) known to affect body fluid balanceXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 40 (morbid obesity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncorrected primary obstructive or severe regurgitative valvular disease, nondilated (restrictive) or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, or significant systemic ventricular outflow obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia: heart rate < 50 beats per minute (BPM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current clinical evidence of moderate -to-severe obstructive pulmonary disease or reactive airway diseases (i.e.: asthma) requiring therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of drug sensitivity or allergic reaction to alpha- or beta-blockersXx_NEWLINE_xXAnemia (hematocrit < 28%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who report themselves to be of Latino or Hispanic ethnic background (defined as Spanish, Mexican, Central or South American, Cuban, Puerto Rican, Dominican, or other Hispanic origin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are under- or uninsured and come from low-income communitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may be on steroids at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function defined as:\r\n* Room air oxygen saturation of > 90% at altitude > 5000 feet, or > 93% < 5000 feetXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of recent (less than 2 weeks) hemorrhage on postoperative MRI of the brain; however, patients with clinically asymptomatic presence of hemosiderin, resolving hemorrhagic changes related to surgery, and presence of punctate hemorrhage in the tumour are permitted entry into the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXGENERAL MEDICAL EXCLUSIONSXx_NEWLINE_xXBEVACIZUMAB-SPECIFIC EXCLUSIONSXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequately controlled hypertension (defined as the normal published range for age and height)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hypertensive crisis or hypertensive encephalopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of hemoptysis (>= 1/2 teaspoon of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to day 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled for pancreaticoduodenectomy, central pancreatectomy or distal pancreatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and resting oxygen saturation (SpO2) < 90%Xx_NEWLINE_xXRenal dysfunction (creatinine [Cr] > 1.8)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists Status > III, assigned at time of pre operative visitXx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one geriatric assessment domain meet the cut-off score for impairment other than polypharmacyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has adequate understanding of the English language because not all GA measures have been validated in other languagesXx_NEWLINE_xXENTRY CRITERIA FOR CAREGIVERS: a caregiver can be anyone age 21 or over who is able to understand spoken English and understand the study process and provide informed consent; one caregiver for each patient will be eligible and must be chosen by the patient; for the purposes of this study, a caregiver is defined as a valued and trusted person in a patient’s life who is supportive in health care matters by providing valuable social support and/or direct assistive care; the caregiver accompanies the patient to medical appointments, is able to listen and give thoughtful advice and may be a family member, partner, friend, or professional caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR CAREGIVERS: selected by the patient when asked if there is a “family member, partner, friend or caregiver (age 21 or older) with whom you discuss or who can be helpful in health-related matters”; patients who cannot identify such a person (“caregiver”) can be eligible for the study; a caregiver need not be someone who lives with the patient or provides direct hands-on care; a caregiver can be any person who provides support (in any way) to the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR CAREGIVERS: if a health care proxy signs consent for or with a patient, and wants to participate in the caregiver portion of the study, this same person will always be the caregiver selected; if a health care proxy does not want to enroll as a caregiver in the study or, if enrolled, chooses to stop their own participation in the caregiver portion of the study, but is able to assist the patient in completing the study, the patient can still participate; in other words, the health care proxy can choose NOT to participate in the caregiver portion of the study; this does not preclude the patient from participating in the patient portion of the study with the health care proxy’s assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR CAREGIVERS: caregivers unable to understand the consent form due to cognitive, health, or sensory impairment will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMust weigh 20 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is enrolled on a COG trial that utilizes unrelated donor HSCT and requires that patients be transplanted using an approach specified by the protocol that is in conflict with the approach specified in this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with a known or suspected inherited predisposition to cancer should be discussed with the study team prior to screening for eligibility\r\n* Patients with a known inherited or constitutional predisposition to transplant morbidities, including, but not limited to Fanconi anemia, Dyskeratosis Congenita, Shwachman-Diamond syndrome and Down syndrome will be excluded\r\n* Patients with known inherited or constitutional predisposition to non-hematologic cancers including, but not limited to Li-Fraumeni syndrome, BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations will be excluded\r\n* Patients with an inherited predisposition to leukemia or otherwise hematologic malignancies that have not been associated with predisposition to transplant morbidities or non-hematologic cancers will not be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving 1 clinical pain rating of >= 3 gathered as part of routine clinic visits or reports pain of > 3 at least three days in the last two week upon accrualXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment (part II only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing an exploratory laparotomy for suspected gynecologic cancer, which includes metastatic disease from neoplasia originating in other organsXx_NEWLINE_xXConsents to being part of a randomized, single-blinded studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has physical and mental capabilities to take part in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSensitivity to amide-type local anestheticsXx_NEWLINE_xXEmergency surgery of any type that does not allow for proper time for protocol review by the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgery that involves known/anticipated resection of anterior abdominal wall with plastic surgery reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing pelvic exenterationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing anterior abdominal wall hernia repairsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients weighing < 50 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who undergo an open, elective radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 45 or < 17Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) between 18 and 35 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically-confirmed diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck, defined as SCC of the oral cavity or oropharynx that will be treated with cisplatin plus concurrent IMRT Note: Patients with unknown primary tumors whose treatment plan matches the requirements specified in Inclusion Criteria #2 and #3 below are eligible for the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment plan to receive standard cisplatin monotherapy administered either every three weeks (80-100 mg/m2 for 3 doses) or weekly (30-40 mg/m2 for 6-7 doses). The decision on which chemotherapy regimen to use in combination with IMRT and GC4419 will be at the discretion of the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer or adjacent anatomical sites or more than 25% of total body marrow-bearing area (potentially interfering with chemotolerance)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for significantly modified diet (liquids and/or solids) due to compromised oral/pharyngeal function at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement at baseline for parenteral or gastrointestinal tube-delivered nutrition for any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignant tumors other than HNC within the last 5 years, unless treated definitively and with low risk of recurrence in the judgment of the treating investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infectious disease excluding oral candidiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of oral mucositis (WHO Score ? Grade 1) at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for concurrent treatment with nitrates or other drugs that may, in the judgment of the treating investigator, create a risk for a precipitous decrease in blood pressureXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following baseline neurocognitive assessments must be completed prior to Step 2 registration: HVLT-R, TMT, and COWA; the neurocognitive assessment will be uploaded into the NRG RAVE System for evaluation by Dr. Wefel; once the upload is complete, within one business day a notification will be sent to proceed to Step 2; NOTE: completed baseline neurocognitive assessments can be uploaded at the time of Step 1 registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographic evidence of hydrocephalus or other architectural distortion of the ventricular system, including placement of external ventricular drain or ventriculoperitoneal shuntXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allergic reaction to memantine (memantine hydrochloride)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol or drug abuse (may exacerbate lethargy/dizziness with memantine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of (other N-methyl D-aspartate [NMDA] antagonists) amantadine, ketamine, or dextromethorphanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have aromatase inhibitor (AI)-associated musculoskeletal symptoms that began or increased after starting AI therapy; new musculoskeletal pain must not be due specifically to fracture or traumatic injuryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have completed the S1202 Brief Pain Inventory-Short Form (BPI-SF) within 7 days prior to registration; patients must have an “average pain” of at least 4 on the BPI-SFXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have concurrent medical/arthritic disease that could confound or interfere with evaluation of pain or efficacy including: inflammatory arthritis (rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus, spondyloarthropathy, psoriatic arthritis, polymyalgia rheumatica), or cancer involving the bone; patients with\r\nosteoarthritis are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Women with sporadic cancers (WSC) (does not have hereditary breast/ovarian cancer syndrome [BRCA carrier, strong family history]); if there is any uncertainty, the surgeon will use the Tyrer-Cuzick (Tyrer et al., 2004) risk model to calculate risk; the Tyrer-Cuzick model calculates a personal lifetime risk of breast cancer based on multiple factors; it has become the standard model because it incorporates not only factors such as estrogen exposure and first degree relatives, but also second degree relatives and paternal lineage; a lifetime risk of 20% or greater is considered high risk and would necessitate increased screening methods to the traditional annual mammogram; for this study, anyone with a lifetime risk up to 19% on the Tyrer-Cuzick model will be considered average risk for breast cancer; anyone with a lifetime risk of 20% or greater will be excluded from participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Has home internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: WSC (does not have hereditary breast/ovarian cancer syndrome [BRCA carrier, strong family history]); if there is any uncertainty, the surgeon will use the Tyrer-Cuzick (Tyrer et al., 2004) risk model to calculate risk; for this study, anyone with a lifetime risk up to 19% on the Tyrer-Cuzick model will be considered average risk for breast cancer; anyone with a lifetime risk of 20% or greater will be excluded from participationXx_NEWLINE_xXAllowable planned chemotherapy regimens (with or without ovarian suppression) are:\r\n* 6 cycles of a taxane (T) anthracycline (A) and cyclophosphamide (C)\r\n* 4 cycles of an anthracycline and cyclophosphamide plus 4 cycles of a taxane\r\n* 6 cycles of a taxane plus a platinum analogue with or without one or more human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HeR-2) targeted therapies such as trastuzumab +/- pertuzumab\r\n* 6 cycles of an anthracycline plus a taxane\r\n* 6 cycles of cyclophosphamide, an anthracycline and fluorouracilXx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to go at least 24-36 hours without narcotic pain medicine, muscle relaxants, sedatives, sleeping pills and alcohol prior to their cognitive testing; they should not have required chronic sedatives, sleeping aids, or narcotic pain medications on a daily basis prior to their diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are currently on omega-3 fatty acid supplements with > 500 mg of eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) + DHA daily or 250 mg of DHA alone and or who have chronically been on more than 1 fish oil capsule per day; there is no exclusion based on fish intakeXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not willing to stop fish or krill oil supplements during the study; (note that there is no limit to fish intake or omega-3 fatty acid [FA] in food)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not likely to be able to go for 24 yours without sleeping pills, sedatives, narcotic pain medications, or chlorpromazine (ativan)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who do not have a high school education or are not fluent in EnglishXx_NEWLINE_xXFunctionally appropriate to participate in the intervention, as assessed by 3 functional assessment items from the European Quality of Life-5 dimension (EQ-5D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEndorsement of at least one sexual symptomXx_NEWLINE_xXCARE RECIPIENT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary nonprofessional, non-paid caregiver, as identified by the care recipientXx_NEWLINE_xXTelephone accessXx_NEWLINE_xXObtains a score of > 6 on the shortened Center for Epidemiologic Studies - Depression (CES-D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers may or may not be receiving pharmacotherapy for depressive symptoms (type, use, and length of use will be treated as a potential confounding variable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently considers self to be a primary caregiver for anyone else other than childrenXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently receiving any type of formal counseling for depressive symptoms (allowing caregivers who receive outside counseling for depressive symptoms could contaminate treatment groups)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not current with CRC screening, defined as not having completed a home fecal occult blood test (FOBT) within the past year; a flexible sigmoidoscopy within the past 5 years; or a colonoscopy within the past 10 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere illness at the time of the clinic visitXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-morbidity that is estimated to limit life-expectancy to less than 5 years as estimated by the treating nurse or providerXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cognitive, visual, or hearing impairment that would preclude DA viewingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are at elevated risk for CRC, defined as having ever been diagnosed with CRC, a precancerous (adenomatous) polyp, or inflammatory bowel diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment as assessed by the 6-item Mini-Mental Status ExamXx_NEWLINE_xXToo sick to participate, as determined by the treating oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent engagement in yoga practice >= 1 day per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS WITH CIN:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave completed their course of CTXXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an average pain intensity score in their feet and/or hands of >= 3 on a 0 to 10 numeric rating scale (NRS) and/or a rating of >= 3 on a 0 to 10 NRSs on any one of the following sensations from the Pain Qualities Assessment Scale (i.e., numb, tender, shooting, sensitive, electrical, tingling radiating, throbbing, unpleasant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave pain and or changes in sensation in their feet and/or hands of at least one month durationXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS WITHOUT CIN:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes NOT have changes in sensation and/or pain in their hands or feetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients without CIN will be matched on cancer diagnosis and CTX agents administered (i.e., only a platinum compound, only a taxane, or both) to the patients with CIN but will not have any of the changes in sensation or pain listed above for patients with CINXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients report a history of peripheral vascular disease, diabetes, vitamin B12 deficiency, thyroid dysfunction, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) neuropathy, cervical or lumbar pain with radiculopathy, or another painful condition that is difficult for them to distinguish from their CINXx_NEWLINE_xXComing with the patient at the Seidman Comprehensive Cancer Center at University Hospitals Case Medical Center (UHCMC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to the internet and a computer, tablet, or smart phone, andXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently practicing mindfulness-based interventions (yoga, meditation, deep breathing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequire psychotherapy within the last three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of dementia or major neurological illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of a medical condition or procedure that is contraindicated for fMRI scanning (i.e. cardiac pacemaker, sternal wires, or metal implants); andXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobia requiring anxiolytics or sedation; orXx_NEWLINE_xXExpect to relocate from Northeast Ohio within 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWake Forest University studentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave volunteered as a student strategist at Comprehensive Cancer Center of Wake Forest University (CCCWFU); all strategists are required to have gone through Take the Fight (TTF) training prior to their volunteer workXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have to relate that tingling or pain was at least a four out of ten problem =< 7 days prior to registration, on a 0-10 scale where zero was no problem and ten was the worst possible problem\r\n* Note: the patient is expected to have tingling or pain of at least 4/10 at the time of the first treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting operational implantable drug delivery systems, e.g. Medtronic SynchromedXx_NEWLINE_xXExisting implantable medical electronic devices, life-supporting medical devices, and medical monitoring devices \r\n* Note: metal implants for orthopedic repair, e.g. pins, clips, plates, cages, joint replacements are allowed as are central venous access devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin conditions such as open sores that would prevent proper application of the electrodesXx_NEWLINE_xXReferral to pulmonary or interventional radiology services for large-volume thoracentesisXx_NEWLINE_xXStudy subject has any disease or condition that interferes with safe completion of the study including:\r\n* Coagulopathy, with criteria left at the discretion of the operator\r\n* Hemodynamic instability with systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg or heart rate > 120 beats/min, unless deemed to be stable with these values by the attending physiciansXx_NEWLINE_xXReferral is for diagnostic thoracentesis onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of multiple loculations on bedside pre-procedure ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent suicidal ideation or suicide attempt within past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPast participation in an MBCT groupXx_NEWLINE_xXStrong, self-reported history of postoperative nausea and vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXTracheo-esophageal fistulaXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of dysphagiaXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants will self-identify racial/ethnic status as African American (black or of African descent), Hispanic (Latino), or Caucasian (white)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must plan to receive follow up care at Dartmouth-HitchcockXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must be cognitively intact as judged by their responsible clinicianXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must have access to a working telephone and be willing and available to participate by this modality as neededXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must not have physical symptoms that they feel would interfere with creative writingXx_NEWLINE_xXAssessed as competent based on responses to mental status screenerXx_NEWLINE_xXVerification of a functioning email address and access to electronic device(s) capable of charging and syncing the FitBitXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to wear the FitBit throughout the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXCo-morbid illness that would contraindicate maximal effort exercise testing or participation in regular exercise programming as determined by the treating physician or exercise physiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent enrollment in LCCC 1404Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have working email address and internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXAny participant who cannot be present for the related study visits and/or complete the post-test assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPancreaticoduodenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXFirm gland textureXx_NEWLINE_xXPREOPERATIVE FACTORS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoor preoperative performance status as defined by: timed get up and go (< 15 seconds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients cannot be homeless or have substance dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXINTRAOPERATIVE FACTORS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated blood loss (EBL) > 1 literXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure to extubate at the conclusion of the caseXx_NEWLINE_xXOperative time > 8 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory without assistive devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo requirement for supplemental oxygen (O2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo active lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo symptomatic peripheral vascular obstructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active gallbladder diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active kidney stonesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active goutXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active diverticulitisXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to email and a computer with internetXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment expected to last longer than 12 months since this will make it impossible to deliver the end of therapy survivorship care planning session within the study timelines (patient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known cognitive impairmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXindividuals who are non-ambulatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXFACT-Cog score less than 59 on the Perceived Cognitive Impairment subscaleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjective complaint of cognitive concerns at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to complete study surveysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of stroke or other pre-existing neurological condition that may contribute to cognitive dysfunction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo an elective open or laparoscopic Whipple procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgeon’s opinion at the time of dissection that the subject’s well-being (e.g. bleeding or other independent acute health problems) would be compromisedXx_NEWLINE_xXHearing level and cognitive ability to follow test directionsXx_NEWLINE_xXT1N0M0 and T2N0M0 glottic lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed disease free by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects have to be willing to attend weekly voice therapy sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurological or cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHearing levels that interfere with following test instructionXx_NEWLINE_xXVocal fold paralysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have been previously treated or previously untreatedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are unable to complete the symptom diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXAn average daily pain rating of >= 4 out of 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of an allergic reaction or previous intolerance to transcutaneous electronic nerve stimulation or to latexXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with implantable drug delivery systems, e.g. Medtronic SynchroMedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with heart stents or metal implants such as pacemakers, automatic defibrillators, cochlear implants, aneurysm clips, vena cava clips and skull plates; (metal implants for orthopedic repair, e.g. pins, clips, plates, cages, joint replacements are allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOther identified causes of painful paresthesias existing prior to chemotherapy (e.g., radiation or malignant plexopathy, lumbar or cervical radiculopathy, pre-existing peripheral neuropathy of another etiology: e.g., carpal tunnel syndrome, B12 deficiency, acquired immune deficiency syndrome [AIDS], monoclonal gammopathy, diabetes, heavy metal poisoning amyloidosis, syphilis, hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism, inherited neuropathy, etc.) that might be responsible for the patient’s current neuropathic symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin conditions such as open sores that would prevent proper application of the electrodesXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 30Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in other diet-based weight loss programs (i.e. Patient should not be currently enrolled in Weight Watchers, Jenny Craig, Nutrisystem, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of commercial or natural/herbal weight loss supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xX1st episode of CDIXx_NEWLINE_xXDiarrhea associated with C. difficile positive stool assayXx_NEWLINE_xXWithin 48 hours of receiving either metronidazole for mild-moderate disease or vancomycin for severe uncomplicated diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted in the hospital at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an understanding of study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHypotension or shockXx_NEWLINE_xXMegacolon or moderate to severe ileusXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmission to intensive care unit on enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXOther known etiology of diarrhea (e.g. other enteric pathogen, other intestinal disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of multiple CDIXx_NEWLINE_xXUnavailable for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnostic categories\r\n* Sarcoma (soft tissue and bone)\r\n* Kidney tumors\r\n* Brain tumors\r\n* Other solid tumors (gonadal and germ cell tumors, retinoblastoma, neuroblastoma, and miscellaneous tumors)\r\n* Hodgkin lymphomaXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 20Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreating physician approval to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are already participating in a formal or medically prescribed weight management programXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with vaginal stenosisXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic GVHD manifestations that can be followed on physical or laboratory exam; these include but are not necessarily limited to:\r\n* Skin changes \r\n* Oral mucosa changes\r\n* Bronchiolitis obliterans\r\n* Ocular changesXx_NEWLINE_xXTransfusion independentXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation during exertion is maintained at >= 88% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Capable of undergoing leukapheresis, have adequate venous access, and be willing to undergo insertion of a central catheter should leukapheresis via peripheral vein be inadequateXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to abstain from ingestion of yogurt products and/or any product containing probiotics during study drug treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) alone or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious bowel resection which, in the opinion of the investigator, would decrease the benefit of the probiotic; patients who have undergone recent bowel surgeries which would not decrease the benefit of the probiotic are eligible provided they are more than 30 days from surgery with no serious complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior abdominal or pelvic RTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastrointestinal or genitourinary obstruction or porphyriaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent heterosexual or lesbian sexual partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-ambulatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent diagnosis of organic brain syndrome, dementia, mental retardation, or significant sensory deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of successful fMRI safety screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXUnstable medical problems (such as unstable heart disease, unstable hypertension, diabetes in poor control, respiratory disease complicated by hypoxia or hypercapnia, infectious illnesses, unstable thyroid dysfunction, currently hospitalized)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alcohol over-use as defined by currently consuming 4 drinks or more per day or binge drinking (6 or more drinks in one night) within the past weekXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or current neurological illness that significantly impacts cognition (e.g. stroke, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, Alzheimer's disease, head injury, epilepsy, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of brain injury that significantly impacted cognition; as indicated responses on the Ohio State University Traumatic Brain Injury Identification Method (OSU TBI-ID) greater or equal to any of the following: 30 minutes or more of loss of consciousness (LOC), two or more mild cases within two weeks of each other, or any injury with loss of consciousness before the age of 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXA score of 25 or more on the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) on the first visitXx_NEWLINE_xXA score of 26 or below on the Mini Mental Status Exam (MMSE) triggers a review by an investigational team before enrollingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with extreme mobility issues (e.g., unable to get in and out of a chair unassisted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have practiced yoga or taken yoga classes in the year prior to study enrollment or who are currently engaged in a regular mind-body practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXAre deaf or hearing-disabled.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProfess extreme dislike of music.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWait time is longer than 240 min.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnderlying structural brain abnormality or neurologic comorbidity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt risk for mucositis OR with stage I mucositis or esophagitis (i.e. radiotherapy to the head, neck, esophagus or lung OR treatment with fluorouracil (5-FU) or other chemotherapeutic agents that are known to cause mucositis or esophagitis) or at risk for xerostomiaXx_NEWLINE_xXThey have cognitive or psychiatric conditions as determined by the treating oncologist that prohibits study consent or participationXx_NEWLINE_xXProspective study: completed primary treatment for breast malignancies; receive survivorship care at Thomas Jefferson University (TJU) or Reading Health System (RHS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProspective study: Physically capable of using a tablet computer (no severe visual, hearing, or hand motor deficits)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRetrospective chart review: Individuals will have pathologically confirmed breast cancer or gynecological (GYN) malignancies including uterine, ovarian, or cervical cancers, stages I-III; treated in the previous two years (2013-2014)Xx_NEWLINE_xXVulnerable populations: cognitively impaired; prisoners; terminally ill; elderly and infirm; drug addictsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have access to either wireless Internet and a phone capable of receiving text messagesXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI less than 30 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust not be participating in another formal weight loss programXx_NEWLINE_xXHave daily use of an iPhone or iPad that meets the following technical specifications: at least iOS 8; for iPhones, must be iPhone 5 or aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients aged 13-17 years, have one caregiver willing and able to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPROVIDERS: At least 5 years' experience treating adolescents with sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAYA PATIENTS ONLY: Patients that are not able to participate in the study due to their medical condition and/or treatment regimen will be excluded; such exclusion will be determined by the patients' treating oncologist in conjunction with patients' family membersXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are pregnant or may become pregnant during metformin administration; pregnancy testing will be done in conjunction with preradiation protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic subjects are eligible if they are not taking metformin or insulinXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with plasma bicarbonate less than 22 mEq/L or history of lactic or any other metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myocardial ischemia or peripheral muscle ischemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a current history (in the past 30 days) of heaving drinking which is defined in accordance with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) definition as more than 8 drinks per week for women and more than 15 drinks per week for men; a standard drink contains .6 ounces of pure alcohol; generally, this amount of pure alcohol is found in 12-ounces of beer, 8-ounces of malt liquor, 5-ounces of wine, 1.5-ounces or a “shot” of 80-proof distilled spirits or liquor (e.g., gin, rum, vodka, or whiskey); while on study, patients should limit their alcohol consumption to no more than 8 drinks per week for women and no more than 15 drinks per week for men; patients who feel they cannot comply with this recommendation are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll medications are permitted except those that are contraindicated with metformin under current Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommendationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients admitted to the acute inpatient rehabilitation unit and those seen in the Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation outpatient clinicXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers of patients undergoing HCT at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA relative or a friend who either lives with the patient or has in-person contact with him or her at least twice per week and is identified as the primary caregiver for transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients treated as outpatients by the supportive and palliative care team.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious psychological counseling received in supportive care department.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe symptom distress as assessed by nursing staff.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had mastectomy with reconstructive surgery in one or both breastsXx_NEWLINE_xXBothersome hot flashes (defined by their occurrence of >= 28 times per week and of sufficient severity to prompt the patient to seek therapeutic intervention)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following current (=< 4 weeks prior) or planned therapies:\r\n* Antineoplastic chemotherapy (anti-HER2 agents allowed)\r\n* Androgens\r\n* Estrogens (any delivery route)\r\n* Progestogens\r\n* Tamoxifen, raloxifene and aromatase inhibitors are allowed, but patient must have been on a constant dose for at least 28 days and must not be expected to stop the medication during the study period\r\n* Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)/serotonin–norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), when being used for hot flash management or other indications such as depression, is allowed, assuming the dose will remain unchanged for the study duration\r\n* Gabapentin/pregabalin, when being used for hot flash management (use for other indications, such as pain, is allowed, assuming the dose will remain unchanged for the study duration)\r\n* Clonidine\r\n* Agents with known potent anticholinergic activity; agents with mild-moderate anticholinergic activity are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of oxybutynin during the period in which patient has had hot flashesXx_NEWLINE_xXC-reactive protein (CRP) must be >= 10 mg/l in the absence of any other more likely cause of increased CRP like an infection or an autoimmune disorderXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient willing to keep a daily diary, engage in telephone follow up with a nurseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have telephone access to be contacted by the research nurseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on pain medications (non-opioids), including nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) and acetaminophen, may be enrolled as long as they have been using it chronically, at least more than 2 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor contraindication to fish oil i.e. hypersensitivity to fish/oil or physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on fish oil or has been on fish oil within the last 10 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient reported regular participation in moderate- or vigorous-intensity physical activity for at >= 30 minutes at least 5 times a week and strength training for >= 2 days/weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with phaeochromocytomaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal failure requiring hemo-or peritoneal dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of regorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any herbal remedy (e.g. St. John’s wort [Hypericum perforatum])Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of neuroblastoma as defined by the International Neuroblastoma Risk Group Staging System (INRGSS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic daily opioid requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXFollowed in the Adult Long Term Follow Up ProgramXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a statinXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of cardiovascular disease (CVD) with or without current statin useXx_NEWLINE_xXApproval of Oncology provider for participation in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in more than 240 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise per week (as determined by Leisure Score Index of Godin-Leisure-Time Exercise Questionnaire [LSI] questionnaire)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history of attending regular QMBE or similar classes (e.g. yoga or tai chi classes i.e. 20 or more classes in the past 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of a chronic medical condition that has the potential to significantly impact upper extremity function (e.g. stroke, Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are blind are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a mobile phone that can send and receive SMS/MMS messages and is internet-enabledXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient expresses inability or unfamiliarity with using SMS/MMS messaging on their phone and is unwilling to be trained in the use of this technologyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) 30- < 45 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to a telephone for coaching sessions and access to a computer, smartphone, or tablet for syncing Fitbit devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to travel to MD Anderson’s main campus for 2 visits (baseline and 6 months post-baseline)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnmanaged lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindications to home-based exercise or low-fat, high fruit and vegetable dietXx_NEWLINE_xXFunctional limitations requiring a walker/scooter/wheelchair for daily activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXVigorous exercise > or = 60 min/week or moderate exercise > or = 150 min/week; if a combination of moderate and vigorous exercise are preformed, the minutes of moderate exercise/week plus 2 x minutes of vigorous exercise/week > or = 150 min/weekXx_NEWLINE_xXResistance training on > or = 2 days/week accounting for more than 30 minutes of strength training per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment in a structured weight loss program in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) prophylaxis regimen is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown chronic aspirationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of significant allergy to foods not excluded from the donor diet (excluded foods are tree nuts, peanuts, shellfish, eggs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDementia (i.e., 290.XX or 331.XX)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs currently in a partnered relationship that could involve sexual activity (as determined by eligibility screening script)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a partner or spouse who is >= 21Xx_NEWLINE_xXScore of >= 3 on Patient Care Monitor Sexual Concerns screening itemXx_NEWLINE_xXNo hearing impairment in patient or partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXOvert cognitive dysfunction or psychiatric disturbance such as suicidal ideation or severe mental illness, as observed or judged by the researcher, referring source, or other qualified observerXx_NEWLINE_xXAutologous transplant recipients with multiple myeloma or lymphoma (both Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s types) receiving the most common autologous regimens, melphalan and cyclophosphamide, carmustine, and etoposide (CBV)/carmustine, etoposide, cytarabine, and melphalan (BEAM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThose receiving reduced intensity regimens (a small proportion of allogeneic transplant recipients at UWCCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who present to the urology clinic for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer will be screened for participation in this pilot study (goal of 5 patients); patients who have completed transurethral resection of bladder tumor (TURBT) and are candidates for intravesical therapy are eligible for inclusionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with body mass index (BMI) less than 18.5 and/or score in the “severe malnourished” category of the patient generated subjective global assessment (PGSGA) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient unable to complete the exercise regimen or deemed a fall risk will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere depression (Patient Health Questionnaire [PHQ]-8 >= 20)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPast participation in ACT or formal mindfulness training, andXx_NEWLINE_xXBe under the care of a MCC physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNew onset or worsening of fatigue since starting TKIXx_NEWLINE_xXReport moderate-severe fatigue in past week (Fatigue Symptom Inventory [FSI] average rating >= 4 of 0-10)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave no clinical history of disease (e.g., multiple sclerosis, fibromyalgia) that could account for their fatigue presentationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be scheduled to discontinue their TKI under medical supervision within the next 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed acute lower extremity or upper extremity (jugular, innominate, subclavian, axillary, brachial) DVT, PE, splanchnic (hepatic, portal, splenic, mesenteric, renal, gonadal), or cerebral vein thrombosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXThienopyridine therapy (clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor) that will be continued on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMechanical heart valveXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented hemorrhagic tendenciesXx_NEWLINE_xXBacterial endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of heparin induced thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to smartphone device compatible to sync with PAM deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent injury which may result in impaired mobilityXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of a wearable PAM device as defined by use of PAM device in the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXFamily member or friend of an adult patient with a new diagnosis of stage II-IV cancers of the tongue, gum, oral cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, or parotid who is receiving radiation therapy for curative intentXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentified by the patient as his/her primary caregiver who is providing daily assistance and/or emotional supportXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitively intact, as evidenced by orientation to person, place, and timeXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers do not need to reside with the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXOverweight (body mass index [BMI] >= 30)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically capable of performing moderate intensity exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have engaged in a regular (> 3x/week, physical activity program in the last 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindication to exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXAfrican-Americans and non-Hispanic WhitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible to enroll on this study with or without the enrollment of their caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXAny caregiver is considered eligible for this study; the caregiver is the person identified by the patient as the one who provides the most regular physical and/or emotional supportXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers must be willing to complete surveys at baseline and on monthly basisXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who report a change in their body/self-image since diagnosis and wish to improve it; specifically, two screening questions will be used: has your body image or self-image changed in an unwanted way since your cancer diagnosis? (answer must be yes) would you like to be able to do something to improve your body image or self-image? (answer must be yes) answers to both questions must be yes for a woman to be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPast history of sexual abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on 2 or more antidepressant or anti-anxiety therapies for mood disturbance of any kind; past use is allowed, just not current useXx_NEWLINE_xXLatinoXx_NEWLINE_xXSpanish-speakingXx_NEWLINE_xXA current resident of either King, Snohomish or Pierce counties in Washington State with the intent of remaining a resident for at least 3 months following study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFree of current ethanol (ETOH) or drug abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXOpioid tolerant, taking daily doses of strong opioid pain medication in the past 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXInpatient at MD Anderson seen by palliative care teamXx_NEWLINE_xXStable pain control defined as rescue doses =< 6 in last 24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXMemorial Delirium Assessment Scale > 13/30Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of opioid abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXCut-annoyed-guilty-eye (CAGE) positivity (>= 2/4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGrade 2 or higher oral mucositisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave complete history and physical examination documenting no clinical evidence of disease within 8 weeks of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with normal saliva production (no salivary gland changes; no xerostomia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on pilocarpine for ophthalmic or non-ophthalmic indicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on regular medications which will induce xerostomia (tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines with anticholinergic effects)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave no contra-indication to moderate to vigorous aerobic exercise (e.g., infection, cardiopulmonary disease, musculoskeletal disease, psychiatric condition)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe able to walk unassistedXx_NEWLINE_xXBe able to navigate websites, fill out forms on the web, communicate by email, and have regular access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing and able to travel to UCSF for pre- and post-study blood collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXAny uncontrolled illness or physical disability including, but not limited to, infection, cardiopulmonary disease, musculoskeletal or psychiatric condition that contradicts moderate to vigorous aerobic exercise; not able to walk unassistedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo regular access to the internet and not able to fill out forms on the web, communicate by email and navigate websitesXx_NEWLINE_xXNot able to travel to UCSF for the pre- and post-study blood collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who report persistent or intermittent pain, including aching, tenderness, sorenessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may or may not report any of symptoms related to lymphedema (i.e. swelling, heaviness, tightness, firmness, numbness, tingling, stiffness, limb fatigue, limb weakness, and impaired limb mobility of shoulder, arm, elbow, wrist, and fingers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may or may not have a history of lymphedema or have been treated for lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have internet access to the web-based program at home or willing to access the web-based program using the computer provided by the researchers at the Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not report any pain, including aching, tenderness, and sorenessXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility and willingness to communicate the intensity of pain using NRS at the frequency dictated by the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sinusitis, obstruction of nasal passages, nasopharyngeal cancer, paranasal sinus malignancies, or any conditions in the nasopharyngeal anatomical area that may affect the absorption of fentanyl nasal sprayXx_NEWLINE_xXHas taken oral immediate release opioids within 4 hours prior to arrivalXx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluation of Web-based Program: HNSCC patients who are currently undergoing or have recently completed radiation treatment (< 2 years)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlindness or severity of visual impairment that precludes one’s ability to view images/textXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients need lung isolation for purposed surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with known tracheobronchial anatomical anomaliesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient requiring emergency operationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known difficult airwaysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients where other lung isolation devices may be warranted (tracheostomy, nasal intubation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient requiring sizes not available in DLT or VDLTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring a right sided VDLT or DLTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no clinical evidence of cognitive impairment as determined by the palliative care physician (Memorial Delirium Assessment Score >= 7)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with complete or partial bowel obstruction as determined by the palliative care physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a bowel ostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible to receive AHT (tamoxifen or an aromatase inhibitors [AI]) for the first timeXx_NEWLINE_xXOwn a smartphone (in order to receive text messages and utilize the phone app)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to receive text messages on their smartphone over a 3-month periodXx_NEWLINE_xXProvide consent and permission to review their medical recordsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to stay in the study area for 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of Dr. GonzalezXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior lumpectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to tolerate prone position and breath hold during CT simulationXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is undergoing Mohs surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a cell phone capable of receiving text messagesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is not indicated for Mohs surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient cannot receive text messagesXx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGIST: Be a physician specializing in medical oncologyXx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGIST: Care for oncology patients at the Indiana University (IU) Simon Cancer Center or an affiliated clinic (e.g., Spring Mill Clinic, Eskenazi Health, IU Health North, IU Health West)Xx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGIST: Have a patient panel that will allow for >= 6 eligible patients to be enrolled in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGIST: Be willing to attend the 5-session MODEL Care program for providers at the specified location, date, and timeXx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGIST: Planning to leave their current practice setting for other employment in the next 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGY NURSE: Be a registered nurse or advanced practice nurse who provides care to patients seen by an enrolled oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGY NURSE: Be willing to attend the 5-session MODEL Care intervention for providers at the specified location, date, and timeXx_NEWLINE_xXONCOLOGY NURSE: Planning to leave their current practice setting for other employment in the next 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Be those whose attending medical oncologist would not be surprised if the patient died in the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Be willing and able to travel to the class location for 6 weekly 2-hour sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Have a family member or friend eligible and interested in participating in the MODEL Care studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of > 2 or Karnofsky performance status < 60 (suggesting patient is capable of only limited self-care, confined to bed or chair more than 50% of waking hours, or requires considerable assistance and frequent medical care) as rated by the attending oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXFAMILY CAREGIVER: Chosen by a family member or friend with cancer to join them in participating in the MODEL Care studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFAMILY CAREGIVER: Willing and able to travel to the class location for 6 weekly 2-hour sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSCREENING PHASE: Currently taking anti-neuropathy medication such as gabapentin, pregabalin, duloxetine, or glutamineXx_NEWLINE_xXINTERVENTION PHASE: While on neurotoxic chemotherapy, has developed NCI-CTC grade 2 CIPNXx_NEWLINE_xXINTERVENTION PHASE: Currently taking anti-neuropathy medication such as gabapentin, pregabalin, duloxetine, or glutamineXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated radical cystectomy with ileal conduit or orthotopic neobladderXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of spinal cord injury including any form of paraplegia or quadriplegiaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive alcohol dependence, defined as 2 or more positive questions on the CAGE alcoholism questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXIllicit drug use (excluding recreational marijuana)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic gabapentin, or the similar drug pregabalin, useXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic narcotic use (daily or near daily use for > 90 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXResident of Oahu, Hawaii (HI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically capable to do the hula-based physical activity moderate and vigorous physical activity (MVPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Relative or friend who is identified by the patient participant who plans to regularly accompany the patient to the majority of their clinic visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Family caregiver must live with the patient or have in-person contact with him or her at least twice per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXAre able to pass the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire or participant provides a letter from their physician or nurse practitioner clearing them for study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll couples co-habiting for at least 3 years with current partner who is willing to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-inflammatory medications (e.g. statins, cholesterol medication)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsume excessive amounts of alcohol (> 30 drinks/week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 1 (DEVELOPMENT OF NARRATIVE MESSAGES)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBeing active (self-reported >= 150 min/week [wk] moderate – strenuous-intensity exercise)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE 2 (RANDOMIZED CONTROLLED TRIAL [RCT] GROUP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXBeing inactive (self-reported =< 150 min/wk moderate – strenuous-intensity exercise)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo contradictions to exercise based on the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccess and ability to use a computer for completion of online measuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPossession of smartphone to have a Fitbit synced toXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitively able to participate in interactive interviewsXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitively or physically unable to participate in interactive interviewXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent St. Jude LIFE participantXx_NEWLINE_xXLong term survivor of ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXWi-Fi internet access at home (estimated at > 75% of the SJLIFE cohort)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of executive dysfunction, documented by SJLIFE neurocognitive testing, and defined as having an age-adjusted standard score < 20th percentile on Trail Making Test Part B, Verbal Fluency, or Digit Span BackwardXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of self-reported executive dysfunction in daily life, defined as having a standardized score < 20th percentile on Behavior Rating Inventory of Executive Function (BRIEF) Initiate, Shift, or Working Memory domains OR having scored < 20th percentile on the Childhood Cancer Survivor Study Neurocognitive Questionnaire Task Efficiency or Memory domainsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny survivor with full scale intelligence quotient (IQ) < 80Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on stimulants or other medications intended to treat cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXNo implanted medical devices or implanted metal in the headXx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary: < 90 minutes/week of moderate-intensity (not exhausting, light perspiration, e.g. fast walking, tennis, easy bicycling, easy swimming, popular and folk dancing) physical activity during the preceding 2 months, and < 30 minutes/month of any high-intensity activity (heart beats rapidly, sweating, e.g. running, aerobics classes, cross country skiing, vigorous swimming, vigorous bicycling) in the past 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently has breast implant (which limits the performance of many yoga poses)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant cardiopulmonary disease, severe arthritis, glaucoma, or any other medical conditions that make yoga practice unsafe as determined by a study investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient requires regular use of beta blockers or calcium channel blockersXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any medication that would interfere with the study's initial blood tests, including insulin or insulin secretagogues, corticosteroids, daily use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (except aspirin at no more than 81 mg/day) within 7 days of the initial study blood testXx_NEWLINE_xXUnlikely to be compliant with the study interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaires by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic or other adverse reactions to minocyclineXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of fibromyalgiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic or other adverse reactions to tetracyclineXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand the description of the study and willing to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand the exercise intervention and able to maintain a daily exercise logXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must have telephone access and agree to engage with telephone access with the research personnelXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to complete the baseline assessment questionnaires or functional assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent fracture or acute musculoskeletal injury that precludes the ability to weight bear fully on all 4 limbs in order to participate in an exercise interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXNumeric pain rating scale of >= 7 out of 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyopathic or rheumatologic disease that impacts physical functionXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with head and neck cancer, which will be primarily nasopharyngeal, and scheduled to undergo intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) or proton with or without concurrent chemotherapy at MD Anderson or Fudan UniversityXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment plan that includes external beam radiation at a mean dose of at least 24 Gy or more to one of the parotid glands (the other gland can receive less than 24 Gy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnatomically intact parotid and submandibular glandsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be right-handedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of xerostomia prior to head and neck radiation therapy or history of Sjögren's disease or another underlying systemic illness known to cause xerostomiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected or confirmed physical closure of salivary gland ducts on either sideXx_NEWLINE_xXUpper or lower extremity deformities (ie, missing limbs or scars that prevent needle insertion at the acupuncture points) that could interfere with accurate acupoint location or alter the energy pathway as defined by traditional acupuncture theoryXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent acknowledged use of any illicit drugs or evidence of alcohol abuse as defined by the American Psychiatric Association criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smoker or quit smoking within the past 15 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least a 30 pack-year smoking historyXx_NEWLINE_xXReport clinically significant anxiety symptoms (i.e., Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale Questionnaire [HADS]-anxiety subscale >= 8)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnxiety is principal psychiatric problemXx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma iPTH ?70 pg/mL if taking <1200 IU vitamin DXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving ?2000 IU/day vitamin D (ergocalciferol or cholecalciferol) therapy must remain on a stable dose during the study. If taking more than 2000 IU/day of vitamin D (ergocalciferol or cholecalciferol), must be willing and able to reduce use to ?2000 IU/day and remain on a stable dose for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSpot urine Ca:Cr ratio >0.25 (>250 mg/g creatinine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCANCER PATIENT GROUP: Caucasian or African-American/BlackXx_NEWLINE_xXCANCER PATIENT GROUP: Sedentary defined as < 60 minutes of recreation or work requiring modest physical activity (PA)/weekXx_NEWLINE_xXCANCER PATIENT GROUP: Ability to perform the level of physical activity assessed by the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCANCER PATIENT GROUP: Has access to a smartphone or computer with internet capabilitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-CANCER PATIENT GROUP: Sedentary defined as < 60 minutes of recreation or work requiring modest PA/weekXx_NEWLINE_xXNON-CANCER PATIENT GROUP: Ability to perform the level of physical activity assessed by the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNON-CANCER PATIENT GROUP: Has access to a smartphone or computer with internet capabilitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic documentation of malignancy currently undergoing a course of RT (with or without chemotherapy) including the oral cavity and/or oropharyngeal area to a dose of at least 4500 cGy using more than 5 fractions (i.e., stereotactic body radiation therapy [SBRT] is not allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical exam demonstrating evidence of radiotherapy-related mucositis in the visible oral cavity and/or oropharynx consistent with mucous membrane toxicity greater than 0 using the Acute Radiation Morbidity Scoring CriteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 4 (out of 10) patient-reported oral pain related to oral mucositis secondary to RT for which the patient seeks relief, as measured on the Oral Pain Assessment; Note: The pain score must be at least 4 at the time that the patient starts the first dose of study medication; the patient may be enrolled to the study if s/he, at times, has a pain score of at least 4, so long as initiation of study treatment begins when the pain score is at least 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXNo use of any anti-arrhythmic medication (except for beta-blockers and calcium channel blockers) including intravenous lidocaine, linezolid, ipratropium, or medications with anti-cholinergic potency (including neostigmine, a tricyclic antidepressant or a monoamine oxidase inhibitor) within 2 weeks prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo current diagnosed untreated or unresolved oral candidiasis or oral herpes simplex virus (HSV) infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXNo current use of glutamine or sucralfate powders at the time of registration (no washout required)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTarget lesion of any sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXTarget lesion located 1.5 cm or more away from visceral pleura based on the needle pathXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin thickness =< 7 cm (from skin to pleura)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeedle path without transgression of pleural fissure, bleb, or bulla is possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCoaxial biopsy technique using Angiotech 19-gauge introducer needleXx_NEWLINE_xXNeedle length =< 15 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXINDIVIDUAL INTERVIEWS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre within traveling distance to Fox Chase Cancer Center (FCCC) and Mount Sinai Medical Center (MSMC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre within traveling distance to FCCC, MSMC, Rutgers Cancer Institute of New Jersey, or Temple University Hospital (TUH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to an International Business Machines (IBM)-compatible or Macintosh personal computer with Internet access (either in home or at a community center)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients with hematologic malignancy admitted to Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) HSCT are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with prior history of HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing HSCT for a benign hematologic condition (myelodysplastic syndrome [MDS] is not considered a benign hematologic condition and patients with MDS are eligible for the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled on other supportive care intervention trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult caregivers (> 18 years) of patients undergoing HSCT at MGH who agreed to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXA relative or a friend, identified by the patient who either lives with the patient or has in-person contact with him or her at least twice per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be included if their initial stage was T1 N0 M0 or T2 N0 M0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with local disease recurrence would be excluded from the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in whom the transnasal endoscope is poorly tolerated or patients in whom transnasal endoscopic laryngoscopy is contraindicated will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient and caregiver must be willing to be videotapedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients and caregivers who are not oriented to time, place, and personXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have regularly practiced yoga in the year prior to recruitmentXx_NEWLINE_xXTreated at one of the Survivorship Centers of Excellence or their community affiliatesXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe fatigue (>= 4 on BFI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 120 minutes/week of physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXApproval from member of the treatment team to engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient-assessed ability to walk and engage in moderate physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to walk or engage in moderate-intensity physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXHave BFI =< 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXReport more than 120 minutes/week of physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXOpen pancreatoduodenectomy for any diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing concomitant colectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate >= 50 beats per minuteXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment in a therapeutic intervention trial in the breast medicine serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected duration of ADT at least 12 months from date of study consentXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst dose of LHRH agonist or antagonist no more than 6 months prior to date of study contentXx_NEWLINE_xXOther investigational agents in addition to LHRH agonist/antagonist are allowed (e.g. novel anti-androgens, androgen synthesis inhibitors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to attend monthly clinic visits at University of California, San Francisco (UCSF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically unable or unwilling to participate in recommended exercise programs or travel to UCSF on a monthly basisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of permanent pacemaker or implantable medical device\r\n* Artificial joint prostheses and venous filters are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of concomitant skin care preparations at any of the treated or control portal areas to be observedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny infection or unhealed wound of the radiotherapy portal areas, or generalized dermatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic history, including anaphylaxis or severe allergies to products in study serum or placeboXx_NEWLINE_xXCollagen vascular disease such as lupus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXResectable pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (R-PDAC): no evidence of distant metastasis and tumor mass showing no extension to superior mesenteric artery (SMA) and hepatic artery; there must be a clearly defined fat plane between SMA and celiac axis; patent superior mesenteric vein (SMV/portal vein [PV]) with no distortion of venous architectureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient unable or not willing to perform all study related biopsies and blood draws for exploratory endpoints will not be enrolled on study as all study related procedures are mandatoryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with external biliary drainsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to undergo a cystoscopy on study for investigational product removal.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for and willing to undergo RC per the attending urologist.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects medically eligible for neoadjuvant cisplatin-based combination chemotherapy who refuse this therapeutic option and understand the risks and benefits of doing so.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignancies within 12 months with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcome.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to gemcitabine instillations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any bladder or urethral anatomic feature that in the opinion of the investigator may prevent the safe placement, indwelling use or removal of TAR-200.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of vesicoureteral reflux or the presence of an indwelling ureteral stent or nephrostomy tube at the time of screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBladder Post-Void Residual Volume (PVR) of > 250-mL.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of diagnosis of neurogenic bladder.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDifficulty providing blood samples.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients who do not have a documented NF1 mutation must meet the clinical diagnosis of NF1 using the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Consensus Conference criteria; in addition to tibial pseudarthrosis, one or more of the following diagnostic criteria for NF1 must be present:\r\n* Six or more cafe-au-lait spots (>= 0.5cm prepubertal; >= 1.5cm postpubertal)\r\n* Freckling in the axilla or groin\r\n* Optic pathway glioma\r\n* Two or more iris Lisch nodules\r\n* Two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have tibial pseudarthrosis that has the potential to cause significant morbidity; radiographic findings (anterior-posterior [AP] & lateral leg radiographs) must support the diagnosis of tibial pseudarthrosis with chronic non-unionXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of documentation for a diagnosis of NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXTibial fracture without evidence of pseudarthrosis or tibial dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXTibial dysplasia/bowing without fracture or pseudarthrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPlexiform neurofibroma of any size, or nodular neurofibroma of > 3 cm diameter involving the ipsilateral leg, including the hip\r\n* If presence of plexiform is suspected but not certain on physical exam, MRI of the leg may be indicated to rule this outXx_NEWLINE_xXOptic nerve glioma that has resulted in precocious puberty or visual impairment of any degreeXx_NEWLINE_xXVisual impairment from any causeXx_NEWLINE_xXPrecocious puberty from any causeXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate neurovascular status in the involved limb that may jeopardize healingXx_NEWLINE_xXOther injury or condition that prevents ambulation or completion of study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXTwo or more prior surgeries for tibial pseudarthrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral tibial dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive antibody titers to BMP-2, bovine collagen, or BMP-2 neutralizing antibodies prior to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of using any of the following medications, regardless of dose, for at least 1 month, within 3 months of enrollment: anabolic agents, glucocorticoids (does not include inhaled glucocorticoids), growth hormone, parathyroid hormone (PTH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for postoperative medications that could interfere with bone healing of the implant, such as steroids, (but not including low-dose aspirin or routine perioperative antiinflammatory drugs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant has disease that is not amenable to a curative approachXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical signs or symptoms of GI obstruction or requirement for routine parenteral hydration, parenteral nutrition, or tube feedingXx_NEWLINE_xXDose Escalation only: Enzalutamide-naïve patients following prior progression on abiraterone by PCWG2 criteria and within 12 weeks of discontinuing abirateroneXx_NEWLINE_xXDose Confirmation Cohort B (DC-B) only: Enzalutamide-naïve patients following prior progression on abiraterone by PCWG2 criteria and within 12 weeks of discontinuing abirateroneXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior participation in clinical studies that include durvalumab alone or in combination, where the study has registrational intent and the analyses for the primary endpoint have not yet been completedXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of FLT3-ITD activating mutation in bone marrow (allelic ratio of ?3% FLT3-ITD/total FLT3);Xx_NEWLINE_xXLeukapheresis;Xx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia of less than 50 beats per minute, unless the subject has a pacemaker;Xx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch block;Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe effusion is an exudate (per Light's criteria) in the context of histocytologically proven malignancy elsewhere, with no other clear cause for fluid identified.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has sufficient pleural fluid to allow safe insertion of an IPC. 7. Subject has negative pregnancy test if appropriate. 8. Subject or caregiver is able to perform home drainage of the pleural effusion (a caregiver can be a friend, family member or paid healthcare professional and applies to US sites only; UK subjects will have drainage managed by home-care nurses).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has significant trapped lung, or a proximal bronchial obstruction which is likely to lead to trapped lung. For a subject to be eligible for this study, 2 separate study center clinicians must agree that there is no significant trapped lung on the same CXR using visual estimation (reference guide). The CXR used to make this decision must have been performed ?30 days preceding the consent form being signed, and must have been performed preferably on the same day, but no more than 7 calendar days after a pleural drainage. Significant trapped lung is deemed present if any 1 of the following criteria is met:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA CXR shows hydropneumothorax.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA CXR shows ?20% of the affected hemithorax to be free of the expected lung parenchymal markings and there is no suggestion of pleural fluid.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA CXR shows ?20% of the affected hemithorax to be occupied with pleural fluid AFTER a pleural aspiration which resulted in symptoms suggestive of trapped lung (e.g., chest pain or cough).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is pregnant, planning to become pregnant, or is lactating. 4. Subject has a history of empyema. 5. Subject has a history of chylothorax. 6. Subject has an uncorrected coagulopathy. 7. Subject has a hypersensitivity to new or existing pleural catheter or it's components.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has had a lobectomy or pneumonectomy on the side of the effusion. 10. Subject has undergone a previous attempt at ipsilateral pleurodesis which has failed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has bilateral pleural effusions, with both being at least moderate in size (greater than one-third of the hemithorax on CXR).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has evidence of fluid loculation such that attempts at pleurodesis are likely to be futile.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a mediastinal shift of ?2 cm toward the side of the effusion. 15. Subject is receiving concurrent intrapleural chemotherapy or radiation therapy to the ipsilateral chest.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has no access to a telephone. 18. Subject has no documented blood values (complete blood count [CBC], coagulation tests, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests [LFTs]) within the last 10 days.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFibrolamellar carcinoma or mixed hepatocellular cholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight must be >= 20 kilograms (kg) if suspension is not availableXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or evidence of retinal pathology according to protocol-defined criteria, including serous retinopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe development of erythema nodosum if characterized by a desquamating rash while taking thalidomide or similar drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically measurable lymphadenopathy or extranodal lymphoid malignancy (defined as the presence of 1 or more lesions that measure at least 2.0 cm in the longest dimension (as assessed radiographically)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of listeriosis or vaccination with a listeria-based vaccine or prophylactic vaccine (eg, influenza, pneumococcal, diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis [dTP/dTAP]) within 28 days of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave poor-risk prognostic factors defined as antecedent hematologic disorder, prior chemotherapy or XRT, abnormal karyotype other than t(8;21), inv16, or t(16;16), any karyotype with FLT3-ITD, or presenting WBC>100K, orXx_NEWLINE_xXHave significant comorbidities, that in the judgment of the investigator makes the subject unsuitable for standard dose induction chemotherapy (e.g. anthracycline and infusional cytarabine given as 7+3), or;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCongestive heart failure or documented cardiomyopathy with an EF ?50%, provided that EF ?35% or,Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented pulmonary disease with DLCO ?65% or FEV1 ?65%, provided that patients do not require more than 2 L of oxygen per minute or,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave significant comorbidities, that in the judgment of the investigator makes the subject unsuitable for standard dose induction chemotherapy (e.g., anthracycline and infusional cytarabine given as 7+3); orXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has ongoing hemolysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has history of major immunologic reaction to any auristatin-based and /or Immunoglobulin G (IgG) containing agent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRevised international prognostic scoring system (IPSS-R) intermediate, high or very highXx_NEWLINE_xXNo specific hematologic parameters for study entry are required; transfusion-dependent patients are eligible and platelet counts should be maintained greater than 10,000/mm^3Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 4 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG performance status of 0 or 1 at screening and within 72 hours prior to first dose if first dose occurs more than 72 hours post-screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any contraindications for nal-IRI, irinotecan, 5-FU, leucovorin, oxaliplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXNeuroendocrine or acinar pancreatic carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum albumin < 3 g/dL at screening visit and within 72 hours prior to first dose if first dose occurs more than 72 hours post screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptoms and signs of clinically unacceptable deterioration of primary disease at time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPost allo patients must not have active graft versus-host disease and be off all immune suppression (other than steroids, as above)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic disease (e.g. severe hepatic impairment, interstitial lung disease [bilateral, diffuse, parenchymal lung disease], uncontrolled chronic renal disease [glomerulonephritis, nephritic syndrome, Fanconi syndrome or renal tubular acidosis]), or current unstable or uncompensated respiratory or cardiac conditions, or uncontrolled hypertension blood pressure >= 140/90, active bleeding diatheses or active infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had had surgery within four weeks of dosing of investigational agent, excluding minor procedures (dental work, skin biopsy, etc.), celiac plexus block, and biliary stent placementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require frequent (several times a day) monitoring of their blood glucose or patients who have recently been hospitalized for glucose controlXx_NEWLINE_xXHas glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas history of calcium oxalate stonesXx_NEWLINE_xXHas history of iron overloadXx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 1: Patients must have a confirmed diagnosis of unresectable GIST that has progressed following imatinib and at least 1 of the following: sunitinib, regorafenib, sorafenib, dasatinib, pazopanib, or an experimental kinase-inhibitor agent, and the patient does not have a D842V mutation in PDGFR?.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroups 1, 2 and 3: At least 1 measurable lesion defined by mRECIST 1.1 for patients with GIST.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGroup 3: Patients known to be KIT wild type.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must weigh less than 150 kg (330 lb), which is the limit of the imaging couchXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must be less than 6’ 6” in heightXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must feel comfortable in the prone positionXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to fit into the immobilization breast cup with an adequate sealXx_NEWLINE_xXMale genderXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient cannot comfortably be set up in the prone position (i.e. physical disability)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with connective tissue disorders specifically systemic lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, or dermatomyositisXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-bulky disease defined as less than 10 cm in maximal diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC must harbor an EGFR activating mutation (Exon 21 L858R, Exon 19 deletion, Exon 18 G719X, Exon 21 L861Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGlycosylated hemoglobin (Hb A1c) =< 7%Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo concomitant use of proton pump inhibitors (PPI) is allowed; any prior PPI must be discontinued at least one week before receiving MLN0128 (TAK-228)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fasting serum triglycerides > 300 and/or with hypertriglyceridemia requiring medication (but not patients with hypercholesterolemia: patients with hypercholesterolemia with or without medication are eligible).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients concurrently taking the following drugs are excluded: antioxidants, herbal or other alternative therapy medications, vitamin supplements (especially vitamins A, C, and E) other than at standard multivitamin doses, cyclosporine A or analogue; verapamil; tamoxifen or analogue, ketoconazole, chlorpromazine; RU486; indomethacin; or sulfinpyrazone, tetracycline, nalidixic acid, nitrofurantoin, phenytoin, sulfonamides, lithium, and amiodarone. If the patients discontinue usage of the above drugs, they can be eligible for enrollment into the study (screening visit) one week or 5-half lives of the drug in question, whichever is the longer, after the discontinuation. For patients requiring any of these medications, entry is permissible only with permission from the medical monitor.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have programmed death-ligand 1 (PD -L1) immunohistochemical (IHC) testing, with results, performed by the central lab during the Screening periodXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of low-volume peritoneal disease defined by a peritoneal carcinomatosis index (PCI) =< 10 based on cross-sectional imaging and/or diagnostic laparoscopy findingsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are medically fit for surgery defined as the followingXx_NEWLINE_xXNo parenchymal hepatic metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo cross sectional imaging findings indicative of multi-segmental (> 1 site) small bowel obstruction, or small bowel loops matted together, or gross disease of the small bowel mesentery characterized by distortion, thickening or loss of mesenteric vascular clarityXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinical or radiological evidence of hematogenous or distant nodal (retroperitoneal, pelvic, mediastinal, peri-portal or peri-aortic) metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum renal functional parameters, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine within normal limitsXx_NEWLINE_xXSatisfactory cardiopulmonary function (no history of severe congestive heart failure or severe pulmonary disease, as indicated by clinically acceptable risks to undergo major abdominal - cytoreductive surgery)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are status post revascularization procedures with satisfactory cardiac function are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNo psychiatric or addictive disorders or other conditions that would preclude the patient from meeting the study requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXPeritoneal carcinomatosis index (PCI) >= 10Xx_NEWLINE_xXSystemic (extraperitoneal) disease, pregnant, incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate pulmonary function as assessed by oxygen saturation >= 90% when ambulating and not requiring supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring concurrent administration of valproic acid are also excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXA single, biopsy-proven SISCCA as defined by the LAST criteria (=< 3 mm depth of invasion, horizontal spread of =< 7 mm, and completely excised with at least 1 mm margin clear of cancer irrespective of the amount of HSIL) documented per investigator assessment in combination with the pathology report within 16 weeks before Segment B enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinician believes that eradication of concomitant HSIL is reasonable and feasible based on the extent of disease and overall medical condition of the participantXx_NEWLINE_xXFor females, documentation that the participant is being followed with cervical cytology and/or HPV testing per current “Guidelines for the Prevention and Treatment of Opportunistic Infections in HIV-Infected Adults and Adolescents” and American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) guidelines; cervical cytology must be performed prior to enrollment for women who are overdue for screening per the guidelines; women should also have confirmation of absence of cancer or suspected cancer upon visual examination of the vulva, vagina, and cervix within 12 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAnal cancer that cannot be completely excised with a >= 1 mm clear margin from surrounding tissue or where excision to obtain a clear margin would compromise sphincter function or anal canal diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant’s SISCCA must not have been ablatedXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent anal canal or perianal HSIL or condyloma that in the judgment of the clinician cannot be cleared or can only be cleared with undue morbidity to the participantXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline AFP ?400 nanograms/milliliter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgically sterile, postmenopausal, or compliant with a highly effective contraceptive method.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFibrolamellar carcinoma or mixed hepatocellular cholangiocarcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing or recent history of drug abuse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant received prior immunotherapy and is experiencing or has experienced any of the following (OLE cohort only):Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe participant received prior immunotherapy and at the time of study enrollment, requires steroids or other immunosuppressive agents (OLE cohort only).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown EGFR mutation statusXx_NEWLINE_xXNatural menopause with last menses >1 year agoXx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC with evidence of a centrally cavitating lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary hemorrhage or hemoptysis > 2.5 mL blood within six weeks unless cause has been addressed and is medically resolvedXx_NEWLINE_xXCongestive cardiac failure of >Grade 2 severity according to the NYHA defined as symptomatic at less than ordinary levels of activityXx_NEWLINE_xXPlatelets >= 125 x 10^9/L (for Arm L pembrolizumab and Arm M nivolumab and expansion cohorts for all arms, platelets >= 100 x 10^9/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of complete or partial bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed of total parenteral nutritionXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificantly diseased (as determined by the principal investigator [PI] or treating physician) or obstructed gastrointestinal tract or uncontrolled vomiting or diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXIf in Arm D (doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide), patients with prior cumulative doxorubicin dose of >= 260 mg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be already enrolled in P.R.O.G.E.C.T observational registry (HSC #12614)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitizing mutation in the EGFR gene or ALK fusion oncogeneXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies other than NSCLC within 5 years prior to randomization, with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death treated with expected curative outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXIncomplete healing from wounds from prior surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xX3. Participant has active peptic ulcer disease or other hemorrhagic esophagitis/gastritis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms of gross hematuria or gross hemoptysis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have relapsed/refractory PCNSL or relapsed/refractory SCNSLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to tolerate lumbar puncture and/or Ommaya tapsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is concurrently using other approved or investigational antineoplastic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is allergic to components of the study drug; for arms A and B only, patient has perviously taken ibrutinibXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory disease requiring continuous supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xX=< 10 pack-years smoking history or =< 30 pack-years smoking history WITH >= 5 years abstinence from smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresectable disease (e.g. immobile node on physical exam, nodal disease that radiographically involves the carotid arteries, nerves)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive history of using smokeless tobacco products or marijuana defined as daily use >= 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXReport cognitive impairment since starting chemotherapy as assessed by four questions from the Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy Cognitive Scale (FACT-Cog)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to come to MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC) or Hospital Israelita Albert Einstein (HIAE) for the meditation sessions and assessment sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXMini-Mental State Examination score of 23 or belowXx_NEWLINE_xXFactors contraindicated to fMRIXx_NEWLINE_xXAny extreme mobility issues (e.g. unable to get in or out of a chair unassisted, extremity issues such as neuropathy that limits physical manipulation of objectsXx_NEWLINE_xXRegularly practiced meditation (greater than once per week) in the year prior to study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOT PARTICIPANTS AND HEALTHY CONTROLS ONLY: Any extreme mobility issues (e.g. unable to get in or out of a chair unassisted, extremity issues such as neuropathy that limits physical manipulation of objects)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUses smart mobile phone (either iOS [iPhone] or Android device)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with co-morbid acute or untreated psychiatric symptoms (e.g., psychosis) or neurologic dysfunction will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1: Clinician participants must be oncology clinicians (i.e. physicians and nurse practitioners) who maintain at least 25% clinical practice at the MGH Cancer Center or one of its community affiliates at the North Shore, Emerson Hospital and MGH WestXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2: In Phase 2, clinician participants will be the oncology clinician of record (i.e., oncologist, nurse practitioner) of the first five patients enrolled in the intervention group of the randomized trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1: For this proposed study, four groups of stakeholders will provide ongoing feedback about the study design, methods, and results; to be eligible as a stakeholder, the participant must be able to represent the interests and perspective of at least one of the following stakeholder groups: 1) oncology patient or family member; 2) oncology physician; 3) cancer practice setting administrator; and 4) health system, community, and societyXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of GVHD at the time of enrollment as assessed clinicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive Clostridium difficile infection or on prophylactic or tapering antibiotics for Clostridium difficile infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXMONITORING PHASE:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMonitoring phase:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuicidal ideation, as determined via Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ)-9Xx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZATION PHASE:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) < 10 mIU/LXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving radiation therapy of any type at Dana-Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI), Brigham and Women's Hospital (BWH), Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH), or affiliated network sites (including but not limited to partial breast irradiation, two-field, three-field, and four-field plans)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFunctional Assessment of Chronic Illness Therapy-fatigue (FACIT-F) subscale score >= 10 pre-radiation therapy and decrease in FACIT-F of 10 points or more as compared to prior FACITXx_NEWLINE_xXRandomization phase:Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants who have used opioid-containing medications (including cough/cold medications containing codeine and/or antidiarrheals containing loperamide) in the past 2 weeks, or who are expected to require opioid-containing medications within the duration of the treatment periodXx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT A:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are currently on stable prescription medications or dietary supplements for CIPN and still symptomatic as defined above will be allowed to participate in the study; related medications are: gabapentin, pregabalin, nortriptyline, amitriptyline, duloxetine, venlafaxine; lidocaine, opioid tramadol and other narcotics; NSAIDs; glutamine, glutathione, vitamin E and vitamin B12Xx_NEWLINE_xXCOHORT B:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohorts A & B:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of acupuncture for CIPN within 6 months prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled major psychiatric disorders, such as major depression or psychosis, will not be eligible for this trial; patients with a history of depression or anxiety who are stable on or off psychiatric medications will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious receipt of head and neck irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Sjogren’s, lupus or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXReferred to MSK’s Tobacco Cessation ProgramXx_NEWLINE_xXHave sufficient sensory acuity (i.e., auditory, visual) and manual dexterity to use a computer game as per judgment of clinician or consenting professionalXx_NEWLINE_xXCan be reached by telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXImmediate reconstruction with tissue expander (Group 2) or permanent implant (Group 1) prior to radiation therapy (RT) performed at MSKCCXx_NEWLINE_xXIf PMRT is recommended, the treatment fields will include the axillary, supraclavicular, and internal mammary nodesXx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of a breast reconstruction prior to RT (placement of tissue expander is sufficient for group 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete an acceptable baseline CPET, as determined by the absence of remarkable electrocardiogram (ECG) findings or other inappropriate response to exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to achieve an acceptable peak baseline CPET, as defined by any of the following criteria:\r\n* Achieving a plateau in oxygen consumption, concurrent with an increase in power output\r\n* A respiratory exchange ratio >= 1.10\r\n* Attainment of maximal predicted heart rate (maximum heart rate [HRmax])\r\n* Volitional exhaustion, as measured by a rating of perceived exertion (RPE) >= 18 on the BORG scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical clearance from attending oncologist or attending radiation oncologist to undergo a symptom-limited cardiopulmonary exercise testXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphedema of the upper extremities, as detected on history and physicalXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously experienced paclitaxel induced pain during a current or past paclitaxel treatment that the treating healthcare provider thinks is consistent with the paclitaxel-induced acute pain syndrome; note: formal documentation of prior pain is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete the questionnaires or to do so with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gold-induced disorders, including but not limited to, necrotizing enterocolitis, pulmonary fibrosis, exfoliative dermatitis, bone marrow aplasias or other severe hematologic disorders; history of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions or hypersensitivity to auranofin or other gold compoundsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to discontinue taking dong quai and/or St. John’s wortXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking medications (including minocycline) or have conditions that potentially preclude use of the study medication or intervention as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking any tetracycline within the last 15 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with bile duct obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for elective radical cystectomy and urinary diversion for bladder cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients: Telephone accessXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers: The person in the patient’s life who is primarily responsible for care decisions, emotionally invested in the patient’s care, provides instrumental care such as transportation, and available if randomized to the fPER group to participate in the majority of intervention sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers: Willingness to use a smartphoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers: Absence of a serious medical condition likely to influence cortisol assessment in their hairXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers: Alcohol consumption less than 2 drinks/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers : No steroid medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmed ER and/or PR positivityXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline presence of oral ulcersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on warfarin (patients on injectable blood thinners, such as Lovenox, are able to continue those)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious, preoperative celiac nerve blockXx_NEWLINE_xXPresumed ampullary or duodenal cancer based on preoperative work-up or intraoperative findingsXx_NEWLINE_xXBenign tumors, neuroendocrine tumors, soft tissue tumors based on preoperative work-up or intraoperative findingsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient reports moderate to severe bother for at least one symptom, defined by a Rotterdam Symptom item score >= 2 on a 1-4 scale, for depressive symptoms, anxiety, pain, fatigue, sleep problems, or breathlessnessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a family caregiver who lives with him/her or has visited him/her in-person at least twice a week for the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is willing to participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver lives with the patient or has visited the patient in-person at least twice a week for the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver has a T score >= 55 (at least one half standard deviation above the population mean) on either the Patient-Reported Outcomes Measurement Information System (PROMIS) Anxiety or Depression measure or a Distress Thermometer score of 3 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver is willing to participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient makes 3 or more errors on a validated 6-item cognitive screener or exhibits significant psychiatric or cognitive impairment (dementia/delirium, retardation, active psychosis) that in the judgment of the investigators would preclude providing informed consent and study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a Patient Generated Subjective Global Assessment (PG-SGA; the patient-reported version of the Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group score) > 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient does not have working phone serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s caregiver is ineligible for the study or declines study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregiver does not have working phone serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with medical restrictions that may interfere with or prevent them from taking part in the yoga interventions per their physician’s decisionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have smoked within the last 6 months, since smoking may interfere with relaxation and breathingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who currently practice yoga or have taken a yoga class regularly within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAll women, undergoing surgery, via a midline laparotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI >= 30Xx_NEWLINE_xXBenign or oncologic indications for surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSurgery will be supervised by one of the gynecologic oncology attendings at Washington University School of MedicineXx_NEWLINE_xXPfannenstiel or transverse abdominal incisionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant panniculectomy or plastic surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXMental incapacityXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of allergic reactions attributed to either Monocryl suture or stainless steel staplesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hernia repair with mesh, or multiple (> 1) prior hernia repairs, or plan to use mesh for hernia closure in current surgical procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients scheduled for thoracic surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSecond (2nd) or third (3rd) degree heart block as assessed by preoperative electrocardiogram (EKG)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), acetaminophen or IV opioidsXx_NEWLINE_xXReport all three symptoms as present in the past week with worst severity rating >= 3 (0-10 scale) for at least two of the three symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXPain that is post-operative (< 3 months since surgery) or neuropathic pain; (Note: grade 1 chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy [CIPN] is not anticipated to meet threshold criteria on the Neuropathic Pain Screening questionnaire); patients with more than one type of pain who are able to isolate and identify a non-neuropathic pain experience (e.g., persons with diabetic neuropathic foot pain as well as nociceptive cancer-related abdominal pain) may be included with the principal investigator (PI)’s approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXHospitalized for psychiatric reasons within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in the guided and home yoga practiceXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical clearance by Dr. MurphyXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions that would prohibit the safe implementation of a yoga practice (e.g., vertigo, dementia, use of antipsychotic medications, suicidal ideations)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive yoga practice within the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted to Acute Palliative Care Unit (APCU)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium as per the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV-TR) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperactive/mixed delirium with RASS >= 2 in the last 24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXOn scheduled haloperidol of =< 8 mg in the last 24 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXFAMILY CAREGIVERS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s spouse, adult child, sibling, parent, other relative, or significant other (defined by the patient as a partner)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt the patient’s bedside at least 4 hours each day during patient delirium episodeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of myasthenia gravis or acute narrow angle glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Parkinson’s disease or dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXOn regular doses of benzodiazepine or chlorpromazine within the past 48 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have normal baseline self-reported taste perception prior to the development of cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a subjective history of an extreme dry mouth syndrome that prevents them from producing adequate amounts of saliva (approximately 2 mL in 15-20 min)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo addition or subtraction of other immunosuppressive medications (e.g., calcineurin inhibitors, sirolimus, mycophenolate mofetil) for 2 weeks prior to enrollment; the dose of immunosuppressive medicines may be adjusted based on the therapeutic range of that drugXx_NEWLINE_xXAspartate aminotransferase (AST) < 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN), unless hepatic dysfunction is a manifestation of presumed cGVHD; for patients with abnormal LFTs as the sole manifestation of active cGVHD, documented cGVHD on liver biopsy will be required prior to enrollment; abnormal LFTs in the context of active cGVHD involving other organ systems may also be permitted if the treating physician documents the abnormal LFTs as being consistent with active hepatic cGVHD, and a liver biopsy will not be mandated in this situationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignant disease relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo addition or subtraction of other immunosuppressive medications (e.g., calcineurin-inhibitors, sirolimus, mycophenolate-mofetil) for 4 weeks prior to enrollment; the dose of immunosuppressive medicines may be adjusted based on the therapeutic range of that drugXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of thrombotic microangiopathy, hemolytic-uremic syndrome or thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpuraXx_NEWLINE_xXNew chronic GVHD therapies (e.g. gleevec, extracorporeal photopheresis, rituximab, immunosuppressive medications) in the 4 weeks priorXx_NEWLINE_xXPost-transplant exposure to T-cell or IL-2 targeted medication (e.g. anti-thymocyte globulin [ATG], alemtuzumab, basiliximab, denileukin diftitox) within 100 days priorXx_NEWLINE_xXActive malignant relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with active uncontrolled hepatitis B or C are ineligible as they are at high risk of lethal treatment-related hepatotoxicity after HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pathologically proven diagnosis of CRC seen either at MD Anderson or Lyndon B Johnson General Hospital (LBJ)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients continuously taking any minocycline within the last 15 days; patients who have conditions that potentially preclude use of minocycline as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a body mass index (BMI) > 40 (obese class III criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have begun postoperative oral intake of food prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXOpen laparotomy or laparoscopic surgery undertaken with cancer therapeutic intent (not a subsequent surgery to manage a postoperative complication) that had occurred =< 7 days prior to registration and that entailed more than a simple hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent enrollment in any other trial that entails the concurrent administration of any other agent designed to enhance postoperative recoveryXx_NEWLINE_xXBreakthrough dyspnea, defined in this study as dyspnea on exertion with an average intensity level >= 3/10 on the numeric rating scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXOutpatient at MD Anderson Cancer Center seen by the Supportive Care Service, Thoracic Medical Oncology or Cardiopulmonary CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory and able to walk with or without walking aidXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea at rest >= 7/10 at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSupplemental oxygen requirement > 6 L per minuteXx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium (i.e. memorial delirium rating scale > 13)Xx_NEWLINE_xXResting heart rate > 120 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of active opioid abuse within the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere anemia (hemoglobin [Hb] < 7 g/L) if documented in the last month and not corrected prior to study enrollment; extra blood work will not be drawn unless the patient already has the lab abnormalities documented and need to be correctedXx_NEWLINE_xXTwo discretionary enrollment criteria include:\r\n* Patients with ductal breast carcinoma in situ (DCIS) may be enrolled into the study if they are eligible for and considering either mastectomy or BCS with radiation\r\n* Patients taking neoadjuvant chemotherapy may be enrolled into the study if they are eligible for and considering either mastectomy or BCSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be recruited through 28-30 surgeons located in 12 surgical practice sites within Michigan, Georgia, California, and Tennessee; patients will also be recruited at the University of Michigan (UM) Comprehensive Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXVulnerable populations: there is no inclusion of fetuses, neonates, children, prisoners, institutionalized individuals, or others who may be considered vulnerable populations, except that it is possible that a subject might be pregnantXx_NEWLINE_xXBreakthrough dyspnea, defined in this study as dyspnea on exertion with an average intensity level >= 3/10 on the numeric rating scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXOutpatient at MD Anderson Cancer Center seen by the Supportive Care Service or Thoracic Medical OncologyXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory and able to walk with or without walking aidXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea at rest >= 7/10 at the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSupplemental oxygen requirement > 6 L per minuteXx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium (i.e. Memorial delirium rating scale > 13)Xx_NEWLINE_xXResting heart rate > 120 at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of active opioid abuse within the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking minocycline for other conditions, as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are enrolled in other clinical trials that have symptom management as primary outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not able to use telephone-based interactive voice response software due to physical limitations (e.g., impaired hearing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking any tetracycline in the last 15 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have the ability to use audio media in their home and read and understand study manual providedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to use audio media due to auditory dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are prisoners or incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with aplastic anemia or primary myelofibrosis; patients with marrow fibrosis secondary to myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), AML or a myeloproliferative disorder other than primary myelofibrosis are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not expected to be available for follow-up in our institution for at least 180 days after the transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious diagnosis of lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXStage II lymphedema based upon International Society of Lymphedema (the limb is firm in places, elevation does not reduce swelling, it may or may not pit with pressure, and skin changes may be noted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPost-completion of treatment (may be on hormone therapy, such as tamoxifen, or monoclonal antibody, such as Herceptin or pertuzumab) for any type of cancer as confirmed by the medical record at MSKCC, by self-report, or by outside correspondence, including a study checklist signed by a physician for patients outside of MSKCCXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to a telephone, computer (e.g. desktop, laptop, smartphone, tablet), and internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: A score of >= 4 on the Distress Thermometer (DT) and indication that this distress is related in some way to the patient's breast cancer or survivorshipXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: If taking medication for mood, anxiety, depression, thoughts, sensory experiences such as hallucinations, or sleep, stable and consistent enough in dosage and use of that medication so as to not result in a clinically significant change as determined by the study principal investigator (Pl)/co-PI or confirmed by reports in the medical record at MSKCC, by serf-report, or by outside correspondence, including a study checklist signed by a physician for patients outside of MSKCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Did not participate in phase 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXClear indication for anticoagulation (e.g., atrial fibrillation) anticipated during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXClear indication for antiplatelet agents (e.g., cardiac stents); a patient receiving aspirin for primary prevention prior to index stroke may be enrolled as long as study investigators believe it would be safe for the patient to stop aspirin if the patient was randomized to the enoxaparin armXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic carotid stenosisXx_NEWLINE_xXLife expectancy < 1 month or current hospice careXx_NEWLINE_xXUnavailability for follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning on remaining in the area for at least 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIAN: Has an doctor of medicine (MD) or doctor of osteopathic medicine (DO) degreeXx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIAN: Is the treating physician providing care to a patient enrolled to the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas another family member already enrolled in ICCAN (as determined by patient report)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary, as per the leisure score index (LSI) of the Godin leisure-time exercise questionnaire (GLTEQ); participants who perform regular moderate or vigorous intensity exercise at least 5 days/week, for at least 30 minutes/session, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete an acceptable baseline cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET), as determined by the absence of remarkable electrocardiography (ECG) findings or other inappropriate response to exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to achieve an acceptable peak baseline CPET, as defined by any of the following criteria:\r\n* Achieving a plateau in oxygen consumption, concurrent with an increase in power output;\r\n* A respiratory exchange ratio >= 1.10;\r\n* Attainment of maximal predicted heart rate (HRmax) (i.e., within 10 beats per minute (bpm) of age-predicted HRmax;\r\n* Volitional exhaustion, as measured by a rating of perceived exertion (RPE) >= 18 on the Borg scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical clearance from primary attending oncologist to undergo a symptom-limited CPET and aerobic training interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to be randomized to one of the study armsXx_NEWLINE_xXA St Jude Life participant who was previously treated at St. Jude Children's Research Hospital (SJCRH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is 10 or more years from diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a Full Scale Intelligence Quotient (FSIQ) score > 79Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 1 participant: \r\n* Has neurocognitive impairment defined as performance on at least one measure of attention, memory, and/or executive functioning =< 10th percentile\r\n* Is absent of delayed sleep onset latency defined as an inability to fall asleep within 30 minutes < once a week during the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2 participant:\r\n* Has neurocognitive impairment defined as performance on at least one measure of attention, memory, and/ or executive functioning =< 10th percentile\r\n* Has delayed sleep onset latency defined as self-report of an inability to fall asleep within 30 minutes >= once a week during the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 3 participant:\r\n* Is absent of neurocognitive impairment defined as performance > 10th percentile on all six measures of attention, memory, and executive functioning\r\n* Has delayed sleep onset latency defined as self-report of an inability to fall asleep within 30 minutes >= once a week during the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has current reported illicit drug or alcohol abuse or dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is employed in a position that requires night work (i.e. 10 pm to 6 am)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has a sensory impairment (vision, hearing) that prohibits completion of neurocognitive examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must receive any one of the following conditioning regimens: total body radiation (single or fractionated dose)/cyclophosphamide, busulfan/cyclophosphamide, or fludarabine/busulfan/lymphocyte immune globulin (ATGAM/thymoglobulin [thymo])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have cluster of differentiation (CD)34+ stem cells >= 2 x 10^6/kg (actual body weight of the recipient) available for transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identify as LatinoXx_NEWLINE_xXNot incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXMinocycline trial only: patients who are taking medication or have conditions that potentially preclude use of minocycline, as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXMinocycline trial only: patients who currently have bile duct obstruction or cholelithiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXReceiving steroids daily for other medical conditions, e.g., asthma, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritisXx_NEWLINE_xXDyspnea with an average intensity level > 3/10 on the numeric rating scale over the past weekXx_NEWLINE_xXOutpatients at Monroe Dunaway (MD) Anderson Cancer Center seen by the Supportive Care, Rehabilitation Service, Thoracic Oncology or Pulmonary MedicineXx_NEWLINE_xXDelirium (i.e. memorial delirium rating scale > 13)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation < 90% despite supplemental oxygen > 6 L/minXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious allergic reactions to dexamethasoneXx_NEWLINE_xXMegestrol use at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation at the time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe scheduled procedure will be performed via midline laparotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXEmergent cases will not be included in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXClean (class I), contaminated (class III) and dirty (class IV) procedures will likewise be excluded, as well as ones performed completely laparoscopicallyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe planned procedure involves foreign material (such as mesh or subcutaneous drains) being left in the subcutaneous space at the time of surgery (for example, a ventral hernia repair); surgical drains that are placed to drain an intraabdominal space and exit the abdominal wall remote from the incision are allowed in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with no pain and with stable pain (defined as pain under control and on stable doses of opioids for 1 week) are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXMemorial delirium assessment scale =< 13Xx_NEWLINE_xXControlled pain and depression symptoms, if present (defined as no change in the morphine equivalent dose of 30% or change in the dose of antidepressant medication in the past 2 weeks)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on stable doses (defined as same dose for 2 weeks) of dexamethasone, mirtazapine, zolpidem, benzodiazepines, phenothiazines are allowed to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking MP or have taken it within the previous 10 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis of polysomnographically confirmed obstructive sleep apnea or narcolepsyXx_NEWLINE_xXRegularly used cognitive behavioral therapy in the last 6 weeks for sleep disturbanceXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to complete the baseline assessment forms or to understand the recommendations for participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, or clonidineXx_NEWLINE_xXHave glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPersons with congenital blindness and self-reported acquired blindness (independent of the cause) with no light perceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of retinal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with > 2 hours of direct exposure to outdoor natural light per day by interview with the Study CoordinatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have normal baseline self-reported taste perception prior to the development of colorectal or pancreatic carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a subjective history of an extreme dry mouth syndrome that prevents them from producing adequate amounts of saliva (approximately 2 mL in 15-20 min)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the entity of acute/chronic GVHD overlap syndromesXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring mechanical ventilationXx_NEWLINE_xXVasopressor requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent hepatic veno-occlusive disease (VOD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAYA meets at least 1 of 3 criteria indicating potentially high palliative care or end-of-life needs:            \r\n* Any high-risk cancer (i.e., metastatic or stage IV)\r\n* Receiving moderate- to high-intensity chemotherapy during 3-5 consecutive days in an in- or out-patient setting\r\n* A diagnosis with an estimated 5-year event-free survival of < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne consistent parent is willing and available to participate in all parent and evaluation sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAYA is not married and has no childrenXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairments that would make it difficult for AYA/parents to participate in the intervention or complete questionnaires (determination in consultation with attending physician, oncologist, and, for adolescents below age 18, the parents)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have no evidence of progressive disease on restaging imaging within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients taking medications known to have a significant interaction with lithium carbonate, these medications should be discontinued at least 1 week prior to and during lithium treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have any uncontrolled thyroid diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have completed the S1200 Brief Pain Inventory-Short Form (BPI-SF) within 14 days prior to registration; patients must have a worst pain score of at least 3 on the Brief Pain Inventory (item #2) that has started or increased since starting AI therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have had two or fewer acupuncture treatments within the past 12 months for any reason except for joint symptoms; patients must not have had prior acupuncture treatment for joint symptoms at any timeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have concurrent medical/arthritic disease that could confound or interfere with evaluation of pain or efficacy including: inflammatory arthritis (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus, spondyloarthropathy, psoriatic arthritis, polymyalgia rheumatica), gout, episodes of acute monoarticular arthritis clinically consistent with pseudogout, Paget's disease affecting the study joint (knees/hands), a history of septic arthritis or avascular necrosis or intra-articular fracture of the study joint, Wilson's disease, hemochromatosis, alkaptonuria, or primary osteochondromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have a history of bone fracture or surgery of the afflicted knees and/or hands within 6 months prior to registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to submit blood and urine samples for serum hormones (estradiol, FSH, LH), inflammatory biomarkers (serum TNFalpha, IL-6, IL-12, CRP and urine CTX-II),urine AI metabolites, and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) analysis (CYP19A1), and must be given the option to consent to use of remaining specimens for future translational medicine studies; baseline samples must be obtained prior to beginning interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of patient registration, the treating institution's name and identification (ID) number must be provided to the Data Operations Center in Seattle in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered into the databaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT patients with either moderate or severe immunodeficiency based on immunodeficiency scoring system would be eligible for entry on study if a nasopharyngeal wash or throat swab specimen is positive by rapid RSV antigen testing and/or on culture within 72 hours (therapeutic arms)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT patients with mild immunodeficiency based on immunodeficiency scoring system would be eligible for entry on study if a nasopharyngeal wash or throat swab specimen is positive by rapid RSV antigen testing and/or on culture within 72 hours but will not be randomized to therapeutic arms and will be followed as per standard of care (control arm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with RSV infection limited to the URT as documented by negative chest radiographic findings within the last 48 hours of enrollment and pulse oxygenation of more than 90 mm of Hg on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may receive up to 2 doses of aerosolized ribavirin (modified regimen) before enrollment into the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with evidence of RSV LRI as documented by a positive rapid RSV antigen testing and/or culture on nasal washes AND new or progressive infiltrates on chest radiographic studies suggestive of viral etiology and/or pulse oxygen less than 90 mm of Hg on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with positive RSV by rapid antigen testing and/or culture in bronchoalveolar lavage regardless of the chest radiographic findingsXx_NEWLINE_xXMale partners of women who are pregnant (only for patients who are going to be randomized to either therapeutic arms)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking didanosine, azathioprine, or nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with palpable splenomegaly >= 16 cm below coastal margin (only applicable to patients with CML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known risk factors for thromboembolism (e.g. Factor V Leiden mutation, antithrombin III (ATIII) deficiency, Protein C and S deficiency, antiphospholipid syndrome, portal hypertension, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXVaginal dryness or dyspareunia must be present for at least two months prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must agree to not use any over-the-counter or prescription vaginal preparations (lubricants, creams, gels, ointments, solutions) during the four weeks of treatment with topical fluocinonide creamXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have ability to read, comprehend, and complete patient questionnaires independently or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any estrogen containing medications, products, or preparationsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject reported symptoms of vaginal infection with significant vaginal discharge or odorXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown vaginal pathology other than vaginal atrophy that could explain vaginal symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance of topical steroid preparationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be planning to receive any of the following concomitant medications that can cause skin rash or other dermatologic reactions that could interfere with the EGFRI-induced skin toxicity assessments, for the duration of the study: allopurinol, systemic corticosteroids, topical retinoids (Retin-A, Tretinoin), oral retinoids (Amnesteem, Claravis, Sotret)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any of the following serious concomitant skin disorders that, in the investigator’s opinion, could interfere with assessment of EGFRI induced skin toxicity: atopic dermatitis (eczema), contact dermatitis, psoriasis, rosacea, severe photosensitivity, scleroderma, steroid-induced acne, xerosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXRate fatigue at least 1 or higher on a scale of 0-10Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave no clinical evidence of cognitive failure as evidenced by Memorial Delirium Assessment Scale (MDAS) score of =< 13 at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to engage in follow-up telephone calls with a research nurse/coordinatorXx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to participate in the exercise and in cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave telephone access to be contacted by the research nurse/coordinatorXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a major contraindication to methylphenidate hydrochloride (MP) (e.g., allergy/hypersensitivity to study medications or their constituents), exercise (e.g., cardiac disease), cognitive behavioral therapy (e.g., schizophrenia), or conditions making adherence difficult as determined by the attending physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXBe currently taking MP or have taken it within the previous 10 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXAre regularly engaged in moderate- or vigorous-intensity exercise for at least 150 minutes per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXBe unable to complete the baseline assessment forms or to understand the recommendations for participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed monoamine oxidase inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants, or clonidineXx_NEWLINE_xXHave glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of uncontrolled hypothyroidism as evidenced by thyroid test (thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH]) within the last month, hypercalcemia or hyperglycemia (within the last 15 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to receive care at the participating institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXRelative or friend of patient participant who will likely accompany the patient to clinic visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary treating oncologist for at least one patient participantXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who were already seeing PC, or whose oncologists thought they needed to see PC or enroll in hospiceXx_NEWLINE_xXRate fatigue on a numerical scale during the previous 24 hours as >= 4 on a 0 to 10 scale (0 = no fatigue and 10 = worst possible fatigue)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMemorial delirium assessment scale =< 13Xx_NEWLINE_xXControlled pain and depression symptoms, if present (defined as no change in the morphine equivalent dose of 30% or change in the dose of antidepressant medication in the past 2 weeks)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking ginseng, methylphenidate or modafinil or have taken it within the previous 10 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with airway stents undergoing bronchoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients previously enrolled, but excluded as no stent lumen obstruction from mucus retention identified at earlier enrollment (hence excluded at that enrollment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with no stent lumen occlusion from mucus impaction as determined at the time of the initial visual bronchoscopic assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously enrolled patients who completed this protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are not required to be registered on a COG therapeutic trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s current chemotherapy treatment plan must include at least 1 course of:\r\n* Cisplatin at ? 50 mg/m²/dose\r\n* Ifosfamide plus etoposide or doxorubicin or\r\n* Cyclophosphamide plus an anthracyclineXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient’s current treatment plan must include an anti-emetic regimen with either ondansetron or granisetron on a scheduled basis; patients may also receive dexamethasone for antiemetic prophylaxis during the acute phase at the discretion of the treating physician; patients ? 12 years old may also receive aprepitant in conjunction with dexamethasone for antiemetic prophylaxis at the discretion of the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients needing anti-emetic treatment for breakthrough nausea/vomiting may also receive anti-emetic agents on an as needed (PRN) basisXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled use of antiemetic agents other than ondansetron, granisetron, dexamethasone or aprepitant; patients may receive other antiemetic agents PRN for breakthrough nausea / vomiting but not on a scheduled basisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior administration of denosumabXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of oral bisphosphonates with a cumulative exposure of more than 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis/osteomyelitis of the jawXx_NEWLINE_xXActive dental or jaw condition which requires oral surgery, including tooth extractionXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-healed dental/oral surgery, including tooth extractionXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of any of the following conditions per subject self-report or medical chart review:Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during the study (eg, mammalian derived products, calcium or vitamin D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject will not be available for follow-up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 120 minutes of exercise per week (as determined by Leisure Score Index of Godin Leisure-Time Exercise Questionnaire [LSI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXApproval by oncologist or surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to be randomizedXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 1 month from any major surgery to start of intervention, including colostomy reversal (Port-A-Cath removal excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsolute contraindications to maximal exercise testing as recommended by the American Thoracic Society and exercise testing guidelines for cancer patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipating in another clinical study with competing study outcomesXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition associated with increased risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (prior renal failure or liver failure, history of acidosis of any type; habitual intake of 3 or more alcoholic beverages per day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment plan that includes external beam radiation at a mean dose of at least 24 Gy or more to one of the parotid glands (the other gland can receive less than 24 Gy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnatomically intact parotid and submandibular glandsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of xerostomia prior to head and neck radiation therapy or history of Sjögren's disease or another underlying systemic illness known to cause xerostomiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected or confirmed physical closure of salivary gland ducts on either sideXx_NEWLINE_xXUpper or lower extremity deformities that could interfere with accurate acupoint location or alter the energy pathway as defined by traditional acupuncture theoryXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent acknowledged use of any illicit drugs or evidence of alcohol abuse as defined by The American Psychiatric Association criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent acknowledged use of amifostine trihydrate, cholinergic agonist medications (pilocarpine hydrochloride, cevimeline hydrochloride), certain beta adrenergic antagonists, anticholinergic agents, or any saliva substitute or other medication/herbal preparation known to affect salivary functionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have HL, NHL, or MM requiring PBSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects are to receive autologous PBSC transplant following mobilization, CD34+ cells collected by apheresis, and conditioning chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have CD34+ collection which allows reinfusion of ?1.5 x 106 and ?5.0 x 106 CD34+ cells/kgXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a psychological and emotional state that, in the view of the investigators, allows adherence to the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale subjects capable of reproduction, and male subjects who have partners capable of reproduction, must agree to the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a known sensitivity to any of the Investigational Product componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMenopausal status not specifiedXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse ? 60 beats/minuteXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of bronchial asthma or related bronchospastic conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo hereditary or idiopathic angioedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo other concurrent angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, ?-blockers, or digoxinXx_NEWLINE_xXIf an open biopsy is performed, the patient must be at least one week post biopsy; this requirement does not apply to patients who undergo stereotactic biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXKarnofsky performance status >= 70 (Radiation Therapy Oncology Group [RTOG] recursive partitioning analysis [RPA] class I & II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical (e.g. multiple cranial nerve deficits in the absence of obvious radiographic disease to explain symptoms) or radiographic evidence of leptomeningeal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing an autologous or reduced intensity conditioning (RIC) allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to walk 15 minutes at a time (use of a cane is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe able to tolerate topical application of phenylephrine to the oral mucosaXx_NEWLINE_xXOpen or unhealed wounds or ulcers in the oral cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXGeneral exclusion criteria for transplant include:\r\n* Patients who have angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring treatment, or who have had a myocardial infarction within the past year\r\n* Patients who have had any complication that makes the risk of death during transplantation from non-malignant causes greater than the risk of relapse\r\n* Patients who have any active infection; if the infection is successfully treated, the patient may be reconsidered for transplantation at a later date\r\n* Patients with diabetes who are not controlled by medical management will be ineligible\r\n* Psychiatric illness requiring psychiatric counseling or medical intervention other than antidepressant medications may make an individual ineligible and will be considered on a case-by-case basis\r\n* Psychosocial assessment by the bone marrow transplant team may identify individuals for whom this form of therapy may be contraindicated; these decisions will be based upon estimated adequacy of patient support systems and prediction of patient’s compliance with medications, required diagnostic procedures, and/or follow-up care\r\n* Patients who have an ECOG performance status of greater than 2\r\n* Patients who have decreased pulmonary function due to any disorder as demonstrated by a diffusion capacity of less than 50% of predicted, a FEV1 of less than 60% of predicted, or a PO2 of less than 80mmHg on pulmonary function testing\r\n* Patients who have a resting ejection fraction of less than 50%\r\n* Patients who have renal disease as demonstrated by a serum creatinine clearance of greater than 2.0 mg/dL and/or a creatinine clearance of less than 50 mL/min\r\n* Patients who are pregnant or breast feeding at the time of admission for conditioningXx_NEWLINE_xXPEER MENTORSXx_NEWLINE_xXPEER MENTORS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThis study is open to patients of all races and ethnicitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with steroid (or immunosuppressive therapy [IST]) refractory acute GVHD (aGVHD) or chronic GVHD (cGVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be scheduled for tapering doses of (or no longer treated with):\r\n* Cyclosporine;\r\n* Tacrolimus;\r\n* Sirolimus;\r\n* Steroids (patients may be on physiologic doses of steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of medications known to induce a disulfiram-like reaction to alcoholXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented prolymphocytic leukemia (prolymphocytes more than 55% in the blood) or Richter's transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe allergic reaction (e.g., anaphylaxis) after previous dose of any influenza vaccine or to a vaccine component, including egg proteinXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe acute illness with or without feverXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients undergoing planned open pancreaticoduodenectomy (PD) at Johns Hopkins Hospital (except pregnant women, adults lacking capacity to consent, non-English-speakers, and prisoners), irrespective of diagnosis, comorbidities, or administration of neoadjuvant therapy are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of neutralizing antibody activity to recombinant human erythropoietin (rHuEPO) or darbepoetin alfa.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pure red cell aplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXTransferrin saturation < 20% and ferritin < 50 ng/mL as assessed by the central laboratory during screening. Subjects must have both to be excluded (supplementation and retest acceptable).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to receive any RBC transfusion between randomization and study day 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously randomized to this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoner or patient in custodyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient on psychiatric holdXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically unable to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe opinion of the treating physician determines it is not medically safe to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-registration screen of cognition is \severe\ or lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic transfusion-dependent anemia with exposure to at least 5 RBCTXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in reducing transfusion exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation below 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXThalassemia major or sickle cell disease requiring blood transfusionXx_NEWLINE_xXHemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulopathies including disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), receiving anticoagulant or antiplatelet agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) oxygen dependentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of insomnia as identified through the screening Insomnia Severity Index score > 14Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to operate the accelerometer (Actiwatch Spectrum Pro)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInitiation of sleep aids, including over-the-counter or prescription medications taken for insomnia (melatonin, benzodiazepines, antihistamines, etc.) for < 4 weeks prior to enrollment in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSecond or third shift workers or others with non-traditional sleep schedulesXx_NEWLINE_xXOutpatients with MPE undergoing IPC placementXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient mental capacity to answer SF-6D and Borg score questionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing pleurodesis for benign disease (e.g., spontaneous pneumothorax)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChylous effusions associated with malignant diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to placement of an IPC (e.g., uncorrected coagulopathy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of skeletal related events (SRE) within past 3 months\r\n* Excruciating bone pain requiring radiation therapy (RT)\r\n* Cord compression\r\n* Hypercalcemia (serum calcium > 10.5) \r\n* Pathologic fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of Paget’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of epilepsy/seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic insomnia has been defined in previous research:as the presence of (1) three or more episodes of insomnia (i.e., ? 30minuteSOL, ? 60minute wake after sleep onset (WASO), or ? 6.5 hour total sleep time (TST) per night) of per week and (2) daytime effects of insomnia, such as irritability, difficulty concentrating, or fatigue for at least one month.Xx_NEWLINE_xXhave the permission of their oncologists to participate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXuntreated sleep disorders such as sleep apneaXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal cognition and willingness to complete fatigue and quality of life forms at each designated time point along with a patient observation form and pill diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXActive psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute febrile illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of phenylketonuria (PKU)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients using carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide [Diamox], brinzolamide [Azopt], methazolamide [Neptazane], dorzolamide [Trusopt], pomegranate ellagitannins), cimetidine, or topiramateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are enrolled in another symptom management trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with nerve pathology or clinically identified neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any condition that precludes use of the study medication as determined by the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXInformal Caregivers will be accrued using the following inclusion criteria:\r\n* The primary informal caregiver as identified by patients participating in the study; this refers to either a family member or friend who will be providing the majority of care following surgery\r\n* Able to read and understand EnglishXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in the study must be approved by the physician directly responsible for the patient’s care while at University of North Carolina (UNC)-HospitalsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to use a computer to complete study questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiovascular disease (unless the disease would not compromise the patient’s ability to participate in the exercise rehabilitation program)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic respiratory disease that would compromise the patient’s ability to participate in the exercise rehabilitation programXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic bone, joint, or muscular abnormalities that would compromise the patient’s ability to participate in the exercise rehabilitation programXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiologic evidence of at least 1 measurable lytic lesion in the arm, pelvis or legXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of polycythemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXIncomplete recovery or incomplete healing of wounds from previous surgery, as determined by treating InvestigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to sotaterceptXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who have reported fatigue moderate or higher fatigue (based on the 0-10 Fatigue scale, a fatigue score of 5 or higher) while on radiation treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of or current active drug/alcohol dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXNo patients being decisionally impairedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have home access to a computer, or compact disc audio playerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who have reported less than moderate fatigue (based on the 0-10 Fatigue scale, a fatigue score less than 5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of or active drug/alcohol dependence or abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXDecisionally impaired patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo access to a computer, or compact disc audio playerXx_NEWLINE_xXBFI score must meet at least one of the below criteria:\r\n* Total BFI < 50\r\n* Dietary subscale < 11\r\n* Frequency subscale < 19\r\n* Urgency subscale < 12Xx_NEWLINE_xXSphincter-preserving surgery and >= 12 months after restoration of bowel continuityXx_NEWLINE_xXImmune suppressive medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXCongenital spinal defect/paraplegiaXx_NEWLINE_xXRectal prolapseXx_NEWLINE_xXActive anal/rectal abscessXx_NEWLINE_xXPacemaker or other electronic implanted deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of the wire stimulating procedure, patients will be excluded if the surgeon is unable to place the temporary stimulating leadXx_NEWLINE_xXPediatric patients with ALL diagnosis, treated at the University of Minnesota Amplatz\n             Children's Hospital or Children's Hospitals and Clinics of MinnesotaXx_NEWLINE_xXNot smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently not involved in a regular (3 times per week) exercise programXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with a physical or mental impairment which would preclude their ability\n             to perform the intervention.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior diagnosis of lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to ambulate a minimum of 100 feet prior to enrollment in pulmonary rehabXx_NEWLINE_xXInmatesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of erectile dysfunction symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a stable partner for six months who is willing to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment (>= 5 on the Short Portable Mental Status Questionnaire [SPMSQ])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere marital maladjustment that prevents a patient from benefiting from the proposed intervention (< 85 on the Locke-Wallace Marital Adjustment Test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking nitrates of any kindXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving untreated clinical depression and other psychotic mental disorders (e.g., bipolar, schizophrenia) (>= 27 on the Center for Epidemiological Studies Depression Scale [CES-D])Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking concomitant alpha-adrenergic blocking agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of left ventricular outflow obstruction (e.g., aortic stenosis, idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of severely impaired autonomic control of blood pressureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with retinitis pigmentosaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active peptic ulcerationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously experienced non-arteritic ischemic optic neuropathy (NAION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking other phosphodiesterase Type 5 (PDE5) inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking Coumadin, Pradaxa or other blood thinner drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a solitary, polar, clinical T1 renal massXx_NEWLINE_xXNo blood?thinning medications, including anti?inflammatory medications, herbs and supplements for at least 1 week prior to surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a single functioning kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cardiac pacemakers or other implanted electronic devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXUnilateral upper limb secondary lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient or legal representative must agree to blood serum assessment including, complete blood count (CBC) with differential, comprehensive metabolic panel and serum osmolality at every sanctioned evaluation; additionally physician may require cardiac evaluation with echocardiogram, electrocardiogram, brain naturetic peptide or urinalysis if deemed appropriateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with bilateral upper extremity edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with bilateral manipulation of axilla within the last 24 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking concomitant diuretics or dihydropyridine class of calcium channel blockers must be on a stable daily dose for at least 6 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient or family is unable or unwilling to self/home administer subcutaneous experimental drug; study nurse or physician will train individuals on proper administration techniquesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with primary lymphedema; if edema can be explained by systemic or congenital illnesses, that patient will not be eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active thrombophlebitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with malignant lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXNeutrophils less than 1.5 x 10^9/LXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of existing hypercalcemia, hypocalcemia, hypermagnesemia or hypomagnesemia that is not corrected despite supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXAlkaline phosphatase (ALP) > 2 x ULRR, or > 4 x ULRR if judged by the investigator to be related to liver metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXAny psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hypersensitivity to VPA, valproate sodium, disodium valproate, or any ingredient in the respective formulationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or recent pancreatitis (within last 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following interventions on the affected hemithorax: prior IPC, prior chest tube placement, history of chemical or mechanical pleurodesis, history of thoracotomy within 4 weeks and incompletely healed surgical incision before randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of empyema or history of empyema of the affected hemithoraxXx_NEWLINE_xXThe following drugs will not be administered concurrently with VPA: carbapenem antibiotics; clonazepam; topiramate; felbamate; lorazepam; barbiturates; carbamazepine; chlorpromazine; ethosuximide; guanfacine; lamotrigine; methylfolate oxcarbazepine; paliperidone; phenytoin; primidone; protease inhibitors; rifampin; risperidone; rufinamide; salicylates; temozolomide; tricyclic antidepressants; vorinostat; zidovudineXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete the 4 or 6 weeks of acupuncture and follow-up assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical deformities that could interfere with accurate acupuncture point locationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of other alternative medicines such as herbal agents and high dose vitaminsXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade III lymphedema or lymphedema considered severe by the treating clinicianXx_NEWLINE_xXBegan adjuvant therapy with an aromatase inhibitor 12 to 18 months before survey sent out (Benchmark Survey only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHad sexual activity at least once in past 12 months (Randomized Trial Study only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas been in a stable sexual relationship of at least 6 months’ duration (Randomized Trial study only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen using systemic or vaginal estrogen, testosterone, or dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) during the Randomized Trial study will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen using systemic or vaginal estrogen, testosterone, or dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) in the 12 months preceding the Benchmark Survey Study will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo access to the internet in a private locationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must either have grade 4 thrombocytopenia (platelet counts < 25 x 10^9/L) due to chemotherapy unless transfusion within 24-72 hoursXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known thrombophilic risk factors; exception: patients for whom the potential benefits of participating in the study outweigh the potential risks of thromboembolic events, as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of East Asian ancestry (i.e., Chinese, Japanese, Taiwanese, or Korean)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo aspirin (ASA) or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDS]) administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects will include women who are being seen at the Women's Health Center by the Gynecological Oncology group at the University of Minnesota (UMMC). These women will be considered for inclusion based on their projected surgery: exploratory laparotomy. Subjects will have to have their surgery at the UMMC within 1 month of their clinic visit. Patients may be undergoing surgery for either known cancer (ovarian or uterine) or high suspicion for malignancy.Xx_NEWLINE_xX< 19 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXundergoing a procedure other than laparotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXchronic narcotic pain medication usersXx_NEWLINE_xXif they are currently using or planning on using other complementary alternative medicine (CAM) therapies prior to or after surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients who currently use a urinary drainage bag for a period of at least 7 days prior to signing consent for the study and who are expected to use the urinary drainage bag for an additional period of 4 weeks or more based on the diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be without evidence of M0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors adjacent to a vertebral body are eligible as long as all gross disease can be encompassed in the radiation boost field; the boost volume must be limited to < 50% of the ipsilateral lung volumeXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss =< 10% in 3 months prior to diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 3 weeks since formal exploratory thoracotomy and patient has recovered from surgery, or 1 week from diagnostic thoracoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes >= 2,000/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior significant allergic reactions to drugs containing Cremophor, such as cyclosporine, or vitamin K are not eligible; a significant reaction may be defined as, but is not limited to, the description of grade  = 3 allergic reactions using the Common Toxicity Criteria (CTC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReport sleep disturbance of 8 (sum total of all 7 items) or greater on the Insomnia Severity Index\r\n* (Note: this measure will be repeated again at baseline assessment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients can take sleep aids (e.g., hypnotics and sedatives) for insomnia if they use sleep aids as needed; patients taking sleep aids every night are excluded; use of melatonin every night is permitted and these patients are not excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXBe able and willing to wear an Actiwatch for the entire 24 hours of each day they are scheduled to wear itXx_NEWLINE_xXHave sleep problems that began before diagnosis and have not changed since diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a clinical diagnosis of sleep apnea or restless leg syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXTake medication for sleep (e.g., hypnotics and sedatives) every night; melatonin is permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are shift workers are excluded; shift worker is defined as someone who has irregular work and sleep hours (such as working a non-traditional schedule: e.g., 4pm-midnight or 10pm-6am; a rotating schedule e.g., alternating between day and night shifts, or starting work between 4am and 7am)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an implanted device for heart failure (e.g., pacemaker, defibrillator, left ventricular assist device, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xX7+3: Standard-dose cytarabine 100-200 mg per meter squared continuous infusion for 7 days with idarubicin 12 mg per meter squared or daunarubicin 45-90 mg per meter squared for 3 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-dose cytarabine-based (HIDAC) chemotherapy administering a total cytarabine dose of ? 4 g per meter squared alone or in combination with other anti-leukemic agents (for example, anthracyclines, purine nucleoside inhibitors, etoposide, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate respiratory function with a room air oxygen saturation of at least 92%Xx_NEWLINE_xXThose with concurrent diagnosis of organic brain syndrome, dementia, mental retardation, non-English speaking, or significant sensory deficitXx_NEWLINE_xXHave recently diagnosed (within previous 6 months) pathologically confirmed, non-metastatic squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx, hypopharynx, or supraglottic larynx that will be treated with CRT therapy as first line non-surgical treatment. Scans (CT, PET, and/or MRI) obtained within 120 days prior to consent for screening can be used to determine the subject's eligibility.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a plan to receive a standard cisplatin chemotherapy regimen administered weekly (30-40 mg/m2) or approximately every 21 days (80-100 mg/m2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0, 1, or 2. However, potential subjects with an ECOG of 3 may be enrolled provided their condition does not preclude performing the actions required by study participation (e.g., opening medication bottles, swishing the oral rinse and spitting out, completing or participating in completion of daily diaries and FACT-H&N forms).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to be treated with cetuximab (Erbitux®)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas incompletely healed sites of dental extractionsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas known allergies or intolerance to brilacidin, cisplatin or carboplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXEVALUATION PHASEXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderactive (defined as physically active for less than 30 minutes per day fewer than 2 days per week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to a computer at home or public locationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo restrictions or requirements will be placed on raceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients actively enrolled on any other graft versus host disease (GVHD) prevention trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known fructose intoleranceXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may co-enroll on other investigational studies except for investigational studies whose primary aim is the prevention of GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXNo additional restrictions exist regarding co-morbid disease or incurrent illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded from the trial if they have had a history of allergies or intolerance to fructooligosaccharides or the components of FOS including fructose and glucoseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo exclusion is necessary based on the use of other concomitant medications; specifically there is no prohibition of concomitant antibiotic, antiviral or antifungal therapy; subjects may co-enroll on other investigational studies except for investigational studies whose primary aim is the prevention of GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals unable to complete art therapy activities independently due to physical and/or mental impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have dementia or a legal guardianXx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION CRITERIA FOR PATIENTS: Agrees to family member (family member; significant other; friend) participation in study and to selecting the individual who could participateXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-report of moderate or higher pain on average during the last week (> 3 on a 0-10 pain intensity numeric scale)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMentally and physically able to participate and complete surveys over the phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXSpouses and patients must be married or cohabiting and in intimate relationship for at least 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth heterosexual and same sex couples will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSpouses/partners could not participate if the patient refused participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a sun tan in the areaXx_NEWLINE_xXFitzpatrick skin types V, VIXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory Post Acute Care (APC) score between 53 and 66Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXHave working phone to communicate with study teamXx_NEWLINE_xXSufficient auditory acuityXx_NEWLINE_xXIntact cognitive statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient being treated at St. Jude Children's Research HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXPermission from participant's physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is newly diagnosed with LE malignancy as shown by biopsy.; diagnoses include: osteosarcoma, Ewing's sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, synovial sarcoma, malignant peripheral nerve sheath sarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma of the bone and chondrosarcoma of the bone, or any other LE malignancy that requires surgical interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-morbid condition that prevents patient from ambulatingXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-complianceXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrated intra-operative anastomotic leakage when irrigated with 120 mL of normal saline at the end of surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXIntra-operative injuries (for example: rectal injury)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate hemostasisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny prisoner and/or other vulnerable persons as defined by NIH (45 CFR 46, Subpart B, C, and D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOf any ethnicityXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers will be eligible for enrollment if they identify as the person in the patient’s life who is primarily responsible for care decisionsXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers will be eligible for enrollment if they identify as the person emotionally invested in the patient’s careXx_NEWLINE_xXCaregivers will be eligible for enrollment if they identify as the person who provides instrumental care such as transportation for a patient who is receiving HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXDo not have cognitive or psychiatric conditions prohibiting participationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a computer, laptop, smartphone, or tablet with internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXBe considered disease-free at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXHave no contra-indication to moderate to vigorous aerobic exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXBe inactive at baseline (< 150 minutes [min]/week of moderate physical activity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a mobile phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXBe able to navigate websites, fill out forms on the web, communicate by email, and have regular access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with no regular access to the internet or a mobile phone or who are unable to fill out forms on the web or navigate websitesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any condition that contradicts moderate to vigorous exercise; are unable to walk unassisted; or are already meeting the physical activity guidelines of 150 min/week (wk) of moderate physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Aim 2 only: individuals who took part in the focus groupXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline gabapentin useXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic opioid use for over 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXLiving in Maryland, Northern Virginia, or the Washington District of Columbia (D.C.) metropolitan areaXx_NEWLINE_xXThose who are unable to understand KoreanXx_NEWLINE_xXAny current axis I diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of psychotropic medications within the past month or current use of medications that would interfere with autonomic nervous system measuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAre in the terminal stages of illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXHave reliable internet and daily access to computer with audio/speakersXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to travel to the Seattle Cancer Care Alliance (SCCA) or University of Washington (UW) School of Nursing for 2-3 in person assessments over the 12-13 weeks of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic disorders of stroke, encephalitis, dementia, epilepsy, Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-report of learning disabilitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubstance addictionXx_NEWLINE_xXMini mental state exam score less than 19Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious participation in cognitive training programXx_NEWLINE_xXVisual impairments such as uncorrected vision or color blindnessXx_NEWLINE_xXUncorrected hearing impairmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipate moving from the region in the next 4 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to use a mouse or computer keys to navigate around the computer screenXx_NEWLINE_xXExperiencing disrupted sleep (determined by Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be either morning or evening types (determined by Horne-Ostberg Morningness-Eveningness Questionnaire [MEQ])Xx_NEWLINE_xXSighted and mentally competent to consentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients engage in shift work or travel across more than three time zones within three months prior to studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have a current diagnosis of major Axis I psychiatric disorders, neurological impairments, or muscular dystrophiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients regularly use steroid or other immunosuppressive medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients take prescribed sedative hypnotics or sleep medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have eye conditions (glaucoma or retinal disease), problems triggered by bright light (e.g. migraine), or take photosensitizing medications (e.g. some porphyrin drugs, antipsychotics, antiarrhythmic agents) will be excluded for safety of using bright lightXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient participating in another biomedical/oral health interventional research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient deprived of freedom, under supervision or guardianshipXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient unable to attend to scheduled medical monitoring due to geographical, social or mental reasonsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to provide locator information for follow-up contactXx_NEWLINE_xXReliable internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXOwnership of smartphone with following specifications: wireless capability, running on iPhone operating system (iOS) or Android operating system, current software (4.4 Android; 8.0 iOS or later), and, adequate memory to run the AMT program (43 megabyte[M] Android; 30.2M iOS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnfamiliar with mobile phones/tablets, including ability to download and register the Headspace appXx_NEWLINE_xXBecome unable to participate in a fully app and web-based intervention trialXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to complete online questionnairesXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to use personal phone/tablet to test interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must agree to not use any other topical agents on skin in the radiation treatment area during the course of this trial; subjects should only use topical agents for the study (i.e., topical intervention or standard care agents) supplied by the study personnel and/or treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving the short-course fractionation radiation therapy (i.e., 16 sessions or 20 sessions at 2.4 to 2.6 Gy fractions per session, with or without boost)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any active dermatological issues in radiation treatment area (i.e., fungal skin infection, dermatitis, psoriasis plaques, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust report at least one of the following: a. “How tired did you feel in the past week?” at least 4 on a 10 point scale (with 0 = not tired at all and 10 = extremely tired) b. “Did you have trouble sleeping in the past week?” with the answer “yes” c. “What was your average pain in the past week?” at least 4 on a 10 point scale (with 0 = no pain and 10 = extremely severe pain)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas access to and is able to operate a computer with internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXNo diagnosis of sleep apnea or restless leg syndrome that is currently interfering with sleepXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment on the SJLIFE protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXArm circumference between 22-47 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient being treated at St. Jude Children’s Research HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician approval to participate in interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to come to standing from seated position without assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXAdolescent gives assentXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant not planning on remaining at St Jude for at least 4 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairment that prevents participant from answering questions in standardized assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have working telephone, mobile or land lineXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere hearing impairment that limits the ability to use audio-based guided imagery modulesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently participating in a meditation practice for more than 1 hour per week prior to preoperative visitXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a mobile phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXBe able to navigate websites, fill out forms on the web, communicate by email, and have regular access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a distress level of >= 3 on the National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Distress Thermometer (DT); this is required for intervention group participants only to be able to show improvement in mood/quality of life (QOL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn effort will always be made to recruit patient and caregiver pairs, but unpaired patients are also eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Have access to a mobile phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Be able to navigate websites, fill out forms on the web, communicate by email, and have regular access to the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Unpaired caregivers, including former caregivers of patients who are now deceased, are eligible for the focus group onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXDeafness, current meditation practice (> 2 episodes or > 1 hour total, weekly), and current enrollment in a stress reduction programXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a DT level > 7 will be considered on a case-by-case basisXx_NEWLINE_xXAre to undergo laparotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient currently residing in a skilled nursing facilityXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status 4 or 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have cancer-related fatigue, as indicated by a response of 4 or greater when asked to rate their level of fatigue at its worst in the past week on an 11-point scale anchored by “0” = no fatigue and “10” = as bad as you can imagineXx_NEWLINE_xXHave used marine omega-3 supplements at any time within previous 3 months (this includes prescription omega-3 drugs such as Lovaza®)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe taking anticoagulant medication (does not include aspirin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave confirmed diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome or other diagnosis known to cause severe fatigueXx_NEWLINE_xXINFORMAL CAREGIVERS: The primary informal caregiver as identified by patients participating in the study; this refers to either a family member or friend who will be providing the majority of care following surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one pulmonary metastasis ? 3.0 cm in maximum diameter resulting from distant primary cancers or at least one recurrence of primary lung cancer ? 3.0 cm in maximum diameter.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors located < 3 cm of staple lines or other metal objects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to tolerate discontinued use of anti-coagulants prior to and during the ablation procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with implantable pacemakers and other electronic implants, in accordance with Instructions for Use (IFU).Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is undergoing one of the following reconstructive procedures that requires latissimus dorsi muscle harvest: a. post-mastectomy breast reconstruction procedure (either nipple or skin sparing) in which a female subject needs additional muscle coverage over an implant, but does not need additional skin (i.e., patient is a candidate for a pedicled latissimus dorsi muscle flap procedure); b. scalp reconstruction procedure in which the subject needs a free latissimus dorsi muscle flap for wound coverage; c. upper extremity reconstruction procedure in which the subject needs a free latissimus dorsi muscle flap for wound coverage; or, d. lower extremity reconstruction procedure in which the subject needs a free latissimus dorsi muscle flap for wound coverageXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a body mass index (BMI) > 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is diabeticXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has a history of peripheral vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has had prior back or axillary surgeries which could compromise the blood supply of the flapXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who self-identify as Black;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo active suicidality;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo substance dependence within the past year;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable for follow-up over the course of the study;Xx_NEWLINE_xXEndorse moderate stress or distress as measured by a score of 4 or above on the a distress thermometer and an adapted thermometer of stress;Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who do not self-identify as Black;Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive suicidality;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubstance dependence within the past year;Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot available for follow-up over the course of the study;Xx_NEWLINE_xXScore below 4 on a distress thermometer and an adapted thermometer of stress;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with scleroderma or discoid lupusXx_NEWLINE_xXAll diagnoses will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAll conditioning regimens will be eligible (in case of allogeneic HCT, patient could have received myeloablative or non-myeloablative/reduced-intensity conditioning)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may have received more than one HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have a valid mailing address within the United States to receive study materialsXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPERT PANEL:Xx_NEWLINE_xXA convenience sample of 10-15 experts (at least three lymphedema therapists and a varying number of HNC medical, radiation, and surgical oncologists, HNC nurse practitioners, speech and language pathologists, and nursing and informatics scientists) will be recruited to inform development of videos, protocol, and educational manualXx_NEWLINE_xXKnowledgeable in either HNC or lymphedema management or informaticsXx_NEWLINE_xXLYMPHEDEMA THERAPISTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubsequent to the development of the materials, five additional therapists will be recruited to conduct an unbiased test of the therapists’ training video and protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXCertified lymphedema therapistsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnowledgeable in head and neck lymphedema managementXx_NEWLINE_xXA convenience sample of 10-15 HNC survivors (based on data saturation) will be recruited and interviewed about their status/needs for conducting lymphedema self-care; then, an additional 10 HNC survivors will be recruited to undergo a training session with the study therapist and test the patient video and educational manualXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletion of lymphedema therapy for lymphedema of the head and neckXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete the onsite training and home self-care activities for lymphedema managementXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 30 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXBMI < 30 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbstention from meat and other animal productsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must regularly consume a diet with a glycemic load > 150 as estimated through the 3 day food recallXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must readily be available for a 3 month period and agree to participate in regular dietary adherence assessments (surveys and phone interviews)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent participation in an intervention targeting diet or exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXInoperable malignant neoplasm causing biliary obstruction or stricture that requires a fully covered metal stentXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergone or is planning to undergo brachytherapy with transpapillary or percutaneous implantation of intracavitary radiation sourcesXx_NEWLINE_xXEndoscopic procedures are contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent anatomy upstream of intended stent placement compromising the flow of bile from the liver such that stent placement may not alleviate the biliary obstruction symptomsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a metal biliary stentXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an esophageal or duodenal stentXx_NEWLINE_xXJaundice secondary to a cause other than biliary duct obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional endoscopic restrictions as specified in the Clinical Investigation PlanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a new suspected or confirmed gynecologic malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients plan to have primary surgery at either the University of Chicago Hospital or the University of Wisconsin HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a suspected benign gynecologic processXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are prisoners or incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXNo addition or subtraction of other immunosuppressive medications (e.g., calcineurin inhibitors, sirolimus, mycophenolate mofetil) for 4 weeks prior to enrollment; the dose of immunosuppressive medicines may be adjusted based on the therapeutic range of that drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPlasma creatine phosphokinase (CK) < 1.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously been treated with systemic LDE225 or with other Hedgehog (Hh) pathway inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive disease relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequately controlled pain even with the use of morphine (visual analog scale [VAS] score > 5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRescue pain medications are allowed this may include the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) or Tylenol as well as morphine immediate release (IR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with aplastic anemia will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of adjuvant medication such as but not limited to: gabapentin, pregabalin or duloxetine etc.; NOTE: patients on gabapentin or pregabalin can be considered if they can be tapered off before enrolling on the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with rapidly escalating pain that require hospitalization or an intravenous opioid therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic reaction to carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine (major histocompatibility complex, class I, B [HLA-B]*1502)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOpiate-induced uncontrolled constipation or bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigator is able to insert and deploy the Blowfish Catheter into the airway after recanalizationXx_NEWLINE_xXacute kidney injuryXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with neurological, mental or psychiatric disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of pulmonary airway stents and/or ongoing or initiation of local external beam or brachytherapy radiationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny intraoperative complications that per the investigator's judgment increase the risk to the patient.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to receive phone callsXx_NEWLINE_xXDifficulty hearing on the telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXLimited or no access to a touch tone phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive deficitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHospice care at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be free of signs and symptoms of infection at the time of entering the study and, most importantly, will be encouraged to have sufficient donors to administer prophylactic white cell transfusion twice a week for six weeks in order to assess their effectivenessXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to self-administer topical interventions or provide for another person to apply the topical interventionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pre-existing dermatologic condition affecting the face and chest that would impair assessment of papulopustular rash, including dense and/or long facial hair (per investigator discretion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAges 18-65 (women above the age of 65 may be included at principal investigator [PI] discretion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBrief Fatigue Inventory (BFI) score of > 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are actively suicidal or homicidalXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions felt to be clinically contributing to fatigue based on the investigator’s history, physical examination, and assessment: anemia (hemoglobin less than 10 g/dl), hypothyroidism (thyroid stimulating hormone greater than 4.6 MCU/mL), uncontrolled pain, medical problems associated with fatigue: chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, congestive heart failure, renal disease, hepatic dysfunction, autoimmune disease, neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson’s disease, and poorly controlled sleep apneaXx_NEWLINE_xXMedications felt to be clinically contributing to fatigue based on the investigator’s history, physical examination, and assessment; those may include: antidepressants, chronic use of long-acting anxiolytics or neurolepticsXx_NEWLINE_xXBody-mass index less than 18.5 (kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin is allowed but must be trackedXx_NEWLINE_xXOther exclusion criteria include: illicit drug use, shift work, current dieting, excessive regular use of alcohol (more than two 5 ounce glasses of wine or equivalents/day) or a history of binge drinking (more than 7 drinks/24 hour period) within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have massages on a regular basis; regular massage usage will be operationally defined as receiving 4 or more massages/year for the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects currently employing any other complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) manual therapy and/or holistic therapies to treat a perceived health problem; however, since past experience with CAM therapies should not confound any of the analyses of the experiments proposed in this study, we will not exclude individuals who have engaged in a CAM manual therapy in the past, nor will we exclude individuals who practice yoga or meditation for well-being, take vitamins or use nicotineXx_NEWLINE_xXAdults over the age of 65 will generally be excluded from the study; older subjects could be included at the discretion of the PIXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who become pregnant while enrolled will be discontinued from the study and will be instructed to exercise, which is the standard recommendation for cancer-related fatigueXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically-confirmed diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck (SCCHN), defined as SCC of the oral cavity or oropharynx, that will be treated with standard cisplatin and Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy (IMRT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive infectious disease excluding oral candidiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of oral mucositis at study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of hearing impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for concurrent treatment with nitrates or other drugs that may, in the judgment of the treating investigator, create a risk for a precipitous decrease in blood pressureXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with pathologically-proven gynecologic malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to use audio or video media due to auditory or ocular dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are prisoners or incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking vismodegib daily at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject answers item #1 of muscle spasms questionnaire as moderate or severe intensity at time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXMuscle spasms onset after starting vismodegibXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of muscle spasms or active neurologic disease prior to start of vismodegibXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of thyroid medication at the time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of Coumadin or acenocoumarol at time of screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of significant renal disease or hemodialysis which would result in dramatic reductions of systemic levocarnitine levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown deficiency in carnitine (genetic, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to refrain from donation of bodily fluid (blood, platelets, etc.) within 7 months of last vismodegib doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring a chest wall boostXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diabetic neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere concomitant illnessesXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic alcohol abuse (> 6 alcoholic beverages daily)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will undergo complex head and neck surgery in addition to the TORS procedure requiring reconstruction with a free flapXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had any previous head and neck surgery that has affected swallowing, voice or speech or who have had previous radiation to the head or neckXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any confounding medical or neurological conditions that have the potential to affect cognition, speech or swallowing function; i.e. stroke, neurodegenerative disease, neuromuscular movement disorders, head injury, etceteraXx_NEWLINE_xXExcluded patients will be allowed to participate in the trial on an observational basis onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have received a clinical diagnosis of lymphedema for at least 6 months and no more than 5 years; this timeframe allows ample time for any surgically related non-lymphedema swelling to subside by 6 months post-surgery, while a cap of 5 years will capture the broadest range of cases, and has been used as a timeframe in several studies including our pilot studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe affected arm must be > 2 cm larger than the unaffected arm; differences of 2 cm or more between the affected and unaffected arm are considered by experts to be clinically significant; each affected arm will be measured in two areas: upper arm and forearm; the larger of the two measures -upper arm or forearm- will be used for analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXClassified as International Society of Lymphology (ISL) stage II or higher as determined by a Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) certified lymphedema therapist (CLT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent diuretic useXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of primary (congenital) lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXHas an implanted electronically charged medical deviceXx_NEWLINE_xX< 19 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing a procedure other than laparotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic narcotic pain medication userXx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) score of > or = 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that would exclude women from undergoing regional anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXChemotherapy regimen: Doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide. Antiemetic regimen: Aprepitant + palonosetron + dexamethasone on Day 1 and aprepitant + dexamethasone on Days 2 & 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXChemotherapy regimen: Doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide/docetaxel. Antiemetic regimen: Aprepitant + palonosetron + dexamethasone on Day 1 and aprepitant + dexamethasone on Days 2 & 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXChemotherapy regimen: Docetaxel/cyclophosphamide. Antiemetic regimen: Palonosetron on Day 1 + dexamethasone on Days 1, 2, & 3. Note: Fosaprepitant will be allowed in place of aprepitant, and either granisetron or ondansetron, on one or more days, will be allowed in place of palonosetron.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a response of > 3 or greater on a question assessing expected nausea as assessed on a 5-point Likert-scale anchored at one end by 1 = \I am certain I WILL NOT have this,\ and at the other end by 5 = \I am certain I WILL have this.\Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently underactive (< 60 minutes of moderate intensity exercise per week in the last month) (confirmed by self-report on the Health History Questionnaire)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive difficulties that preclude answering the survey questions, participating in the exercise classes or performance tests, or providing informed consent (confirmed by the professional opinion of the Principal Investigator, Dr. Kerri Winters-Stone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have internet and email access; note that survivors otherwise eligible, but excluded from full study participation because of this exclusion, will be asked to fill out a mailed copy of the baseline assessment for use in secondary aims analyses; they will be sent an information form and a copy of the tailored ‘My Health Action Plan’ health care guideline for transplant survivors also provided to randomized participantsXx_NEWLINE_xXEnglish insufficient to complete baseline patient-reported outcomes (PRO) assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXScores 20 or above on the patient health questionnaire (PHQ)-8 depression measure (indicating severe depression); these participants will be contacted by a study psychologist to evaluate and provide resources to address their needs (2% of enrollees in our previous study); they will be ineligible for randomization, but will have intervention site access if they complete baseline PRO assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXResiding in an institution or other living situation where health care decisions are not made by the participant (e.g., hospitalized, prisoners, living in a rehabilitation facility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not complete baseline PRO assessment items required to determine stratification or whether the survivor meets inclusion and exclusion criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXHas medical or health issues prohibiting computer use (e.g., vision-impaired, cognitively impaired, illness or accident impairing computer function)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProphylaxis for patients at risk of CMV, adenovirus, EBV, BK virus, or HHV6 infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXTreatment of reactivation or infection which is defined for each virus as below:\r\n* CMV: CMV antigenemia is monitored at least weekly post transplant; reactivation is defined at CMV antigenemia with < 10 leucocytes positive or elevated polymerase chain reaction (PCR); if any patient develops CMV antigenemia with > 10 leukocytes positive or clinical evidence of CMV infection (defined as the demonstration of CMV by biopsy specimen from visceral sites [by culture or histology]) either pre or after CTL infusions, standard treatment with ganciclovir, and/or foscarnet and immunoglobulins will be initiated; patients may receive CTLs alone for antigenemia or elevated PCR without visceral infection\r\n* Adenovirus: Adenovirus infection will be defined as the presence of adenoviral positivity as detected by PCR or culture from ONE site such as stool or blood or urine or nasopharynx; adenovirus disease will be defined as the presence of adenoviral positivity as detected by culture from more than two sites such as stool or blood or urine or nasopharynx; in patients who meet the criteria for disease cidofovir may be added unless the subject could not tolerate this agent due to nephrotoxicity; patients may receive CTLs alone for elevated PCR in blood or stool\r\n* EBV: EBV-lymphoproliferative disease (LPD) is defined according to recent guidelines as proven EBV-LPD defined by biopsy or probable EBV-LPD defined as an elevated EBV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) level associated with clinical symptoms (adenopathy or fever or masses on imaging) but without biopsy confirmation; patients with EBV DNA reactivation only may receive CTLs on study; patients with proven or probable EBV-LPD should also receive Rituxan\r\n* BK virus: Patients post transplant may develop asymptomatic BK virus (BKV) viruria or viremia; BK reactivation will be defined as detection of elevated BK levels by PCR in blood or urine while disease will be defined as detection in multiple sites or in one site with symptoms; cidofovir has been administered intravenously in a low dose (i.e. up to 1 mg/kg 3 times weekly, without probenecid) or a high dose (ie, 5 mg/kg per week with probenecid) to HSCT patients with BK infections but no randomized trials are available proving its clinical efficacy; in patients who meet the criteria for disease cidofovir may be added unless the subject could not tolerate this agent due to nephrotoxicity\r\n* HHV6: HHV6 reactivation will be defined as detection of elevated HHV6 levels by PCR in blood while disease will be defined as detection in multiple sites or in one site with symptoms; ganciclovir, cidofovir, and foscarnet have variable in vitro activity against HHV-6, and may have a role in treating HHV-6-associated disease – hence one or more of these agents will be added in patients with diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable multivirus-specific CTLsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active acute graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) grades II-IVXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloablative preparative regimen (i.e., >= TBI 12.0 Gy, >= busulfan (BU) 8.0 mg/kg PO, >= BU 6.4 mg/kg intravenously (IV), >= treosulfan 42 g/m^2 IV) according to investigational study or standard treatment plan; other \myeloablative\ preparative regimens are acceptable as long as they are approved by the principal investigator or designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXCyclosporine (CSP)-based postgrafting immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXNonmyeloablative preparative regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in an investigational study that has acute GVHD as the primary endpointXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients transplanted with hematopoietic stem cells from any sourceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute GVHD grades II-IV developing despite GVHD prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with manifestations of classic chronic GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe organ dysfunction\r\n* On dialysis\r\n* Requiring oxygen (O2) at more than 2 l/min\r\n* Uncontrolled arrhythmia or heart failure\r\n* Veno-occlusive disease (sinusoidal obstruction syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is enrolled on Total XVIXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant has symptoms of NP/PN with onset within 7 days after one of the following vincristine doses +/- 3 days: protocol week 1 or week 2 (induction), week 7 (reinduction I), or week 17 (reinduction II)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is receiving gabapentin for another indication at the time of diagnosis of NP/PN or has received gabapentin previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent analgesic therapies have failed OR the subject is experiencing intolerable side effectsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnremitting pain that resulted in a return visit to the oncologist. The 'worst pain' in the last 24 hours must be reported to be 4 or above on a scale of 0 (no pain) to 10 (pain as bad as subject can imagine) despite pharmaceutical pain managementXx_NEWLINE_xXTumors must be suitable for cryoablationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent participation in other experimental studies that could affect the primary endpointXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is willing to consent to randomization to the intraperitoneal drain vs. no drain groupXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is not willing to consent to randomization to the intraperitoneal drain vs. no drain groupXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no fever or evidence of infection or other coexisting medical condition that would preclude epidural placementXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic pain, long-term narcotic use or being considered for chronic pain consultation postoperativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXAnaphylaxis to local anesthetics or narcoticsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious or current neurologic disease affecting the lower hemithorax or belowXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient refusal to participate in randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing immediate tissue expander reconstruction following mastectomy by any of the surgeon co-investigators are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing skin-sparing mastectomy utilizing bioprosthetic mesh are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who intend to remain under the MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC) surgeon's care until completion of the reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot be effectively reconstructed without the use of bioprosthetic meshXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are current smokersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring additional intra-operative skin resections of greater than 1 cm beyond the skin edge as a result of mastectomy flap devascularizationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of hemolysis and/or methemoglobinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of allopurinol within 72 hours of the study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are taking drugs known to interact with posaconazole and that may lead to life-threatening side effects (terfenadine, cisapride, and ebastine at entry or within 24 hours before entry, or astemizole at entry or within 10 days before entry)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are taking drugs known to lower the serum concentration/efficacy of posaconazole: cimetidine, rifampin, carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifabutin, barbiturates, and isoniazid at entry or within 24 hours before entryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with renal insufficiency (estimated creatinine clearance less than 20 mL/minute at baseline or likely to require dialysis during the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTolerate sitting in a rocking or nonrocking chairXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to ambulateXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive epidural or intravenous patient controlled analgesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitively intactXx_NEWLINE_xXMay include patients undergoing ileostomy or colostomy reversalXx_NEWLINE_xXAll others will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate visual accuracy allowing eye testingXx_NEWLINE_xXBone Mineral Density (BMD) requirements: Osteopenia if under 70 years of age; Osteopenia or normal BMD if over 70 years of ageXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious surgery for cataracts in both eyes, current diagnosis of cataracts, cataracts surgery foreseen in the near future, or ocular disease leading to visual lossXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of osteoporosisXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be in general good healthXx_NEWLINE_xXFitzpatrick skin type I-VIXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to list all current medications and medical conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking ketoconazole, colestipol, cholestyramine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, or mineral oilXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently consuming 800 IU or more of vitamin D a dayXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have a body mass index (BMI) over 40Xx_NEWLINE_xXWill be treated according to the Armstrong methodXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing minimally invasive radical-prostatectomy (including robotic and laparoscopic) at Washington University in Saint Louis (WUSTL)/Siteman Cancer Center (SCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a known urethral stricture, colostomy, or inability to urinate requiring chronic urinary catheter; only men who are cleared by their physician to safely participate in a physical exercise program (including walking and lifting weights) will be eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary or secondary myelofibrosis intermediate or high risk by Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System 26 (DIPSS26) in chronic or accelerated phaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAll ABO blood group combinations of the donor/recipient are acceptable since even major ABO compatibilities can be dealt with by various techniques (red cell exchange or plasma exchange)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with mesothelioma or other pathologies undergoing a pleurectomy decortication at MD Anderson Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who may have insufficient renal capacity for clearance of Progel® polyethylene glycol loadXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to participate occasionally in mildly strenuous physical effortXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to be accompanied by their spouse or significant other partner/friend (spouse, significant other, partner, or friend)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be right handedXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERS ONLY: Must be primary caregiver of the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERS ONLY: Able to attend the last two days of the retreat with patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious or existing pathology of the external or middle ear which would preclude auditory testing and/or intratympanic dexamethasone deliveryXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious or existing pathology of the inner ear with or without hearing loss (i.e. sudden sensorineural hearing loss, Meniere’s disease, autoimmune inner ear disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient unsuitable for or refusing radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior open or laparoscopic/robotic bladder or prostate surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 40Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic steroid useXx_NEWLINE_xXN0Xx_NEWLINE_xXM0Xx_NEWLINE_xXAmerican Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) < 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has moderate or severe overlap chronic (c)GVHD according to National Institutes of Health (NIH) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject meets the following medication restriction requirements and agrees to follow medication restrictions during the study; the following concomitant medications are not allowed: cyclophosphamide, abatacept, etanercept, adalimumab infliximab, golimumab, tofacitinib, and alemtuzumab; these medications also cannot have been used for 5 half-lives prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has bronchiolitis obliterans, bronchiolitis obliterans with organizing pneumonia or cryptogenic organizing pneumonia as the sole manifestation of cGVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of malignancy within 6 months of study enrollment; this is defined as clear morphologic, radiologic or molecular evidence of disease; mixed chimerism is allowed at the discretion of the clinicianXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to human, humanized or murine monoclonal antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown uncontrolled cytomegalovirus (CMV) polymerase chain reaction (PCR) reactivation per institutional standards; once CMV has been treated and stable per institutional standards, patient may be enrolled; CMV PCR will be tested within two weeks prior to starting study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical deformities that could interfere with accurate acupuncture point locationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of other alternative medicines such as herbal agents and high dose vitamins and mineralsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently pregnant (certain acupuncture applications have been reported to stimulate uterine contractions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned or actual changes in type of medications that could affect symptoms related to peripheral neuropathy (PN); new medications for the treatment of chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN) are not allowed during the study; Note: subjects need to be on stable doses of CIPN medications for 4 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXGrade III lymphedema or lymphedema considered severe by the treating clinicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to engage safely in moderate exercise as determined by their treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXNot previously engaged in regular exercise training (> 1-2 days/week [d/wk] for > 30 minutes/day [min/d]) in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that causes severe pain with exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute or chronic bone/joint/muscular abnormalities compromising their ability to exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurological conditions that affect balance and, or muscle strengthXx_NEWLINE_xXThree umbilical cord blood (UCB) units composing the graft will be selected according to the current University of Minnesota umbilical cord blood graft selection algorithmXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute Leukemias: Must be in remission by morphology (< 5% blasts); Note cytogenetic relapse or persistent disease without morphologic relapse is acceptable; also a small percentage of blasts that is equivocal between marrow regeneration versus early relapse are acceptable provided there are no associated cytogenetic markers consistent with relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias in 2nd or subsequent CRXx_NEWLINE_xXNatural Killer Cell MalignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome: any subtype including refractory anemia (RA) if severe pancytopenia or complex cytogenetics; blasts must be less than 5%; if 5% or more requires induction therapy pre-transplant to reduce blast count to =< 5%Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll cancer patients > 18 years of any ethnicity who have been treated with intravenous zoledronate (zoledronic acid) for >=1 year durationXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of BRONJ subsequent to oral surgery as established by standard clinical protocol per American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons (AAOMS) diagnostic criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to have photographs taken to document lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXConsent for sample collection for urine, hematology, histopathology and microbial profilingXx_NEWLINE_xXNo signs or symptoms of BRONJXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide consent for sample collection for blood, urine and salivaXx_NEWLINE_xXSalivary gland hypofunction regardless of underlying pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive, language or hearing problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in another research project that might interfere with completion of this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who actively decline participation or who are judged to be in distress before the interviewXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic proof of squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity, oropharynx, nasopharynx, hypopharynx, or larynxXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one third of the oral cavity mucosa must be included in the RT fields, as estimated by the treating radiation oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to abstain from ingestion of yogurt products and/or any product containing probiotics during study drug treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has not yet started current course of RTXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent untreated oral candidiasis, oral herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection, or oral mucositisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior head and neck RTXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to high speed internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 only: be currently sedentary (i.e., engage in < or = 60 minutes of purposeful moderate-intensity PA/week)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 only: be overweight or obese (i.e., have a body mass index [BMI] > or = 25 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWatch less than 3 hours of television per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXBe currently enrolled in another intervention study or recently completed a study promoting healthy lifestyle behaviors (diet and/or exercise)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXWill receive concurrent administration of chemotherapy (fluorouracil [5-FU], capecitabine, cisplatin, oxaliplatin, carboplatin, and/or mitomycin C) during pelvic RTXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to abstain from ingestion of yogurt products and/or any product containing probiotics during study drug treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior pelvic RTXx_NEWLINE_xXProton RTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastrointestinal or genitourinary obstruction or porphyriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of hot flashes for >=1 month prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPossession of a CD/DVD player or ability to play a CDXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following current (=< last 4 weeks) or planned therapies: antineoplastic chemotherapy, androgens, estrogens, progestational agents, other herbal supplements, including soy (herbal teas from a store are allowed), or Warfarin (1 mg of daily warfarin is allowed for central line patency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTamoxifen, raloxifene, or aromatase inhibitors are allowed, but the patient must have been on a constant dose for >= 4 weeks and ust not be expected to stop the medication during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic or other adverse reaction to venlafaxine or SSRI’sXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of venlafaxine or hypnosis in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of/problems with chronic diarrhea or history of bowel obstruction or esophageal strictureXx_NEWLINE_xXBothersome hot flashes (defined by their occurrence >= 28 times per week [about 4 per day]) and of sufficient severity to make the patient desire therapeutic interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had local genotyping are eligible, regardless of the local resultXx_NEWLINE_xXCompletely resected NSCLC with negative margins (R0); cancers with a histology of “adenosquamous” are considered a type of adenocarcinoma and thus a “nonsquamous” histology; patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible only if the registering site has EA5142 IRB approvedXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic stage IIIA, IIA or IIB, or large IB (defined as size >= 4cm); Note: IB tumors < 4cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4cmXx_NEWLINE_xXGENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Agent specific limitations on prior therapy will be included with specific treatment subprotocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be scheduled for, or have intent to schedule, a screening mammogramXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to tolerate digital breast tomosynthesis and full-field digital mammographic imaging required by protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have had a screening mammogram within the last 11 months prior to date of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXTo be eligible for inclusion in the annual screening regimen one of the following three conditions must be met in addition to the eligibility criteria above:\r\n* Patients are pre-menopausal; OR\r\n* Post-menopausal aged 45-69 with any of the following three risks factors:\r\n** Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or\r\n** Family history of breast cancer (first degree relative with breast cancer), or, participant positive genetic testing for any deleterious genes that indicate an increased risk for breast cancer, or\r\n** Currently on hormone therapy; OR\r\n* Post-menopausal ages 70-74 with either of the following two risk factors:\r\n** Dense breasts (BIRADS density categories c-heterogeneously dense or d-extremely dense), or\r\n** Currently on hormone therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor those women who cannot be assigned to annual or biennial screening at the time of study entry and randomization because they are postmenopausal, have no family history or known deleterious breast cancer mutation, are not on hormone therapy AND for whom a prior mammogram interpretation is not available, breast density will be determined by the radiologist’s recording of it at the time of interpretation of the first study screening examination, either DM or TM; for those who are randomized to TM, radiologists will assign BI-RADS density through review of the DM or synthetic 2D portion of the TM examination; such women cannot be part of the planned stratification by screening frequency and are expected to represent far less than 1% of the Tomosynthesis Mammographic Imaging Screening Trial (TMIST) populationXx_NEWLINE_xXBreast density will be determined by prior mammography reports, when available, or by radiologist review of prior imaging; all other risk factors used to determine patient eligibility for annual or biennial screening will be determined by subject self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are cognitively impaired are eligible for the study and consent for participation must be given by a legal authorized representative or parent; pregnant women are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAll consecutive subjects undergoing routine (standard of care) Lugol’s chromoendoscopic evaluation for suspected or known squamous cell neoplasia will be enrolled as well as any outgoing subjects referred to the clinic with any prior history of squamous cell dysplasia and/or neoplasia will also be considered eligible as they will serve as study population for the surveillance groupXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown advanced squamous cell carcinoma of the distal esophagus, or dysplastic/suspected malignant esophageal lesion ? 2 cm in size not amenable to endoscopic therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an interval from their chest RT to the time of enrollment of at least 8 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a smartphoneXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to have about 40 mL of blood (approximately 3 tablespoons) drawnXx_NEWLINE_xXReceives screening breast MRIs at an outside facility other than the consenting institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a healthcare provider and be willing to share genetic results with that providerXx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one ovaryXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a valid United States mailing address for receipt of saliva kitXx_NEWLINE_xXHave one blood relative with a mutation in BRCA1, BRCA2, BRIP1, PALB2, RAD51C, RAD51D, BARD1, MSH2, MSH6, MLH1, or PMS2Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to access the internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are undergoing colonoscopy for screening or surveillance purposesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a prior history of colonic surgeriesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with poor bowel preparationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll consecutive outpatients with > 1 cm biopsy-proven Barrett’s esophagus who are undergoing standard of care endoscopic surveillance for metaplasia, dysplasia, or neoplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown advanced adenocarcinoma of the distal esophagus, or dysplastic/suspected malignant esophageal lesion greater than 2 cm in size not amenable to EMRXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to undergo routine endoscopy with biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known, untreated esophageal strictures, prior partial esophageal resection, or altered anatomy preventing passage of the endomicroscopeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known severe esophagitisXx_NEWLINE_xXCESM is an imaging exam that uses radiation and is not typically employed in women younger than age 30 due to potentially negative biologic effects on glandular breast tissue.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= 65 years without underlying renal insufficiency get GFR tested within 6 months of the exam.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients < 65 years without underlying renal insufficiency do not require an GFR calculation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients >= 65 years with known underlying renal insufficiency get GFR tested within 1 month of the exam.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients < 65 years with known renal insufficiency get GFR tested within 1 month of the exam.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with the following underlying medical conditions: multiple myeloma, myasthenia gravis, dysproteinemias, severe cardiac disease, aortic stenosis, primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac arrhythmia, or severe cardiomyopathy. These underlying medical conditions may make the participant more likely to develop a contrast reaction. This is based on the American College of Radiology (ACR) contrast manual version 10.3 and hospital policy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because CESM uses radiation with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. This will be defined by a urine pregnancy test prior to the CESM study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXINCLUSION - PATIENT: Group 2 will consist of women who presented for a screening mammogram (2D or 3D tomosynthesis) AND who have had a biopsy recommended after diagnostic workup:\r\n* Initial presentation for routine breast cancer screening with mammogram (2D or 3D tomosynthesis) and/or ultrasound and\r\n* Biopsy recommended after subsequent diagnostic workup (breast imaging reporting and data system [BI-RADS] 4 or 5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION - PATIENT: Unable to tolerate exam (i.e., secondary to untreatable claustrophobia, positioning constraints/unable to lie prone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEXCLUSION - PATIENT: Breast implants (silicone or saline)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXCESM studies will include at least four low energy and four recombined images (left craniocaudal [LCC], left mediolateral oblique view [LMLO], right craniocaudal [RCC], right mediolateral oblique [RMLO])Xx_NEWLINE_xXMRI exams will include at least fluid sensitive sequence, multi-phase T1-weighted imagesXx_NEWLINE_xXImaging sets with implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXImaging sets in which a biopsy was recommended, but biopsy was not performed and 2-year imaging follow-up is not availableXx_NEWLINE_xXRural Appalachian residentXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXNo cognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHas not had one of the following CRC tests:\r\n* Fecal occult blood test within the past year\r\n* Flexible sigmoidoscopy within the past five years or\r\n* Colonoscopy within the past ten yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXElect to undergo transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)-guided prostate biopsy as part of routine clinical careXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable nodule in both lobes of the prostate or evidence of extra-prostatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior surgery for benign prostatic hyperplasia (e.g. transurethral resection of the prostate [TURP] or tissue ablation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of finasteride or dutasteride use in the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPediatric patients, as pediatric cirrhosis is uncommonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with underlying dementia (or on medications to treat Alzheimer’s disease such as donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine, tacrine, or memantine), encephalopathy, or other neurological disorder known to adversely affect cognition (such as epilepsy or prior stroke) are excluded; (patients with depression or anxiety are not excluded)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded from functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) testing if they are left-handed, claustrophobic, have a pacemaker, or have metal implants; patients not fMRI testing may still enroll in clinical trial, including the event related potentials (ERP) testing, if all other eligibility criteria are metXx_NEWLINE_xXNot up­-to-­date with screening (up to date with screening will be defined by Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set [HEDIS] and Uniform Data System [UDS] criteria, which require presence of guaiac fecal occult blood test [gFOBT]/fecal occult blood test [FIT] in the last year, sigmoidoscopy in the last 5 years, or colonoscopy in the last 10 years)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInsured by MediCal, Medicare, or private health insuranceXx_NEWLINE_xXUninsuredXx_NEWLINE_xXHIV positive individuals seeking dental care at Bering Omega/Houston Area Community ServicesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient's current participation in a tobacco cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients declining oral biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXBe non-adherent to one or more recommended screenings for BC, CC, or CRC by Medical Record Review (MRR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReside in one of 32 rural counties in Indiana (IN) or Ohio (OH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a DVD player or computer that can play DVDsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to move outside of the country within the next yearXx_NEWLINE_xXReside in a nursing home or other institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects are scheduled for colposcopy clinic based on screening with abnormal pap smear or have repeat colposcopy indicated for specific clinical indications, based off of the most recent American Society of Colposcopy and Cytology guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who report no history of Pap screening within the last four yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who report no history of co-testing (Pap and HPV) within the last five yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXUninsured or on public Medicaid insuranceXx_NEWLINE_xXWithout hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXWith income at or below 250% of the poverty lineXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are not eligible as the self-collection device is not recommended for use in this groupXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who self-report having received a hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with heterogeneously dense or extremely dense parenchyma by prior digital mammography report (i.e., \dense breasts\), presenting for routine annual mammography with digital breast tomosynthesisXx_NEWLINE_xXFor women who have not had any prior mammography (i.e. this is their first, baseline, mammogram), the breast tissue must be dense (heterogeneously dense or extremely dense) on the current mammogramXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown to be at high risk for breast cancer due to known or suspected pathologic BRCA mutation (i.e. first-degree relative with known mutation) or prior chest radiation therapy before age 30Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior mammogram (if any) more than 3 years agoXx_NEWLINE_xXSigns or symptoms of breast disease including lump, bloody or spontaneous clear nipple discharge, eczema of the nippleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious diagnosis of Barrett’s esophagus, confirmed by pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with any level of dysplasia on previous esophageal biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophageal ulcerationsXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophageal candidaXx_NEWLINE_xXEsophageal varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active esophagitisXx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic women presenting to the imaging center for a screening mammogramXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who previously participated in this study and are returning to the Women’s Imaging Center for follow-up diagnostic testsXx_NEWLINE_xXBMRI indication: high risk screening per American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo requirement for sedationXx_NEWLINE_xXBRCA 1 or 2 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen scheduled for screening CEDM aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any clinical breast symptoms (palpable mass, nipple discharge, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindication to the intravenous use of iodinated contrast agent (i.e. allergy to iodinated contrast or severely impaired renal function with a creatinine level >= 1.3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also have a treatment plan that includes liver function assessment with indocyanine green (IC-GREEN)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant will not or cannot provide medical records of past/present clinical exams (including but not limited to palpation, mammograms, biopsies, and ultrasound) if neededXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant will not sign “Waiver of Diagnosis” formXx_NEWLINE_xXINHALATION: Patient has known respiration problems (i.e., emphysema)Xx_NEWLINE_xXINHALATION: Are a smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXDEFINITION OF RISK COHORT FOR CONSIDERATION OF RPFNAXx_NEWLINE_xXShould generally be between the ages of 30 and 55; can be older or younger than this range depending on family history, genetic mutation status, or other factors; or as specified by separate protocols for approved intervention trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a known high penetrance mutation associated with hereditary breast or ovarian cancer (including BRCA1, BRCA2, p53, PTRN, ATM, PALB2, mutations associated with the Lynch Syndrome, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a 5 year Gail risk of >= 1.67% or 2x risk for age as given in model, or 10 year Tyrer-Cuzick risk 2x population risk as listed in modelXx_NEWLINE_xXObesity (body mass index [BMI] >= 30 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be more than six months from ingestion of antihormonal therapy (tamoxifen, raloxifene, other selective estrogen receptor modulators [SERMs], aromatase inhibitors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf undergoing regular screening, subject must have a mammogram performed at the University of Kansas Medical Center or other accredited facility within 1 year prior to their RPFNA procedure; mammograms must be read as not suspicious for breast cancer (American College of Radiology [ACR] class I-III) unless issue resolved with other proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to discontinue aspirin, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), or supplements such as fish oil 3 weeks prior to the procedure (to decrease soft tissue bleeding)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to have about 40 cc of blood (approximately 8 tablespoons) drawn at each aspiration visitXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to have height and weight recorded at each aspiration visitXx_NEWLINE_xXIf applicable, must be willing to collect a urine specimen and bring to the clinic; depending on specific planned uses, this may be a 24-hour collection, a 12-hour fasting collection, or a first morning collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXIf applicable, must be willing to collect a stool specimen and bring to the clinic; special collection kits will be providedXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen on Coumadin, Xarelto, or other anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk population: African American men are at higher risk for prostate cancer compared to that of Caucasian men; this study is targeting the local community which is predominantly African American and thus considered high risk; since this study is being done in the context of a larger community outreach effort, other races and ethnicities will not be excluded, however the majority of the participants will be African AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXMen over the age of 18 will be asked to participate in the educational component of the program; men over the age of 40 will be offered the screening component after the educational portion of the event; participants over age of 40 will have the opportunity to make an informed decision in regards to prostate cancer screening based on this information and the educational material; American Cancer Society (ACS) guidelines recommend having a discussion about screening in men who have a expected mortality of greater than 10 years; data on comorbidities and 10-year mortalities will be collected on every participant using the University of California at San Francisco (UCSF) mortality indexXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening component: men over age 40Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: Self-identify as Hispanic/LatinoXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: Prefer to receive health information in SpanishXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I: Previously screened or not screenedXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Self-identify as Hispanic/LatinoXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Prefer to receive health information in SpanishXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II: Only patients who are not up-to-date with screening and are attending regularly scheduled clinic visits will participateXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Arm 1 patients, participation in this study, in the opinion of the treating physicians, will not introduce delays in surgery that would adversely affect the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to take oral medication without crushing, dissolving or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious reactions to iodinated contrast mediaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has been recommended to undergo and plans to have a prostate biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo EUS with possible fine needle aspiration (FNA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo radiographic evaluation if screening findings are abnormalXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior partial or total gastrectomy with Billroth II or Roux-en-Y anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatents must be scheduled for routine screening DBTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s breast density must be known; patients must have mammographically dense breasts, American College of Radiology (ACR) Breast Imaging (BI)- Reporting and Data System Atlas (RADS) lexicon categories c or d (heterogeneous or extreme fibroglandular tissue) on their most-recent prior screeningXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of (1) medications/supplements to control blood pressure (e.g. beta-blockers, nitrates, calcium channel blockers, phosphodiesterase-5 [PGE5] inhibitors) or (2) the use of statins for cholesterol;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing neuropathy, neuropathic pain, or nerve injury;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPain or significant arthritis in the toes of either foot;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent skin disease or fungal infection of the feet;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant damage or deformity to the feet that would alter blood flow or make it impossible to measure/interpret findings;Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of tobacco/tobacco-containing products;Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of restless leg syndrome or other movement disorders that would prevent accurate data from being able to be collected.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdults with access to the Internet or ability to travel to Washington University to participate in person; despite a recruitment focus in St. Louis, residency is not required for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-TEST: Adults who can meet with Research Staff at Washington University in St. Louis in-person to complete study requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdherent to CRCS guidelines defined as a home-based fecal occult blood test (FOBT) in the past year, a sigmoidoscopy (SIG) in the past 5 years, or a colonoscopy (COL) in the past 10 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPRELIMINARY TEST: Ages 18-65Xx_NEWLINE_xXPRELIMINARY TEST: No history of hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo Pap test in the last 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXResident of an Ohio Appalachia countyXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals that fall within the age range for CRC screening surveillance from AHPXx_NEWLINE_xXAre eligible for CRC screening surveillance from AHPXx_NEWLINE_xXWas seen in the last 18 months a provider at one of the primary medical care clinics from the University of: General Internal Medicine (Lowry, Anschutz), Family Medicine (Westminster, Stapleton, Park Meadows, Boulder), or the Women's Integrated Services in Health (WISH) Clinic, and the individual’s primary medical care provider has provided approval for AHP CRC outreach to an AHP staff person, and have no record of a colonoscopy within the last 10 years, flexible sigmoidoscopy or double-contrast barium enema within the past 5 years, or fecal occult blood test (FOBT) within the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals that have limited cognitive function/developmental disabilitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals that have a personal or family history of CRC (previous adenomatous polyp), and/or, have a signs and symptoms colonoscopy order from their primary care physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAre not eligible for CRC screening surveillance from AHPXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a terminal medical illness that would otherwise categorize them as inappropriate candidates for CRC screening; these are: the individual must have any of the following noted in their EPIC electronic medical records (EMR): personal history of CRC, colectomy, colostomy, or ileostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently prescribed plavix (clopidogrel)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOn chronic oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXHave cardiomyopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently weighs > 350 poundsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave cystic fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAre insured by the Colorado indigent care program (CICP) or Medicaid-Old age pension, American Association of Retired Persons (AARP) Medicare/Secure Horizons (except private fee-for-service [PFFS]), Denver Health Managed Medicaid, Evercare; Kaiser (not the prescriber of origin), Medicare Complete, New Medicaid, New CICPXx_NEWLINE_xXHaitian, Hispanic, or African AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXReport not having had a pap smear in the last three yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXLive in the cities of Miami/Little Haiti, Hialeah or unincorporated southern Miami-DadeXx_NEWLINE_xXReport having had a hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to move outside of Miami-Dade county during the next six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not yet adults (infants, children, teenagers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any clinical symptoms (palpable mass, nipple discharge, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHealth care centersXx_NEWLINE_xXHealth care centers serving low-income, Medicaid, and uninsured patients in Missouri and IllinoisXx_NEWLINE_xXCommunity physicians, colorectal cancer survivors, family advocates, researchers, and representatives of community-based organizationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients seen at the health care center (HC) in the preceding 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a recent telephone number in their HC recordsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have no plans to move out of the region in the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any co-morbidities that should exclude samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients determined to be at risk for esophageal cancer:\r\n* Subjects with a history of Barrett’s esophagus\r\n* Subjects with a history of low or high grade dysplasia\r\n* Subjects with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)\r\n* Subjects with a history of esophagitis\r\n* Subjects with symptoms of esophageal cancer (EC) referred for endoscopy (new onset dysphagia, weight loss, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe, symptomatic dysphagia (unable to pass solids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a previous esophagectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with esophageal varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXMales or females, aged between 50 and 75.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious medical history of, or suspected hypersensitivity to, the PEG based bowel cleansing preparation and/or bowel cleansing formulations' ingredients.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProviders at selected primary care practices in the Cleveland Clinic Health SystemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are scheduled for a routine appointment with participating providers, who would utilize a guide to aid in decision making for prostate cancer screening, specifically men ages 40-69Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are undergoing clinically indicated EGDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have no known coagulopathy and no known history of esophageal varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are not smokersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are not undergoing clinically indicated EGDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have known coagulopathies or history of esophageal varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are smokersXx_NEWLINE_xXAcknowledge sex with men in lifetimeXx_NEWLINE_xXReside in Harris County, TexasXx_NEWLINE_xXHave not had a clinician-provided digital rectal exam in the prior 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMen with current anal disease diagnosed by a doctor (e.g., condyloma, hemorrhoids, fissures or malignant tumors) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXBe self-identified as Latino/HispanicXx_NEWLINE_xXReferral from a primary care physician for colonoscopy (either diagnostic or screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave telephone serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should, in the estimate of the treating physicians, be anticipated to have a median survival of > 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnoses excluded include: glioblastoma multiforme, gliosarcoma, diffuse pontine glioma, or other tumors presumed to have expected median survival per the investigators of less than 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients aged 50-74 with no evidence of a colonoscopy within 9 years or fecal testing within 11 months, and no history of colorectal disease will be eligible to receive a mailed FIT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHospice/Nursing HomeXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who have a contraindication to the intravenous use of iodinated contrast agent (i.e., allergy to iodinated contrast or severely impaired renal function with a creatinine level >= 1.3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with pacemakersXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had hysterectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived treatment of cervical dysplasia with LEEP, cone biopsy, laser procedure or cryotherapy within THREE yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived colposcopy of cervix within TWO yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived Pap test within ONE yearXx_NEWLINE_xXDecisionally impaired adults requiring a legally authorized representativeXx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 0: REGISTRATION (Optional)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a primary colon or rectal cancer resection who are potentially eligible for S0820 may be pre-registered at Step 0; patients registered to Step 0 will appear on an institutional patient tracking report; patients registered to Step 0 are not registered to the S0820 protocol; to participate in S0820, patients must be registered to Step 1 after patient is consented and evaluation of eligibility; patients registered to S0820 at Step 0 continuing to Step 1 registration must use the same Southwest Oncology Group (SWOG) patient identification (ID) for registration to S0820 Step 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTEP 1: REGISTRATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of segmental resections are eligible (i.e. right colectomy, extended right colectomy, transverse colectomy, left colectomy, extended left colectomy, sigmoid colectomy, low anterior resection, abdominoperineal resection); the definition of resection does not include endomucosal resection (EMR); patients that have received total proctocolectomy are ineligible\r\n* In addition to segmental resections, the following types of procedures are allowed: polypectomy: for Tis (stage 0) or pT1 patients only, resection may consist entirely of polypectomy (without completion of partial colectomy) if ALL of the following criteria are met:\r\n** Single specimen, completely removed\r\n** Clear margins\r\n** None of the following must be present:\r\n*** Moderate or poor differentiation\r\n*** Lymphovascular invasion\r\n*** Perineural invasion\r\n* Transanal excision is allowed for pT1 rectal cancer patients with well or moderately differentiated tumors if National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) criteria for transanal excision are met, as stipulated here:\r\n** < 30% circumference of bowel\r\n** < 3 cm in size\r\n** Margin clear (> 3 mm)\r\n** Mobile, nonfixed\r\n** Within 8cm of anal verge\r\n** T1 only\r\n** Endoscopically removed polyp with cancer\r\n** No lymphovascular invasion or perineural invasion\r\n** Well to moderately differentiated\r\n** No evidence of lymphadenopathy on pretreatment imaging\r\n***When the lesion can be adequately identified in the rectum, transanal endoscopic microsurgery (TEM) may be used; TEM for more proximal lesions may be technically feasibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a pure tone audiometry evaluation to document air conduction within 30 days prior to registration; patients with hearing loss > 40 dB in any of the five tested frequencies (250 Hertz [Hz], 500 Hz, 1,000 Hz, 2,000 Hz, 4,000 Hz) are not eligible; patients with active ear infections should be tested only after the acute phase of infection has resolved; for optimal results, it is recommended that testing be conducted by an audiologist, in a hearing test room, with insert earphones; Note: sites should not order audiometry evaluation until the potential participant has met all other eligibility criteria required for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have documented history of gastric/duodenal ulcer within the last 12 months; participant must not currently be on treatment for gastric/duodenal ulcer or be experiencing symptoms at study entry; patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) are eligible, however, and these patients may receive over-the-counter histamine-2 (H2) antagonists; proton-pump inhibitors, or other prescription-based treatment for GERDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be receiving or plan to receive concomitant oral or intravenous corticosteroids on a regular basis, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), nor anticoagulants on a regular or predictable intermittent basis; (NSAID use may not exceed 10 days per month); patients may receive daily aspirin for cardiovascular prophylaxis as long as acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) is =< 100 mg per day or =< two 325 mg tablets per week; inhaled steroids (i.e. for asthma or related conditions) are allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXA total WBC >= 3.1 x 10^3/mcL is allowed for non-Hispanic black males (NHBM) and total WBC >= 3.4 x 10^3/mcL for non-Hispanic black females (NHBF) \r\n* Exception: If the WBC is lower than the above levels, the patient may be enrolled IF the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is >= 1.3 for NHBM, >= 1.4 for NHBF, or >= 1.5 for all.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the option to participate in submission of specimens for banking for future translational medicine studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients participating through PK sites, must be offered the option to submit blood specimens for population pharmacokinetic analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be offered the option to participate in the Diet and Lifestyle SubstudyXx_NEWLINE_xXAs part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a Gynecologic Oncology Group (GOG) performance grade of 0, 1, or 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not be currently enrolled in an ongoing (participating for 6 months or longer) medically prescribed diet or physical activity regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have no other chronic disease that would preclude randomization into a lifestyle intervention trial; such diseases include recent myocardial infarction or unstable angina (in the previous 6 months), chronic hepatitis, rheumatoid disease, renal or hepatic disease/dysfunction and diabetics receiving insulin; or other clinical condition limiting ability to walk (recent leg fracture, significant osteoarthritis, related orthopedic conditions, degenerative neurological conditions, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must complete all pre-entry assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to provide name and appropriate telephone contact information and be willing to be contacted periodically via telephone by The University of Arizona Cancer Center (AZCC) staff for completion of individualized lifestyle intervention coaching, completion of the Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index, and for clarification of patient-completed responses if necessary; patient must be willing to have Arizona Food Frequency Questionnaire (AFFQ), Arizona Physical Activity Questionnaire (APAQ), baseline questionnaire, and personal contact information sent to AZCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with body mass index (BMI) < 20 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXVegan vegetariansXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in a weight loss program or who are taking weight loss medications or dietary supplements and are unwilling to discontinueXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have participated in a marathon, triathlon, or other endurance-related physical activity within the previous 24 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had surgery for weight loss\r\n* Note: women will not be excluded if their baseline lifestyle assessment indicates a healthy eating and moderate physical activity with the exception of the exclusion criteria aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXMales and females must weigh >= 40 KgXx_NEWLINE_xXUncorrected primary obstructive or severe regurgitative valvular disease:\r\n* Nondilated (restrictive); or\r\n* Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; or\r\n* Significant systemic ventricular outflow obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia: heart rate < 50 beats per minute (BPM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of drug sensitivity or allergic reaction to alpha or beta-blockersXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current clinical evidence of moderate-to-severe obstructive pulmonary disease or reactive airway diseases (i.e. asthma) requiring therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXEndocrine disorders (such as primary aldosteronism, pheochromocytoma, hyper- or hypothyroidism) not controlled with medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXAnemia (hematocrit < 28%)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed to not breastfeed their infantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be a newly diagnosed ALL, in first remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the time of consent, patient or parent/guardian reports less than 420 minutes of moderate to vigorous physical activity over the last weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have access to a smart phone with Android 4.3 or later or iOS 7.1 or later or computer (laptop/desktop) with a connection to the internet to create an account and be able to sync the Sqord device (accelerometer)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to hold breath for 10 secondsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to walk at least 2 blocks without chest pain, dyspnea, shortness of breath or faintingXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to exercise on a treadmill or stationary cycleXx_NEWLINE_xXCONTROL (HEALTHY) GROUP: Healthy female without known coronary artery diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCONTROL (HEALTHY) GROUP: Able to hold breath for 10 secondsXx_NEWLINE_xXCONTROL (HEALTHY) GROUP: Able to walk at least 2 blocks without chest pain, dyspnea, shortness of breath or faintingXx_NEWLINE_xXCONTROL (HEALTHY) GROUP: Able to exercise on a treadmill or stationary cycleXx_NEWLINE_xXIf previously measured, known LVEF < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCONTROL (HEALTHY) GROUP: Overt coronary artery disease or heart failureXx_NEWLINE_xXCONTROL (HEALTHY) GROUP: If previously measured, known LVEF < 50%Xx_NEWLINE_xXCONTROL (HEALTHY) GROUP: Symptomatic claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven anal HSIL at baseline (anal intraepithelial neoplasia [AIN]2 with a positive cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A [p16] stain, AIN2-3, or AIN3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one focus of HSIL must be identified that is not within a condyloma that may be treated after enrollment into the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor females, documentation that the participant is being followed with cervical cytology and/or HPV testing per current “Guidelines for the Prevention and Treatment of Opportunistic Infections in HIV-Infected Adults and Adolescents” and American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) guidelines; cervical cytology must be performed prior to enrollment for women who are overdue for screening per the guidelines; women should also have confirmation of absence of cancer or suspected cancer upon visual examination of the vulva, vagina, and cervix within 12 months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXClinician is comfortable that cancer has adequately been ruled out and is willing to follow the participant for up to 5 years without treatment of the HSILXx_NEWLINE_xXWarts so extensive that they preclude the clinician from determining the extent and location of HSILXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 25Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive diagnosis of alcoholismXx_NEWLINE_xXQualifying cytological atypia in RPFNA, Masood score of 14-17; the qualifying RPFNA (of one or both breasts) must be send to Dr. Seewaldt's laboratory for cytological scoring and proteomic analysis; score results must be received from Dr. Seewaldt’s lab prior to patient registration/randomization; test must be done =< 90 days prior to registration/randomization\r\n* Note: Only the contralateral breast can be aspirated in women with DCIS and those undergoing surgery for an atypical lesion; the decision to aspirate the contralateral breast is at the discretion of the woman’s surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen eligible to take tamoxifen must be offered tamoxifen prevention as part of their clinical care and have refused tamoxifen treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFunctioning Central Venous Access DeviceXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to tolerate oral medication or have it administered via an Nasogastric tube (NGT) or GT tubeXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of documented DVT or PE in the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal function < 30% of normal for age and size as determined by the Schwartz formulaXx_NEWLINE_xXMales and females aged ? 1.0 year and < 66.0 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients seropositive for Human T-Lymphotrophic Virus (HTLV)-I or -IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active Hepatitis B or C viral replication by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor male patients, agreement to use condoms with spermicide during sexual intercourse from screening to the end of study; andXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed acute index (original venous thrombotic) event: lower extremity or upper extremity (jugular, innominate, subclavian, axillary, brachial) DVT, PE, splanchnic (hepatic, portal, splenic, mesenteric, renal, gonadal), or cerebral vein thrombosis for which the patient has received >= 180 days (but =< 365 days) of anticoagulant therapy prior to registration; the date, imaging modality, and location of index event will be required; the date of initiation and specific type of anticoagulants used will also be requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of thienopyridine therapy (clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor) that will be continued on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMechanical heart valveXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented hemorrhagic tendencies (e.g., hemophilia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBacterial endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of documented venous thromboembolic event within the last 5 years (excluding central line associated events whereby patients completed anticoagulation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance of niacin or ascorbic acid (including known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase [G6PD] deficiency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXprimary bone malignancies or aggressive benign bone tumors of the femur or tibia, soft-tissue sarcomas which have invaded the femur or tibia, or oligometastatic bone disease of the femur or tibia in a patient expected to live at least one year post-operatively; andXx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent known Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) colonization;Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent known Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE) colonization;Xx_NEWLINE_xXdocumented anaphylaxis or angioedema to penicillin or cefazolin (Ancef);Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent known immunologically-deficient disease conditions (not including recent chemotherapy);Xx_NEWLINE_xXreconstruction to include structural allograft;Xx_NEWLINE_xXenrolled in a competing study; andXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable for duration of studyXx_NEWLINE_xXParent/legal guardian expected to be available for entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXParent/legal guardian can be reached by telephone or emailXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients of CD34 selected grafts or other manipulated grafts (with any form of ex vivo T cell depletion) will be eligible to enroll if they have a CD3 count > 100; (please note: post-transplant Cytoxan for haploidentical transplants is allowable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of receiving 2016-2017 influenza vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of proven influenza disease after September 1, 2016Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR THE 31 SUBJECTS ENROLLED IN YEAR 1: Recipients of CD34 selected grafts or other manipulated grafts (with any form of ex vivo T cell depletion) will be eligible to enroll if they have a CD3 count > 100; (please note: post-transplant cytoxan for haploidentical transplants is allowable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR THE 31 SUBJECTS ENROLLED IN YEAR 1: History of receiving current year seasonal influenza vaccine influenza vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR THE 31 SUBJECTS ENROLLED IN YEAR 1: History of proven influenza disease after September 1, 2017Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOR THE 31 SUBJECTS ENROLLED IN YEAR 1: Subjects who have received stem cell boost or delayed donor lymphocyte infusion within 90 days of enrollment, including day of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFOR THE 31 SUBJECTS ENROLLED IN YEAR 1: Receipt of IVIG < 27 days prior to calendar day of vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must have a pathologically confirmed diagnosis of neuroblastoma, < 30.99 years of age and classified as high risk at the time of diagnosis. Exception: patients who are initially diagnosed as non-high-risk neuroblastoma, but later converted (and/or relapsed) to high risk neuroblastoma are also eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be in complete remission (CR):Xx_NEWLINE_xXBSA (Body Surface Area) of <0.25 m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll ambulatory patients taken care of by the participating pediatric hematology/oncology clinics will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an external central lineXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who only have a totally implanted port as their central venous access will not be eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) or attenuated familial adenomatous polyposis (AFAP), defined as at least one of the following:\r\n* Genetic diagnosis with confirmed APC mutation (Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act [CLIA] certified lab or research testing)\r\n* Obligate carrier\r\n* Clinical diagnosis of classic FAP with >= 100 colorectal adenomas status post colectomy and a family history of FAP\r\n* Clinical diagnosis of FAP, based on personal and family history; Note: This criterion requires documented review and agreement from either the study chair or the Cancer Prevention Network (CPN) lead investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to discontinue smoking for the duration of study interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to provide mandatory biospecimens as specified in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any upper gastrointestinal (GI) surgery that does not permit access to or evaluation of a 10 cm segment of the duodenum that includes the duodenal bulb, i.e. whipple procedure or similarXx_NEWLINE_xXSpigelman 2?3Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegular (>= 2 times per week) use of drugs that alter the pH of the gastrointestinal tract (GI) tract, such as proton pump inhibitors (PPI) and antacids; exceptions: individuals who use prescription PPIs and have approval from their primary health care provider to replace the PPI with an H2 receptor agonist, i.e. ranitidine, for the duration of the trial will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXStatin use or statin use is indicated based on guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant use of oral cyclosporineXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of at least 1 fallopian tube and 1 ovary; (please note: prior unilateral salpingectomy is allowed; prior bilateral salpingectomy is not allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must understand that they will be permanently sterilizedXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical comorbidities making surgery unsafe as determined by the patient's surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with elevated levels of CA125 (> 50) or transvaginal ultrasound suggesting cancer, unless findings are consistent with endometriosis; CA125 and transvaginal ultrasounds must be the most recent, but no older than 1 year from the date of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious prophylactic HPV vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated desensitization treatment; this decision to exclude will be based on the site clinician’s judgement; desensitization procedures vary somewhat among the five participating transplant centers, which does not permit proposing uniform criteria across all study sites for determining exclusion due to desensitization; in general, women who have received a prior transplant, have unsuitable scores on Calculated Panel Reactive Antibody (PRA) percentage (institution-specific thresholds), or an ABO incompatible donor are likely to undergo desensitization at one or more of the study centers; these factors, among others, will be used by the study clinician to determine exclusion due to anticipated desensitization in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 18.5 Kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe osteoporosis (T score =< -4 either spine or hip), or presence of vertebral fractureXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any chemopreventive agents (selective estrogen receptor modulators [SERM]) in the last 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide mandatory blood specimensXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-intervention biopsy sample collectedXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants who regularly (>= 2 times per week) use drugs that alter the pH of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, such as proton pump inhibitors (PPI) and antacids; exceptions: individuals who use prescription PPIs and have approval from their primary health care provider to discontinue for the duration of clinical trial participation may be enrolled; an alternate drug to control gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)/peptic ulcer disease (PUD) symptoms will be suggestedXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 1 (SURVEY)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for a return clinic visit at one of the participating institutionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2 (VACCINE EVALUATION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurvey response indicated no prior history of HPV vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2 (VACCINE EVALUATION)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTransfusion of blood products or intravenous immune globulin within 3 months of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable for duration of studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCan be reached by telephone or emailXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of proven influenza disease after September 1, 2017Xx_NEWLINE_xXCD34 selection or total cell depletion outside haploidentical transplantsXx_NEWLINE_xXMammographically dense breast (heterogeneously dense [C] or extremely dense [D], based on American College of Radiology [ACR] BIRADS fifth edition classification or heterogeneously dense [3] or extremely dense [4], based on ACR BIRADS fourth edition classification) in either breastXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must have a gynecology examination within the last 5 years (gynecology examination is not required if participant had a hysterectomy), with no atypical hyperplasia and no cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are using postmenopausal hormones, and are planning to continue the same regimen through the study intervention are eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid exposing breast skin to natural or artificial sunlight (i.e. tanning beds) for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with “mosaic mammographic screening views”, i.e., whose larger breast size precludes being imaged within a single mammographic screening viewXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin lesions on the breast that disrupt the stratum corneum (e.g., eczema, ulceration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid excessive use of alcohol during the study; note: excessive use is defined as drinking >= 8 alcoholic drinks per week on averageXx_NEWLINE_xXFailure of previous HCV therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXOther uncontrolled immune-compromising illnessXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of fibrosis or cirrhosis (Metavir 2, 3, and 4) and subjects with significant extrahepatic manifestations of hepatitis C (such as cryoglobulinemia with symptoms or evidence of end-organ manifestations, renal disease, type 2 diabetes, or porphyria cutanea tardaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent diagnosis or history of cardiac pre-excitation syndromes (e.g. Wolff-Parkinson-White)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerum or plasma HCV RNA level >= 10,000 IU/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXScreening HCV genotype, demonstrating genotype 1Xx_NEWLINE_xX12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) showing normal heart rhythm; note: if there are abnormalities, then the abnormalities must be deemed of no clinical significanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPacemaker or other implanted deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or ex-smoker with at least 10 pack-year historyXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid alternative/additional vitamin D3 supplementation for the duration of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of malabsorption syndrome (e.g., pancreatic insufficiency, celiac disease, or tropical sprue)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known thyroid diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported consumption of more than 4 alcoholic drinks per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of anti-seizure medications phenobarbital or phenytoin, which can disrupt vitamin D metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known renal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known nephrolithiasis (kidney stones)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with osteoporosisXx_NEWLINE_xXActive pulmonary disease requiring medication to include multiple inhalers (>3 inhalers including one containing steroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved in other experimental protocols except with permission of other PIXx_NEWLINE_xXReports conducting at least 20 new initial screenings per monthXx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least a 30 pack-year history of smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be reachable by telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT (AS PER SELF-REPORT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNRT is medically contraindicated (e.g., recent heart attack within the last 2 weeks or, unstable/worsening angina)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmokers who are receiving other tobacco treatment services or have used cessation medications (NRT, bupropion, varenicline) within the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects deemed potentially eligible by their treating physicians will be screened for enrollment after d+60 from transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of ongoing gastrointestinal or hepatic acute GVHD, or evidence of greater than ongoing stage I cutaneous acute GVHD; ongoing, tapering therapy for resolved acute GVHD is permissibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of prior active or resolved chronic GVHDXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of cGVHD or late acute graft versus host disease (aGVHD) between enrollment and first dose of obinutuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic reaction to obinutuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic myopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of gallstones and hypertriglyceridemia (level greater than 800 mg/dl) that requires medical or surgical intervention; note: we will include patients who had an independent episode of pancreatitis after a cholecystectomy, but exclude patients who are candidates for cholecystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXRecurrent pancreatitis episode is iatrogenic (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography [ERCP] induced)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLactate dehydrogenase < 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXImmune deficiency diseases such as immunoglobulin deficiency or immunosuppressive therapy that might interfere with appropriate immune responseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ferromagnetic cerebral aneurysm clips or other intraorbital/intracranial metal; pacemakers, defibrillators, functioning neurostimulator devices or other implanted electronic devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent tobacco smokers with >= 20 pack years of self-reported smoking exposure and an average use of >= 10 cigarettes/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants may have a history of indeterminate pulmonary nodule(s) by chest imaging if nodule follow-up has been completed or the study procedures would not interfere with nodule follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXGastric intolerance attributable to ASA or NSAIDsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot willing or are unable to refrain from use of any non-study ASA, NSAIDs and leukotriene antagonists during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic, current or recent (within the past three months) use of leukotriene antagonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic, current or recent (within the past three months) use of glucocorticoids (systemic, topical and/or nasal sprays or steroid topical creams to large body surface area); use of steroid topical creams for small body areas (=< 10% body surface) during study intervention is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic sinusitis or recent nasal polypsXx_NEWLINE_xXAre taking drugs known to interact with zileuton, including theophylline, warfarin, and propranololXx_NEWLINE_xXNot willing or are unable to limit alcohol consumption to =< 2 alcoholic beverages a day during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXUrine cotinine level, if collected at screening, does not confirm active smoking statusXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a documented FLT3 ITD mutation, determined by local laboratory for eligibility (historical tissue will be requested for central analysis confirmation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whom have failed prior attempts at allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXBradycardia defined as HR. < 50 bpmXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block + left anterior hemiblock (bifascicular block)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with any pulmonary infiltrate including those suspected to be of infectious origin (unless resolves to ? Grade 1 within screening timeframe)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive FOBT during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXNo medical contra-indication for colonoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen must indicate that they are still considering future pregnancy and childbearingXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen must be willing to take supplemental omega-3 fatty acids provided by the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen actively undergoing in-vitro fertilization or fertility treatments are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be candidates for reduced-intensity conditioning regimens.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to avoid pregnancy or fathering children.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere organ dysfunction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking history of >= 30 pack?years AND either current smoker (still smoking or quit < 1 year prior to pre?registration) OR former smoker (quit 1?15 years prior to pre?registration); Note: Pack years is determined by multiplying the number of packs smoked per day by the number of years smokedXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive antinuclear antibody (ANA) resultXx_NEWLINE_xXFOCUS GROUP: Who are enrolled at Group Health at least one year prior to mammogram, receive care in the greater Seattle area and have had a negative mammogram (breast imaging-reporting and data system [BIRADS] 1 or 2 assessment) as part of their routine care within the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBETA/USABILITY TESTING: Who are enrolled at Group Health, receive care in the greater Seattle area and have had a negative mammogram (BIRADS assessment of 1 or 2) as part of their routine careXx_NEWLINE_xXBETA/USABILITY TESTING: Will have been enrolled for year prior to the mammogram at Group HealthXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED CONTROLLED TRIAL: Who are enrolled at Group Health, and have had a negative mammogram as part of their routine careXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED CONTROLLED TRIAL: Utilizing the breast cancer surveillance consortium risk calculator, women will have either (a) an intermediate 5-year risk (> 1.67%-2.49%) and extremely dense breasts or (b) a high 5-year risk (>= 2.50%) and either heterogeneously dense or extremely dense breastsXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED CONTROLLED TRIAL: Must also have a valid email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXFOCUS GROUP: Not able to speak and read English; not able to physically attend the focus group location and time, women who do not wish to be contacted or involved in research, women who have died between mammogram and recruitment data pull date, and women who have disenrolled from Group Health between mammogram and pull dateXx_NEWLINE_xXBETA/USABILITY TESTING AND THE TRIAL: who have disenrolled from Group Health between her mammogram and the record pull date, who have died, and those who have indicated that they do not want to be contacted for research, if they participated in our previous intervention development activities, or if they died or disenrolled from health plan between mammogram and start of recruitmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or current use of statin medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior known or suspected hepatocellular carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior cholangiocarcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic myopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindications to blood draw (e.g., hemophilia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent excessive alcohol consumption (average alcohol consumption of more than 5 drinks per day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-described betel nut chewer (chewed betel nut for at least 3 years, and at a rate of at least 3 days per week); must be class 2 betel nut chewers: that is, must chew a quid consisting of areca nut, slaked lime, betel leaf, tobacco, and other optional ingredients, and not swallow the quidXx_NEWLINE_xXChews betel nut alone (i.e., without quid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more Padua-based risk factor:\r\n* History of previous venous thromboembolic event (excluding superficial vein thrombosis)\r\n* Reduced mobility (Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group [ECOG] performance status 3 or 4)\r\n* Established hereditary thrombophilia (e.g. Factor V Leiden, G20210 prothrombin mutation, protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin deficiency)\r\n* Recent surgery within the last 30 days\r\n* Age >= 70 years\r\n* Congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association [NYHA] class III or IV)\r\n* Complicated respiratory insufficiency (defined as an increased requirement for supplementary oxygen of at least 2L)\r\n* Acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke\r\n* Obesity (body mass index [BMI] >= 30)\r\n* Receiving hormonal agents (e.g. tamoxifen, estrogen, testosterone)\r\n* Acute infection (i.e. requiring antimicrobial therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight between 50 kg to 130 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of heparin induced thrombocytopeniaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXBacterial endocarditisXx_NEWLINE_xXActive implanted medical device (e.g., cardiac pacemakers, defibrillators) or patients connected to electronic life support devices or metallic devices that would interfere with BIS measurements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: Unfit to undergo standard stem cell mobilization and apheresis e.g. abnormal blood counts, history of stroke, uncontrolled hypertensionXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: CMV seropositiveXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Conditioning and immunosuppressive regimens according to institutional guidelines are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Any prior investigational CMV vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Medically indicated subunit (Engerix?B for HBV; Gardasil for human papillomavirus [HPV]) or killed vaccines (e.g. influenza, pneumococcal, or allergy treatment with antigen injections)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Alemtuzumab or any equivalent in vivo T?cell depleting agentXx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Antiviral medications with known therapeutic effects on CMV such as ganciclovir (GCV)/valganciclovir (VAL), FOS, Cidofovir, CMX?001, maribavir. Acyclovir has no known therapeutic efficacy against CMV and is allowable as standard of care to prevent Herpes simplex virus (HSV)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Prophylactic therapy with CMV immunoglobulin or prophylactic antiviral CMV treatment (Letermovir is permitted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRECIPIENT: Other medications that might interfere with the evaluation of the investigational productXx_NEWLINE_xXBody Mass Index (BMI) >= 30 kg/m^2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to take digital time stamped photos.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternet access (daily).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a current measured BMI less than 30 kg/m^2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReports being unwilling to use Continuous Glucose Monitor (CGM), which requires daily blood sampling by finger pricks.Xx_NEWLINE_xXReported use of oral antidiabetic agents (OADs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects considered by the investigator as unsuitable for the study for reasons not otherwise stated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMD Anderson patientXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smoker (i.e., at least 10 cigarettes/day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking for at least one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently elevated depressive symptoms; (Patient Health Questionnaire [PHQ] 2 > 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently own an iOS mobile phone (iPhone) using iOS 9.0 or later and reports regular use (at least weekly) of at least 1 iOS appXx_NEWLINE_xXEndorsing current suicidal ideation or intentXx_NEWLINE_xXMeeting criteria for a current major depressive episode measured by the PHQ-9Xx_NEWLINE_xXWHITE, NON-HISPANIC: Without a personal history of melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWHITE, NON-HISPANIC: Study participants will not have had a skin examination within the last year and will be of European ancestry. The study sample will be limited to non-Hispanic whites because i) skin type is the overwhelming risk factor for cutaneous melanoma resulting in very low incidence of this disease among persons who are black, Asian, Native American or Pacific Islander, and ii) the prior genetic investigation upon which this application is based was undertaken in a non-Hispanic white population. Thus at this time, inference of genetic risk attributable to MC1R variants is unknown for individuals not identifying as non-Hispanic white eliminating any direct inference of the proposed intervention to a non-Hispanic white population.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHISPANIC/LATINOS (H/L): Self-report Hispanic ethnicity (there will be no exclusions based on reported race).Xx_NEWLINE_xXWHITE, NON-HISPANIC: Participant whose medical records or self-report indicate any race or ethnicity identification aside from white, non-Hispanic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXH/L: Participant whose medical records or self-report indicate an ethnicity aside from Hispanic.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have not received the seasonal influenza vaccine in the current flu season and are not suspected to have had an influenza infection in the current flu seasonXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who had or are suspected to have had an influenza infection in the current influenza seasonXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who, at screening, have abnormal vital signs and/or physical exam, including a temperature >= 38.0 C, systolic blood pressure =< 90 or > 180 mmHg, pulse =< 60 or > 130 beats per minute, new rash, signs of infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have already received the seasonal influenza vaccine in the current influenza vaccination seasonXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have Lynch syndrome defined as meeting any of the following: (1) Mutation-positive Lynch syndrome: carriers or obligate carriers (by pedigree) of a pathogenic mutation in one of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) mismatch repair (MMR) genes (i.e. MLH1, MSH2/EPCAM, MSH6, or PMS2) or (2) Mutation-negative Lynch syndrome: patients with a personal history of a non-sporadic MMR deficient premalignant lesion (i.e. polyp) or a non sporadic MMR deficient malignant tumor (where non-sporadic MMR deficient is defined by: microsatellite instability high by either immunohistochemistry or microsatellite instability (MSI) testing or both, but no evidence of MLH1 promoter methylation in cases with loss of both MLH1 and PMS2, and/or no evidence of BRAF mutation in cases with loss of both MLH1 and PMS2) but germline MMR genetic testing showed either a variant of unknown significance or mutation negative result or had declined germline MMR genetic testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have normal cardiopulmonary exercise test prior to exercise participation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are status post total proctocolectomy (i.e. removal of all colon and rectum).Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are unable to participate in cycling due to musculoskeletal limitations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are unable to identify cycling classes in their community for exercise.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Use of IT at least 10 times in the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSOCIAL MEDIA STUDY: Use of IT at least 10 times in the past year to be consistent with the proposed intervention criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXSOCIAL MEDIA STUDY: Daily use of FacebookXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Use of IT at least 25 times in the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a suspected diagnosis of new, recurrent, or transformed glioma (WHO grade I-IV) scheduled for craniotomy at Duke University Medical Center (DUMC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSafe for surgery per treating neurosurgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of dependency/abuse of psychopharmaceuticals, alcohol, illicit drugs or narcoticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSmokes a minimum of 3 cigarettes per day over the past year.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpired carbon monoxide reading >= 6.Xx_NEWLINE_xXValid home address.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFunctioning telephone number.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least marginal health literacy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication for the nicotine patch (e.g., heart attack, angina, skin allergies) unless a doctor’s note is provided.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEndorse current psychosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a pacemaker or implanted device.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically unable to wear equipment and provide a good reading of physiological measures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of tobacco cessation medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in a smoking program or currently trying to quit.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnother household member being enrolled in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior experience with a smart phone.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the study staff or principal investigator (PI) have serious concerns about the participant’s ability to engage in and/or complete the study protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent tobacco smokers with >= 20 pack years of self-reported smoking exposure and a current average use of >= 10 cigarettes/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXUnder active surveillanceXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere osteoporosisXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled sinus tachycardia (> 120 beats per minute)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere neuromusculoskeletal conditions that limit their ability to perform walking exercise (including ataxia, peripheral or sensory neuropathy, unstable bone lesion, severe arthritis, lower limb fractures within 6 months, lower limb amputation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNot compliant with recommended sun protection, as determined by at least one of the following criteria:\r\n* Any intentional sunbathing, artificial tanning or a sunburn in the past 5 years\r\n* Having a moderate to light complexion (Fitzpatrick skin types I-IV) and not using sunscreen >= 90% of the time during incidental sun exposureXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled on Dana-Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI) protocol 17-385 or any other sun protection intervention in the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny impairment (e.g., hearing, visual, cognitive) that interferes with the ability to complete all measures independentlyXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular access to an internet-enabled device that can be synched with the Fitbit wristbandXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) 25-40 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xX< 30 minutes per day of self-reported moderate or vigorous physical activity (PA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsidered eligible for Ohio Expanded Food and Nutrition Education Program (EFNEP) income guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXAnswers ‘no’ to all questions on the PA Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) or is cleared in writing by a physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have schizophreniaXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to avoid exposure of the treated breast area to sunlight and artificial ultraviolet light during the use of bexarotene gelXx_NEWLINE_xXSkin lesions that disrupt the stratum corneum (eg., eczema, ulceration) or any breakdown of the skinXx_NEWLINE_xXDietary vitamin A intake >= 5,000 IU/day (as determined by dietary supplementation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: MedStar Georgetown University Hospital (MGUH) pediatric primary care providers (pPCP) providersXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: MGUH patients presenting for well visits, and patients' parentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Presenting at MGUH pediatric outpatient center in Washington DC for a well-visit examXx_NEWLINE_xXAll newly referred patients to colposcopy clinic at Siteman Cancer Center at Washington University (SIUM) and Washington University School of Medicine (WUSM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of an abnormal Pap will be confirmed by pathology reportXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen will be excluded if they are established colposcopy clinic patients, have a known diagnosis of cancer; are pregnant, incarcerated, or unable to consent; or do not have access to a working contact phone numberXx_NEWLINE_xXHPV positive by the GeneXpert hrHPV assay with HPV16, HPV 18/45, or HPV31/33/35/52/58 detected; Note: participants who are hrHPV positive with only HPV51/59 or HPV 39/68/56/66 detected are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior hysterectomy with removal of the cervixXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior HPV vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXCD4 count < 200 cells/mm^3 within 6 months of entry\r\n* Note: This refers to any CD4 obtained for routine care; documentation of CD4 is not required prior to entryXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 30 kg/m^2; women with a BMI > 45 kg/m^2 must be age < 60 and ability to perform physical activity must be confirmedXx_NEWLINE_xXBy self-assessment, currently performing 60 minutes or less of purposeful exercise per week but able to walk at least 30 minutes on a level surfaceXx_NEWLINE_xXPossession of smart phone capable of running MyFitnessPal and Garmin Connect apps and willing to have diet and exercise data accessed by study personnel; access to a personal computer\r\n* In general Android, Apple products and Windows 10 phones or any phone with Bluetooth Smart, will run Garmin Connect; (iPhone 5,5s,6,6s,7,7+; most recent Motorola, Samsung, Google Nexus, Sony, and Nokia products)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to perform moderate intensity exercise at least 5 days per week for 6 months; this consists of a supervised exercise intervention at one of the 15 YMCAs affiliated with our program for 2 days per week; must be willing to perform unsupervised home exercise for the entire 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in a weekly behavioral modification group phone call for first 3 months and every 2 weeks for the second 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in a controlled dietary intervention with portion controlled meals and partial meal replacements plus 35 servings of fruits and vegetables/week for 6 months and track food intake and exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXA complete blood count (CBC) and chemistry profile (Cohort A2), must have been performed after completion of any breast cancer surgery, radiation therapy, or cytotoxic chemotherapy, with reasonably normal liver and renal function as well as a hemoglobin of 10 or higher and/or performed within a year of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for chronic immunosuppressive drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation within the past 6 months on a structured weight loss program such as Weight Watchers®Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical impairments (bad hip, knees, feet, peripheral neuropathy) that would prohibit performing moderate intensity exercise at least 5 days per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned graft versus host disease (GVHD) prophylaxis consisting of tacrolimus (TAC)/methotrexate (MTX) or TAC/sirolimus (SRL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects will be eligible if their planned conditioning regimen for allogeneic HCT consists of one of the two following standard reduced intensity conditioning regimens:\r\n* FLU/MEL: fludarabine phosphate (fludarabine) 120 to 180 mg/m^2; melphalan hydrochloride (melphalan) =< 150 mg/m^2\r\n* FLU/BU: fludarabine 120 to 180 mg/m^2; busulfan =< 8 mg/kg orally or =< 6.4 mg/kg intravenouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects will be eligible if their planned post grafting immunosuppression consists of one of the two following regimens:\r\n* TAC/MTX: tacrolimus (oral or intravenous) and intravenous methotrexate administered according to institutional standard practice.\r\n* TAC/SRL: tacrolimus (oral or intravenous) and oral sirolimus, administered according to institutional standards of careXx_NEWLINE_xXA history of adverse reaction to IV thiamineXx_NEWLINE_xXInterest and willingness to commit to the 8 week Getting Ahead training program that will occur over 16 sessions occurring twice a weekXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to commit to follow-up with his/her primary care provider after completion of the Getting Ahead training programXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient weight at least 3.3 kg.Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled and eligible to receive at least one moderately or highly emetogenic chemotherapeutic agent on Day 1 only or for multiple days.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf the patient is female, she shall: a) not have attained menarche yet or b) have attained menarche and have a negative pregnancy test at the screening visit and at DayXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient and/or parents/caregivers are expected by the Investigator to be non-compliant with the study procedures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who experienced any vomiting, retching, or nausea within 24 h prior to the administration of the study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who received any drug with potential anti-emetic effect within 24 h prior to the start of reference chemotherapy, including but not limited to: NK1- receptor antagonists (e.g., aprepitant or any other new drug of this class); 5-HT3 receptor antagonists (e.g., ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, tropisetron, ramosetron); Benzamides (e.g., metoclopramide, alizapride); Phenothiazines (e.g., prochlorperazine, promethazine, perphenazine, fluphenazine, chlorpromazine, thiethylperazine); Benzodiazepines initiated 48 h prior to study drug administration or expected to be received within 120 h following initiation of chemotherapy, except for single doses of midazolam, temazepam or triazolam; Butyrophenones (e.g., droperidol, haloperidol); Anticholinergics (e.g., scopolamine, with the exception of inhaled anticholinergics for respiratory disorders e.g., ipratropium bromide); Antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine, cyclizine, hydroxyzine, chlorpheniramine, dimenhydrinate, meclizine); Domperidone; Mirtazapine; Olanzapine; Prescribed cannabinoids (e.g., tetrahydrocannabinol, nabilone); Over the Counter (OTC) antiemetics, OTC cold or OTC allergy medications; Herbal preparations containing ephedra or ginger.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntake of alcohol, food or beverages (e.g., grapefruit, cranberry, pomegranate and aloe vera juices, German chamomile) known to interfere with either CYP3A4 or CYP2D6 metabolic enzymes within 1 week prior to Day 1 and during the overall study period.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient aged < 2 years with known hepatic impairment (any grade), or patient aged 2 years with known severe hepatic impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient aged < 2 years with known renal impairment (any grade), or patient aged 2 years with known severe renal impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolment in a previous study with netupitant (either alone or in combination with palonosetron).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be cleared pre-transplant by Radiation Oncology to be able to receive 400 cGyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may have untreated OPLs (i.e., hyperplasia, dysplasia, carcinoma in situ) at the time of study entry, provided the index OPL or HNSCC was definitively treatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent and former tobacco users are eligible; the tobacco use assessment form must be completed following consent, to assure eligibility; patients must have >= 10 pack-year cumulative tobacco exposure or its equivalent to be eligible; this is defined as follows:\r\n* Cigarette exposure: >= 10 pack-years OR\r\n* Cigar exposure: >= 10 cigar-years, where 1 cigar year is defined as having smoked on average >= 1 cigar/day for a year OR\r\n* Chewing tobacco: >= 10 snuff-years, where 1 snuff year is defined as using on average >= 1 pinch (dip) of chewing tobacco/day for a yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary oropharyngeal HNSCC which is HPV (+) as defined by p16 IHCXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe food intolerance to broccoliXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with normal skin and Fitzpatrick skin type II, III or IV (21 Code of Federal Regulations [CFR] 352.72)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are willing to limit sun exposure to the body during the study period, and who agree to wear protective clothing and sun protection factor (SPF) 50 broad spectrum sunscreen or sunblock on exposed skin when they are outdoorsXx_NEWLINE_xXA subgroup of Individuals with 4 benign melanocytic nevi (BN) measuring at least 6 mm in diameter and with evidence of benign features by epiluminescence microscopy (ELM) will be included in the study; these criteria will be considered optional and applicable when the 4 BN are present in surgically accessible areasXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with any inflammation or irritation of the skin at the test area (buttocks), or any skin conditions felt by the study physician to contraindicate enrollment; this includes, but is not limited to, psoriasis or atopic dermatitis within the test areaXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are immunosuppressed by virtue of medication or disease, as determined by the examining study physician; this includes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) patients and subjects taking oral steroidsXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals must not take mega-doses of vitamins; mega-doses are defined as more than 5 capsules of standard multivitamins daily or more than the Tolerable Upper Intake Levels of Vitamins, as defined by the Institute of Medicine, National Academy of Sciences; such vitamin therapy must be discontinued at least 30 days prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with a history of natural or artificial sun exposure to the buttocks within 30 days of study participation are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with Fitzpatrick skin type I are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with Fitzpatrick skin type V or VI are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXProven or probable aspergillosis or other mold infection or deep mycoses including hepatosplenic candidiasis less than 60 days from first dose of isavuconazole (ISA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with intermediate-2 or high risk per International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS) (or intermediate, high, very high risk by Revised International Prognostic Scoring System [IPSS-R]) or myeloproliferative neoplasm; primary or secondary if high-risk features or refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychosocial issues: no appropriate caregivers identified, or non-compliant to medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate to severe sun damageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Fitzpatrick’s scale skin type IV-VIXx_NEWLINE_xXCutaneous photosensitivity to wavelengths of 400-450 nm, porphyria or known allergies to porphyrinsXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the components of the Levulan Kerastick for topical solutionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of topical or systemic therapies that might interfere with the evaluation of the study medication during the study, within a 3 month washout period from the time of the screening visitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient undergoing an allo-SCTXx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of celiac disease or non-celiac gluten sensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on the wait list for a new gardenXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo study measurementsXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke >= 10 cigarettes per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXTheir vision should be normal or corrected-to-normal (to ensure that they can accurately see the images on the screen and select the appropriate response)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRisk for hazard due to magnetic fields such as metal in the body surgically or accidentally (e.g., pacemaker, cochlear implants, aneurysm clips, intravascular stents or coils, spinal shunt, injury involving bullets, shrapnel or metal implanted in their body, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking any smoking cessation medications (e.g. varenicline, bupropion, nicotine replacement therapies) at the start of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloid or lymphoid hematologic malignancy treated with a reduced intensity (RI) or non-myeloablative (NMA) conditioning HSCT who received calcineurin inhibitor based drug (for example: tacrolimus or cyclosporin) and methotrexate as part of their initial GVHD prophylaxis; patients who received sirolimus as part of their GVHD prophylaxis will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke >= 10 cigarettes per day for the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSmokes first cigarette within 90 minutes after wakingXx_NEWLINE_xXTheir vision should be normal or corrected-to-normal (to ensure that they can accurately see the images on the screen and select the appropriate response)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to complete all appointments and change smoking behaviors for 2-weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXNo quit attempts or attempts to cut back in the last month (30 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRisk for hazard due to magnetic fields such as metal in the body surgically or accidentally (e.g., pacemaker, cochlear implants, aneurysm clips, intravascular stents or coils, spinal shunt, injury involving bullets, shrapnel or metal implanted in their body, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo daily internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xX30 pack year history of smoking (i.e., the base population of high risk smokers to get screened)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smoker (defined as any smoking in the past 30 days – this is the criteria our lung cancer screening programs will use to trigger tobacco treatment interventions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to be randomizedXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to NRTXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identification as Black/African AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smokers (smoked at least 100 lifetime cigarettes and currently smoke on some or every day) who would like help quittingXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for state quitline servicesXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to devices that play DVDsXx_NEWLINE_xXPermanent contact informationXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindications for NRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPersons with acute cardiac or respiratory medical conditions, or who are pregnant/breastfeeding will not be eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXReports being a daily or non-daily smoker (any self-reported smoking in the past 30 days) and is interested in treatment that might change smoking behavior.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an address and telephone number where he/she may be reached.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFollowing good clinical practice guidelines, be medically suitable for one or more pharmacotherapies for smoking cessation including NRT, bupropion or varenicline, at provider discretion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent enrollment or plans to enroll in another smoking cessation program in the next 9 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to refrain from other nicotine substitutes (i.e., over-the-counter [OTC] or prescription medication for smoking cessation) or smoking cessation treatments in the next 9 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of certain medications: (1) Smoking cessation medications (meds) (last 7 days), i.e., Wellbutrin, bupropion, Zyban, NRT, Chantix.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExclusive use of tobacco products other than cigarettes, such as (but not limited to) cigars, chew, snuff, pipe or electronic (e)-cigarettes (cigs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient to undergo pancreaticoduodenectomy for pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma at the Johns Hopkins HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXLaparoscopic or robotic pancreaticoduodenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients who are have known allergies or are sensitive to silver and acrylic adhesivesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with either newly diagnosed AML or MDS who have either begun (within 4 days of starting study drug) or are planned to begin specific treatment for their AML/MDS; patients who are participating in other therapeutic clinical trials for their AML/MDS may participate in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXKarnofsky performance status: Full intensity conditioning, 80-100%; reduced intensity conditioning, 60-100%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically-confirmed, newly-diagnosed malignant glioma (glioblastoma, gliosarcoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, anaplastic oligoastrocytoma, anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, or anaplastic oligodendroglioma) and are scheduled to receive radiotherapy (for a total of 54-60 Gy) and concomitant daily temozolomide therapy (at a dose of 75 mg/m^2 for one complete 6-week cycle)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit >= 29%Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients on higher than physiological level of corticosteroids, they must have been on a stable dose for 1 week prior to initiating study drug, and the dose should not be escalated over entry dose level, if clinically possibleXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing vomiting from any organic etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has taken the following agents within the last 48 hours prior to the start of treatment with study drug:\r\n* 5-hydroxytryptamine (HT3) antagonists (ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, tropisetron, etc.); palonosetron is not permitted within 7 days prior to administration of investigational product\r\n* Benzamides (metoclopramide, alizapride, etc.)\r\n* Domperidone\r\n* Cannabinoids\r\n* Neurokinin-1 (NK1) antagonist (aprepitant)\r\n* Benzodiazepines (lorazepam, alprazolam, etc.)\r\n* Herbal medications or preparations in doses designed to ameliorate nausea or emesisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has ongoing vomiting, retching, dry heaves, or clinically significant nausea caused by any etiology, or has had such symptoms within 24 hours prior to the start of day 1 of the study intervention, or has a history of anticipatory nausea and vomitingXx_NEWLINE_xXNo signs or symptoms of acute graft versus host disease; however prior acute GVHD which is resolved and controlled with low dose steroids (< 0.3 mg/kg/day for at least 1 week) may be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior ALT-803Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of colorectal adenoma of any gradeXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) =< 40 mg/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative fecal occult blood testXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent (within three weeks of randomization) or planned use during the study intervention of the following:\r\n* Aspirin, other nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or COX-2 inhibitors\r\n* Anticoagulants, antiplatelet agents, or corticosteroids\r\n* Gingko\r\n* Ethanol consumption > 1 standard drinks/day for women, or > 2 standard drinks/day for men\r\n* Methotrexate (MTX)\r\n* Study participants will be instructed to use Tylenol or some other non-excluded agent to treat common ailments (i.e. headache/minor aches and pains)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen in good general healthXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) 30-45 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXBy self-assessment, currently performing 60 minutes or less of purposeful exercise per week but able to walk at least 30 minutes on a level surfaceXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to a smart phone capable of running MyFitnessPal and Garmin Connect apps and willing to have diet and exercise data from these apps viewed by study personnelXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to perform moderate intensity exercise at least 5 days per week for 3 months; this consists of a supervised exercise intervention at one of the 15 YMCAs affiliated with our program for 2 days per week for 8 weeks, then 1 day per week for 4 weeks; must also be willing to perform unsupervised home exercise for the entire 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in a weekly behavioral modification group phone call for 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in a controlled dietary intervention with portion controlled meals and partial meal replacements plus 35 servings of fruits and vegetables/week for 3 months and track food intake and exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXA complete blood count (CBC) and chemistry profile, must have been performed after completion of any breast cancer surgery, radiation therapy, or cytotoxic chemotherapy, with reasonably normal liver and renal function and a hemoglobin of 10 or higherXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with prior bariatric surgery proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for chronic immunosuppressive drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation within the past 6 months on a structured weight loss program such as Weight WatchersXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical impairments (bad hip, knees, feet, peripheral neuropathy) that would prohibit performing moderate intensity exercise at least 5 days per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking >= 5 tobacco cigarettes/week over the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXNot currently enrolled in a face-to-face smoking cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXInsufficient smoking (< 5 cigs per week) or have recently quitXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently enrolled in an ‘in-person’ cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXNot be allergic to tomato or tomato productsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot be allergic to soy or soy related productsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot be allergic to any cruciferous vegetables (e.g.: broccoli, cauliflower, kale, brussels sprouts, arugula/rocket, bok choy, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOriented to person, place, and timeXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderlying medical problems that contraindicate unsupervised exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with a prior history of cardiovascular disease, defined as a 1 or more positive responses on the Heart QuestionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXUses a walker or wheelchair/scooterXx_NEWLINE_xXLives outside the greater Houston area (Harris and contiguous counties)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs pregnant (self-reported)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive at least 3 consecutive cycles of THP or TCHPXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to read, understand, follow the study procedure and complete crofelemer, rescue medication, and bowel movement diariesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may enroll simultaneously on this study and other studies, including but not limited to NSABP B52Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of anti-diarrheal agents (including but not limited to loperamide, octreotide, bismuth, tincture of opium, atropine, probiotics in any form other than food) within the past 7 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXAny type of ostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal colectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXFecal incontinenceXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-thymocyte globulin, alemtuzumab, bortezomib, or post-transplant cyclophosphamide as part of GVHD prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXSorror’s co-morbidity factors with total score > 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance of warm air stimulus as demonstrated by profound vertigo and nauseaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior otologic surgery beyond tympanostomy tubes, including, but not limited to, tympanomastoidectomy, cochlear implant, endolymphatic shunt, mastoidectomy, osseous-integrated hearing deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline asymmetric hearing loss (defined by 1) >= 10-dB interaural threshold difference at 3-octave frequencies (250-8,000 Hz), 2) >= 15-dB difference at 2-octave frequencies, and 3) > 15-dB difference at 1-octave frequency)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive carcinomas or melanomas of the skin of the face, scalp, ear, and neckXx_NEWLINE_xXModerately sedentary lifestyle (less than 120 minutes/week moderate intensity activity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnswer “no” to all questions on the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBMI 25-40 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas access to a computer or mobile device with wireless internetXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolvement in a weight loss programXx_NEWLINE_xXPARENTS/PRIMARY CAREGIVERSXx_NEWLINE_xXAre the primary caregiver for the child participating in the study (defined as the individual who is responsible for daily implementation of health-related tasks for the child)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCHILDRENXx_NEWLINE_xXAre 8-17 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXAre at risk for melanoma due to having a first degree relative with a history of melanoma and/or at least 3 second or third degree relatives on the same side of the family with a history of melanoma and/orXx_NEWLINE_xXHave personally received genetic testing for the CDKN2A/p16 genetic mutation and/or has one or more family members who received CDKN2A/p16 testingXx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple children from the same family are eligible to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke at least 5 cigarettes daily for the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXExpired-air carbon monoxide (CO) > 8 ppm (if =< 8 ppm, then NicAlert Strip > 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent motivation to quit smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive urine screen for cocaine, opiates, methadone, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines, methamphetamines, or phencyclidine (PCP) (NOTES: tetrahydrocannabinol [THC] will be tested but will not be an exclusionary criterion; participants with valid prescriptions for opiates, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines or methadone will not be excluded; participants failing the toxicology screen will be allowed to re-screen once)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood alcohol level > 0.01 (one re-screen allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBinge alcohol drinking (4/5 [female/male] drinks per day more than 9 days in the past month)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEver used reduced nicotine cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke ‘roll your own’ cigarettes exclusivelyXx_NEWLINE_xXUsed smoking cessation medications within the past three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAre currently enrolled in a smoking cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXActively trying to quitXx_NEWLINE_xXUsed other tobacco products (including e-cigarettes) more than 9 days in the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking the following medications:\r\n* Phenytoin (brand name: Dilantin)\r\n* Carbamazepine (brand name: Tegretol, Carbatrol, Equetro, Epitol)\r\n* Oxcarbazepine (brand name: Trileptal)\r\n* Primidone (brand name: Mysoline)\r\n* Phenobarbital\r\n* Bendamustine (Treanda)\r\n* Clopidogrel (Plavix)\r\n* Clozapine (Clozaril, FazaClo)\r\n* Erlotinib (Tarceva)\r\n* Flecainide (Tambocor)\r\n* Fluvoxamine (Luvox)\r\n* Irinotecan (Camptosar)\r\n* Olanzapine (Zyprexa)\r\n* Ropinirole (Requip)\r\n* Tacrine (Cognex)\r\n* Theophylline (Theo Dur, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo screening tests and proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid the use of curcumin or any over-the-counter or prescription medications containing curcumin or curcuminoidsXx_NEWLINE_xXHelicobacter pylori negative, defined as negative stool antigen testing and negative histological examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are premenopausal defined as an individual with at least six menstrual cycles in the past year\r\n* Women with hysterectomy with intact functioning ovaries who are not having menstrual cycles need to be 45 years of age and underXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with esophageal dysmotilityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient unable to sit up or stay up for 30 minutes after taking oral doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have taken non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in the past two weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of hypocalcemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted radical prostatectomy for pathologically-verified adenocarcinoma of the prostate no more than 120 days prior to enrollment; the following procedures are acceptable: radical retropubic prostatectomy (RRP), laparoscopic radical prostatectomy (with or without robotic assistance; LAPD), radical perineal prostatectomy (RPP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically-demonstrable metastases at any time prior to the time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of systemic immunosuppressant agents including anti-metabolites, glucocorticoids, tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha antagonists, antibodies to interleukin (IL) 6 or IL6 receptor (R), calcineurin inhibitors, mammalian target of rapamycin (mTOR) antagonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of serious toxicity or a systemic reaction to vaccinia immunization such as myopericarditis progressive vaccinia infection, or eczema vaccinatumXx_NEWLINE_xXInflammatory or exfoliative skin diseases such as eczema, psoriasis that disrupt epidermisXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination or until the vaccination site heals completely: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczemoid skin disorders, or (d) immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIVXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are being screened for the therapeutic clinical trial will also be approached for participation into the optional sub-study evaluating sociobiological response to stress; refusal to participate in the sub-study will not impact the patient’s eligibility to participate in the therapeutic intervention\r\n* Should a patient consent to the optional sub-study, the patient may proceed with the optional baseline interventions for the optional sub-study as outlined within the protocol’s study calendarXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of gastric bypass surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active Clostridium difficile infection at the time of study enrollment; active infection is defined as a stool sample positive for Clostridium difficile toxin via enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and either symptoms (frequent loose stools) OR imaging findings consistent with toxic megacolonXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients actively enrolled on any other GVHD prevention trialXx_NEWLINE_xXBe interested in quitting smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to engage in a 3-day quit attempt as part of study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to abstain from cannabis and other tobacco products during study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of medications with smoking cessation efficacyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI): < 36 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXBreast imaging: class I-III mammogram within 6 months of RPFNA; if class 0 or 4, must be resolved with additional procedures; if breast imaging pre and post study is performed at Kansas University Medical Center (KUMC), then volumetric assessment by Volpara software will be performedXx_NEWLINE_xXIf previously on oral contraceptives or hormone replacement, off for 8 weeks or more prior to baseline RPFNA; the exception is low dose vaginal hormones (estring, vagifem, or 0.5 gram or less of conjugated estrogen vaginal cream twice weekly or less often); these vaginal preparations may be continued at the same doseXx_NEWLINE_xXAn RPFNA performed less than six months prior to enrollment on study that exhibits at least 500 cells on the cytology or Ki-67 slide, and a Ki-67 positivity measured on at least 500 cells that is less than 4%Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to comply with study procedures:\r\n* Willing to have a blood draw for serum to archive bioavailable estradiol, sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), FSH, and bazedoxifene levels as well as a chemistry profile to ensure reasonable normal organ function at baseline and 6 month visits (approximately four tubes of blood collected)\r\n* Willing to have a DEXA scan for body composition and waist measurement at baseline and 6-8 months\r\n* Willing to have a repeat mammogram and RPFNA at 6-8 months following initiation of study drug\r\n* Willing to undergo a history, physical, vitals and breast exam at baseline and 6 month visits\r\n* Willing to be contacted by the trial coordinator at months 1 and 3 during the 6 month study period\r\n* Willing to complete a 29 item validated menopause quality of life intervention questionnaire and hot flash assessment at baseline and 6 month visits\r\n* Willing to sign and able to understand separate consents for the RPFNAs and for study participationXx_NEWLINE_xXIntercurrent illness which makes potential participant unsuitable for study or started hormone replacement therapy between RPFNA and enrollment on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with an intact cervix (patients who have undergone previous loop electrosurgical excision procedure [LEEP], cone and/or cryotherapy are eligible)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who have undergone a hysterectomy with removal of the cervixXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients that present to clinic to have a cervical excisional procedure (LEEP) for an already confirmed diagnosis of high grade cervical dysplasia, HRME imaging study will be performed and cervical biopsies might be taken for research purposes only; any extra biopsies taken will be for research purposes only and our research fund will pay themXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning on remaining in New York City (NYC) for at least 9 months (with no vacations or trips to exceed two months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLicensed taxi driver for at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXOwns a cell phone that can receive text messages and is willing to receive text messages for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPart-time driver (drives fewer than 35 hours per week); although it is highly unlikely for NYC taxi drivers to work for multiple garages at study baseline, drivers may switch jobs and/or their garage base affiliation while participating in this study; new jobs and/or garage base affiliations will be tracked during follow-up assessments and noted for potential limitations with study retention and intervention contamination; drivers will be allowed to continue the study even if they are no longer working with the initial garage baseXx_NEWLINE_xXDriver currently has (or has a history of) any cardiovascular disease (CVD) including coronary artery disease, angina or aortic stenosis; this does not include hypertensionXx_NEWLINE_xXBorn in Mexico or born in the United States (U.S.) but self-describes as Mexican-American; Spanish is her/his primary languageXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a minimum of one child between the ages of 9 and 17 who has not received the HPV vaccine and who lives with the parent/guardian as per self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identifies as the child's main caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently owns a cell phone, uses text messaging services and is willing to accept text messages for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWill not be in the New York city (NYC) area for the duration of the study period (6-9 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an address and telephone number where they may be reachedXx_NEWLINE_xXBe the only participant in their householdXx_NEWLINE_xXWithin the month immediately preceding the screening visit, use of any form of tobacco products other than cigarettes, little cigars or cigarillos on 3 or more days within a week if the individual refuses to refrain from such tobacco use during the course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent enrollment or plans to enroll in another smoking cessation program in the next 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to use other nicotine substitutes (i.e., over-the-counter [OTC] or prescription medication for smoking cessation) or smoking cessation treatments in the next 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of certain medications: \r\n* Smoking cessation meds (last 7 days), i.e., Wellbutrin, bupropion, Zyban, NRT, Chantix\r\n* Certain medications to treat depression (last 14 days), i.e. monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and Elavil (amitriptyline), or \r\n* Other medications listed on the exclusionary medications listXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals rated as moderate (9-16) to high (17 or greater) on suicidality as assessed by module B of the MINIXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric hospitalization within 1 year of screening dateXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject considered by the investigator as unsuitable candidate for receipt of NRT, or unstable to be followed up throughout the entire duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have visual problems that in the investigators opinion would interfere in the completion of the study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to change hairstyle or remove a wig as necessary for the appointment to accommodate the net that is required to be worn on the scalp during the study procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive toxicology screen for any of the following drugs: cocaine, opiates, methadone, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines, methamphetamines, or phencyclidine (PCP)\r\n* Participants with valid prescriptions for opiates, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines or methadone will not be excluded\r\n* Participants failing the toxicology screen will be allowed to re-screen once; if they test positive again, they will not be allowed to return for 90 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must also receive a full myeloablative preparative regimen (patients treated with either total body irradiation (TBI)-based or high-dose chemotherapy only regimens are eligible other than high-dose busulfan containing regimens or regimens that include anti-thymocyte globulin or other T cell depleting antibodies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere hypoxemia with room air partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2) < 70, supplemental oxygen dependence, or DLCO < 50% predictedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypertriglyceridemia with serum triglyceride level >= 500 mg/d (lipid lowering drugs may be used to control level)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with symptomatic cholelithiasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a current dependence on alcohol (characterized by a physical addiction to alcohol that interferes with physical or mental health, and social, family or job responsibilities)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCD30+ disease (result can be pending at the time of cell procurement, but must be confirmed prior to treatment with ATLCAR.CD30 cells); NOTE: CD30 + disease requires documented CD30 expression by immunohistochemistry based on the institutional hematopathology standardXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired prior to infusion of ATLCAR.CD30 cells: Hgb >= 8g/dL without transfusion support over preceding 5 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired prior to infusion of ATLCAR.CD30 cells: AST =< 3 times ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired prior to infusion of ATLCAR.CD30 cells: Serum creatinine =< 1.5 times ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXRequired prior to infusion of ATLCAR.CD30 cells: Pulse oximetry of > 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen diagnosed with DCIS or ADH lesions detected by pathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen scheduled for mastectomy or lumpectomy after DCIS or ADH diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDirect bili =< 1 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are taking rapamycin for another diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are taking any pills containing herbal (alternative) medicines are NOT eligible for participation; patients must be off any such medications by the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave used smokeless tobacco for the last year, currently (past 30 days) uses smokeless tobacco daily, and chews/dips at least 3 times a dayXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an address in a rural census tract defined by a Rural-Urban Commuting Area (RUCA) code of 4-10 or reside in a county with an Urban Influence Code of 4 or higher or live in a medically underserved area defined as an Index of Medical Underservice (IMU) of 62 or lowerXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in participating in a cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a cell phone with unlimited texting ability and have knowledge of text messagingXx_NEWLINE_xXHave smoked cigarettes or used any other tobacco product in the past 30 days (i.e., pipe, cigar) and unwilling to stop use for the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently participating in a smokeless tobacco cessation studyXx_NEWLINE_xX>= 1 year history of smoking, and smoking >= 5 cigarettes per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXNot currently enrolled in a face-to-face smoking cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXMonolingual Spanish-speaking, or bilingual Spanish-English and prefer receiving educational health materials in SpanishXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients without cGVHD are defined as having no signs or symptoms of GVHD with chronic features diagnosed at any time prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to tolerate routine oral voriconazole, posaconazole or isavuconazole as fungal prophylaxis therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of ongoing gastrointestinal or hepatic acute GVHD or evidence of greater than ongoing stage I cutaneous acute GVHD at time of enrollment; ongoing, tapering therapy for resolved acute GVHD is permissibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with steroid refractory cGVHD cannot have history of the following therapies at any time in the post-transplant period: B-cell depleting biologic agents within the past 18 months, BTK/SYK/JAK/PI3K inhibitors within the past 2 weeks, CD19 chimeric antigen receptor (CAR) T-cell therapies at any time post-transplantXx_NEWLINE_xXActive hemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSorror’s co-morbidity factors with total score >= 4\r\n* Important modification to co-morbidity index calculation: DLCO adjusted will not be included in assessment of pulmonary risk, except those patients with DLCO adjusted < 50% who are excluded from the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAnti-thymocyte globulin as part of the conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXCyclophosphamide as part of the conditioning regimen or for GVHD prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistone deacetylase (HDAC), deacetylase (DAC), heat shock protein (HSP)90 inhibitors or valproic acid for the treatment of cancer within 30 days; only Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved drug are vorinostat and romidepsin the rest are considered investigational and are not allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be active smokers (defined as smoking any cigarette, cigar or pipe in the last 30 days)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who receive RT or CRT with palliative intentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who chew tobacco and patients who are not smoking but are exposed to second hand smoking are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients currently using a smoking cessation medication – any medications prescribed to help with smoking cessation except short acting nicotine replacement therapy (NRT): gum, lozenges, spray, inhalersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with documented contraindications for bupropion (bupropion hydrochloride), including: bulimia nervosa, anorexia nervosa; use of monoamine oxidase inhibitors in the past two weeks; documented seizure disorders or predisposition to seizure (ie stroke, brain metastases); abrupt withdrawal from alcohol, benzodiazepines, or other sedatives; closed-angle glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with diagnosis of major depression or any other psychiatric disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study; patients enrolled in the study must be able to undergo intensive RT plus or minus chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological or cytological confirmation of NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly controlled intercurrent illnessesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of left bundle branch block (LBBB);Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndecided parents (18 years and older) whose children are 11-17 year old patients who have not begun the HPV vaccine series.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParents whose child is a pregnant adolescentXx_NEWLINE_xXLack telephone accessXx_NEWLINE_xXHaving impairing hearing or speechXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight < 205 kilogramsXx_NEWLINE_xXPerforming less than 75 minutes of structured moderate-intensity or strenuous-intensity exercise per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete an acceptable baseline cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET) in the absence of high risk electrocardiography (ECG) findings or other inappropriate response to exercise as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to achieve an acceptable peak baseline CPET, as defined by any of the following criteria:\r\n* Achieving a plateau in oxygen consumption, concurrent with an increase in power output;\r\n* A respiratory exchange ratio of >= 1.10;\r\n* Attainment of maximal predicted heart rate (HRmax) (i.e., within 10 beats per minute [bpm] of age-predicted HRmax);\r\n* Volitional exhaustion, as measured by a rating of perceived exertion (RPE) >= 18 on the BORG scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXRoom air desaturation at rest =< 85%Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe periodontally healthy; this is defined as all sites with attachment levels =< 2 mm and probing depths =< 3 mm) and caries-free, as evidenced by a DMF (decayed, missing, filled teeth) index of < 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe either a current smoker or a never smoker; to define a smoker, we will utilize the Centers for Disease Control definitions; any individual who is currently smoking and has smoked more than 100 cigarettes in their lifetime will be identified as a current smoker; smoking status will be assessed by a questionnaire; smoking status will be conferred using a urine cotinine test at the randomization visit (week-2); the number of cigarettes smoked per day and years of smoking will be used to calculate pack-years, which will be used as a measure of tobacco exposure; a never smoker is defined as a person who has never smoked, or has smoked less than 100 cigarettes in their lifetime, and who has not had a cigarette in over ten yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to consume a standardized vitamin/mineral supplement and avoid other nutrition, dietary or alternative medications/supplements for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to follow a berry-free/controlled polyphenol diet and to document consumption of polyphenolic foods each day of the study using a simple daily formXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an active metabolic or digestive illness that impact phytochemical absorption and metabolism, including: diabetes, malabsorptive disorders (Crohn’s disease, documented celiac disease, etc.), renal insufficiency (creatinine [Cr] > 1.4), hepatic insufficiency (nonalcoholic steatohepatitis [NASH], cirrhosis, active viral hepatitis), hyper- or hypothyroidism, or short bowel syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXAre alcohol consumers (defined as an average consumption of greater than 1 drink/day over one week [wk] [one drink = 1 oz. liquor, 12 oz. beer])Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre taking immunosuppressant medications, bisphosphonates or steroid medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAre taking any medications that have known impact on immune responses (e.g. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs] for chronic pain) or are actively being investigated for the prevention of tobacco related cancers will not be acceptable; a single 81 mg aspirin per day will be acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXAre on an anticoagulant (warfarin, apixaban, dabigatran, and rivaroxaban) regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to accept randomization to each of the three armsXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to change diet, physical activity, and weightXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular access to computer with a reliable internet connectionXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to send and receive emailsXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete online formsXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or prior regular use of metformin within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a prior history of lactic acidosis by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported average consumption of > 14 alcoholic drink per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPlans to relocate from the area within one yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of prescription weight loss medication(s) (e.g., lorcaserin, topiramate/phentermine, phentermine, liraglutide, and bupropion/naltrexone), including off label use of drugs for weight loss or over-the-counter weigh loss medications such as Orlistat within the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnderwent screening or surveillance colonoscopy with removal of at least one adenoma within the last 9 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any non-aspirin non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) at any dose at least three times a week during the two months prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) or hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC, Lynch syndrome)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny adenoma that was not completely removed during previous colonoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is taking any anticoagulant agent (e.g. warfarin) or antiplatelet agent (e.g. clopidogrel)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSexually active women of all ethnicities and races with an intact cervix are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXEngaging in three or more intercourse events (defined as having penile-vaginal intercourse) per month; subjects must consent not to douche or use any vaginal products, including tampons, for 24 hours before enrollment and study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal Pap or Atypical Squamous Cells of Undetermined Significance (ASCUS) Pap test with HPV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) negative by reflex testing via Hybrid Capture 2 (Digene Corp., Gaithersburg, MD), a standard clinical assay within clinically acceptable screening guidelines (American Cancer Society [ACS]/American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology [ASCCP] 2012 Screening Guidelines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpeaks either English or Spanish, living in or near the Bronx with no plans to move in the next year, able to sign consent and complete questionnaires with aid of trained personnelXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of an HPV vaccine  \r\n* Women in the vaccine-eligible age range cannot have received vaccine prior to enrollment, but will be offered HPV vaccination at the end of the study; in brief, we are interested in the efficacy of intervention in preventing HPV in the absence of HPV vaccination, since most women worldwide who might utilize intervention will not have been vaccinated; this includes United States (US) women in the vaccine “catch-up” 19-26 year old age group (beyond the age groups eligible for Vaccines for Children- funded vaccination) who have so far had very low (< 10%) vaccine uptake; it also includes the entire group of US women > 26 years of age; moreover, it includes women of all ages in developing countries, who most need an HPV prevention strategy, but may never be vaccinated; it should be noted that delaying vaccination in women 19-26 years of age by one year is safe and reasonable, since there is insufficient data to establish a recommendation for or against universal vaccination in this age group as concluded by an American Cancer Society expert panel, which includes the Principal Investigator (PI) of this protocol, Dr. Mark Einstein; it is anticipated that if the intervention gel is efficacious, HPV vaccinated women would need to be studied in a similar future trial with power analysis taking into account vaccine effectiveness as wellXx_NEWLINE_xXActive genital ulcersXx_NEWLINE_xXFull-time New York City cab driversXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-smokers (assessed by modified Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System [BRFSS] smoking question within screening tool)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo immediate plans (within the next 3 months) to leave the city for vacation or for trips back to their home countryXx_NEWLINE_xXDriver for at least 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXDriving schedule does not include overnight shifts, nor does driver have an additional job overnightXx_NEWLINE_xXOwn a smart phone (in order to collect heart rate variability data)Xx_NEWLINE_xXShould self-report \very well\ or \well\ level of English fluency (according to the standard United States [US] census question)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave working cigarette lighter receptacle/socket inside taxi cabXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoker or uses smokeless tobacco productsXx_NEWLINE_xXResides in a smoking household (where 1 or more household members smoke)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a sleep disorder (including insomnia, delayed sleep phase syndrome [DSPS], narcolepsy, night terror, sleep apnea, sleep walking)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf reports \well\ level of English fluency and indicates a preference for an interpreterXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDS) or other anticoagulant/antiplatelet therapy, including acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) (ASA) > 81mg/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXSelective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRIs) (common anti-depressant therapies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWith prosthetic heart valvesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or documented bleeding disorders not limited to: anti-phospholipid syndrome, homozygotes for Factor V Leiden deficiency, antithrombin III deficiency, protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency, hyperhomocysteinemia, systemic lupus erythematous, or prothrombin G2020 gene mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXProtein C deficiency (increased risk of skin necrosis do those on injectable anticoagulation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or individuals who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identified African AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXFunctioning telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in quitting smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in taking 3 months of vareniclineXx_NEWLINE_xXMedication approval from their own physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of alcohol or drug dependence in the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of pharmacotherapy in the month prior to enrollment, including prior use of vareniclineXx_NEWLINE_xXAnother household member enrolled in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive smoking (cigarettes per day [CPD] >= 5) and exhaled carbon monoxide (CO) >= 8 parts per million (ppm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to participate in this randomized smoking cessation trial with follow up assessments up to 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXActive use or recent use (=< to 1 month) of medication or e-cigarettes for nicotine dependence/smoking cessation, or use of e-cigarettes for more than 9 days in the prior monthXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to prevent pregnancy during the medication phase and 1 month afterwards (women only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive psychosis or poorly controlled depression in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny suicide attempt or poorly controlled depression in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to have about 30 ml of blood drawn at 0, 6 and 12 months and about 5-10 ml of blood at 3 and 9 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on Coumadin or other anticoagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have had radiation to both breasts or who have undergone bilateral mastectomiesXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic use of omega-3 fatty acid concentrates or capsules within the 3 months prior to entry on the study or any other supplements that might interact with omega-3 fatty acid supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on a standing regimen of full dose aspirin (>= 325 mg/day), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or NSAID-containing productsXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants will include current and recently quit former smokers who have at least a 30 pack year smoking history (defined by number of packs smoked per day multiplied by number of years smoked)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecently quit former smokers will have been quit for a maximum of 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSpanish speakersXx_NEWLINE_xXAs iloprost inhibits platelet function, patients must not be taking anticoagulants, with the exception of aspirin or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOTS I AND II: Body mass index (BMI) of 25 or higher OR < 150 minutes of moderate to vigorous exercise per week OR < 5 servings of fruit and vegetables per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOTS I, II AND III: Capable of participating in moderate-vigorous unsupervised exerciseXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOTS I, II AND III: Have a cellular telephone and are able and willing to send and receive text messagesXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOTS I, II AND III: Have access to internetXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOT II: BRCA positive OR Lynch syndrome positive individualsXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOT II (FAMILY MEMBER): Female and male biological and non-biological family members of BRCA-positive individuals OR Lynch syndrome positive individualsXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOT III: Has experienced fatigue within the past seven daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOT III: Less than 150 minutes of exercise per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOT III: Less than 2 days of 15 minutes or more of resistance training per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOTS I, II AND III: Unable to walk without crutches, walker, cane, or other assistive deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPILOTS I, II AND III: Women who are pregnant (by self-report)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPILOTS I, II AND III: Less than 3 months post-surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient elects to undergo active surveillanceXx_NEWLINE_xXGeographically able to have study visits at the University of California, Los Angeles (UCLA) Clinical Research UnitXx_NEWLINE_xXIf subjects are randomized to the control group they agree to not consume fish oil capsules during the 1-year studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has taken finasteride or dutasteride during the prior 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCompleted the 1-year phase II low-fat fish oil studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAre geographically able to have study visits at UCLA’s Warren Hall or the Clinical Translational Research CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXIf continuing in the Control Group portion, agree to not consume fish oil during the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXELIGIBILITY FOR THE 2-YEAR EXTENSION: Patient is currently taking finasteride or dutasterideXx_NEWLINE_xXHave smoked for at least 3 years;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave been non-daily smokers for at least the previous year (< or = 27 days/month);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke at least weeklyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing and able to come to the University of Pittsburgh’s Smoking Research Group lab for 8 visits over a 14- week period, as well as a ninth and final visit 6 months after their quit date, and to monitor behavior via an electronic diary for 8 weeks.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of any form of tobacco other than cigarettes;Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent or severe mental illness (uncontrolled severe depression or mood symptoms, active hallucinations, or hospitalization in the past month for a psychiatric condition); night and/or ‘swing’ shift work (which complicates EMA schedules);Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown plans to relocate or move from the Pittsburgh area within the coming 6 months;Xx_NEWLINE_xXReceived cessation treatment (including cessation counseling, NRT, bupropion, or varenicline) in past 2 months;Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to NRT;Xx_NEWLINE_xXMultiple members of the same household cannot participate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in more than 3 research studies in the past 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in a smoking study in the past 3 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in a study which involved medication within the last monthXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditionally, prior to enrollment at first session, reporting smoking 28 or more days of the past 30, or registering a carbon monoxide (CO) reading of 15 or above (as this indicates heavy smoking, and is not consistent with non-daily smoking.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an address and telephone number where they may be reachedXx_NEWLINE_xXBe the only participant in their householdXx_NEWLINE_xXWithin the month immediately preceding the screening visit, use of any form of tobacco products other than cigarettes, little cigars or cigarillos on 3 or more days within a week if the individual refuses to refrain from such tobacco use during the course of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent enrollment or plans to enroll in another smoking cessation program in the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlan to use other nicotine substitutes (i.e., over-the-counter [OTC] or prescription medication for smoking cessation) or smoking cessation treatments in the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious or unstable disease within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory (last 3 months) of abnormal heart rhythms, cardiovascular disease (stroke, angina, heart attack) may result in ineligibility; these conditions will be evaluated on a case by case basis by the study physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals rated as moderate (9-16) to high (17 or greater) on suicidality as assessed by module B of the MINIXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychiatric hospitalization within 1 year of screening dateXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive toxicology screen for any of the following drugs: cocaine, opiates, methadone, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines, methamphetamines, phencyclidine (PCP), or delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC); A: participants with valid prescriptions for opiates, benzodiazepines, barbiturates, amphetamines or methadone will not be excluded; B: participants failing the toxicology screen will be allowed to re-screen once; if they test positive again, they will not be allowed to returnXx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have visual problems that in the investigators opinion would interfere in the completion of the study assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwilling to change hairstyle or remove a wig as necessary for the appointment to accommodate the net that is required to be worn on the scalp during the study procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has had previous exposure to Folotyn within 6 months of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIn addition, they should also have a cell phone with texting capabilities, read and speak English, reside in close proximity to, or can access the Navy Yard stop on the green line, can provide meaningful consent, and medical clearance from a physician or nurse practitionerXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical limitations that prevent participant from exercisingXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausalXx_NEWLINE_xXUse anti-diabetic medication (including insulin)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre on a weight loss programXx_NEWLINE_xXCannot commit to the intervention scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS), atypical ductal, or lobular hyperplasia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA known deleterious mutation in BRCA1, BRCA2, PTEN, or TP53. (Note: The participant must be a documented carrier to meet this criterion. If there is a known mutation in a hereditary breast cancer susceptibility gene in a participant's family member, the participant herself must have undergone genetic testing as per National Comprehensive Cancer Network guidelines to be eligible per this criterion.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXModified Gail/CARE model risk at 5 years ? 1.67%. (Note: Risk models are to be used only if there is no known previous diagnosis of resected ductal carcinoma in situ [DCIS] or LCIS and there is no known deleterious mutation in BRCA1, BRCA2, PTEN, or TP53)Xx_NEWLINE_xX10% or more probability of BRCA mutation by BRCAPRO or similar modelXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline mammographic density > 10% based upon the classification system (2 = 11-50%, \scattered fibroglandular densities\; 3 = 51-75%, heterogeneously dense; 4 = >75%, extremely dense). Women with a baseline mammographic density of ? 10% (1 = ?10%, breasts are almost entirely fat) will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior tamoxifen or raloxifene use in the past 1 year.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMammograms that are reported as suspicious.Xx_NEWLINE_xXApproval for the use of this treatment protocol by the individual institution’s Human Rights Committee must be obtained, in accordance with the institutional assurance policies of the U.S. Department of Health and Human ServicesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor children who are unable to perform pulmonary function testing, no evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 94% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXFor children who are unable to perform pulmonary function testing, no evidence of dyspnea at rest, no exercise intolerance, and a pulse oximetry > 92% in room airXx_NEWLINE_xXDONOR: related donors and unrelated adult donors, who are harvested at Columbia University Medical Center (CUMC), will receive filgrastim (G-CSF) 5-10 ug/kg/d subcutaneously x 4 days (or, if unable to tolerate G-CSF, sargramostim [GM-CSF] 250-500 mcg/m^2/day subcutaneously x 4 days) and then undergo leukapheresis; if necessary, plerixafor may be included for mobilizationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a valid telephone number and email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in all study componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to be followed-up for 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf identifies as American Indian or Alaska nativeXx_NEWLINE_xXIs a current smoker – self definedXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to leave the college within next 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically ineligible as a result of screening questionsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) (patch, gum, lozenge):\r\n* History of severe eczema or any serious skin problem if requested nicotine patch\r\n* History of severe allergic reaction to the nicotine patch or other skin adhesives\r\n* History of heart attack in the last 2 months\r\n* Currently experiencing frequent angina or chest pain related to heart\r\n* Currently experiencing signs and symptoms of peptic ulcer\r\n* Currently receiving medications for rapid or irregular heart beat\r\n* Currently experiencing signs and symptoms of severe, uncontrolled high blood pressureXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Chantix:\r\n* Pregnant or breast feeding or planning to become pregnant in the next 6 months\r\n* Currently using nicotine replacement therapy (NRT)\r\n* History of suicide attempt in the past 12 months\r\n* History of thoughts of suicide in the past 12 months\r\n* History of thoughts of harming others in the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Zyban:\r\n* Pregnant or breast feeding or planning to become pregnant in the next 6 months\r\n* History of seizure disorder or head trauma\r\n* History of severe allergic reaction to Zyban (also known as Wellbutrin, Bupropion)\r\n* History of eating disorder, such as anorexia or bulimia, which is overeating and throwing up\r\n* Currently taking Wellbutrin, Zyban or any other medications that contain bupropion\r\n* History of alcohol or substance abuse in the past year\r\n* Current excessive alcohol consumption defined as 14 or more alcoholic drinks per week and/or binge drinking (5 or more drinks on one occasion) 2 or more times in the past month\r\n* Use of monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, such as Nardil, tranylcypromine, phenelzine, or Parnate\r\n* Reported use of illegal drugs (opiates, cocaine, narcotics, or other stimulants such as diet pills)\r\n* Use of psychoactive medications, such as fluoxetine, doxepin, clonidine, or buspirone\r\n* Use of benzodiazepines, such as Xanax, Valium, Ativan, Klonopin in the past 2 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXInfectious disease criteria:\r\n* No active infection; infection controlled with antimicrobial therapy is not excluded\r\n* Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) negative by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) or reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) (if ELISA is positive and RT-PCR is negative, the ELISA is considered false positive)\r\n* Hepatitis B and C negative by serology or RT-PCR\r\n* Must complete full screening panel:\r\n** HIV 1, 2 serology and RT-PCR\r\n** Human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV) 1,2 serology\r\n** Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) serology\r\n** Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) serology\r\n** Cytomegalovirus (CMV) serology\r\n** Herpes simplex virus (HSV) serology\r\n** Varicella zoster virus (VZV) serologyXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement to utilize effective contraceptive methods during the study (for one year)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAntithymocyte globulin (ATG) as part of the conditioning regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXCSP-based postgrafting immunosuppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is enrolled on an investigational nonmyeloablative HCT protocol or a nonmyeloablative treatment plan with postgrafting CSP that does not use acute GVHD as its primary endpoint (protocol 2546 serves as adjunct protocol); ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a hematologic malignancy treatable by nonmyeloablative HCT; the following diseases will be permitted although other diagnoses can be considered if approved by Patient Care Conference (PCC) and the principal investigator:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAggressive non-Hodgkin lymphomas (NHL) and other histologies such as diffuse large B-cell NHL – not eligible for autologous HCT, not eligible for high-dose allogeneic HCT, or after failed autologous HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXMantle-cell NHL - may be treated in first complete remission (CR); (diagnostic lumbar puncture [LP] required pre-transplant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients < 12 years of age must be approved by the principal investigator and by a relevant patient review committee, such as the Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center (FHCRC) Patient Care Conference (PCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have either relapsed after previous high-dose chemotherapy and autologous or allogeneic HCT, or else be ineligible for such an approach due to age, failure to mobilize sufficient hematopoietic stem cells, medical comorbidities, or patient refusalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who refuse to be treated on a conventional autologous or allogeneic HCT protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXMyeloablative preparative regimenXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in an investigational study that has acute GVHD as the primary endpointXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with fungal pneumonia with radiological progression after receipt of amphotericin formulation or mold-active azoles for greater than 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with high-grade cervical intraepithelial lesions (CIN2/3) confirmed by colposcopy, biopsy, and review of the biopsy pathology slides by two pathologistsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose lesions are HPV16+ by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) (treatment groups 1, 2, 3 and 5); group 4 (imiquimod alone: 6 HPV16+ subjects, 12 HPV16- subjects)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are immunocompetentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of severe allergy including eczema or other exfoliative skin disorder or active skin diseases such as psoriasis, lichen planus, severe acneiform rash, impetigo, varicella zoster, or sepsis among patients or among close social, sexual or domestic contacts; patients with burns or other traumatic or pruritic skin conditions or open wounds should not receive the vaccine until the condition has resolved; surgical scars must be healedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active eczema during the last 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are in close social contact with children under 5 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are in close social/domestic contact with a pregnant womanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been previously vaccinated with vacciniaXx_NEWLINE_xXSingle solid organ recipient (kidney only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnderlying kidney disease with a high risk of disease recurrence in the transplanted kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to complete all mandatory testsXx_NEWLINE_xXFair, good or excellent cosmesis, as determined by trained nurse assessment using the Harvard Cosmetic ScaleXx_NEWLINE_xXActive systemic lupus or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXIndications for comprehensive regional nodal irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHCCs must fall within the Milan/United Network for Organ Sharing (UNOS) T2 criteria (1 lesion 2-5 cm or 3 lesions all =< 3 cm without evidence of vascular invasion/metastasis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of statin medication or statin use within 12 months of screen 1 visitXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent systemic use of medications known to interact with statins and potentially increase toxicity, including (e.g., gemfibrozil, cyclosporine, clarithromycin, colchicine, niacin and fibrates)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhysiological Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) >= 30 at screening visit\r\n* If the patient has been dialyzed at least twice within the last 7 days, then the factor used for serum creatinine should be 4.0; any value less than one is given a value of 1 (i.e., if bilirubin is 0.8 a value of 1.0 is used) to prevent the occurrence of scores below 0 (because any positive value below 1 the natural logarithm would yield a negative result); the upper limit of serum creatinine is capped at 4.0; the lower limit of serum sodium (Na) is capped at 125, and the upper limit is capped at 137; after enrollment, if a patient’s MELD increases to 30 or greater, they can still be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic myopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHemophiliaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent excessive alcohol consumption (average alcohol consumption of more than 5 drinks per day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt screening has suspected or confirmed CDI, and is receiving or is planning to receive a 10- to 21-day course of antibacterial drug treatment for CDIXx_NEWLINE_xXAt study infusion has a diagnosis of CDI confirmed by a diagnostic assay which detects the presence of C. difficile toxin in stool, and is still receiving antibacterial drug treatment for CDI.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant and/or parent or caregiver must be able to read, understand, and complete the daily diaryXx_NEWLINE_xXAt screening has received any listed prohibited prior and concomitant treatments and proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHas previously participated in this study, has previously received bezlotoxumab, has received an experimental monoclonal antibody against C. difficile toxin B, or has received a vaccine directed against C. difficile or its toxins.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has used a probiotic dietary supplement within the previous 30 days of enrollment; (consumption of yogurt products is allowed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has diarrhea at the time of enrollment which is Clostridium difficile toxin positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is allergic to the third or fourth generation celphalosporins, carbapenem, or aminoglycosides which are used to empirically treat LBP bacteremiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following hematologic malignancies:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyelodysplastic syndrome (MDS): transfusion-dependent (requiring at least one transfusion per month), or intermediate or higher Revised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) risk groupXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated probability of surviving less than 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindication for GVHD prophylaxis with mycophenolate mofetil, cyclosporine A, or tacrolimusXx_NEWLINE_xXENROLLMENT HAS ENDEDXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identified foreign born individuals in China, Korea, and VietnamXx_NEWLINE_xXWill stay in the targeted area in the next 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot a resident in the Baltimore Washington Metropolitan areaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have started on anastrozole and plan to continue on anastrozole therapy for a minimum of 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXA willingness to avoid taking NSAIDs outside of the trial (rare NSAID use for musculoskeletal symptoms excepted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo known contraindication to NSAID useXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or anticipated need for daily aspirin or NSAID use including aspirin for cardiovascular protectionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown intolerance to NSAIDsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave electrically, magnetically, or mechanically activated implants including cardiac pacemaker, cochlear implants, magnetic surgical clips or prostheses.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHair that covers the scalp and is at least 1/4 inch in lengthXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing alopeciaXx_NEWLINE_xXscalp metastases or scalp woundsXx_NEWLINE_xXuse of hair dyesXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy post-pubescent teens with access to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be free of life-threatening illness (e.g., cancer) that would severely limit participation; those with chronic illnesses (e.g., asthma, diabetes) may participate with the permission of their physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects should have no serious physical activity, diet, or nutrition restrictions that could interfere with changes brought about as a result of the intervention; restrictions that will be screened for are untreated exercise-induced asthma, orthopedic or neurological problems, and medical conditions affecting nutritional status, intestinal absorption, or response to nutritional intervention (e.g. inflammatory bowel disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerious mental illness or developmental disabilities; subjects should be free of serious mental illness or developmental disability that would limit participation, including eating disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXThe study will be nonselect with respect to the racial or ethnic background of the subjects; the racial/ethnic composition of the study sample will be representative of the patient population from which it will be drawnXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a telephone or mobile phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXHave no significant co-morbidity that precludes participation (i.e. acute, life-threatening illness, communication barriers such as a tracheal tube placement, or altered mental status such as dementia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe a permanent resident of the state of Kansas or MissouriXx_NEWLINE_xXNot currently prescribed or taking nicotine replacement therapy or varenicline during this hospitalizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient not already seen by UKanQuit staff as part of the hospital based clinical serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXProvided a secondary phone or email contact to ensure one month follow-up survey completionXx_NEWLINE_xXNot taking medication to help in quitting smoking prior to admissionXx_NEWLINE_xXNot currently participating in a quit smoking programXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to smart phone or computer with internet access.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing ischemic heart disease (includes angina if documented in electronic medical record [EMR]) or ongoing cardiomyopathy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented germline pathogenic or likely pathogenic variant in the BRCA1 or BRCA2 genesXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be scheduled for risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy with or without hysterectomy – either bilateral or unilateral (if prior unilateral oophorectomy or salpingectomy for benign condition)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to not undergo any other elective surgery procedure with general anesthesia or conscious sedation during the treatment periodXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history or current evidence of osteonecrosis or osteomyelitis of the jaw, evidence of untreated local gum or oral infection, or non-healed dental or oral surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXActive dental or jaw conditions which require oral surgery/dental procedures, including tooth extraction within 6 months of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to any of the products to be administered during the study (e.g., calcium or vitamin D)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with known osteoporosis or history of osteoporotic (fragility) fracture of the spineXx_NEWLINE_xXEncephalopathy absentXx_NEWLINE_xXPulse oximetry of hemoglobin saturation ?92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of chronic pulmonary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT recipients who underwent ex vivo T-cell depletion of the graft, or a mismatched, or cord or haplo identical blood transplantationXx_NEWLINE_xXHSCT recipients with active and/or chronic graft versus host diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smokers or subjects with any history of smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausalXx_NEWLINE_xXA body mass index (BMI) >= 25 as assessed in the medical record and have intact breasts and ovariesXx_NEWLINE_xXMeet all the following criteria related to lifestyle: a) consume less than 3 servings of vegetables (excluding any fried servings) and 1 serving of fruit (not including juice)/day; b) engage in less than 150 minutes moderate/vigorous intensity activity per week, defined as anything that causes small increases in breathing or heart rate for a sustained amount of time (e.g., brisk walking, bicycling); c) engage in a mind-body practice less once per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXAble mentally and physically to participate in interventions in this study (Note: If there are one or more positive responses to the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire [PARQ], then a physician-release for exercise is required prior to obtaining consent)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCommunication barriers (e.g. hard of hearing)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtreme orthopedic or mobility issues (e.g., unable to get in and out of a chair unassisted)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHigh-risk indoor tanner (defined as using an indoor tanning bed at least 10 times in the previous 12 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDaily use of FacebookXx_NEWLINE_xXUCB unit(s) composing the graft will be selected according to the current University of Minnesota umbilical cord blood graft selection algorithm plus an additional cord blood unit to be used as the source to manufacture the Treg product; this UCB unit must be matched at 4-6/6 to the patient, considering HLA-A, B at the antigen level and DRB1 at the allele levelXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute leukemias: Must be in remission by morphology (=< 5% blasts); also a small percentage of blasts that is equivocal between marrow regeneration versus early relapse are acceptable provided there are no associated cytogenetic markers consistent with relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXHyperplastic polyp or/and adenoma casesXx_NEWLINE_xXPolyps free participants with any of the following high risk of colorectal polyps or cancer: (1) family history of colorectal cancer or polyps; (2) current cigarette smoker; (3) obesity (body mass index [BMI] >= 30 kg/m^2); (4) low intake of fiber (lowest fiber intake quartile: daily intake < 16.6 g); (5) high intake of red meat and well-done or processed meat (mutagenicity index >= 5852)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to be contacted for future studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXWill live in Nashville or surrounding area for the next 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to magnesium glycinate or microcrystalline cellulose (placebo)Xx_NEWLINE_xXChronic diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXPituitary dwarfismXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with a history of colon resection or colectomy due to any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividual with history of gastric bypass due to any reasonXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of digoxin and licoriceXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of blood anticoagulant drugs such as dicumarol (Warfarin), clopidogrel (Plavix), prasugrel hydrochloride (HCl) (Effient), ticlopidine (Ticlid), Lovenox (Enoxaparin), Fragmin (Dalteparin), Innohep (Tinzaparin), eptifibatide (Integrilin), tirofiban (Aggrastat), and abciximab (ReoPro)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of lithium carbonate therapy (Eskalith, Lithobid, Lithonate, Lithotabs, Apo-Lithium carbonate, Apo-Lithium carbonate SR, Carbolith, Duralith, PMS-Lithium carbonate, PMS-Lithium citrate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHomeless individuals (address, telephone etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical stage =< T2a by digital rectal exam (DRE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmunodeficiency or splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious adverse reactions to smallpox vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to avoid close contact or household contact with the following high-risk individuals for three weeks after the day 1 vaccination or until the vaccination site heals completely: (a) children =< 3 years of age, (b) pregnant or nursing women, (c) individuals with prior or concurrent extensive eczema or other eczemoid skin disorders, (d) individuals with other acute, chronic, or exfoliative skin condition, or (e) immunocompromised or immunosuppressed persons (by disease or therapy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ulcerative colitis in clinical remission (UCDAI) =< 1 for at least 3 months, regardless of how long ago they were diagnosed for UCXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently on the wait list for a new gardenXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo study measurementsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have an Internet connection and be able and willing to use an applicable device\r\n* If patients do not have an applicable device, they must be willing to borrow an iPad from the study team (to be returned at the conclusion of the study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who does not have Internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not undergo radical cystectomy will be withdrawn from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identifies as gay or bisexualXx_NEWLINE_xXLives in the United States (US)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas not received any doses of HPV vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of diabetic ketoacidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic alcohol use or abuse defined as any one of the following: a) average consumption of 3 or more alcohol containing beverages daily in the past 12 months; b) consumption of 7 or more alcoholic beverages within a 24 hour (hr) period in the past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXGlycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) > 8%Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of renal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy on the basis of medical historyXx_NEWLINE_xXNicotine dependence assessed as > 4 (>= 2 for study 2) with the Fagerstrom Test for Nicotine DependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to abstain from smoking for 8 hours (overnight abstinence) prior to study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of serious side effects from nicotine or from any nicotine replacement therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol or illicit drug dependence within the past 12 months (by history and urine tests)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMothers/female guardians of elementary aged studentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf identify as LatinaXx_NEWLINE_xXNot adherent to the standard for > five servings of fruits and vegetable and 150 minutes of physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXNot a parent of elementary aged student in Duarte Unified School District (DUSD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not self-identify as LatinaXx_NEWLINE_xXConsumes 5+ servings of fruits and vegetables and is active for at least 30 minutes 5+ days per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXHas physical limitations and cannot participate in physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen < 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to avoid exposing breast skin to natural or artificial sunlight (i.e. tanning beds) for the duration of study agent dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to use alcohol in moderation while taking study agentXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who were using oral contraceptives or postmenopausal hormones within eight weeks prior to core needle biopsy, and then stopped following core needle biopsy, are not eligible; use of hormone coated IUD like Mirena is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXTaken tamoxifen or other selective estrogen/progesterone receptor modulators (selective estrogen receptor modulators[SERMs]/selective progesterone receptor modulators [SPRMs]) within two years prior to entering study or been required to discontinue SERM therapy due to thromboembolic or uterine toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent history (within 6 months) of alcoholism or drug abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) 25-45 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternet access and a compatible device\r\n* If patients do not own a compatible device the study team may loan a device to be returned at the end of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of 5 alpha reductase inhibitors prior 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of biochemical recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke at least 10 cigarettes daily for the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXExpired-air carbon monoxide (CO) > 8 parts per million (ppm)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedically eligible to receive vareniclineXx_NEWLINE_xXHave renal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically at risk in the judgment of the study physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXHave ever used vareniclineXx_NEWLINE_xXUsed other smoking cessation medications within the past three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician-diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke 5 or more cigarettes/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take NRT for up to 12 months, and be willing to complete 4 follow-up telephone-based counseling sessions and 3 follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXReside in a facility that does not allow smoking (e.g. certain nursing homes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLack access to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects demonstrating markedly inappropriate affect or behavior will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSodium 135-144 mmol/L (inclusive)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven Barrett’s esophagus that is non-dysplastic or with low grade dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have Lynch syndrome defined as meeting any of the following:\r\n* “Mutation-positive Lynch syndrome”: carriers or obligate carriers (by pedigree) of a pathogenic mutation in one of the DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes (i.e. mutL homolog 1 [MLH1], mutS homolog 2 [MSH2]/epithelial cell adhesion molecule [EPCAM], mutS homolog 6 [MSH6], or PMS2 postmeiotic segregation increased 2 [S. cerevisiae] [PMS2]) or\r\n* “Mutation-negative Lynch syndrome”: patients with a personal history of a non-sporadic MMR deficient premalignant lesion (i.e. polyp) or a non-sporadic MMR deficient malignant tumor (where “non-sporadic MMR deficient” is defined by: microsatellite-instability high by either immunohistochemistry or microsatellite instability [MSI] testing or both, but no evidence of MLH1 promoter methylation in cases with loss of both MLH1 and PMS2, and/or no evidence of v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B [BRAF] mutation in cases with loss of both MLH1 and PMS2) but germline MMR genetic testing showed either a variant of unknown significance or mutation negative result or had declined germline MMR genetic testingXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must consent to one standard of care lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy (flexible sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy) with biopsies and one flexible sigmoidoscopy with biopsies that will be 6 months (+14 days) apartXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who received scheduled aspirin, NSAIDs, or COX-inhibitors of any kind for more than 3 days (> 3 days) during anytime within the 2 weeks preceding baseline eligibility screening visit; individuals on cardio-protective aspirin will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are status post total proctocolectomy (i.e. removal of all colon and rectum)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with active gastroduodenal ulcer disease in the preceding 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals taking the drugs listed below may not be randomized unless they are willing to stop the medications (and possibly change to alternative non-excluded medications to treat the same conditions) no less than 7 days prior to starting naproxen or placebo on this study; consultation with the participant’s primary care provider may be obtained but is not required; the use of the following drugs or drug classes is prohibited during naproxen/placebo treatment:\r\n* Investigational agents\r\n* NSAIDs: such as aspirin, ketorolac and others NSAIDs\r\n* COX-2 inhibitors: such as celecoxib, rofecoxib and other COX-2\r\n* Antiplatelet agents: such as aspirin, clopidogrel, ticlopidine, dipyridamole, abciximab, tirofiban, eptifibatide and prasugrel\r\n* Anticoagulants:\r\n** Heparin\r\n** Heparinoids: such as fondaparinux, danaparoid and other heparinoids\r\n** Low-molecular weight heparins: such as enoxaparin, dalteparin, parnaparin, reviparin, tinzaparin, ardeparin, certoparin, lepirudin, bivalirudin\r\n** Other anticoagulants: argatroban, apixaban, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, warfarin, acenocoumarol, dicumarol, phenindione and other anticoagulants\r\n* Lithium\r\n* Selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors: milnacipran, fluoxetine, paroxetine, nefazodone, citalopram, clovoxamine, escitalopram, flesinoxan, femoxetine, duloxetine, venlafaxine, vilazodone, sibutramine, desvenlafaxine\r\n* Anticonvulsants: phenytoin, paraldehyde, valproic acid, carbamazepine, trimethadione, phenobarbital, diazepam, chlormethiazole, mephenytoin, ethotoin, paramethadione, phenacemide, mephobarbital, oxcarbazepine, zonisamide, piracetam, vigabatrin, felbamate, gabapentin, beclamide, fosphenytoin, stiripentol, tiagabine, topiramate, pregabalin, lacosamide, rufinamide, caramiphen\r\n* Antibiotics and antifungals:\r\n** Fluoroquinolones : such as ofloxacin, norfloxacin, levofloxacin\r\n* Other agents: teriflunomide, cyclosporine, tacrolimus, ginkgo, gossypol, meadowsweet, feverfew, beta glucan, pentosan, pentoxifylline, cilostazol, erlotinib, pemetrexed, methotrexate, pralatrexateXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with uncontrolled renal insufficiency or renal failureXx_NEWLINE_xXAll TP53 germline mutation positive adult patients will be eligible for this study; all patients must have a documented TP53 germline mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of chronic alcohol useXx_NEWLINE_xXGastric paresisXx_NEWLINE_xXCeliac sprueXx_NEWLINE_xXPancreatic insufficiency or diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic proton pump inhibitor (PPI) use or histamine (H2) blocker use that cannot be temporarily discontinued (at least 48 hours)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny acetaminophen, aspirin, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID), or statin use within 2 days of testing (known to affect mitochondrial function)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDrugs that interfere with mitochondrial function if they are unable to be discontinued 48 hours prior to 13MBT testing will be excluded for this test only but eligible for the rest of the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic alcohol use defined as > 2 standard drinks per day (more than 2 beers, 2 glasses of wine, or 2 shots of liquor per day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index under 19 or over 45Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is scheduled to undergo radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject agrees to stop consuming tea or tea-containing products and quercetin supplements throughout the entire intervention period except for the green tea extract and quercetin provided during study interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior sensitivity or allergic reaction to tea, tea products or tea and quercetin supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to multiple food items or nutritional supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists, androgen receptor blocking agents, finasteride, or has undergone bilateral orchiectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXFOCUS GROUPS AND SURVEYS: Healthy volunteers currently living in San Diego, Portland, Albuquerque, Oklahoma, San Francisco/Bay Area, Nashville, Tucson, Los Angeles, New York City, Minneapolis or Duluth, Minnesota (MN) who attend bars or nightclubs; both current (past 30 day) smokers and nonsmokers will be included in the focus groups and surveysXx_NEWLINE_xXLGBT SUB-STUDY: Participants are healthy volunteers currently living in San Diego Portland, or Albuquerque who attend bars or nightclubs in the LGBT random sample; both current (past 30 day) smokers and nonsmokers will be included in the focus groups and surveysXx_NEWLINE_xXQUALITATIVE INTERVIEWS WITH KEY INFORMANTS FROM SOCIAL BRANDING CAMPAIGN: Participants are key informants from the Social Branding bar intervention (i.e. facilitators, brand managers, or cessation counselors) who may be young adults or slightly olderXx_NEWLINE_xXNot living in San Diego, Portland, Albuquerque, Oklahoma, San Francisco/Bay Area, Nashville, Tucson, Los Angeles, New York City, Minneapolis or Duluth MN or currently attending college outside of the target citiesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor the LBGT cohort study, subjects will be excluded for unwillingness to provide contact information or if they do not self-identify as LGBT in the screenerXx_NEWLINE_xXFor smoking cessation groups, unwillingness to participate or no desire to quit smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of short-segment or long-segment Barrett’s esophagus as previously made by upper endoscopy showing salmon-colored distal esophageal mucosa and biopsies revealing intestinal metaplasia with goblet cells; potential study subjects may be contacted by mailings or phone calls or may be approached in clinic; additionally, potential study subjects may be approached using a web-based recruitment tool; informed consent will be obtained by a research coordinator or study investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to donate 90 mL of blood and endoscopic mucosal biopsies for researchXx_NEWLINE_xXVITAMIN D/METFORMIN SUBARM OF LOW GRADE DYSPLASIA/NO DYSPLASIA ARM:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 cm circumferential Barrett’s esophagus segment length (C2M2 by Prague C & M criteria)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown chronic kidney disease (creatinine >= 3.0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic reaction to omeprazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic reaction to vitamin DXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on a stable (>= 4 week duration) dose of > 2000 IU/day (or equivalent) of vitamin D supplementationXx_NEWLINE_xXVITAMIN D/METFORMIN SUBARM OF THE DYSPLASIA/NO DYSPLASIA ARM:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic reaction to metforminXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of B12 deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xX50% or higher estimated mammographic density on visual inspectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior or current random periareolar fine needle aspiration (RPFNA) evidence of atypiaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown carrier of a BRCA1 or 2 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXProjected probability of developing breast cancer by either the Gail model (5-year risk) or the Tyrer–Cuzick model (10-year risk) that is at least 2-fold greater than that for the population; for the Gail model any value of 5-year risk >= 1.67% satisfies the requirementXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 40 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXTiming of follicular phase of menstrual cycle:\r\n* For women who are actively menstruating, at least 4 menstrual periods in past 12 months such that there is a reasonable expectation of being able to perform the aspiration in the follicular phase of the cycle (sometime between day 1 and day 10 inclusive, with day one being the first day of bleeding); very light periods and spotting count OR\r\n* Women who have not had 4 menstrual periods in the past year due to Mirena type intrauterine devices (IUDs) or endometrial ablation may be screened, but hormone levels must be assayed 2-4 weeks prior to RPFNA in order to predict when to perform RPFNA so as to be in the follicular phase; lab results and institutional normal ranges must be reviewed by the protocol chair, who will provide an acceptable time window within which to conduct the RPFNA; women who have had their uterus removed, but still have at least one functioning ovary may be screened using the same hormone level check; must be willing to have same assessment of hormones and prediction of follicular phase repeated for the off-study RPFNAXx_NEWLINE_xXThere has been a sufficient interval between a breast procedure and the RPFNA: at least 2 months for a prior RPFNA, at least 2 months for a core needle biopsy, at least 3 months for an excisional biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXConsidered to be perimenopausal and/or entering the menopause transitionXx_NEWLINE_xXConsumption of systemic antibiotics or commercial supplements containing SDG (e.g. flaxseed or sesame seed supplements) during the 3 weeks prior to baseline RPFNA; consumption of foods containing flaxseed or sesame seed are permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular consumption of non-prescription anticoagulants, such as aspirin, NSAIDS or fish oil during the 3 weeks prior to baseline RPFNA is strongly discouraged, but occasional use will not exclude subject from participationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny consumption of prescription anticoagulants, including Coumadin and Lovenox, during the 3 weeks prior to baseline RPFNAXx_NEWLINE_xXRPFNA specimen exhibits hyperplasia +/- atypia; Masood score of >= 13 with >= 500 cells on the cytology slideXx_NEWLINE_xXKi-67 >= 2% positivity (>= 500 cells)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave reasonable organ function as documented by complete blood count (CBC) and metabolic chemistry profile (within 3 months prior to study entry visit)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to undergo a history and physical at baseline and 12 months and be contacted periodically by the trial coordinator during the 12 month study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to repeat RPFNA at 12 months following initiation of study agentXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to have blood drawn at baseline and 12 months; if non-menstruating, an additional draw will be performed at approximately 11 months so as to predict when to perform the RPFNAXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible tumor and premalignant lesion sites include oral cavity (buccal mucosal, gingival, floor of mouth, dorsal/ventral tongue, pharyngeal wall), oropharynx, larynx (glottis, supraglottis, subglottis, epiglottis), hypopharynx paranasal sinus and nasal cavityXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion sites include oral cavity (buccal mucosa, gingival, floor of mouth, dorsal/ventral tongue, pharyngeal wall), oropharynx, hypopharynx, larynx (glottis, supraglottis, subglottis, epiglottis), nasopharynx and paranasal sinusesXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have no medical contraindications for flexible laryngoscopy using topical anesthesia, and in the setting of a contraindication to topical anesthesia, general anesthesia may not be used as a substituteXx_NEWLINE_xXGeneral anesthesia, if indicated, is acceptable in patients whose lesions would require general anesthesia for laryngoscopy and biopsy according to routine standard of careXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be willing to abstain from drinking green tea or taking supplements containing green tea or green tea compounds, for the duration of the investigation and for 30 days prior to study entry\r\n* (Please note that patients with a treated T1N0 or T2N0 squamous carcinoma and who do not have a pre-malignant measurable lesion at the time of study entry will not be subjected to a biopsy but will have cytobrush samples taken as specified in the protocol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a documented history of coagulopathy such as hemophilia or von Willebrand’s disease or inherited thrombophiliaXx_NEWLINE_xXConsumption of green tea or supplements containing green tea or tea extract within 30 days prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAdvanced adenomas are defined as subject with polyps >= 1 cm, tubulovillous adenomas (25-75 percent villous features), villous adenomas (> 75 percent villous), or high-grade dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXColonoscopy =< 45 days prior to randomization with removal of all adenomas or polyps >= 2 mm in sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastroduodenal ulcers documented =< 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal colectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a colostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant corticosteroids or anticoagulants needed on a regular or predictable intermittent basisXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive chemotherapy with an anthracycline (doxorubicin [doxorubicin hydrochloride] or epirubicin [epirubicin hydrochloride])Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to hold breathe for 10 secondsXx_NEWLINE_xX40 to 75 years of age with diabetes per American College of Cardiology (ACC)/American Heart Association (AHA) ACC/AHA 2013 guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or history of hepatic dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ferromagnetic cerebral aneurysm clips or other intraorbital/intracranial metal; pacemakers, defibrillators, functioning neurostimulator devices or other implanted electronic devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of the following cytochrome P450, family 3, subfamily A, polypeptide 4 (CYP 3A4) inhibitors are not allowed: boceprevir, clarithromycin, cyclosporine (oral), darunavir plus ritonavir, fosamprenavir, fosamprenavir plus ritonavir, gemfibrozil, grapefruit juice > 1 liter per day, itraconazole, lopinavir plus ritonavir, nelfinavir, saquinavir plus ritonavir, telaprevir, tipranavir plus ritonavirXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of rifampin and digoxinXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who will be scheduled to undergo an RRSO or RRSXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who will have at least one fallopian tube removed for risk-reducing reasons (with or without removal of ovar[ries])Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are willing to have a Mirena IUD inserted at least 10 days prior to risk-reducing surgery or who already have the Mirena in placeXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen using non-hormonal forms of contraception\r\n*(Note: If a copper IUD is being used, the IUD must be removed prior to or at time of Mirena insertion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny medical contradiction to use of a Mirena IUD, including:\r\n* Pregnancy (a pregnancy test is required prior to study entry)\r\n* Known uterine anomaly that distorts the shape of the uterine cavity \r\n* Acute pelvic inflammatory disease\r\n* Postpartum endometritis or endometrial infection\r\n* Known or suspected uterine or cervical neoplasia\r\n* Known history or suspected breast cancer or other progestin-sensitive cancer\r\n* Uterine bleeding of unknown etiology\r\n* Untreated acute cervicitis, vaginitis, or other lower genital tract infections\r\n* Acute liver disease or liver tumor (benign or malignant)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of a copper IUD if the patient is not willing to have it removed prior to surgery and replaced with a Mirena IUDXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have ONLY HPV 16 OR HPV 16 AND 18 and no other High-Risk HPV by Cobas test will be included.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically confirmed, positive HSIL of CIN2+ or higher (only CIN2+/3 subjects will be selected) cervical biopsy, confirmed by external (independent) pathologist panel within the 12 weeks prior to enrollment. If the standard care biopsy is not available for evaluation by the independent pathologist, a fresh biopsy and endocervical curettage will be required. The extent of colposcopic HSIL disease should not involve more than two quadrants of the cervix. Biopsies should be taken from each affected quadrantXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate visualization of entire cervix, cervical lesion(s) and squamous-columnar junctionXx_NEWLINE_xXAgrees to Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP), Cold Knife Conization (CKC) or Hysterectomy being performed at the end of study according to the standard-of-careXx_NEWLINE_xXAdministration of any blood product within 3 months of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXThe standard criteria for prospective clinical trials of medications developed by Drug-Induced Liver Injury Network (established by The National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Diseases) will be used to assess the laboratory test abnormalities. Normal range for these labs will typically be 5 - 40 IU/L for AST; 7 - 56 IU/L for ALT; 0.2 - 1.2 mg/dL for bilirubin. Subjects will be excluded if values are x 2-x 2.5 the upper limitXx_NEWLINE_xXAny known allergic reaction to vaccine componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXFamily member of the investigation study staffXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of (e.g. Gardasil® or Cervarix®) HPV preventative vaccines within 8 years of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXExcessive use of acetaminophen or other potentially hepatotoxic drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following hematologic malignancies:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated probability of surviving less than 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for donations of human blood and blood components according to local requirements and regulationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of anaphylaxis attributed to the azole class of antifungal agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXIs not expected to receive a minimum of 10 days of POS IV solutionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe ethnic and racial composition of the subject population will reflect the composition of subjects seeking care at The Ohio State University and James Cancer Hospital and Solove Research Institute; no special groups such as prisoners, children, the mentally disabled, or groups whose ability to give voluntary informed consent may be in question will be used for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) between 30 - 40Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have had a mammogram within the 12 months prior to study enrollment; mammograms must be read as not suspicious for breast cancer (American College of Radiology [ACR] class I-III); subjects with a class IV mammogram may be entered once they have had a negative biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to have about 30 ml of blood (approximately 6 teaspoons) drawn at 0 and 3 months and about 5-10 ml of blood (approximately 1-2 teaspoons) at 1 and 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of immunosuppressant medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic use of any herbal or dietary supplement containing curcumin or curcuminoids within the 3 months prior to entry on the study or any other supplements that might interact with NECXx_NEWLINE_xXDietary intake of large amounts of curry, turmeric spices or black pepper on a regular basisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on a standing regimen of full dose aspirin (>= 325 mg/day), non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)s or NSAID-containing productsXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning to move from the area within the next yearXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) above 45 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXTaking medication that may impair PA tolerance or performance (e.g., beta blockers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants who report not having access to an internet-connected computer with a modem through home, work, or their community (public library, community center, neighbor’s house, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: histologic verification at either the time of original diagnosis or a previous relapse of high risk neuroblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease Status: Neuroblastoma that is in remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine based on age/genderXx_NEWLINE_xXBSA (m2) of <0.25Xx_NEWLINE_xXMinimum of 1 cm circumferential Barrett's mucosa on endoscopy or at least 2 cm maximal contiguous extent of Barrett's mucosaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of esophageal or gastric surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXAttend classes at either Houston Community College (HCC) Central Campus or Coleman Campus (Phase 1 and Phase 2) or Spring Branch Campus (Phase 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOwn a smartphone capable of receiving texts from the study's text messaging resource (Phase 1 and Phase 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse phone text-messaging features on a regular basis (Phase 1 and Phase 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProvide cell phone number (Phase 1 and Phase 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in a communication program (university student review)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported Hispanic/Latino ethnicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysically able to engage in low-to-moderate PAXx_NEWLINE_xXConsumption of fewer than 5 servings of fruits and vegetables per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXValid home address in the Houston neighborhoods of Gulfton, the East End/Magnolia, or near Northside, or adjacent neighborhoodsXx_NEWLINE_xXWorking telephone numberXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase I:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilingual LatinaXx_NEWLINE_xXLive in the communityXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXLatinaXx_NEWLINE_xXA medical condition that precludes moderate-vigorous physical activity as determined by health care providerXx_NEWLINE_xXReside in the Dan River region of southern VirginiaXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 25 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently involved in a supervised program for weight lossXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of insulin or other diabetes medications that would require additional medical monitoring during weight-loss; use of medications for weight loss or that may impact weight or glucometabolic function (e.g. corticosteroids)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHispanicXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXHave access to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXHave no plans to move in the next six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in making a serious quit attempt in the next 30 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXHave no contraindication to NRTXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-HispanicXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXNot interested in making a serious quit attempt in the next 30 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXNo access to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a contraindication to NRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Individuals at risk for lung cancer based on a smoking history of 20 or more pack/years of cigarette smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Smoking history of 20 or more pack/years of cigarette smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Must indicate telephone and internet accessXx_NEWLINE_xXAt high risk of developing colorectal cancer, based upon a history of having a colonoscopy and having any colorectal adenoma diagnosed and/or removed within the past 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) within the previous 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to either a smart phone or computer on a daily basis to sync Fitbit data to the data repositoryXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to provide stool and blood samples at baseline (week 0), week 4, and week 8Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently physically inactive; using the international physical activity questionnaire (IPAQ) short form physically inactive will be defined as scoring a 0 in both the moderate and vigorous activity questions, and engaging in walking that is =< 420 minutes per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXCleared to participate in moderate intensity exercise by:\r\n* Answering “no” to all questions of the physical activity readiness questionnaire (PAR-Q), with the exception of current use of prescription medications, which is permitted\r\n* Written clearance from primary care practitionerXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to attend a gym 3-5 days a week for 4 weeks between week 5 and week 8Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to receive weekly phone “check-ins” from a study coordinatorXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and medically able to exercise safely and independently at a moderate intensity without direct supervisionXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to maintain current dietary behaviors for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with donor sensitive antibodies (DSA), defined by 2000 or higher median fluorescence intensity (MFI) against one or more class I or II antigensXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven HNC including cancers of the nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, hypopharynx, or HNC of unknown primary origin amenable to therapy with radiation and concurrent chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is using a pre-existing feeding tube for nutritional support at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have chronic immunosuppression or are on current immunosuppressive therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXFor Phase 1 and Phase 2 Group B, progression after prior 1st or 2nd generation EGFR TKI (eg, erlotinib, gefitinib, afatinib). Previous chemotherapy for NSCLC is allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have or be scheduled to have a tunneled CVCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing other interventions to prevent CLABSI (e.g. Children's Oncology Group [COG] ACCL1034 with chromogranin [CHG], antimicrobial lock therapy, etc.) are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who only have a port are ineligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy, medically well girls and boysXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious vaccination against HPVXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed or suspected immunosuppressive or immunodeficient conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown diagnosis of histologically-confirmed BE with or without dysplasia (as defined by the presence of specialized columnar epithelium anywhere in the tubular esophagus with >= 1 cm of circumferential involvement or non-circumferential involvement of specialized columnar epithelium) requiring radiofrequency ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of complete ablation of BE after radiofrequency ablation on two endoscopic examinations at least 3 months apart (including no evidence of BE on surveillance biopsies) as determined by the pathologist at each site; completion of ablation should have occurred no greater than 36 months prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXNo chronic use of aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or selective cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) inhibitors during one month prior to randomization; chronic use is defined as any aspirin or NSAID use on >= 7 days during one month preceding the beginning of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXInability to abstain from, NSAID (including aspirin), and selective COX-2 inhibitor therapy at the time of randomization through the completion of the study (the study period is defined as baseline to exit endoscopy at 18 months after randomization which defines the completion of the study); participants may take Tylenol and non-NSAID pain relieversXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals taking the drugs listed below may not be randomized unless they are willing to stop the medications (and possibly change to alternative non-excluded medications to treat the same conditions) no less than 1 month prior to starting aspirin or placebo on this study; consultation with the participant’s primary care provider will be obtained prior to stopping any agent; the use of the following drugs or drug classes is prohibited during aspirin/placebo treatment:\r\n* NSAIDs: such as aspirin, Naprosyn, ketorolac and others NSAIDs\r\n* COX-2 inhibitors: such as celecoxib, rofecoxib\r\n* Valproic acid\r\n* Sulfinpyrazone\r\n* Probenecid\r\n* Corticosteroids (other than short-term use defined as less than 2 weeks or pro re nata [prn (when necessary)] use of an inhaler less than twice per month)\r\n* Platelet aggregation inhibitors, except in a monitored antithrombotic regimen\r\n* Methotrexate (MTX)\r\n* Vaccines containing live viruses\r\n* GingkoXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with uncontrolled renal insufficiency or renal failureXx_NEWLINE_xXSurveillance biopsies demonstrating residual BE at qualifying examXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an esophageal stricture defined as “any recognizable change in esophageal luminal caliber that is accompanied by symptoms of dysphagia, or any asymptomatic narrowing that either will not allow any adult endoscope to pass or allows passage with resistance”Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave smoked 100 cigarettes in their lifetime and currently smoke five or more cigarettes a day on averageXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an address in a rural census tract defined by a Rural-Urban Commuting Areas (RUCA) code of 4-10Xx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in participating in a cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXOwn a phone that has texting ability and free texting or be willing to receive a phone from study staffXx_NEWLINE_xXHave general knowledge of text messagingXx_NEWLINE_xXAre willing to receive and respond to text messages from the study teams, throughout the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAlready participating in a smoking cessation intervention studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a body mass index (BMI) between 30.0 kg/m^2 and 45.0 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXReside in a rural location as defined by Rural-Urban Commuting Area (RUCA) Codes, Urban Influence Codes, amount of agricultural income, and/or individual commuting patternsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave clearance from their primary care provider to participate in a diet and exercise weight control interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXOne individual per household will be permitted to enroll in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSerious medical conditions where weight loss is contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with end stage renal disease, known glomerular filtration rate (GFR) < 25, current or anticipated dialysis or transplant within the next two years will be excluded; a history of renal transplant is not an exclusion per se if patient does not meet stated renal criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with pre-operative urinary incontinence defined as use of pads or adult diapers;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have previously had a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) or holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP), high intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU) or cryotherapy;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a body mass index (BMI) of ? 34;Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with current or suspected urinary tract or bladder infection(s);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with drug, alcohol, or substance abuse reported within the last three years (subject reported);Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known sensitivity to any device or products required for the RALP surgery; andXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in 7th or 8th gradeXx_NEWLINE_xXHas email address and internet access to complete online surveysXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide contact information including phone number, email address and mailing\r\naddressXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY I: Current dual users (of tobacco cigarettes and e-cigarettes) without interest in quitting smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY I: Current dual users who have attempted, but not quit smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY I: Current e-cigarette users who have successfully quit smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY I: Former dual users who have quit both productsXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY I: >= 1 year history of weekly smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY I: >= 1 month of e-cigarette useXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY II: Smoking at least one cigarette per week over the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY II: Using e-cigarettes at least once per week over the past monthXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY II: Not currently enrolled in a face-to-face smoking cessation programXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: histologic verification at either the time of original diagnosis or a previous relapse of high risk neuroblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease Status: Neuroblastoma that is in remissionXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine based on age/genderXx_NEWLINE_xXBody Surface Area (BSA) (m2) of <0.25Xx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY II: Smoked at least one cigarette over the past weekXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically evident HSR to oxaliplatin, with symptoms of flushing, urticaria, pruritus, rash, and/or dyspnea without bronchospasm that emerge during or shortly after of oxaliplatin infusionXx_NEWLINE_xXResponding (complete or partial) or stable disease according to Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) criteria while undergoing treatment with oxaliplatin containing regimen or need to resume an oxaliplatin based regimen in the setting of well-documented recent oxaliplatin hypersensitivity reactionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of severe reactions to oxaliplatin as characterized by the presence of hemodynamic instability, significant respiratory symptoms or potential airway compromiseXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any other investigational agent in the last 15 days; psychological, familial, or sociological condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXAny body mass index (BMI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary (have not participated in a regular exercise program in the past 12 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNonsmokers (not smoking during previous 12 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to travel to the exercise facilityXx_NEWLINE_xXHave undergone a lumpectomy or mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXCardiovascular, respiratory or musculoskeletal disease or joint problems that preclude moderate physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular, necessary use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (will be asked to stop use during study period)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic current or former smokers (having stopped within the last 20 years)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking history >= 20 pack/years; subjects must be included in an ongoing annual screening with low dose CT scan or must have two consecutive CT outside the context of a screening program confirming subsolid nodulesXx_NEWLINE_xXAll current smokers should accept to receive support for smoking cessationXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with bleeding diathesis, history of gastric/duodenal ulcers in the last 5 years, NSAID-precipitated bronchospasm, patients unwilling or unable to limit alcohol consumption to i.e. =< 3 alcohol drinks a dayXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a stable weight (have not gained or lost 25 pounds in the last 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a body mass index (BMI) of 25-40Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a smart phone (newer generation Android or any iPhone) to be able to track their food intake timesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be willing to restrict food intake to a 10 hour period every day (10 am to 8 pm) and wear a smartwatch on their dominant handXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are noted (upon initial online screening) to do 150 minutes or more of moderate level physical activity each week, get less than 8% of their calories from saturated fat, and eat more than 5 fruit and vegetable servings per day will not be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are part of any structured weight loss programs (e.g. Weight Watchers, etc.) are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have undergone bariatric surgery are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who work night shifts are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of at least one of the following conditions in the previous 12 months:\r\n* Colorectal adenoma(s) >= 1 cm in maximal diameter\r\n* Colorectal adenoma(s) with villous or tubulovillous histology\r\n* Colorectal adenoma(s) with high grade (severe) dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresumptive evidence that all adenomatous lesions, including qualifying advanced adenoma, have been completely removedXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to undergo screening tests and proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXAntinuclear antibody (ANA) test result excludes overt autoimmune disease; note: test result may be reported in any of the following formats: =< 1:160, negative, or < 1.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXAfrican AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently smoke at least 5 cigarettes per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoked daily for the past one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXGenerally good health as determined by medical historyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to participate in exercise trainingXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants in each component (focus groups, surveys and educational programs) will be 18 years of age and over; these men and women are generally healthy, ambulatory and able to participate in events in their community; no women, men, or children of any ethnic or social background will be excluded from the educational programXx_NEWLINE_xXEDUCATIONAL INTERVENTION:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identify as African AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXFOLLOW-UP ASSESSMENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXFOLLOW-UP ASSESSMENTS: Must be non-adherent for CRC screening at the time of the educational programXx_NEWLINE_xXFOLLOW-UP ASSESSMENTS: Self-identify as African AmericanXx_NEWLINE_xXFOLLOW-UP ASSESSMENTS: Be 50 years of age or older by the time of the 3-month telephone follow-up assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFOLLOW-UP ASSESSMENTS: Have telephone service (mobile or landline), to participate in the follow up interviewsXx_NEWLINE_xXFOLLOW-UP ASSESSMENTS: Agree to providing consent for release/review of their medical recordXx_NEWLINE_xXAim 5: Organization was contacted to participate in Aim 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of 3 or more biopsy confirmed BCCs in the preceding 2 years, calculated from 2 years prior to the screening visit; the number of BCCs found at the screening visit will not be included in the number of BCCs that qualify the subject for the study; if the subject after signing the consent form is found to not have had 3 BCCs prior to the screening visit then they will be a screen failure and will not enter the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active skin cancers; any skin cancers found on the screening visit after the subject has signed consent will need to be treated before the subject begins on the study drug at the baseline visit; the skin cancers found on the screening visit will not be included in the total number of skin cancers the subject had 2 years prior to signing the consentXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreement not to donate blood or blood products during the study and for 7 months after the last doseXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of alcohol or substance abuse, unless in full remission for greater than 6 months prior to the screening visit (day 0) when the consent form is signedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking immunosuppressive medications at the screening visit (day 0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of urothelial carcinoma involving the upper urinary tract (documented by radiological imaging or biopsy) preferably within 12 months from the start of treatment; should the imaging or biopsy be performed outside this window it will be up to the physician's discretion to re-scan/biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received a single dose of mitomycin C following staging trans-urethral resection (TUR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented diagnosis of MDS (MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES), classified according to FAB (FRENCH-AMERICAN BRITISH) classification criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny clinical worsening from pre-injectable HMA (HYPOMETHYLATING AGENT) baseline condition, including:Xx_NEWLINE_xXworsening granulocytes should be ? 50% decrease from pre-injectable HMA (HYPOMETHYLATING AGENT) baseline valueXx_NEWLINE_xXworsening platelets should be ? 50% decrease from pre-injectable HMA (HYPOMETHYLATING AGENT) baseline value (untransfused)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFailure to achieve any objective response (CR - complete remission, PR - partial remissino, mCR - marrow complete remission, or HI - hematologic improvement), but no evidence of disease progression within the 8 weeks leading to the subject's first dose of IP (INVESTIGATIONAL PRODUCT) in this study (Cycle 1, Day 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemales subjects of childbearing potential (FCBP)1 may participate, providing they meet the following conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefrain from semen or sperm donation while taking IP and for at least 90 days after the last dose of IP.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRapidly-progressing MDS (MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES), defined as:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to the investigational oral formulation of decitabine, or other oral azacitidine derivative at any time in the subject's prior historyXx_NEWLINE_xXthrombopoiesis-stimulating agents ([TSAs]; eg, Romiplostim, Eltrombopag, Interleukin-11)Xx_NEWLINE_xXhydroxyureaXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of corticosteroids unless the subject is on a stable or decreasing dose for ? 1 week prior to enrollment for medical conditions other than MDS (MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of malignancies, other than MDS (MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES), unless the subject has been free of the disease for ? 3 years. However, subjects with the following history/concurrent conditions are allowed:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with vitiligo or alopecia;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcceptable laboratory parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to take oral medications without crushing, dissolving or chewing tabletsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior exposure to abiraterone acetate or other specific CYP-17 inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 Part: Patients with confirmed diagnosis of MF who meet all of the following criteria: (a) DIPSS of intermediate-1 or higher, (b) Platelet count: ? 75 (monotherapy arm) or ? 100 (combination arm), (c) ANC ? 1.0, (d) Palpable spleen ? 5cm, (e) Peripheral blood blast count <10%, (f) At least 2 symptoms measurable using the MFSAF v4.0, (g) Monotherapy Arm patients: Previously treated with a JAK inhibitor and be intolerant, resistant, refractory or lost response to the JAK inhibitor, (h) Combination Arm patients: Be on a stable dose of RuxolitinibXx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 2 Part: Patients who have had prior splenectomy or have had splenic irradiation within 3 months of starting study drugXx_NEWLINE_xXAdministration of a therapeutic antibody less than 4 weeks before the first dose of CPI-0610. A minimum 2-week period between the last treatment with a therapeutic antibody and the first dose of CPI-0610 may be permitted in patients with rapidly progressive disease, following discussion with the medical monitorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to more than 360 mg/m^2 doxorubicin, more than 120 mg/m^2 mitoxantrone, or more than 90 mg/m^2 idarubicin, or elevated baseline cardiac troponin IXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be undergoing surgery that is clinically indicated as determined by their care providersXx_NEWLINE_xXHbA1c =< 7.0%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on enzyme-inducing anti-epileptic drugs (EIAED) are not eligible for treatment on this protocol; patients may be on non-enzyme inducing anti-epileptic drugs or not be taking any anti-epileptic drugs; patients previously treated with EIAED may be enrolled if they have been off the EIAED for 10 days or more prior to the first dose of MLN0128 (TAK-228)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor weekly MLN0128 (TAK-228) dose cohorts, patients taking proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are ineligible unless these patients are able to switch to a histamine (H2) blocker and/or antacidXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of active renal condition (infection, requirement for dialysis or any other condition that could affect subject's safety). Subjects with isolated proteinuria resulting from MM are eligible, provided they fulfil the inclusion criteria related to organ system function.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent corneal disease or a history of corneal disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have the following laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales enrolled into treatment arms receiving CC-122 must: Agree to abstain from donating sperm while taking IP and for at least 3 months following discontinuation of IPXx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent diarrhea or malabsorption despite medical management.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExperimental immunotherapies: 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphocytes > 500/ mm3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to veledimexXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of medications that induce, inhibit or are substrates of CYP450 3A4 within 7 days prior to the first veledimex dosingXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any contra-indication for a neurosurgical procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXStable or better disease on re-staging scans following induction mFOLFIRINOXXx_NEWLINE_xXTypically, pancreatic tumors must be less than 8.0 cm in greatest axial dimension at the time of treatment planning but final determination of eligibility will be based upon satisfying the radiation normal tissue constraintsXx_NEWLINE_xXActivating Kirsten rat sarcoma viral oncogene homolog (KRAS) mutation (any G12, G13, Q61) confirmed by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified testingXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase Ib dose expansions Arms 1, 2 and 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral diffuse lymphangitic carcinomatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny participant must obtain prior approval from insurance to reimburse for oral temozolomide for the duration of the study or agree to self-pay for oral temozolomide or obtain institutional commitment from the study site to provide temozolomideXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must have adequate venous or central access for irinotecan administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not completed the appropriate washout period for the prohibited medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth Studies:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCapable of swallowing intact study medication capsulesXx_NEWLINE_xXVitamin D level (25 hydroxy D2 + hydroxyl D3) confirmed by central laboratory reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Burkitt lymphoma or any patient receiving rituximab-cyclophosphamide, vincristine, doxorubicin, high-dose methotrexate / ifosfamide, etoposide, high-dose cytarabine (R- CODOXM/IVAC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPSADT > 3 months and < 36 months\r\n* Calculated based at least 2 values that are post-treatment and > 0.2 in the prior 2 years with the first and last PSA separated by at least 3 months\r\n* Use all values in the last 2 years that are post-treatment and > 0.2 to calculate PSADT\r\n* PSADT calculated while NOT on androgen deprivation therapy (ADT)\r\n* If prior ADT use, then documented either A) normal testosterone or B) a testosterone within 50 points of normal and stable (defined as a second testosterone at least 6 weeks later that is equal or lower than the first testosterone) is required before starting to calculate PSADTXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 24 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to be randomized to a no dietary intervention control group or to a low-carbohydrate diet groupXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of weight loss medications including herbal weight loss supplements or enrolled in a diet/weight loss programXx_NEWLINE_xXAlready consuming a carbohydrate-restricted or vegetarian dietXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight loss > 5% of body weight in the last 6 months based on self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of primary idiopathic myelofibrosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven adenocarcinoma of the prostate (using a IMAGE-guided 14+ core mapping biopsy), and targeted cores as needed obtained up to 6 months prior to scheduled treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with intermediate risk, early-stage organ-confined prostate cancer (T1a up to T2b, N0, M0) and voluntarily chooses ExAblate thermal ablation as the non-invasive treatment, who may currently be on watchful waiting or active surveillance and not in need of imminent radical therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLargest imaging dimension of cancerous finding < 20-mmXx_NEWLINE_xXASA status > 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXSeverely abnormal coagulation (INR>1.5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere cerebrovascular disease (multiple CVA or CVA within 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are not able or willing to tolerate the required prolonged stationary supine position during treatment (approximately 3 hrs. sonication time)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny rectal pathology, anomaly or previous treatment, which could change acoustic properties of rectal wall or prevent safe probe insertion (e.g., stenosis, fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease, etc).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny spinal pathology which can prevent safe administration of epidural/ spinal anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentified calcification of 2 mm or more in largest diameter neighboring the rectal wall (in a distance of less than 5 mm) and interfering with the acoustic beam path.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLower limb musculoskeletal fixed deformities preventing probe insertion or patient positioning during procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXProstate with multiple cystic lesions.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUrethral stricture/bladder neck contractureXx_NEWLINE_xXActive UTIXx_NEWLINE_xXProstatitis NIH categories I, II and III.Xx_NEWLINE_xXImplant near (<1 cm) the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXInterest in future fertilityXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known lympho-vascular invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has participated in any other clinical investigation that is likely to confound study results or affect study outcome either at the time of IORT or for 3 months prior to IORT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biliary obstruction for which a stent has been placed are eligible, provided the shunt has been in place for at least 10 days prior to the first dose of romidepsin and the liver function has stabilized; two measurements at least 2 days apart that put the patient in the same hepatic dysfunction stratum will be accepted as evidence of stable hepatic function; there should be no evidence of biliary sepsisXx_NEWLINE_xXThiazolidinedione agents such as rosiglitazone and pioglitazone are not permittedXx_NEWLINE_xXSolitary bone or extramedullary plasmacytoma as the only evidence of plasma cell dyscrasia, or monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), smoldering multiple myeloma (SMM), primary amyloidosis, Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia, POEMS syndrome or active plasma cell leukemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMen are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXcN0 or cN1 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXLargest single focus of disease > 5 centimeters by either mammogram or MRI or both; Note: measurement of the largest single focus should include any satellite lesions within 1 centimeter of the index lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXcNX, cN2, or cN3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolling in the BRCA-deficient cohorts must have a documented BRCA1 or BRCA2 germline mutation; alternatively, patients with tumors harboring somatic BRCA mutations may also enroll after discussion with the principal investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with other medical conditions judged by the investigator to be clinically relevant in the setting of this study, which may include active infectious processes, intractable emesis, or chronic diarrheal diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven diagnosis of small superficial oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) (stage T1N0) requiring resection without the need for neck dissectionXx_NEWLINE_xXAll pathology will be reviewed at Memorial Sloan-Kettering (MSK) to confirm diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 1 -Positive expression is defined as 2+ and/or 3+ by immunohistochemistry in ? 50% of cells.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2 -Positive expression is defined as ?1+ by immunohistochemistry in ?1% cells, but not to exceed 2+ and/or 3+ in ? 50% of cells.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 3 -Positive expression is defined as 2+ and/or 3+ by immunohistochemistry in ? 50% of cells.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 4 -Positive expression is defined as 2+ and/or 3+ by immunohistochemistry in ? 50% of cells.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeigh more than 18 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have anatomically intact parotid glands and at least one submandibular gland; a focused (head/neck) history and exam conducted by a physician or dentist within the past year is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXHave never had acupuncture for xerostomiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected or known closure of salivary gland ducts on either sideXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis: Histologic verification at either the time of original diagnosis or relapse of neuroblastoma or medulloblastoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor medulloblastoma patients only, positive CSF cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) > grade IIXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this research; the male partner should use a condom; Note: Patients who would be excluded from the protocol strictly for laboratory abnormalities can be included at the investigator’s discretion after approval by the Center for Cell and Gene Therapy (CCGT) Protocol Review Committee and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) reviewerXx_NEWLINE_xXHuman Papilloma Virus (HPV) statusXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic anaphylactic reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteinsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received a non-FDA or non-EMA approved anti-EGFR agent or any other non-FDA or non-EMA approved agent as part of concurrent radiotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious enrollment in the present studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to receive anti-epileptic prophylaxis for the duration of study drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven primary diagnosis of GBM with unmethylated O6-methylguanine-DNA methyltransferase (MGMT).Xx_NEWLINE_xXDetermination of MGMT promoter status by methylation-specific polymerase chain reaction (PCR) per local institutional guidelines is required to assess eligibility for this Arm.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have to undergo mutational testing for Isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 (IDH1) on a tumor specimen before entering study. Patients are eligible for Arm C regardless of their IDH1 mutational status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo history of uncontrolled seizures after surgery for primary GBM (despite adequate antiepileptic therapy) or with need for concurrent administration of more than 2 antiepileptic drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to receive anti-epileptic prophylaxis for the duration of study drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a confirmed diagnosis of myelofibrosis, including PMF, post-PV MF, and post-ET MF.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersistent or worsening disease-related symptoms, including but not limited to fatigue, pruritus, night sweats, early satiety, and other symptoms as determined by a MPN-SAF TSS score of >20 points; ANDXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented splenomegaly of at least 5 cm below the costal margin as measured on inspiration by physical exam.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled adrenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical signs or symptoms of GI obstruction or requirement of routine parenteral nutrition or tube feedingsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave age-appropriate functional performance:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects whose body surface area (BSA) would expose them to < 75% or > 125% of the target doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to veledimexXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of medications that induce, inhibit, or are substrates of cytochrome p450 (CYP450) 3A4 within 7 days prior to veledimexXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of heparin or acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any contraindication for a neurosurgical procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXHR (ER and/or PgR) positive disease based on local testing: ASCO/CAP guidelines should be utilized for assessing HR status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase (DPD) deficiency. Testing for DPD deficiency must be performed where required by local regulations, using a validated method that is approved by local health authorities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEpstein-Barr virus (EBV) positive DLBCL, NOSXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must agree to not donate blood, organs, sperm or semen, and egg cells for usage in other individuals as detailed in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of CC-122 (Arm B)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of acute or chronic graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with active auto immune disorders/processes or active neurological or inflammatory disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphotoxic chemotherapeutic agents (eg, cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, bendamustine) within 2 weeks of leukapheresis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDuring the study and for 3 months after receiving the last dose of daratumumab, a woman must agree not to donate eggs (ova, oocytes) for the purposes of assisted reproductionXx_NEWLINE_xXClonal BMPC percentage >=60%Xx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to daratumumab or prior exposure to other anti-Cluster of Differentiation 38 (anti-CD38) therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to approved or investigational treatments for SMM or MM (including but not limited to conventional chemotherapies, immunomodulatory agent [IMiDs], or proteasome inhibitor [PIs]). Stable standard dosing of bisphosphonate as indicated for osteoporosis is acceptableXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who could not tolerate a PI, IMiDs, or a CD38-directed cytolytic antibody are eligible to enroll in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenstrom's macroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAmyloidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be designated to undergo reduced intensity allogeneic peripheral blood hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT); consent will be obtained prior to admission for HSCT; the following HSCT conditions must be planned:\r\n* Donors must be 8/8 HLA-matched (at the allele level) as defined by matching at HLA-A, -B, -DR and –C who pass institutional standard to serve as a peripheral blood stem cell donor\r\n* Donor grafts must be granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) mobilized peripheral blood stem cells with dose and apheresis logistics at the discretion of institutional standard\r\n* Conditioning therapy will be one of the following 3 options:\r\n** Fludarabine/melphalan where fludarabine is >= 90 mg/m^2 intravenously (IV) total dose and melphalan is 100-140 mg/m^2 IV total dose; exact logistics of administration are at the discretion of institutional standard\r\n** Fludarabine/busulfan where fludarabine is >= 90 mg/m^2 IV total dose and busulfan = 6.4 mg/kg IV total dose; exact logistics of administration are at the discretion of institutional standard\r\n** Fludarabine/busulfan where fludarabine is >= 90 mg/m^2 IV total dose and busulfan is dosed to achieve area under the curve (AUC) of 4000 umol/min based on a pharmacokinetics determined from a test dose; exact logistics are at the discretion of institutional standard\r\n* GVHD prophylaxis is comprised of tacrolimus/short course methotrexate as defined by tacrolimus started prior to day 0 of HSCT and methotrexate given after HSCT on days +1, +3 and +6 +/- +11 at a dose of 5-10 mg/m^2 IV; exact logistics are at the discretion of the treating institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXHave had a prior allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausal womenXx_NEWLINE_xXNo change in menstrual patterns for the past 6 months preceding the time of registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXLarge waist circumference \r\n* >= 88 cm (>= 35 inches) or \r\n* >= 80 cm (>= 31 inches) for Asian Americans, individuals with polycystic ovary syndrome, or individuals with non-alcoholic fatty liver diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of lactic acidosis or risk factors for lactic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of alcoholism or high alcohol consumption (average of > 3 standard drinks/day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of severe claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave electrically, magnetically, or mechanically activated implants including cardiac pacemaker, cochlear implants, magnetic surgical clips or prosthesesXx_NEWLINE_xXPremenopausal women with a documented BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutation; menopause is defined as >= 12 months of amenorrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient choosing PSDO or RRSO must desire permanent sterilizationXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen without a documented BRCA mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical comorbidities making surgery unsafe as determined by the patient’s surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior bilateral salpingectomy; prior unilateral salpingectomy is allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen desiring future fertility except in the screening arm of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen whose most recent CA125 or transvaginal ultrasound is abnormal; a history of abnormal CA125 or ultrasound is allowed, as long as the most recent testing is normalXx_NEWLINE_xXBMI >= 50th percentile at time of study enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXAs this is intended to be a family-based intervention, all family members will be invited to participate, including those living in more than one household, however endpoints will only be assessed formally in the patient and identified primary caregiver; siblings are not required for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is a CMV-seropositive HCT recipientXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has one of the following underlying diseases:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary or secondary myelofibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has a modified hematopoietic cell transplant comorbidity index (HCT-CI) score ? 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received a prior HCT and has residual Chronic Graft-versus-host Disease (cGVHD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDaily DHA consumption =< 200 mg/day in the month prior to screening estimated by an abbreviated DHA food frequency questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of daily use of aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in the week preceding study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of DHA supplementation > 200 mg/day in the month preceding study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a body mass index (BMI) >= 25.0 as calculated by the formula: weight in pounds / height squared x 703 = BMI; a BMI of:\r\n* 18.5-24.9 is considered normal;\r\n* 25.0-29.9 is considered overweight;\r\n* 30.0+ is regarded as obeseXx_NEWLINE_xXGranulocytes (polymorphs + bands) >= 1.5 x 109/LXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum creatinine =< 115 umol/L (1.3mg/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo concurrent or planned participation in randomized trials of weight loss or exercise interventions or trials targeting insulin, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) or their receptorsXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > or = 30 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrate hyperinsulinemia with a quantitative insulin sensitivity check index (QUICK I) value =< 0.357Xx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.27 - 4.20 ulU/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a primary care provider (PCP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior hysterectomy or endometrial ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of aromatase inhibitors, gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GNRH)-agonists i.e. Lupron, Zoladex within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS) in the past 6 months, including tamoxifen and raloxifeneXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of 1 or more adenomatous polypsXx_NEWLINE_xXConsent to be contacted for future studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent metabolic or life-threatening diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently taking fish oil supplementsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of anti-coagulantsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic to fish productsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of kidney disease requiring dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious partial of total colectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n        Patients must be treated by nephrectomy and patients must meet all of the following\n        inclusion criteria to be eligible for enrollment into the trial:\n\n          1. Patients must have no evidence of macroscopic residual disease or metastatic disease.\n\n          2. Male or female, age >=18 years (age >=20 years in Japan, Korea and Taiwan).\n\n          3. Patients must be diagnosed with one of the following based on American Joint Committee\n             on Cancer (AJCC) TNM staging version 2010, Eastern Collaborative Oncology Group (ECOG)\n             performance status (PS):\n\n               -  pT2, pN0 or pNx, M0 and ECOG PS 0-1\n\n               -  pT3, pN0 or pNx, M0 and ECOG PS 0-1\n\n               -  pT4, pN0 or pNx, M0 and ECOG PS 0-1\n\n               -  Any pT, pN1, M0 and ECOG PS 0-1\n\n          4. Patients must have histologically confirmed preponderant, defined as >50%, clear cell\n             RCC.\n\n          5. Patients must not have received any previous systemic (includes chemotherapeutic,\n             hormonal, or immunotherapeutic) treatment for RCC.\n\n          6. Patients must not have received any previous anti angiogenic treatment.\n\n          7. Patients must have adequate organ function.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria\n\n          1. Histologically undifferentiated carcinomas, sarcomas, collecting duct carcinoma,\n             lymphoma, or patients with any metastatic renal sites.\n\n          2. National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE)\n             Grade 3 hemorrhage <4 weeks of date of randomization.\n\n          3. Diagnosis of any non-RCC malignancy within the 5 years from date of randomization,\n             except basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell skin cancer, or in situ carcinoma of the\n             cervix uteri that has been adequately treated with no evidence of recurrent disease\n             for 12 months.\n\n          4. Any of the following within the 12 months prior to study drug administration:\n             myocardial infarction, uncontrolled angina, coronary/peripheral artery bypass graft,\n             symptomatic congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident or transient ischemic\n             attack and 6 months for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.\n\n          5. Gastrointestinal abnormalitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a preexisting tracheostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological/cytological confirmation of oral cavity dysplasia or prior history of OSCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of left bundle branch block (LBBB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently active diarrhea that may affect the ability of the patient to absorb the ZD6474 or tolerate diarrheaXx_NEWLINE_xXOverweight or obese (body mass index [BMI] >= 25.0 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to attend clinic visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXAccessible geographically and by telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to communicate dietary and physical activity data via telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that, in the investigators’ judgment, would contraindicate diet modification, increased physical activity, use of metformin, or otherwise interfere with participation in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal weight (BMI < 25.0 kg/m^2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be weight stable, as defined by staying within 10 percent of their current weight for 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic neuropathy or other neurological conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXInflammatory, metabolic or neuropathic arthropathiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent narcotic useXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere concomitant illnessesXx_NEWLINE_xXDermatological disease within the acupuncture areaXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXA current or ex-smoker with a >= 10 pack-year history of smoking; (an ex-smoker is defined as no tobacco use in the prior 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSouthwestern Oncology Group (SWOG) performance status of 0 – 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypoxemia (less than 90% saturation with supplemental oxygen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXT2 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXLymphovascular invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXIn poor health (Karnofsky <60%, ECOG >/-2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved in other experimental protocols (except with permission of the other study PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBMI ? 24 kg/m2.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInsulin requiring diabetes (telephone directed diet and physical activity changes would be difficult in this population without close coordination with the treating physician). Non-insulin requiring diabetics are eligible for the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiovascular, respiratory or musculoskeletal disease or joint problems that preclude moderate physical activity. Moderate arthritis that does not preclude physical activity is not a reason for ineligibility.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on aromatase inhibitors other than letrozole at study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is aged 6 months to 21 years inclusive.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is diagnosed with neuroblastoma, hepatoblastoma, osteosarcoma or extracranial germ cell tumors and has not been previously treated with cisplatin or carboplatin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has normal baseline auditory function, defined as ? 20 dB from 2000 to 8000 Hz, in both ears and does not have a history of sensorineural hearing loss.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has middle ear effusion upon clinical examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or ex-smoker with at least a 10-year pack historyXx_NEWLINE_xX25-hydroxy vitamin D3 (25[OH]D3) level less than 20 ng/mL prior to study initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to avoid alternative/additional vitamin D3 supplementation for the duration of the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of malabsorption syndrome (e.g., pancreatic insufficiency, celiac disease, or tropical sprue)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known thyroid diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported consumption of more than 4 alcoholic drinks per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of anti-seizure medications phenobarbital or phenytoin, which can disrupt vitamin D metabolismXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known renal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of known nephrolithiasis (kidney stones)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is using a pre-existing feeding tube for nutritional support at study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs 0 (at least 37 weeks gestation) to 17 years of age at time of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a preexisting functional central venous catheter available for study drug administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas had benzodiazepine, opioid or opioid like therapy initiated within 48 hours prior to study drug administration, or is expected to receive within 120 hours following initiation of chemotherapy except for single doses of midazolam, temazepam or triazolamXx_NEWLINE_xXIs currently taking, or has taken within 48 hours of Treatment Day 1 the following drugs with antiemetic properties: 5-hydroxytryptamine 3 (5-HT3) antagonists (e.g., ondansetron), benzamides (e.g., haloperidol), cyclizine, domperidone, herbal therapies with potential antiemetic properties, olanzapine, phenothiazines (e.g., prochlorpenzine), scopolamine (this is not an exhaustive list)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs currently a user of any recreational or illicit drugs (including marijuana) or has current evidence of drug or alcohol abuse or dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXIs allergic to fosaprepitant, aprepitant (MK-0869), ondansetron, or any other 5-HT3 antagonistXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently enrolled as a first year Ohio State University (OSU) student on the Columbus campusXx_NEWLINE_xXNot having received any doses of the HPV vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identifies as being Hispanic or LatinoXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious diagnosis of CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXUp to date with CRC screening guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal history of polypsXx_NEWLINE_xXFamily history of CRC diagnosed before the age of 60 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXLHW: self-identified as Filipino, Hmong, or Korean AmericansXx_NEWLINE_xXLHW: Live in the relevant area and intend to stay there for the next 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal history of CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical problems which may prevent them from attending 2 educational sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXWomanXx_NEWLINE_xX5 or more CPD for at least 6 out of past 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMotivated to remain abstinent (7 or higher out of 10)Xx_NEWLINE_xXStable physical/mental healthXx_NEWLINE_xXEstablished prenatal careXx_NEWLINE_xXStable physical/mental healthXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to take ProgesteroneXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to use double-barrier protection if sexually activeXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychotropic medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXIllicit drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther types of tobacco, NRT, smoking cessation medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy complications (Diabetes, Anomaly, Fetal growth restriction, HTN, Hx of >2 miscarriages)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-report regular smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXMotivated to quit smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXIn stable physical/mental healthXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf report of regular menstrual cycles (female only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to participate fully in research elements for the duration of the trial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (< 3 months) breastfeeding (females only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smoker (> 5 cigarettes per day for the past 3 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to set a quit date within 2 weeks of enrollment dateXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentify as being of Latino heritage, ethnicity, or ancestryXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals suffering from any unstable medical condition precluding the use of NRT (identified using the Medical History Questionnaire given at baseline)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently using smokeless tobacco, electronic nicotine delivery systems (ENDS), nicotine replacement therapy, or other smoking cessation treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of substance dependence other than nicotine (screened using DSM IV TR criteria) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fourth editionXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals that do not have access to a working telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXThe CVC consists of a 5.0 French size, Bard, dual-lumen, PowerPICC catheterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are willing and capable to follow the instructions required to complete the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not awake, not alert, or who cannot express pain or discomfort related to the catheter locksXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an occluded (partially or totally) catheter defined as inability to either withdraw blood or instill 3 cc of fluid without resistance through any catheter lumenXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known history of allergic reaction to ethanol, nitroglycerin, or citrateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are on disulfiram, metronidazole or are dependent on alcoholXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a minocycline-rifampin coated CVCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a short term CVC that have been placed in Intensive Care Unit (ICU) (mainly rigid wall CVCs placed for acute care in ICU)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of any monoclonal gammopathy: monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), asymptomatic / active multiple myeloma, asymptomatic / active Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (WM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any other influenza vaccine for the 2015 to 2016 flu seasonXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identified African-Americans who are literate and fluent in EnglishXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-African-AmericansXx_NEWLINE_xXEstimated survival of at least 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre willing to refrain from using other treatments for oral mucositis until they consult with the study investigator(s).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave preexisting mucositis from other causes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre immunosuppressed or in chronic use of immunosuppressive drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a known sensitivity to any of the constituents of the test product including sensitivities to sandalwood oil, fragrances or any member of the Compositae family of vascular plants (e.g., sunflowers, daisies, dahlias, etc.).Xx_NEWLINE_xXBMI ? 85 percentile for age and sex (overweight or obese) OR at risk for obesity (BMI between the 50th and 85th percentile and at least one overweight parent (BMI ? 25 kg/m2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of relapse of ALLXx_NEWLINE_xXComorbidities of obesity that require immediate subspecialist referralXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant pulmonary, cardiovascular, orthopedic, or musculoskeletal problems that would, in their oncologist's judgment, limit their ability to participate in physical activityXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent participation in a weight-loss programXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoked at least 100 cigarettes in lifetimeXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently smoking 5 or more cigarettes per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to make a quit attempt within 1 week of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPositive history of a medical condition that precludes use of the nicotine patchXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of other smoking cessation medications (e.g., Chantix or Zyban)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in another smoking cessation studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) overweight-obese: 25.0 - 40 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXColonoscopy within the last three years that found >= 1 adenomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoked regularly in the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXDietary restrictions substantially limiting compliance or vegetarian or vegan dietXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning on changing diet or exercise behavior in the next 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with active Hepatitis B or C determined by serology and/or nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInability to withhold agents that may interact with hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes (CYP3A4), or glutathione S-transferases involved in bortezomib and/or busulfan metabolism during day -5 through day +7. It is acceptable to use alternative non-interacting medications during this period, and then resume prior medications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to read, understand, and complete questionnaires and diariesXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived a previous allogeneic HSCT (previous autologous HSCT is acceptable)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of CMV end-organ disease within 6 months before randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived the following within 7 days before screening or plans to receive during the study: ganciclovir, valganciclovir, foscarnet, acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovirXx_NEWLINE_xXRequires mechanical ventilation or is hemodynamically unstable at the time of randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXHas previously participated in a MK-8228 (letermovir) studyXx_NEWLINE_xXIs a user of recreational or illicit drugs or has a recent history (<=1 year) of drug or alcohol abuse or dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXMale or female current tobacco smokers with >= 20 pack years of self-reported smoking exposure and an average use of >= 10 cigarettes/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants may have a history of indeterminate pulmonary nodule(s) by chest imaging if nodule follow-up has been completed or the study procedures would not interfere with nodule follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXGastric intolerance attributable to ASA or NSAIDsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot willing or are unable to refrain from use of any non-study ASA or NSAIDs during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic, current or recent (within the past three months) use of leukotriene antagonistsXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic, current or recent (within the past three months) use of glucocorticoids (systemic, topical and/or nasal sprays)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic sinusitis or recent nasal polypsXx_NEWLINE_xXNot willing or are unable to limit alcohol consumption to =< 2 alcoholic beverages a day during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXUrine cotinine level, if collected at screening, does not confirm active smoking statusXx_NEWLINE_xXAge < 55 years and one year or more of amenorrhea, with an estradiol assay < 20 pg/mlXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Ovarian radiation or treatment with a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LH-RH) agonist (goserelin acetate or leuprolide acetate) is not permitted for induction of ovarian suppressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has been assessed by treating physician to be appropriate candidate for everolimus plus exemestane therapy as treatment of advanced or metastatic breast cancer and plans to prescribe everolimus 10mg PO QD in combination with exemestane 25mg PO QDXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to self-report level of oral pain using Visual Analog Scale (VAS) and the Normalcy Diet Scale (NDS) throughout each stomatitis event, as required in the patient diary. At baseline, patient's self-reported oral pain level, using VAS, must be 0 and the normalcy diet scale score should ? 60Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown severely impaired lung function (spirometry and DLCO 50% or less of normal and O2 saturation 88% or less at rest on room air)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of non-compliance to medical regimens or who are considered potentially unreliable or will not be able to complete the entire study or patient diaries;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with confirmed symptomatic PE and/or DVT who have been treated for 6 to 12 months and did not interrupt anticoagulation for longer than 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXLegal lower age limitations (country specific) Indication for therapeutic-dosed anticoagulants Indication for antiplatelet therapy or a conventional non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) Hepatic disease which is associated with coagulopathy leading to a clinically relevant bleeding risk Calculated creatinine clearance < 30 mL/minXx_NEWLINE_xXIn poor health (Karnofsky <60%, ECOG >2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive pulmonary disease requiring medication to include multiple inhalersXx_NEWLINE_xXInvolved in other experimental protocols (except with permission of the other study PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index < 35 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXScreening laboratory values (comprehensive metabolic panel, complete blood count [CBC], complete urinalysis, a urinary drug screen, and, if applicable, FSH) within institutional normal range or judged to be not clinically significant by the site principal investigator (PI) and medical monitorXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented history of advanced adenomas (>= 1 cm in maximal diameter, >= 3 in total number, villous morphology, or high?grade dysplasia) or colorectal cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of gastroparesisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of celiac diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of difficulty with sigmoidoscopy or abnormal colorectal anatomyXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of laxatives more than 3 times per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXIntestinal motility agents, histamine?2 inverse agonists (H?2 blockers), or proton pump inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of >= 5 cigarettes/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of >= 3 alcoholic drinks/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXSigmoidoscopy finding requiring clinical interventionXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any illicit or illegal substances detected by urinary drug screenXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) between 25-35Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) and dietary food logsXx_NEWLINE_xXDrink less than or equal to one alcoholic drink/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of food allergies and/or major dietary restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf identified as a smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking prescribed medication to control their lipidsXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking Bean-O, other anti-flatulence medications or prolonged antibiotic use (one month)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of gallstonesXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-Hispanic African American or non-Hispanic WhiteXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke 3-20 cigarettes per day (cpd)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFunctioning telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in quitting smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in taking 3 months of vareniclineXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNew onset of chest pain or arrhythmia in the past 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of alcohol or drug dependency in the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of pharmacotherapy in the month prior to enrollment, including prior use of vareniclineXx_NEWLINE_xXAnother household member enrolled in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious vaccination against HZ or varicella within the 12 months preceding the first dose of study vaccine/placebo.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOccurrence of a varicella or HZ episode by clinical history within the 12 months preceding the first dose of study vaccine/placebo.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale planning to become pregnant or planning to discontinue contraceptive precautions before Month 3 (i.e., 2 months after the last dose of study vaccine/placebo).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave no evidence of alopecia or mild alopecia (NCI CTCAE grade 1 alopecia defined as hair loss of <50% of normal for that individual that is not obvious from a distance but only on close inspection; a different hair style may be required to cover the hair loss but it does not require a wig or hair piece to camouflage). Female/male-pattern baldness or age-related hair loss are allowed if not greater than grade 1, per NCI-CTCAE v. 4.0. Subjects that have previously lost their hair may enroll if they currently have Grade 0 or 1 alopeciaXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of drug or alcohol abuse within 1 year of study enrollment as determined by the investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypercalcemia or kidney stonesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that indicate they have significant hair breakage or hair damage and associated hair loss from hair over-processing within the last 30 days due to peroxide applications, permanent hair coloring, bleaches, streaking, perms, relaxers and/or hair oxidative dyes.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent alopecia grade 2 or greater as per NCI-CTCAE v.4.0, or significant hair loss or hair breakageXx_NEWLINE_xXanticipated to be severely immobilized for at least 24 hours after randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXhospitalized with one of the followingXx_NEWLINE_xXacute respiratory failure,Xx_NEWLINE_xXacute infection without septic shock,Xx_NEWLINE_xXacute rheumatic disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXacute ischemic stroke with lower extremity hemiparesis or hemi paralysisXx_NEWLINE_xXa condition requiring prolonged anticoagulation or anti-plateletsXx_NEWLINE_xXgeneral conditions in which subjects are not suitable to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria (adult):\n\n          -  Age 18 years or older\n\n          -  Female\n\n          -  Smoked ? 1 cigarettes per day for at least the past 6 months\n\n          -  Smoked on 20 days or more in the last month\n\n          -  Smoking status confirmed via cotinine verification strips\n\n          -  Resides with a child ? 10 years of age in the role of the child's parent or caregiver\n\n          -  Will agree to provide a urine sample at study enrollment\n\n          -  Will also agree to the child providing a urine sample at study enrollment and at\n             follow-up visits (for children who are not toilet trained, a diaper sample will be\n             collected in lieu of the urine sample)\n\n          -  Has a home address\n\n          -  Has a functioning home phone or cell phone\n\n          -  Provides written informed consent\n\n        Inclusion criteria (child):\n\n          -  < or = 10 years of age\n\n          -  Non-smoker -no cigarette use within prior 30 days to enrollment; however\n             experimentation with smoking (a puff) will not exclude the child\n\n          -  Lives in the primary home with the adult study participant at least 5 days a week\n\n        Exclusion criteria (adult):\n\n          -  Current or past 7 day use of Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT) or pharmacotherapy for\n             smoking cessation\n\n          -  Planning to move outside of Minnesota within the next 3 months\n\n          -  Have complete home smoking restrictions currently in place verified by the nicotine\n             dosimeter\n\n          -  Currently pregnantXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least two atypical nevi of >= 4 mm diameter and prior diagnosis of melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects should not have known allergies to cruciferous vegetablesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must not be a tobacco user or quit at least 6 months prior to the first administration of the BSE-SFN as tobacco has been found to interfere with the measurement of sulforaphane (SFN) metabolitesXx_NEWLINE_xXChlorine (Cl) within 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXCarbon dioxide (CO2) within 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXBlood urea nitrogen (BUN) within 2 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXable to eat at least soft solidsXx_NEWLINE_xXlife threatening allergic reaction to food and/or drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal anal cytological result, low-grade intraepithelial lesions (LSIL)/condyloma or atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) result within 90 days prior to entry, and no by high-grade anal intraepithelial neoplasia (HGAIN) on biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXTotal or conjugated (direct) bilirubin =< 2.5 X ULN within 45 days prior to entry, with the exception of isolated hyperbilirubinemia that is considered due to atazanavirXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or history of anal or peri-anal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAnal cytological result of HSIL, atypical squamous cells suggestive of HSIL (ASC-H), or suggestive of invasive carcinoma at screening; or history of these resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXIt is encouraged that standard of care vaccinations are not offered during the 2 weeks preceding plasma HIV-1 RNA measurements, and that standard of care vaccinations are not administered at the same time as the study vaccine; routine vaccinations other than influenza vaccine that are administered after enrollment in the study should be given 1 month before or after HPV vaccination (or any visit where antibody titers are measured) during the study period. Influenza vaccination may be given within 1 week before or after HPV vaccination visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior splenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXHemophiliaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior receipt of Gardasil or other HPV vaccineXx_NEWLINE_xXFree of obvious health problems as established by medical history and clinical examination before entering into the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXA women planning to become pregnant, likely to become pregnant or planning to discontinue contraceptive precautions during the vaccination phase of the study, i.e. up to two months after the last vaccine dose.Xx_NEWLINE_xXif they test positive for oncogenic HPV infection, but display normal cervical cytology at their concluding HPV-015 study end visit;Xx_NEWLINE_xXif they are pregnant so that no cervical sample can be taken at their concluding HPV-015 study end visit;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious administration of any components of the vaccine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny confirmed or suspected immunosuppressive or immunodeficient condition, based on medical history and physical examination.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any neurological disorders or seizures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute disease and/or fever at the time of enrolment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion criteria:\n\n        Initial from phone interview:\n\n          -  Currently smoking 10-45 cigarettes per day for the past year;\n\n          -  Between the ages of 21 and 70 years;\n\n          -  In apparently good physical health with no unstable medical conditions including\n             seizures or cancer;\n\n          -  In stable and good mental health, i.e., currently do not experience unstable or\n             untreated psychiatric diagnosis, including substance abuse, as determined by the\n             DSM-IV criteria, during the past six months;\n\n          -  Not using any other tobacco or nicotine-containing products;\n\n          -  Not on methadone maintenance or stimulants such as ephedra; not a regular user of\n             street drugs and if uses occasionally, willing to abstain during the study; not taking\n             any drugs known to be P4501A6 substrates such as phenobarbital, rifampicin,\n             dexamethasone, ketoconazole, methoxsalen, pilocarpine, or tranylcypromine due to their\n             role in NNK metabolism;\n\n          -  Does not average more than 21 alcoholic drinks per week;\n\n          -  Willing to perform study activities such as having blood sample drawn, urine\n             collection, multiple clinic visits;\n\n          -  For female subjects of child bearing potential, not known to be pregnant or nursing,\n             or planning to become pregnant within next 12 months.\n\n        For enrollment in the Short-Term Trial:\n\n          -  Subjects who are generally healthy with liver enzyme and blood count values within the\n             ranges shown below based on blood samples drawn at the second screening visit.\n             Specifically:\n\n               -  White blood cells ? 3,000/mL\n\n               -  Total bilirubin ? 1.5 x upper limits of normal (ULN)\n\n               -  AST (SGOT)/ALT (SGPT) ? 2.5 x ULN\n\n               -  BUN and serum creatinine ? 1.5 x ULN\n\n        For enrollment in the Long-Term Trial:\n\n          -  Participated in the short-term trial and invited to participate in the long-term\n             trial;\n\n          -  Possess the GSTM1 null-null genotype;\n\n          -  Smoke 20 or more cigarettes/day with a cumulative smoking history of 20 or more\n             pack-years (one pack-year equals to smoking a pack of cigarettes a day for one year);\n\n          -  Normal liver enzymes based on blood sample drawn during 1 month wash-out;\n\n          -  Determined to be a good candidate for the bronchoscopy procedure by a primary care\n             physician.\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n          -  Subjects with uncontrolled hypertension, uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, unstable\n             coronary artery disease, history of cancer other than non-melanoma skin cancer, and\n             pregnant or lactating women will not be eligible.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have pathologically confirmed squamous metaplasia or squamous dysplasia documented by autofluorescence bronchoscopy within the preceding 60 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be a former or current smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXMust meet Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status criteria of 0-1 (0 = fully active, must be able to carry out all pre-disease activities without restriction; 1 = restricted in physically strenuous activity, but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust be willing to attend all scheduled study visits, complete all study questionnaires, and allow biological specimen collection including a bronchoscopy within 3-4 months after enrollment into the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe metabolic disorders that would preclude administration of calcitriolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of renal lithiasis within the last 5 years or patients with evidence of kidney stones on entry evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking calcium supplements; if subjects are willing to discontinue these supplements, there must be a 2-month wash out period before enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIf patients are routinely taking a multivitamin supplement, they will be asked to continue the supplement as long as the amount of vitamin D in the supplement is not in excess of the RDA (recommended daily allowance); if they are not taking a multivitamin supplement, they will be asked to not start supplementation while on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects taking thiazides (which can decrease urinary excretion of calcium)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking phenobarbital, digitalis, thiazides or ketoconazoleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking digoxin or patients who are susceptible to calcium-related dysrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking bile acid binding drugs (such as cholestyramine and colestipol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking danazolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking aluminum-based antacidsXx_NEWLINE_xXOral ketoconazole or other azole antifungalsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known allergies to tree nuts (i.e. almonds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXstable physical/mental health,Xx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXambulatory,Xx_NEWLINE_xXinterested in increasing their physical activity,Xx_NEWLINE_xXwillingness to attend weekly exercise intervention sessions at a SNAP Fitness location within 10 miles of the University of Minnesota campus,Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to increasing physical activity including, but not limited to,Xx_NEWLINE_xXabnormal electrocardiogram or V02 test results,Xx_NEWLINE_xXuncontrolled dysrhythmias causing hemodynamic compromise,Xx_NEWLINE_xXsymptomatic severe aortic stenosis,Xx_NEWLINE_xXacute myocarditis orXx_NEWLINE_xXpericarditis,Xx_NEWLINE_xXdissecting aneurism,Xx_NEWLINE_xXFirst allogeneic HSCTXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or prior use of bone active medication (bisphosphonates, teriparatide, selective estrogen receptor modulators, or denosumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHyperthyroidism (thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH] < 0.4 mIU/L and free T4 > 1.6 ng/dL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHyperparathyroidism (parathyroid hormone [PTH] > 80 pg/mL)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOsteoporosis: patients with a history of fragility fracture, or a hip or spine T score of < -2.5 (these patients will be treated with zoledronic acid and followed, but excluded from randomization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeets Mini International Neuropsychiatric interview (MINI) criteria for major depression, schizophrenia, bipolar illness, delirium or psychosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHas moderate to severe depression according to Quick Inventory of Depressive Symptomatology-Self Rated 16 (QIDS-SR-16) scores of >= 11 AND a Hospital Anxiety and Depression Scale (HADS) Depression subscale score of >= 8Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas Suicidal Risk Assessment (SRA) scores >= 6Xx_NEWLINE_xXKorean American immigrant womenXx_NEWLINE_xXAged 40-79Xx_NEWLINE_xXResidence in MinnesotaXx_NEWLINE_xXPossession of mobile phone with text-message functionXx_NEWLINE_xXPossession of active email accountXx_NEWLINE_xXMammogram receipt within the past 2 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with operable focal or multifocal (T1-T3, stage II and IIIA invasive ductal carcinoma [all receptor phenotypes]), and who have completed neoadjuvant chemotherapy with a clinical complete response (by clinical examination)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be able to undergo stereotactic-vacuum-assisted breast biopsy with clip placement after completion of neoadjuvant chemotherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have multicentric diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for BCT based on clinical examination, mammography and, if standard practice at a given institution, ultrasound and/or tomogram; women who cannot be appropriately selected for BCT based on these standard imaging studies, and for whom additional imaging is recommended to clarify local disease extent, will not be eligible for this trial; for patients who have neoadjuvant therapy, eligibility for BCT is determined at completion of therapy; repeat mammogram +/- ultrasound (US) will be required at completion of neoadjuvant chemotherapy to determine eligibility for BCTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologically proven intracranial glioblastoma or gliosarcoma at initial surgery\r\n* Patients will be eligible if the original histology was low-grade glioma and a subsequent diagnosis of glioblastoma or gliosarcoma is made (high-grade transformation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with intratumoral hemorrhage (acute, subacute, or chronic) seen on hemosiderin-sensitive (gradient-echo) MRI, there must be at least 10 x 10 x 10 mm \measurable enhancement\ that is not obscured or distorted by magnetic susceptibility blooming artifactXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have an imaging abnormality that necessitated a core needle biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe imaging abnormality must have been categorized as Breast Imaging-Reporting and Data System (BIRADS) level 1-4 lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXThere is documented concordance* between the initial breast imaging finding and the core biopsy pathology report; the core needle biopsy must contain FEA or IPWA, according to the local pathologist; (it is possible that the central pathology review which is done after the patient is registered on this protocol will have a diagnosis discrepant from that made by the original institution’s pathologist; in that case, the study team will communicate this to the original institution’s site investigator within one week of the date of the central pathology review having been finalized); patients may have a personal history of prior or concurrent fibroadenoma and a prior history of proliferative breast lesions with or without atypia\r\n* Concordance is a determination by the radiologist (or his or her covering provider) performing an image-guided core needle biopsy that the pathology report from this procedure corresponds to the imaging appearance of a given lesion and that the said lesion’s most representative portion has been sampledXx_NEWLINE_xXPalpable abnormality diagnosed by core needle biopsy to be FEA or IPWAXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic nipple discharge associated with IPWA (spontaneous bloody or clear persistent single duct discharge)Xx_NEWLINE_xXA BIRADS 5 lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXDiscordance between the initial breast imaging finding and the core biopsy pathology reportXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH) on core biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be enrolled in one of the two cohorts based on diagnosis:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is a postmenopausal woman, man, or premenopausal woman for whom standard endocrine therapy alone (tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitor [AI], with or without ovarian suppression or fulvestrant) is planned after FES-PET/CT is completedXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically stable as judged by patient’s physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must NOT weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the table for the PET/CT scanner at the institution where the study is being performedXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is participating in the trial at an institution which has agreed to perform the imaging research studies, completed the ECOG-American College of Radiology Imaging Network (ACRIN) defined scanner qualification procedures and received ECOG-ACRIN (or current ACRIN) approvalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has already had molecular profiling and patient has not yet started matched targeted therapy based on the report; approved molecular profiling include: \r\n* Foundation Medicine FoundationOne\r\n* University of California, San Francisco (UCSF) 500 Cancer Gene Panel\r\n* University of Washington OncoPlex Cancer Gene Panel\r\n* Children's Hospital of Philadelphia (CHOP) Comprehensive Solid Tumor Next Generation Sequencing (NGS) Panel\r\n* Other pre-approved molecular profiling test by study principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to lie still for a 1.5 hour PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must NOT weigh more than the maximum weight limit for the PET/CT table for the scanner(s) to be used at each centerXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is participating in the trial at an institution which has agreed to perform the imaging research studies, completed the ECOG-American College of Radiology Imaging Network (ACRIN) defined scanner qualification procedures and received ECOG-ACRIN approval as outlinedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindications to CEUSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are medically unstable, terminally ill, or whose clinical course is unpredictableXx_NEWLINE_xXLiver nodule previously treated with trans-arterial or thermal ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received an investigational drug in the 30 days before CEUS, or will receive one within 72 hour after their CEUS examXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects administered any high energy (>300 KeV) gamma-emitting radioisotope within five physical half-lives, or any IV iodinated contrast medium within 24 hours, or any high density oral contrast medium (oral water contrast is acceptable) within 5 days, prior to study drug injection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients presenting to surgery clinic after receipt of NAC at outside hospital with documentation of cT4 or cN2/3 disease on initial outside physical exam and imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with persistent palpable axillary nodes after NAC, as assessed by physical examXx_NEWLINE_xXHas lesions involving chest wallXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing cervicography OR colposcopy OR visual inspection with acetic acid (VIA) OR patients undergoing loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) for the treatment of cervical cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of all ethnicities will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal dysfunction for which cisplatin dose would be considered unsafeXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to come to MSK main campus for baseline and follow-up MP-MRIsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients in which gadolinium contrast is contra-indicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipation in other research protocols does not exclude a patient from participation in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiency with plasma creatinine > 1.6Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require additional clinically indicated stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) in addition to WBRT will also be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent administration of lapatinib or other tyrosine kinase inhibitors other than sorafenibXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is incontinent of urine or stool (which would make them unable to tolerate lying still for 60 minutes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reaction to gadopentetate dimeglumine (Gd-DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiency with recent (< 3 month old) creatinine > 2.0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should be capable of achieving imaging without the need for sedation or anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo indication of distant metastases (M0)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDefinitive surgery being performed at MSKCC within 0-60 days of completing NACXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biopsy-proven oral squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) who are scheduled to undergo surgery in the Memorial Sloan Kettering (MSK) Head and Neck ServiceXx_NEWLINE_xXADULTSXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with “Li Fraumeni syndrome” defined as one of the following:\r\n* Carriers of a germline protein 53 (p53) mutation\r\n* Members of families meeting classic Li-Fraumeni syndrome (LFS) criteria by family history without an identifiable p53 mutation\r\n* Obligate carrier by pedigree (these individuals can be offered testing but are still eligible if they defer); the following examples describe “obligate carriers by pedigree”\r\n** A child of a parent with known p53 mutation that is diagnosed with cancer\r\n** An individual with a sibling and a child who are p53 positive OR\r\n* Individuals with an inherited cancer predisposition syndrome as defined by one of the following:\r\n** Hereditary retinoblastoma with a germline retinoblastoma (Rb) mutation\r\n** Diagnosis of hereditary paraganglioma/pheochromocytoma syndrome with a germline succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) mutation\r\n** Diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia, type 1 or 2, with a germline multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) mutation\r\n** New diagnosis of opsoclonus-myoclonus with a negative cancer work-up upon presentation of symptoms\r\n** Familial neuroblastoma with a germline anaplastic lymphoma kinase (ALK) mutation\r\n** Rapid-onset obesity with hypothalamic dysfunction, hypoventilation and autonomic dysregulation (ROHHAD syndrome) or congenital central hypoventilation syndrome (CCHS) with or without a germline paired–like homeobox 2B (PHOX 2B) mutation\r\n** Von Hippel-Lindau with a Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) mutation\r\n** Women with an abnormal cell-free deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) test (i.e. a non-invasive prenatal test [NIPT] to detect chromosomal abnormalities) and no cancer diagnosis\r\n** Other rare cancer predisposition syndromes at the discretion of the treating physician and study physicians\r\n* IF APPLICABLE: individuals with any of the above-listed cancer predisposition syndromes (apart from Li Fraumeni syndrome) are likewise eligible in the absence of a known mutation if they are an obligate carrier by pedigreeXx_NEWLINE_xXCHILDRENXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with “Li Fraumeni syndrome” defined as one of the following:\r\n* Carriers of a germline p53 mutation OR\r\n* Members of families meeting classic LFS criteria by family history without an identifiable p53 mutation OR\r\n* Obligate carrier by pedigree (these individuals can be offered testing but are still eligible if they defer); the following examples describe “obligate carriers by pedigree”\r\n** A child of a parent with known p53 mutation that is diagnosed with cancer\r\n** An individual with a sibling and a child who are p53 positive OR\r\n* Individuals with an inherited cancer predisposition syndrome as defined by one of the following:\r\n** Hereditary retinoblastoma with a germline Rb mutation\r\n** Diagnosis of hereditary paraganglioma/pheochromocytoma syndrome with a germline SDH mutation\r\n** Diagnosis of multiple endocrine neoplasia, type 1 or 2, with a germline MEN mutation\r\n** New diagnosis of opsoclonus-myoclonus with a negative cancer work-up upon presentation of symptoms\r\n** Familial neuroblastoma with a germline ALK mutation\r\n** Rapid-onset obesity with hypothalamic dysfunction, hypoventilation and autonomic dysregulation (ROHHAD syndrome) or congenital central hypoventilation syndrome (CCHS) with or without a germline PHOX 2B mutation\r\n** Von Hippel-Lindau with a VHL mutation\r\n** Other rare cancer predisposition syndrome at the discretion of the treating physician and study physicians\r\n* IF APPLICABLE: individuals with any of the above-listed cancer predisposition syndromes (apart from Li Fraumeni syndrome) are likewise eligible in the absence of a known mutation if they are an obligate carrier by pedigreeXx_NEWLINE_xXSigned document of assent obtained if child >= 10 years of ageXx_NEWLINE_xXADULTSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a contraindication to sedation or general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXCHILDRENXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a contraindication to sedation or general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have a plan to receive a CD34-selected peripheral blood stem cell graftXx_NEWLINE_xXThose with GBM but suspected to have pseudoprogression at any time after completion of chemoradiation can enroll in cohort CXx_NEWLINE_xXFor cohort C, patients with GBM who have completed standard temozolomide + radiation and have suspected pseudoprogression can enroll; there is no time frame from completion of chemoradiation as pseudoprogression is increasingly recognized at later time pointsXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh or mixed affinity binders (alanine [Ala]/Ala or Ala/threonine [Thr]) based on genotyping result from PBR affinity test; this blood test will be performed as part of the screening process after consent has been obtainedXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative technetium 99-m methylene diphosphonate (MDP) or F-18 PET bone scan for skeletal metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with suspected or histologically documented new non-small cell carcinoma that have agreed to undergo a thoracotomy for segmentectomy, lobectomy, bilobectomy or pneumonectomy as recommended by their thoracic surgeon for treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXT1, T2, T3, or T4 primaryXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION TO STEP 0Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have contraindication to iodinated contrastXx_NEWLINE_xXREGISTRATION TO STEP 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is ?21 years old,Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has a lung nodule identified on chest CT and is a candidate for elective EMN bronchoscopic evaluation as determined by the treating pulmonologist,Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe size of the target nodule, as measured at its greatest diameter, is between 1-3cm,Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patients has a body mass index (BMI) >40,Xx_NEWLINE_xXThere is a predetermined plan to pursue stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) in the event of a nondiagnostic study procedure in patients with a nodule within SPiNPerc range (i.e. The patient would not go on for a CT guided TTNA), OR There is a predetermined plan to pursue stereotactic body radiation therapy (SBRT) in the event of a nondiagnostic study procedure in patients where the target nodule is within a region considered to be not accessible to a percutaneous approach as determined by the radiology core lab and thus would prevent a confirmatory tissue diagnosis before SBRT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must have a pre-operative standard mammogram with or without ultrasound; these may be performed at outside institutions but must be reviewed at Brigham and Women's Hospital/Dana-Farber Cancer Institute (BWH/DFCI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have biopsy confirmed multi-centric diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to tolerate a SPECT/CT 99mTc-SC scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to OTL38Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown Folate Receptor-negative lung nodulesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reactions or severe allergiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to fluorescent lightXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for TACE treatment of a hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) mass (lesions reported as Liver Imaging Reporting and Data Systems 4B or 5 or Organ Procurement and Transplantation Network 5a or 5b)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an HCC mass viewable on grayscale B-mode ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients not eligible or scheduled for TACE of a HCC massXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are medically unstable, terminally ill, or whose clinical course is unpredictableXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in study part #1Xx_NEWLINE_xXNSCLC patients of all histologies may enroll to cohorts 1 and 2; only patients of non-squamous histologies may enroll to cohort 3; if enrollment to a cohort is completed, enrollment may continue to other open cohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXChemotherapy naive NSCLC patients; for NSCLC patients with lung adenocarcinoma, tumors must be EGFR and ALK wild-type; if a KRAS mutation is detected, EGFR and ALK testing is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis must be documented by histology or cytology from brushings, washings, or needle aspiration of a defined lesion but not from sputum cytologyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny male or female patient diagnosed with incident or recurrent Urothelial Cell Carcinoma and undergoing surveillance at 3 month intervals.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to produce 45mL of urineXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailability of the patient’s medical informationXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen undergoing colposcopy for an abnormal Pap test, positive HPV test or history of cervical dysplasia (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia [CIN] or adenocarcinoma in situ [AIS])Xx_NEWLINE_xXMinimum of at least three discrete metastatic lesions in the bone and/or soft tissue amenable to whole body PET imaging per the judgment of study radiologistXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a known or presumed radiological diagnosis of glioblastoma (GBM); for presumed diagnosis of GBM, histological confirmation of GBM must be completed within 12 weeks of enrollment; (subjects will be removed from study and non-evaluable if no histologic diagnosis of GBM is confirmed)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be enrolled before starting chemoradiation, either pre -or post-surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known allergic or hypersensitivity reactions to parenteral iron, parenteral dextran, parenteral iron-dextran, or parenteral iron-polysaccharide preparations; subjects with significant drug or other allergies or autoimmune diseases may be enrolled at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known iron overload (genetic hemochromatosis); in subjects with a family history of hemochromatosis, hemochromatosis must be ruled out prior to study entry with normal values of the following blood tests: transferrin saturation (TS) test and serum ferritin (SF) test; all associated costs will be paid by the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with three or more drug allergies from separate drug classesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have biopsy confirmed multi-centric diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with evidence of iron overload with a pre-study ferritin level greater than 370 ng/ml and percent saturation of transferrin level greater than 40%; patients with lab values above these limits may be included in the study if documented hematology consultation rules out hemochromatosis, idiopathic or iatrogenic iron overloadXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe claustrophobia unresponsive to oral anxiolyticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 136 kg (weight limit for scanner table)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with intracerebral hemorrhage deemed significant by treating physician are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPulmonary disease precluding monitored anesthesia care or general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of biliary-enteric anastomosisXx_NEWLINE_xXVery young children who need sedation or anesthesia will be excluded from the study; there will be no gender or race-ethnic restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXIn this pediatric & adult study, the participant or parent/guardian is consented, and the patient when a minor is given an assent form and involved in the discussion as appropriateXx_NEWLINE_xXMR-incompatible metal implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed of sedation orXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHemosiderosis/hemochromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSince the diagnostic MR examination does not require injection of contrast agent there will be no specific requirements regarding history of allergic reactionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have histologic or cytological diagnosis of de novo diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL) (including lymphomas/leukemias newly transformed to DLBCL) and be scheduled to receive first line chemotherapy with rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride, vincristine sulfate, and prednisone (R-CHOP) or rituximab, etoposide, prednisone, vincristine sulfate, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin hydrochloride (R-EPOCH); OR patient who will undergo consolidative external radiotherapy after completion of chemotherapy are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing a reduction mammoplasty ORXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically detectable disease either by physical examination or radiographic studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of all ethnic and gender groups will be included; protocol accrual will be reviewed annually to include a determination of minority and gender representation; if accrual demonstrates under-representation of any group with comparison to disease incidence in that group, appropriate measures will be undertaken to increase participation of patients of that minority or gender groupXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients considered in “vulnerable” populationsXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic osteonecrosis (ON) of the femur or proximal tibia with MR signal abnormalities that involve more than 50% of the respective joint surface, but no evidence of epiphyseal collapseXx_NEWLINE_xXThere will be no gender/race-ethnic restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXIn this pediatric & adult study, the participant or parent/guardian is consented, and the patient when a minor is given an assent form and involved in the discussion as appropriateXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of metal implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXNeed for sedation or anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing colposcopy for the diagnosis of cervical cancer and LEEP or cervical biopsy for the treatment of premalignant cervical dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXLocation: supratentorialXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed tumors: patients with newly diagnosed grade IV glioma who have had not been previously treated with cranial radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with history of cutaneous photosensitivity, porphyria, hypersensitivity to porphyrins, photodermatosis, exfoliative dermatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with plasma creatinine > 180 umol/LXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are unable to comply with photosensitivity precautionsXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals without a probable or expected grade IV gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing :\r\n* Surgical laryngeal, esophageal, and tracheal endoscopy (“panendoscopy”)\r\n* Fiberoptic esophagoscopy\r\n* Intubation\r\n* Office-based nasal or laryngeal endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy volunteers and normal patients not undergoing endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXTreating radiation oncologist intends to incorporate 68Ga-PSMA-11 PET/CT findings into the radiotherapy plan if patient undergoes 68Ga-PSMA-11 PET/CT.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExtra-pelvic metastasis on any imaging or biopsy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients under the care of a St. Jude Children's Research Hospital (SJCRH) physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of both genders, and all ethnic groups, under the care of a SJCRH physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy or lactation. Future plans for pregnancy do not exclude patient participation. Patient should not become pregnant within one month of completion of 18F-DA PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of medications known to interfere with 123I-mIBG uptake (principal considerations are phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine containing compounds which need to be discontinued for 48 hours, and labetalol which needs to be discontinued for 6 weeks)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients less than 3 years of age who require a total length of anesthesia time greater than 3 hours (for the 18F-fluorodopamine [FLO]PET scan in conjunction with another clinical procedure requiring sedation) will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with peripheral lung lesions 1-5 cm in size identified on chest CT with the intention to undergo bronchoscopic evaluation and biopsy; the decision to pursue biopsy will be made by the treating physician and agreed upon by the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who refuse to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXAre physically unable to tolerate flexible bronchoscopy or moderate sedation as determined by the bronchoscopistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with excessively high anesthesia risks who cannot tolerate the extra time under general anesthesia needed to perform this study; the surgeon and anesthesiologist will determine this pre-operativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to lie flat, still or tolerate a PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infusion reactions to monoclonal antibody therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) ? 13 micro international units/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving class IA (quinidine, procainamide) or class III (dofetilide, amiodarone, sotalol) antiarrhythmic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXAs per patient report or as confirmed by the medical record, if the patient is taking anti-depression or anti-anxiety medication, < 2 months on these medications or a change in the prescribed dose in the past 2 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWith evidence of visual or auditory impairment that would preclude completion of the assessments, as per medical records or patient reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a limited (1-5) number of metastatic foci outside of the thorax who are candidates for consolidative treatment with SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with either a single focus or multiple foci (multi-isocentric planning) of disease in the thorax amenable to SBRT with at least one focus with at least 1.5 cm or larger in its largest diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient would require anesthesia for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are claustrophobicXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients selecting treatment outside of Memorial Sloan Kettering (MSK)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight greater than the 400-lb weight limit of the PET scannerXx_NEWLINE_xXUnmanageable claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had active infection within 15 days of study enrollment that may be considered to interfere with 68Ga-PSMA PET imaging by the study investigatorsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to have placement of intravenous line accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees to participate in the clinical study and to complete all required visits and evaluations. The pediatric population has a different disease profile from the glioma patients we hope to recruit. To reduce heterogeneity in the patient population we will not consider patients younger than 18 for this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is found to have unfavorable anatomy to indicate that stereotactic biopsy could not be safely performed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPacemakers, electronic stimulation, metallic foreign bodies and devices and/or other conditions that are not MR safe, which include but are not limited to: \r\n* Electronically, magnetically, and mechanically activated implants\r\n* Ferromagnetic or electronically operated active devices · metallic splinters in the eye\r\n* Ferromagnetic hemostatic clips in the central nervous system (CNS) or body\r\n* Cochlear implants\r\n* Other pacemakers\r\n* Insulin pumps and nerve stimulators\r\n* Non-MR safe lead wires · prosthetic heart valves (if dehiscence is suspected)\r\n* Non ferromagnetic stapedial implants\r\n* Pregnancy\r\n* Claustrophobia that does not readily respond to oral medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with metastatic castration resistant prostate carcinoma with skeletal, visceral and/or nodal involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to lie still for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contra-indication to MR including severe claustrophobia, incompatible aneurysm clips or cardiac pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate venous access per assessment of treating health care providerXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects for whom exposure to a strong magnetic field would be a health risk (e.g., subjects with cardiac pacemakers or non-MR compatible metallic implants)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who require sedation to participate will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of erosive esophagitisXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to tolerate sedation due to medical comorbiditiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with local or regional nodal disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to PETXx_NEWLINE_xXNo implanted metallic objectsXx_NEWLINE_xXNo intravenous (IV) or oral contrast medium within the week prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to lie flat, still or tolerate a PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXCannot receive furosemideXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory or diagnosis of Paget’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCannot receive furosemideXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown Paget’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 13 micro international units/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infusion reactions to panitumumab or other monoclonal antibody therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving class IA (quinidine, procainamide) or class III (dofetilide, amiodarone, sotalol) antiarrhythmic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be asked to consent to 2 to 3 extra biopsy samples to be used for this research projectXx_NEWLINE_xXFor healthy volunteers only: Must have no known medical problems that would make undergoing the scan hazardous to the health of the patient or interfere with the results. In particular subjects should not have any cardiac or immunological disorders as these would likely affect the scan results. Subjects should have had a full physical exam within 6 months of the study. If healthy volunteers have not had a full medical exam within 6 months of the study, one of the nuclear medicine physicians will conduct the medical exam prior to any study procedures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients highly suspected to have aGVHD and requiring systemic therapy only: Taking steroid treatment for suspected aGVHD for 3 days or less.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals with known or suspected substance abuse, obtained by self-reporting.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave metallic hardware in the lower extremity which is MR compatible however would create too much artifact for MR examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXAre unable to lay still in the MR scanner for length of examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXHave severe claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to lie flat, still or tolerate a PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to furosemide administration including prior allergy or adverse reaction to furosemide or sulfa drugs; (Note: This exclusion criteria can be removed if furosemide is omitted as part of the PET imaging protocol if a second-generation scatter correction is available for the used PET device)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of NETXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical limitation that would limit compliance with the study requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically stable as judged by patient’s physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to undergo MR imaging, tolerate breath hold procedures and follow direction during the imaging processXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY CONTROLS: No contraindications for MR or PET imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY CONTROLS: Scheduled to undergo a hysterectomy and/or salpingo-oophorectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXBe diagnosed with an adnexal massXx_NEWLINE_xXBe scheduled for surgery to remove the adnexal massXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known or suspected right-to-left, bi-directional, or transient right-to-left cardiac shuntsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of anaphylactic allergy to Definity, manifested by one or more of the following symptoms: generalized urticaria, difficulty in breathing, swelling of the mouth and throat, hypotension, or shockXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with congenital heart defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe emphysema, pulmonary vasculitis, or a history of pulmonary emboliXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known or suspected pancreatic or ovarian carcinoma who will be undergoing clinically appropriate laparoscopic evaluation or treatment; patients will not undergo laparoscopy solely for the purpose of participation in this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may be of any race/ethnicityXx_NEWLINE_xXCapable of complying with study procedures and communicating with study personnelXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients who require monitored anesthesia for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are too claustrophobic to undergo PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight >= 400 pounds or body habitus or disability that will not permit the imaging protocol to be performedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who lack fitness for flexible bronchoscopy as determined by the physician performing the bronchoscopy before the procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on anticoagulation (other than aspirin) whom cannot have their anticoagulation held for the procedure due to other clinical reasons (i.e. recent cardiac stent placement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have neurological findings (i.e. loss of consciousness, paresis, cranial neuropathy, etc.), and/or radiological abnormalities in the brain (neoplastic or non-neoplastic in nature)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known allergic or hypersensitivity reactions to parenteral iron, parenteral dextran, parenteral iron-dextran, or parenteral iron-polysaccharide preparations (Ferumoxytol Investigator’s Drug Brochure, 2009); subjects with significant drug or other allergies or autoimmune diseases may be enrolled at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known iron overload (genetic hemochromatosis); in subjects with a family history of hemochromatosis, hemochromatosis must be ruled out prior to study entry with normal values of the following blood tests: transferrin saturation (TS) test and serum ferritin (SF) test; all associated costs will be paid by the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with three or more drug allergies from separate drug classesXx_NEWLINE_xXReferred to the Washington University School of Medicine for conditions necessitating surgery to include at least a unilateral oophorectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known allergic or hypersensitivity reactions to parenteral iron, parenteral dextran, parenteral iron-dextran, or parenteral iron-polysaccharide preparations (Ferumoxytol Investigator’s Drug Brochure, 2009); subjects with significant drug or other allergies or autoimmune diseases may be enrolled at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known iron overload (genetic hemochromatosis); in subjects with a family history of hemochromatosis, hemochromatosis must be ruled out prior to study entry with normal values of the following blood tests: transferrin saturation (TS) test and serum ferritin (SF) test; all associated costs will be paid by the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-STUDY I: Prostate biopsy histology grade >= Gleason 6, positive biopsy > 2 coresXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-STUDY I: Patients considered as candidates for and medically fit to undergo prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-STUDY I: Unable to lie flat during or tolerate PET/CTXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-STUDY I: No prostatectomy scheduled more than 12 hours post imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-STUDY II: Unable to lie flat during or tolerate PET/CTXx_NEWLINE_xXSUB-STUDY III: Unable to lie flat during or tolerate PET/CTXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed presence of somatostatin receptors (type 2) on technically evaluable tumour lesions documented by a positive Somatostatin Receptor Scan acquired within 6 months prior to screening (Visit 1) and showing minimally two lesions in at least one of the key organs; these images shall be available to be sent to the imaging core lab electronically to ascertain quality and admissibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight between 50 kg (110 lb) and 110 kg (243 lb), inclusiveXx_NEWLINE_xXMen scheduled for transrectal prostate biopsy or radical prostatectomy at Columbia University Medical CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient weight exceeds table limit for the PET/CT scanner (400 pounds)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring conscious sedation for imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to lie prone for 30 minutes for imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to follow a low iodine diet or requiring medication with high content in iodide (amiodarone)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who received iodinated intravenous contrast as part of a radiographic procedure within 3 months of study registration; those that have had iodinated intravenous contrast for CT imaging within this time frame may still be eligible if a urinary iodine analysis reveals that the excess iodine has been adequately cleared after the last intravenous contrast administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXHigh risk benign lesions as the primary pathology diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo mandatory research biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe claustrophobia unresponsive to oral anxiolyticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 350 pounds (lbs.) (weight limit for scanner table), or unable to fit within the imaging gantryXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with renal failure or insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a thyroid nodule that is amenable to ultrasound guided fine needle aspirationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to lie supine for a biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo mandatory research biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe claustrophobia unresponsive to oral anxiolyticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 350 lbs; (weight limit for scanner table), or unable to fit within the imaging gantryXx_NEWLINE_xXLactation should be suspended for at least two days following the administration of [18F] FAZA to the mother, because of the unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to administration of the radionuclide to a lactating woman.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain motionless for up to 30-60 minutes per scanXx_NEWLINE_xXLack of availability for follow-up assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a histologic diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus located distal to the carinaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be treated with neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy for this conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with primary tumors located above the carinaXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology proven diagnosis of colon or colorectal carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must have a suspected SCLC or NSCLCXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is using or is dependent on substances of abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical symptoms of peripheral neuropathy noted in medical record and suspected to be secondary to taxane-based therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXLocalized SCCHN.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with reproductive potential must undergo counseling to understand unknown risks to resultant progeny.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of an implanted pacemaker or implanted defibrillator deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of severe claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMinors will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners and members of other vulnerable populations will be excluded from this study as these populations will not provide any additional unique information or uniquely benefit from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) < 35 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactoid reaction to iodinated contrast materialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of complying with study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of previous administration of GBCAXx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing to be injected with 11C-methyl-L-tryptophan (C11-AMT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas had prior monoclonal antibody (mAb) targeting immune checkpoint proteins, for distant metastatic melanoma and have progressed or have developed intolerable side effectXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo surgery at Memorial Sloan-Kettering (MSK)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is at low risk for metastasis with Gleason score at diagnosis < 8.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDefinitive findings of systemic metastasis on conventional imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with existing plasma cell disorders and no history of psychiatric disorders and can receive conscious sedation are eligible to participate in the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically stable as judged by patient’s physician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGood general health with no history of diabetes, coronary artery disease, peripheral arterial disease, chronic disease or hypertensionXx_NEWLINE_xXTOBACCO PRODUCT USERSXx_NEWLINE_xXFor traditional cigarettes (TC) smokers, daily TC smoking in the past 6 months, at least 10 cigarettes per day, with no EC exposure in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor electronic cigarettes (EC) users, daily EC use in the past 6 months, at least 10 sessions per day, with no TC exposure in the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXFor non-smokers, no significant lifetime exposure to any nicotine-containing product, where significant exposure is defined as daily use of any nicotine-containing product for more than one week or once monthly use for more than 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor blockers, diuretics, aldosterone, renin blockers, aspirin, statins, sildenafil (or other PDE5 inhibitors) and non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently using nicotine replacement or other tobacco cessation products or intentionally abstaining from nicotine-containing productsXx_NEWLINE_xXIntravenous (IV) contrast exposure in the past 1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) >= 30Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reactions to components of the study product(s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust not have had an injection of a radioisotope 24 hours prior to examXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who require reduced intravenous contrast dose based on the Department of Radiology contrast policyXx_NEWLINE_xXPacemaker of other implantable device in the chest wallXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that plan to receive off-label use of anti-PD1 or anti-PDL1Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny ethnic groupXx_NEWLINE_xXSpanish-speaking patients will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis of glioma orXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing guided-bronchoscopy for diagnosis of peripheral lung lesion/s > 1 and < 3 cm in diameter located in the outer 2/3 of the lung fieldsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with metastatic disease (from primaries other than lung) who have suspicious mediastinal or hilar LN that require samplingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindication/s for general anesthesia (e.g., severe and active coronary artery disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] with forced expiratory volume in 1 second [FEV1] < 1 liter, uncontrolled hypertension, increased intracranial pressure, history of intolerance to general anesthesia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCutaneous melanoma with Breslow depth > 1 mm or melanoma Breslow depth of 0.76 – 1.00 mm in setting of ulceration, extensive regressionXx_NEWLINE_xXMitotic rate >= 1/mm^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of angiolymphatic invasionXx_NEWLINE_xXDeep positive marginXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known allergies to contrast materialXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have undergone coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) or coronary stenting in the past 3 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with stage II chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or worse, per Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) classificationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypersensitivity to egg or egg products, because sonazoid contains a chicken egg-derived surfactant (hydrogenated egg phosphatidylserine sodium)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and a treatment plan to undergo radioembolization therapy with Y-90 at Indiana University Health HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known allergies to contrast materialXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergies to contrast materialXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical limitation that would limit compliance with the study requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to lie flat, still or tolerate a PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXRisk of poor cosmetic outcome after initial lumpectomy and possible additional excision, as assessed by Dr. SharmaXx_NEWLINE_xXRecommendation for mastectomy based on radiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient’s that have complex DCIS as indicated on radiology, which would require excising a large tissue volumeXx_NEWLINE_xXNo or equivocal ER testing performed prior to surgery if biopsy indicates ductal carcinoma in situXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to LasixXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of visual impairment to an extent that the patient is unable to complete the computer testingXx_NEWLINE_xXPART B ONLYXx_NEWLINE_xXMetallic implant or device that distorts local magnetic field and compromises the quality of MR imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXMetallic hip implant or any other metallic implant or device that distorts local magnetic field and compromises the quality of MR imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of reaction to ICG, iodides, or technetium radiocolloidXx_NEWLINE_xXIntracoelomic primary tumors or tumors expected to drain to an intracoelomic SLNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are eligible to receive combined dual immune-checkpoint blockade therapy with ipilimumab and nivolumab, per referring oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant auto-immune disease requiring hospitalization within the past two years or any history of life-threatening auto-immune diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of low or high grade dysplasiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with risk factors for esophageal malignancy including Barrett’s esophagus and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known or suspected esophageal varicesXx_NEWLINE_xXCases without prior biopsy will be chosen based upon consensus of a MD Anderson faculty neuroradiologist and neurosurgeon for high probability of representing a glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXChildrenXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of cerebrovascular disease, dementia or prior non-mild traumatic brain injuryXx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to undergo anal cytology, anal molecular testing, and high resolution anoscopy with targeted anal biopsiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of high grade anal intraepithelial neoplasia (AIN 2 or 3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of active anal disease requiring surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHighly suspicious pulmonary nodule(s), defined as distinct nodule with a diameter of ?8mm in its largest dimensionXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to participate in all aspects of study protocol for duration of studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindication to bronchoscopy, for example:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreatable life-threatening arrhythmiasXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute respiratory failure with hypercapnia (unless the patient is intubated and ventilated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously diagnosed high-grade tracheal obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate-to-severe pulmonary fibrosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere emphysema or COPD: additional testing and PI consent is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXBullae >5 cm located in vicinity of target nodule or tunnelXx_NEWLINE_xXAny other severe or life-threatening comorbidity that could increase the risk of bronchoscopic biopsy or ATV tunneling, for example:Xx_NEWLINE_xXASA class > 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXsevere cachexiaXx_NEWLINE_xXsevere respiratory insufficiency or hypoxiaXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for lung surgery within 72hrs post-scheduled diagnostic bronchoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergies to iodidesXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to lie still for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously imaged with 18F-DCFPyL PET/CT on >= 2 occasions as part of this or other study protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreed to FLT-PET imaging and signed consent and eligible FLT-PET protocol 2006-127Xx_NEWLINE_xXAlready scheduled to undergo biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive prostatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXOperated for debulking, decompression or separation surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who previously underwent spinal surgery at these levels will be excluded to eliminate late postoperative changesXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXpT3 (seminal vesicle invasion or extraprostatic extension), orXx_NEWLINE_xXRadical prostatectomy within one year of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who have any of the following will not be eligible to participate:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients presenting with a pituitary nodule presumed to be resectable on pre-operative assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXGood operative candidateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of anaphylactic reactions to OTL38Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to OTL38Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with significant neurological motor deficits of the upper extremities, which would preclude them from performing the while awake intra-operative tasksXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the case of cryotherapy, external beam radiation, or high-intensity focused ultrasound therapy (HIFU) the procedure will have occurred at least one year in the past; in the case of brachytherapy, treatment will have occurred at least 2 years in the past to eliminate patients with so-called “prostate-specific antigen (PSA) bump”Xx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 1 month since any prior prostate biopsy (to decrease false positive from inflammation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking retinoid medications by mouth (such as acitretin, isotretinoin), strontium ranelate may not take demeclocycline because of toxic interactionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients taking any tetracycline class of drug (i.e. minocycline, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are considered to be mentally disabled will not be recruited for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXBe planning to begin a course of at least 4 months of ADT; the ADT is defined as: (a) surgical castration; (b) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GNRH) antagonist alone; (c) GNRH antagonist with oral androgen receptor blockade, and (d) GNRH antagonist, oral androgen receptor blockade, and 5-alpha reductase inhibitors; we will not include men with only oral anti-androgen therapy such as 5-alpha reductase inhibitors alone or oral anti-androgens aloneXx_NEWLINE_xXAre not free of unstable angina, arrhythmia, or severe systemic disease that would make moderate intensity exercise participation unsafeXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have difficulty lying flat on their back for extended periods of timeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is being considered for SBRTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have at least one area of disease measuring >= 1.0 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with metal devices in the body including, but not limited to metallic joint prostheses, artificial heart valves, pacemakers, and cochlear implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible for the trial UPCC #01615, “A Phase Ib Tissue Collection Study of Pembrolizumab (MK-3475) in Subjects with Resectable Advanced Melanoma\Xx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for the trial UPCC #01615, “A Phase Ib Tissue Collection Study of Pembrolizumab (MK-3475) in Subjects with Resectable Advanced Melanoma\Xx_NEWLINE_xXEminent or established cord compression as assessed by medical record reviewXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are considered to be mentally disabled will not be recruited for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen, children, fetuses, neonates, or prisoners are not included in this research studyXx_NEWLINE_xXGood operative candidate as determined by the treating physician and multidisciplinary teamXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a history of iodide allergiesXx_NEWLINE_xXVulnerable patient populations:\r\n* Patients unable to participate in the consent process (children and neonates)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre in good health (other than having breast cancer) and can lie still in a prone position for 45 minutes inside MRI scannerXx_NEWLINE_xXHave implanted prosthetic heart valves, pacemaker, neuro-stimulation devices, surgical clips (hemostatic clips) or other metallic implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave engaged in occupations or activities which may cause accidental lodging of ferromagnetic materials (e.g. iron), or have embedded metal fragments from military activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave received orthodontic work involving ferromagnetic materialsXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobic (i.e. feeling very anxious in a confined small space)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave had allergic response to contrast agents (such as iodine or gadolinium) previouslyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave known history of kidney diseasesXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to participate in collection of pharmacokinetic samplesXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reaction to human, or humanized, antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXCritically ill or medically unstable and whose critical course during the observation period would be unpredictable (e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD] requiring oxygen)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRight to left shunt, severe pulmonary hypertension (pulmonary artery pressure > 90 mmHg), or adult respiratory distress syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXIs in an intensive care settingXx_NEWLINE_xXHas any other medical condition or other circumstances that would significantly decrease the chances of obtaining reliable data or of achieving the study objectives such as:\r\n* Mental illness\r\n* Drug abuseXx_NEWLINE_xXObesity that limits obtainment of acceptable imagesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have an International Prostate Symptom Score of =< 15Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score of >= 8 (4+4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetallic implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Be medically stableXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER: A history of chest wall trauma or surgery, or dermatologic disorders, which could be expected to disrupt lymphatic drainage of the chest wallXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER: Lymphedema or chronic edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER: Exposure to ultrasound contrast agents (UCAs) in the 1 month prior to study initiationXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER: Patients with a history of anaphylactic allergy to eggs or egg products, manifested by one or more of the following symptoms: generalized urticaria, difficulty in breathing, swelling of the mouth and throat, hypotension, or shockXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER: Significant axillary, supraclavicular, or other chest wall palpable adenopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER: Evidence of current ongoing illicit drug use or average alcohol use of greater than 2 drinks a dayXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEER: Use of more than 5 cigarettes/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Patients with a prior axillary procedure on the side scheduled for SLN evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Patients with a history of anaphylactic allergy to eggs or egg products, manifested by one or more of the following symptoms: generalized urticaria, difficulty in breathing, swelling of the mouth and throat, hypotension, or shock (subjects with non-anaphylactic allergies to eggs or egg products may be enrolled in the study, but must be watched carefully for 1 hour [h] following the administration of Sonazoid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Patients with congenital heart defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Patients with severe emphysema, pulmonary vasculitis, pulmonary hypertension or a history of pulmonary emboliXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected but pathologically unconfirmed diagnosis of Erdheim-Chester disease or Langerhans cell histiocytosis or other histiocytic disorder on the basis of clinical diagnosis, radiologic features, or findings from prior biopsies ORXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmed diagnosis of Erdheim-Chester disease or Langerhans cell histiocytosis or other histiocytic disorder and requiring additional diagnostic imaging and biopsy to determine mutational status in order to determine therapeutic optionsXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for surgery and/or another invasive procedure (except biopsy) within the time period of 1 month prior to 18F FSPG administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to 18F FSPG or components of the preparationXx_NEWLINE_xXInvestigator precludes participation for scientific reasons, for reasons of compliance, or for reasons of the patient’s safetyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be seen at the St. Louis Children’s Hospital Neurofibromatosis (NF) ClinicXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with hypotoniaXx_NEWLINE_xXPoor kidney function defined as a known renal disease or elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatineXx_NEWLINE_xXRequiring intubation for anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with low-risk, intermediate-risk and high-risk tumors according to National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) guidelines (2.2014) will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy-proven adenocarcinoma of the prostate; biopsy may be performed outside of University of California San Francisco (UCSF), if detailed results of sextant biopsy are available; a minimum of 20 patients out of a planned enrollment of 50 patients must have high-risk disease as defined by primary Gleason score of 4 or 5 on prior prostate biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot tolerate or have contra-indications to endorectal coil insertion; for example, patients with a prior abdominoperineal resection of the rectum or latex allergyXx_NEWLINE_xXMetallic hip implant or any other metallic implant or device that distorts local magnetic field and compromises the quality of MR imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient scheduled to undergo thoracic RT at Duke University to a dose of at least 20 gray (Gy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject cannot hold his/her breath for 15 secondsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of claustrophobia or other preventing condition that has previously or would interfere with completion of protocol specified imaging sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of an implanted device that is incompatible with CT scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy volunteers for the Dosimetry Studies Arm must not\r\n* Have a history of cardiopulmonary conditions requiring any treatment or medical intervention\r\n* Be a current smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to tolerate up to 60 min of PET imaging per imaging sessionXx_NEWLINE_xXAn indeterminate pulmonary nodule (IPN) (7–30 mm diameter) on CT, or an indeterminate lung mass (> 30 mm diameter), without prior examinations that establish that the lesion has been stable for two or more yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated; ORXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must agree at the time of study entry to undergo clinically indicated biopsy(ies) or 24-month period of follow-up, as needed, to resolve the etiology of their IPN(s) or lung mass(es)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients who do not have a tissue diagnosis:\r\n* Non-oncologic severe co-morbidities suggesting a life span of less than two years if not treated, as determined by the potential subject’s treating physician\r\n* If severe co-morbidities are present, the treating physician should indicate that a life span of 2 years is expected if treatments are effective\r\n* This exclusion is to prevent loss of the needed 2 year CT follow-up to establish a benign diagnosis for lesions lacking tissue diagnosis if extremely fragile subjects are enrolled and then experience an untimely, unrelated deathXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject weighs more than 450 pounds or otherwise cannot be safely fit into the imaging systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPeptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PRRT) within 4 weeks of Ga-68 DOTATOC PET/CT scanXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to have bronchoscopic placement of Calypso transponders as confirmed on a recent (within the past 8 weeks) CT scanXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to breathe regularly for gated treatment, as measured with the Varian Real-time Position Management (RPM) systemXx_NEWLINE_xXBronchiectasis in the region of the intended implantationXx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed unable to safely undergo or tolerate flexible bronchoscopy as per institutional guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to tolerate anesthesia or sedationXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in any other clinical studies the investigator believes to be in conflict with this investigationXx_NEWLINE_xXImplants in the chest region that contain metal or conductive materials (e.g., metal implants, rods, or plates) which Calypso Medical considers will interfere with the Calypso System's electromagnetic localizationXx_NEWLINE_xXActive implanted devices, such as pacemakers, defibrillators, and drug infusion pumpsXx_NEWLINE_xXPosterior lesions that would be > 19 cm distance from Calypso detector plateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be eligible for and must be planning to undergo radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to travel to National Institutes of Health (NIH) for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther medications used for urinary symptoms including 5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride and dutasteride) and alternative medications known to alter PSA (e.g. phytoestrogens and saw palmetto) cannot be taken while patients are receiving enzalutamideXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate volume 20 - 100 ccXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition that would preclude the subject from getting the required biopsy as stated in the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXInability or refusal to have at least one peripheral intravenous line for intravenous access (as applicable to the day of [carbon C 13 (1-13 C)] pyruvate injection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients considered as candidates for and medically fit to undergo radiation and ADTXx_NEWLINE_xXNo known problems with peripheral IV or central line accessXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is judged by the investigator to have the initiative and means to be compliant with the protocol and be within geographical proximity to make the required study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHemorrhagic cystitis or active prostatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXAll St Jude patients with a known or suspected, newly diagnosed bone or soft-tissue sarcoma who will be treated on or as per disease specific protocolsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is hospitalized in the intensive care unitXx_NEWLINE_xXCHILD: Pediatrics patients aged 2-17 years undergoing myelosuppressive therapies for acute leukemias and other childhood cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXCHILD: If applicable, willingness of the patient to shave axillary (armpit) hairXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with ongoing febrile illness or documented infectious diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXCT scans showing involvement of 1 or more clearly demarcated lesions with a long axis > 1.5 cm and short axis >= 1.0 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to tolerate general anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are felt to be a “difficult airway” for induction of general endotracheal anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with excessive dental restorations and amalgamXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindications to MRXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrollable claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with secondary or relapsed AML or APL should be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known infiltrative variant of HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are already eligible for and are to be treated with hypofractionated or single dose radiation for their spinal lesions\r\n* Note: The patients must have their treatments at Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal failure or history of allergic reaction to Gadavist will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pacemaker, aneurysm clip or any other condition that would warrant avoidance of a strong magnetic fieldXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with biopsy-proven extra-abdominal desmoid tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXBoth sporadic desmoid tumors and those associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) syndromes will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not wish to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected diagnosis of intracranial glioma with substantial non-enhancing regions as assessed by contrast enhanced MRI; for the purposes of this study, gliomas with substantial non-enhancing regions are defined as having contrast-enhancing volumes of less than 80% of the total estimated tumor volume; gliomas that do not have any contrast-enhancing regions are eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Eligible patients include patients with histologically proven neuroendocrine tumors (paraganglioma, PHEO [pheochromocytoma], or well differentiated neuroendocrine tumor [NET] of the lung or gastrointestinal [GI] system) or neuroblastoma (NB); patients, who have NB, the diagnosis must be in accordance with the International Criteria, i.e., either histopathology or bone marrow involvement; patients must be able to undergo PET scan without sedationXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: All patients must have MIBG-avid disease and evaluable disease on MIBG scan at the time of enrollment onto the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORT: Patients must be able to undergo PET scan without sedationXx_NEWLINE_xXEXPANSION COHORT: Patients must have MIBG-avid disease and evaluable disease on MIBG scan at the time of enrollment onto the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny raceXx_NEWLINE_xXHas lesions involving chest wallXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must report persistent cognitive problems following the initiation of chemotherapy, defined as impairment being one or more standard deviations above normative data on our two scales of subjective cognitive dysfunction; this is defined as a total score of 45 or higher on the Cognitive Failure Questionnaire, and a T-score of 60 or higher on the Frontal System Behavioral Scale QuestionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients who require monitored anesthesia for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of cholinesterase inhibitors, other cognitive enhancers, antipsychotics, antidepressants, or anticonvulsant medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of gabapentin or venlafaxine for hot flashesXx_NEWLINE_xXColor blindness (cannot complete Delis–Kaplan Executive Function System [D-KEFS] Stroop test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe depression as measured on the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) - Short Form; the cut-off score for the BDI will be 8/9Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the diagnosis of neuroblastoma must meet both of the following criteria: \r\n* Diagnosis confirmed by histological assessment by Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) Department of Pathology or by the presence of bone marrow (BM) metastases PLUS elevated urinary catecholamines\r\n* Relapsed or refractory stage 4 disease or relapsed or refractory stage v-myc avian myelocytomatosis viral oncogene neuroblastoma derived homolog (MYCN)-amplified 2B or 3 diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors other than neuroblastoma must meet both the following criteria:\r\n* Have one of the following diagnoses (these tumors are known to express GD2 on cell surface):\r\n** Melanoma\r\n** Osteogenic sarcoma\r\n** Leiomyosarcoma\r\n** Ewing sarcoma\r\n** Liposarcoma\r\n** Fibrosarcoma\r\n** Malignant fibrous histiocytoma\r\n** Spindle cell sarcoma\r\n** Small cell lung cancer\r\n** Medulloblastoma metastatic to extracranial sites\r\n** Paraganglioma\r\n* Have refractory or relapsed or metastatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior development of positive human anti-mouse antibody response (HAMA) or human anti-human antibody response (HAHA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive human anti-hu3F8 antibody titerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have tumors that produce CEA as documented by a current or past history of an elevated serum CEA above the institutional limit of normal, or by immunohistochemical methods; NOTE: Patients with colorectal cancer are exempt from this requirement since > 95% are CEA positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXAlthough not mandated by the protocol, the results of the computed tomography (CT) scans and labs (complete blood count [CBC], comprehensive metabolic panel [CMP]) that are performed as part of the standard work up should be available and should have been done within 2 months prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who has had exposure to mouse or chimeric (human/mouse) immunoglobulin and has antibody to the M5AXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be status post near total thyroidectomy for differentiated thyroid cancer without known distant metastases and who are planning to undergo routine remnant thyroid tissue ablation with I-131Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must qualify for thyroid ablation with I-131Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior bovine thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) useXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cardiovascular disease that may adversely affect patient participation at the discretion of the primary investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on hemodialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with acute serious illnesses at the discretion of the primary investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with a history of Graves disease, goiter, thyroid nodules, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, post-partum thyroiditis, type 2 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis, or subacute thyroiditis who still have a portion or all of their thyroid glandXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-enrollment prostate biopsy must consist of at least 8 coresXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy reviewed by a University of Miami pathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to fill out the longitudinal psychosocial questionnaires assessing health related quality of lifeXx_NEWLINE_xXNo prior surgery to the prostate, other than transurethral procedures for benign prostatic hyperplasia (e.g., transurethral resection, green light laser treatment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBilateral hip replacementXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing MRD allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not received an allogeneic HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have a documented ovarian abnormality on ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients having undergone prior hysterectomy will be eligible provided that they meet the other requirements for entry into this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not enrolled in the OCSPXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot tolerate the vaginal ultrasound procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are referred with pelvic symptoms, a known pelvic mass, or a history of prior radiation, will be excluded from this investigationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior bilateral salpingo-oophorectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXFLT PET: will only be performed in patients >= 10 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXResearch biopsies in consenting patients with MPNST: will only be performed in patients >= 18 years oldXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are diagnosed with NF1 using the National Institutes of Health (NIH) Consensus Conference criteria or have a confirmed NF1 mutation with analysis performed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory; NF1 mutation testing to confirm eligibility will not be performed on this protocol, but as part the POB separate screening studyXx_NEWLINE_xXFor the clinical diagnosis of NF1 all study subjects must have at least two or more diagnostic criteria for NF1 listed below (NIH Consensus Conference):\r\n* Six or more cafe-au-lait spots (>= 0.5 cm in prepubertal subjects or >= 1.5 cm in postpubertal subjects)\r\n* >= 2 neurofibromas or 1 plexiform neurofibroma\r\n* Freckling in the axilla or groin\r\n* Optic glioma\r\n* Two or more Lisch nodules\r\n* A distinctive bony lesion (dysplasia of the sphenoid bone or dysplasia or thinning of long bone cortex)\r\n* A first-degree relative with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have:\r\n* Diagnosis of NF1 with a lesion concerning for MPNST\r\n** Criteria include pain, growth of a known plexiform neurofibroma, abnormality on functional imaging study (FDG-PET) or change in clinical exam OR\r\n* Diagnosis of NF1 with a histologically confirmed MPNSTXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be eligible for and willing to participate and sign consent for National Cancer Institute (NCI) protocol 08-C-0079: Natural History Study and Longitudinal Assessment of Children, Adolescents, and Adults with Neurofibromatosis Type 1, for the clinical evaluation necessary for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) =< 3; subjects who are wheelchair bound because of paralysis will be considered “ambulatory” when they are up in their wheelchair; subjects have to be able to travel to the NIH for evaluationsXx_NEWLINE_xXRequirement for medications, which interfere with platelet function, such as aspirin, which cannot be stopped within 1 week prior to the biopsy (applicable only to patients undergoing biopsy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny woman with a confirmed preoperative diagnosis of cervical AIS, including co-existing squamous cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and/or microinvasive cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen undergoing cold knife cone (CKC) of the cervix at MD AndersonXx_NEWLINE_xXPreoperative diagnosis of either presumed first-time low or high grade glioma or recurrent glioma (astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, mixed oligo-astrocytoma, anaplastic astrocytoma, and glioblastoma multiforme) or metastasis, or meningiomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cutaneous photosensitivity, porphyria, hypersensitivity to porphyrins, photodermatosis, exfoliative dermatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXCenter of suspicious lesion is not deeper than 1.5 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXInstitutionalized subject (prisoner or nursing home patient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCritically ill or medically unstable and whose critical course during the observation period would be unpredictable (e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD])Xx_NEWLINE_xXRight to left shunt, severe pulmonary hypertension (pulmonary artery pressure > 90 mmHg), or adult respiratory distress syndromeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with the most recent abdominal magnetic resonance (MR) study obtained within 3 months +/- 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with contraindications to the use of intravenous contrast such as allergic type reactionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is judged by the investigator to have the initiative and means to be compliant with the protocol and be within geographical proximity to make the required study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate venous access (a single antecubital or equivalent venous access sites are required for study drug injection)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient received a permanent prostate brachytherapy implant within the last 3 months (for palladium [Pd]-103 implants) or 12 months (for iodine [I]-125 implants)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCancer patients who are scheduled for (perfusion) nuclear stress testing using regadenoson as stress agentXx_NEWLINE_xXIndications for stress testing is either: \r\n* As part of a pre-operative evaluation prior to a planned cancer related surgery that is considered to be at least of intermediate risk (Intra-peritoneal, intra-thoracic, head and neck surgery, orthopedic or prostate surgery) OR \r\n* As an evaluation in the cardiology clinic for symptoms described in a cardiology consult as typical angina, or of significant suspicion for coronary disease or symptoms described as likely of a cardiac/coronary etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients consented for the trial that on the baseline 2-dimensional (2D) study have poor acoustic echo windows (i.e. a reader is unable to see in definition 2 or more segments from the apical views) will not be eligible to continue in the trial and peak hyperemia images will not be obtainedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with tachycardia defined as heart rate (HR) of 100 or higher at the day of SPECT will not be eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSecond- or third-degree atrioventricular (AV) blockXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with left bundle branch block (LBBB) and/or artificial pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to lie flat to obtain the functional scans or have blood access for blood samplesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing and able to adhere to a special low-carb diet 24-48 hours prior to and fast 8-12 hours prior to every 18F-FDG PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult (age ? 18 years) subjects with peripheral lung lesions that are <1.5 cm in size who are planning to undergo percutaneous image guided lung biopsy as part of their routine medical care.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal dysfunction (GFR <60) or patients on dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the discretion of the physician or surgeon, normal baseline cardiac function based upon pre-operative evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the discretion of the operating surgeon, bilirubin level of < 2.0 mg/dl in the absence of a history of Gilbert's disease (or pattern consistent with Gilbert’s)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects of all races and ethnic origins will be recruitedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have suspicious or known to be malignant solitary pulmonary nodule at least 1 cm in sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of an implanted pacemaker or implanted defibrillator deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy; regular clinical practice already excludes pregnant patients from gadolinium contrast; the current clinical practice will be applied - patients will be verbally screened and asked if they think they could be pregnant; if the answer is yes, then the patient will be excluded from the study; if the patient is uncertain about the pregnancy status, she will be given an option to undergo a pregnancy test or not participate in the study altogether; patients who self-report that they are not pregnant will be allowed to participate in the study; this procedure is based on current department policy guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners and members of other vulnerable populations will be excluded from this study; the subject selection population will not regularly include prisoners and other vulnerable population members as these populations will not provide any additional unique information to or uniquely benefit from the study; non-English speaking population will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPresenting with one of the four conditions specified belowXx_NEWLINE_xXFludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG) avid cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXNeurologic disorders (dementia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInflammatory disease (for example fever of unknown origin, vasculitis, osteomyelitis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCirrhosis, cardiomyopathy, restrictive heart disease, or bronzing of the skinXx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant women are excluded from this study because there is an unknown, but potential risk, for adverse events, as small animal trials have linked ferumoxytol administration (at very high doses) to birth defects (e.g., soft-tissue malformations and decreased fetal weights); it is not known whether ferumoxytol is present in human milk; breastfeeding, however, should be discontinued if the mother receives ferumoxytol while nursingXx_NEWLINE_xXSkeletal x-ray film or MRI confirmation of absent skeletal metastases if bone scan findings are equivocalXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinary incontinence requiring condom catheter use or >= 1 pad/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of neoadjuvant hormonal manipulationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivity or contraindication to any of the component of 89Zr-DFO-trastuzumab (89Zr or desferrioxamine [DFO] or trastuzumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have received trastuzumab must have at least a washout period for trastuzumab of 14 days, this will not apply to 89Zr-DFO-trastuzumab repeat, post treatment assessment where patients may be receiving trastuzumabXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to sign release of information for any radiation and/or follow-up recordsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to undergo an 18F-DOPA PET scan (e.g. Parkinson’s disease, taking anti-dopaminergic, or dopamine agonist medication or less than 6 half-lives from discontinuance of dopamine agonists; NOTE: other potentially interfering drugs: amoxapine, amphetamine, benztropine, buproprion, buspirone, cocaine, mazindol, methamphetamine, methylphenidate, norephedrine, phentermine, phenylpropanolamine, selegiline, paroxetine, citalopram, and sertraline; if a patient is on any of these drugs, list which ones on the on-study formXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to hold the breath for 10 secondsXx_NEWLINE_xXAgrees to allow access to clinical records regarding response to treatment and long term follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight exceeding capacity of imaging tableXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete questionnaire(s) by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with anaplastic oligodendrogliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to undergo an 18F-DOPA PET scan (e.g. Parkinson’s disease, taking anti-dopaminergic, or dopamine agonist medication or less than 6 half-lives from discontinuance of dopamine agonists); NOTE: other potentially interfering drugs consist of: amoxapine, amphetamine, benztropine, bupropion, buspirone, cocaine, mazindol, methamphetamine, methylphenidate, norephedrine, phentermine, phenylpropanolamine, selegiline, paroxetine, citalopram, and sertraline; if a patient is on any of these drugs, list which ones on the on-study formXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to lie flat on the imaging systems long enough to permit imaging protocols to be performedXx_NEWLINE_xXAsthma, wheezing or breathing problemsXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical condition\r\n* Renal transplant\r\n* Active or ongoing kidney disease or kidney failure, including but not limited to: functioning renal transplant, solitary kidney, proteinuria, multiple myeloma, acute and chronic nephropathies\r\n* Myasthenia gravis\r\n* Thyroid cancer or overactive thyroid\r\n* Severe congestive heart failureXx_NEWLINE_xXVentilatorXx_NEWLINE_xXTaking metformin (example: Glucophage, Glucovance, Avandamet, Metaglip)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to stand without assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXMentally/physically impaired/unresponsiveXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients/subjects whose weight does not exceed 275 lbsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny disease risk classification, as assessed by the Dynamic International Prognostic Scoring System (dIPSS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with pacemakers or other implanted magnetic devices that may malfunction or move in the strong magnetic fieldXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are to be treated with clinically approved or experimental regimens where ER has an important roleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients diagnosed with HCC, who will undergo resection or transplantation within 6 months, as part of routine clinical care and patients diagnosed with unresectable HCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unresectable HCC undergoing systemic therapy based on clinical indication or approved drug trial; and/or undergoing clinically indicated Y90 radioembolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy volunteersXx_NEWLINE_xXIntermediate or high risk prostate cancer (clinical tumor stage T2b or higher, Gleason 7 or higher, or PSA greater than 10); previously obtained MR imaging may be used for clinical T staging (extracapsular extension, seminal vesicle invasion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 136 kg (weight limit for scanner)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHIGH-RISK POPULATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xX33 consecutive consenting patients presenting to The Ohio State University James Cancer Hospital Otolaryngology Department with a suspicious oral lesion or prior biopsy-confirmed epithelial dysplasia (mild, moderate, severe), carcinoma in situ (CIS), or squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) will be recruited; adult patients presenting for initial evaluation for treatment planning and/or presenting for follow-up appointments monitoring for recurrence will be eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXGENERAL POPULATION:Xx_NEWLINE_xX250 consecutive consenting patients presenting to The Ohio State University College of Dentistry for routing dental care will be recruited; adult patients presenting to the screening clinic for initial oral evaluation will be eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate peripheral venous access or available central venous catheter access for radiopharmaceutical administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is judged by the investigator to have the initiative and means to be compliant with the protocol and be within geographical proximity to make the required study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary diagnosis of a glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXFemales with tattoos on either or both breastsXx_NEWLINE_xXFemales with nipple piercings on either or both breastsXx_NEWLINE_xXFemales with skin piercings (aka microdermal anchor surface or microdermal piercings) in either or both breastsXx_NEWLINE_xXAcute prostatitis within the last 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic distal rectal stenosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to undergo magnetic resonance (MR) exams are not eligible (i.e. patients with non?compatible devices such as cardiac pacemakers, other implanted electronic devices, metallic prostheses, or ferromagnetic prostheses, pins in artificial joints and surgical pins/clips)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed, untreated mass in posterior fossa, either benign or malignantXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to exercise on a treadmill or stationary cycleXx_NEWLINE_xXIntracranial metal, pacemakers, defibrillators, functioning neurostimulator devices, or other implanted electronic devicesXx_NEWLINE_xXFerromagnetic cerebral aneurysm clips, or other intraorbital/intracranial metalXx_NEWLINE_xXModerate or severe aortic stenosisXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXBreast size per visual inspection to fit within the ultrasound tomography (UST) ring arrayXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight < 350 lbs (patient bed max weight)Xx_NEWLINE_xXInability or refusal to have at least one peripheral intravenous line for intravenous access (as applicable to the day of [ 18 F] 4-L-Fluoroglutamine (2S,4R) injection and blood draws)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any type of bioimplant activated by mechanical, electronic, or magnetic means (e.g., cochlear implants, pacemakers, neurostimulators, biostimulators, electronic infusion pumps, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with any type of ferromagnetic bioimplant that could potentially be displaced or damagedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with permanent tattoo eye liner (may contain metallic coloring)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects that may have shrapnel imbedded in their bodies, such as from war wounds, metal workers and machinists (metallic fragments in or near eyes), severe auto accident victimsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects that exhibit noticeable anxiety and/or claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients cannot be pregnant and prisoners will not be considered for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to gadolinium-based contrast agents increases the risk for nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF) in patients with acute or severe renal dysfunction; therefore, patients with the following conditions are excluded from the study:\r\n* Acute or chronic severe renal insufficiency (glomerular filtration rate < 30 mL/min/1.73 m^2)\r\n* Acute renal dysfunction due to the hepato-renal syndrome or in the perioperative liver transplantation periodXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown right to left cardiac shunt, bidirectional or transientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot undergo MRIsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are allergic to gadolinium based contrast agentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have chronic kidney diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPathological or clinical/radiological diagnosis of a neoplasm, either primary (e.g., malignant glioma) or secondary (metastasis from systemic malignancy) with a history of brain radiation therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reaction to diethylene triamine pentaacetic acid (Gd-DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require general anesthesia for MIBG imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to comply with required follow up perometer and BIS measurements and completion of LEFT-BC questionnaireXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who will not be returning routinely for follow-up at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH) or Dana-Farber/ Harvard Cancer Center (DFHCC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of primary lymphedemaXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with a current case of cellulitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary or secondary brain tumor (enhancing mass lesion +/- nonenhancing abnormality), known or suspected, located near (< 2 cm) any portion of the motor cortex, motor pathway, language cortex, or language pathway, or other clinically relevant brain areas, as determined on anatomical imagesXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions of 5 cm or less in maximum diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 5 mm distance to a structure (gastrointestinal [GI] or biliary tract), that cannot be protected from the ablation injury with technical modifications such as hydro or air dissection\r\n* This will not be considered exclusion when IRE is usedXx_NEWLINE_xXINR > 1.5 that cannot be corrected with fresh frozen plasma \r\n* For patients on Coumadin general clinical guidelines for IR ablation will be followedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with more than 3 tumors treated with any percutaneous ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with more than 5 sites of extrahepatic disease (including nodes and pulmonary nodules)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with (current or past) history of solid malignancy, myeloproliferative neoplasm, myeloma, and/or lymphoma histology confirmed by Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) Department of PathologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious allergic reaction to contrast mediumXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hyperthyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXAt the discretion of the physician, bilirubin level of < 2.0 mg/dl in the absence of a history of Gilbert's disease (or pattern consistent with Gilbert's)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal thyroid function, such as untreated clinical diagnosis of hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, or other thyroid diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic reaction to iodine-containing contrast materialXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight greater than the 400-pound (lb) weight limit of the PET scannerXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must document their willingness to be followed until death or time of progression; time on study for purposes of adverse event reporting however will be from the time of injection of FMISO to 24 hours after the FMISO injection (completion of drawing of second set of laboratory studies in initial 10 patients); by signing informed consent, the patients are documenting their agreement to have clinical and radiographic endpoints and the results of histopathologic tissue analysis and other laboratory information entered into a research databaseXx_NEWLINE_xXUrinalysis abnormalities will not preclude the patient from being enrolled and studiedXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult subjects with brain, head and neck, and skull base tumors receiving external beam proton radiotherapy on gantry at the Francis H. Burr Proton Therapy Center at Massachusetts General Hospital (MGH)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have known endobronchial lesions and/or lesions infiltrating major pulmonary vesselsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny condition conflict based on the investigation’s clinical judgment that would prevent the patient from completion all trial assessments and visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who exhibit noticeable anxiety and/or claustrophobia or who exhibit severe vertigo when they are moved into the MRXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with sickle cell anemia and other hemolytic anemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to lie still for the tests; their girth and weight must be suitable to enter the gantry, which varies per tomographXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysical exam, complete blood count (CBC) and multiphasic (including electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen [BUN], creatinine, total bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase [AST], and alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) must be done within 28 days of PET imaging, but eligibility is not restricted by these results; the CBC and multiphasic may be drawn at the time of imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXThe medical monitor, Dr. Lois Ayash, at minimum, may discuss the research protocol with the investigators, interview human subjects, and consult with others outside of the study about the research, shall have authority to stop a research protocol in progress, remove individual human subjects from a research protocol, and take whatever steps are necessary to protect the safety and well-being of human subjects until the Institutional Review Board (IRB) can assess the monitor’s report; shall have the responsibility to promptly report their observations and findings to the IRB or other designate official and the Human Research Protection Office at the Department of Defense; the monitor may also observe recruitment and enrollment procedures and the consent process for individuals, groups or units overseeing study interventions and interactions, reviewing monitoring plans and reports; overseeing data matching, data collection and analysisXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergic reaction to gadolinium-diethylenetriamine pentaacetic acid (Gd-DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMore than 6 MET PET scans within the previous 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPossible or suspicious sebaceous gland carcinoma of the eyelidXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients who require monitored anesthesia for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand and carry out subject instructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require sedation with general anesthesia for imaging studies are not eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been or are anticipated to be treated with radiosurgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject agrees to complete follow up visitXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousnessXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known hepatic insufficiency or cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known or suspected iron overload (genetic hemochromatosis or history of multiple transfusions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects expecting to undergo surgery between the imaging sessions; subjects may undergo surgery at any time before the first, or after the last imaging session; this exclusion only applies to each study visit (3 day scanning session), and does not apply to the time (at least 3 weeks) between each study visitXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with three or more drug allergies from separate drug classesXx_NEWLINE_xXProgressive disease manifest by either;\r\n* Imaging modalities:\r\n** New osseous lesions on bone imaging (bone scintigraphy or sodium fluoride [NaF] PET scan) and/or\r\n** An increase in measurable soft tissue disease, or the appearance of new sites of disease OR\r\n* A minimum of three rising prostate-specific antigen (PSA) values from a baseline that are obtained 1 week or more apart, or 2 or more weeks apart\r\n* PSA changes: \r\n** Androgen-independent, minimum number (No.) of determinations 3, interval >= 1 week, percentage increase over 25%\r\n** Androgen-independent, minimum No. of determinations 2, interval >= 2 week, percentage increase over 25%Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious anaphylactic reaction to either FDHT or FDGXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL ADULT VOLUNTEERSXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to lie motionless for up to 5 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT VOLUNTEERSXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnostic findings from prior mammography highly suggestive of breast malignancy (Breast Imaging-Reporting and Data System [BI-RADS] [R] category 4) or known biopsy-proven malignancy (BI-RADS [R] category 5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient Volunteers: Ability to lie motionless for up to 5 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT VOLUNTEERS/CONTRAST ENHANCEMENT SUB-GROUPXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected or known biopsy-proven malignancy (BI-RADS [R] category 4 & 5)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient Volunteers/Contrast Enhancement Sub-group: Ability to lie motionless for up to 5 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL ADULT VOLUNTEERS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT VOLUNTEERS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT VOLUNTEERS/CONTRAST ENHANCEMENT SUB-GROUP:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of moderate or severe reaction to contrast agent injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of chronic asthmaXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal (kidney) disease, or solitary kidneyXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown reaction to gadopentetate dimeglumine (Gd-DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXAneurysmal clipsXx_NEWLINE_xXMetal implants in field of viewXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with premalignant lesion, or potentially premalignant lesion, of the oral cavity mucosa (leukoplakia or erythroplakia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersons with any other condition (such as lichen planus, Fanconi anemia, heavy tobacco use, etc) making them at higher risk for oral cancer developmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a previously diagnosed condition of dry mouthXx_NEWLINE_xXBe in good general healthXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical condition which requires pre-medication prior to dental visits/proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xX5 or more decayed, untreated dental sites (cavities)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiseases of the soft or hard oral tissuesXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergic to common dentifrice ingredientsXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-smokerXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to understand, follow written instruction and willing to participate in all visits without rescheduled more than one or missed a visit without cancellation or rescheduling (no show)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAppear to be in general good healthXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 20 teeth (excluding third molars)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas history of herpetic infection, recurrent aphthous ulcer, or other ulcer forming diseases, abscesses, granulomas, or severe gingivitisXx_NEWLINE_xXProstatectomy at M. D. Anderson within 3 months from the time of MRSIXx_NEWLINE_xXMetals or any conditions (e.g. hip prosthesis) that can distort the local magnetic fieldXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who weigh > 70 kg are excluded; in addition, patients who weigh > 136 kg are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who is unable (either because of physical or psychological factors) to undergo imaging studies without sedation but is not considered an anesthesia candidateXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with a history of a severe reaction (Common Toxicity Criteria [CTC] version [v.]4 grade >= 2) to gadolinium or other contrast agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient with permanent braces, permanent retainers or nonferrous implant that, in the judgement of the principal investigator, would interfere with obtaining spectroscopy in the area of the tumorXx_NEWLINE_xXAfrican-American or white men (Hispanic or non-Hispanic)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProstate biopsy-naive or a single negative biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo a radiologic imaging before and after biopsy of the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients suffering from active acute or chronic prostatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXHave an undiagnosed suspicious solid or mostly solid thyroid nodule.;Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre willing and able to complete all procedures and assessments in accordance with the clinical protocol; and,Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave received recommendation for and are scheduled for an ultrasound guided FNAB, ultrasound guided core biopsy, excisional biopsy, lobectomy or complete thyroidectomy of at least one thyroid nodule.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre prisoners;Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a condition or impediment (i.e., insect bites, poison ivy, open sores, chafing of the skin, scar, tattoos, moles, etc.); that could interfere with the intended field of view (within one probe length or 4 cm of the nodule),Xx_NEWLINE_xXIs experiencing photo-toxicity or photo-sensitivity or is undergoing treatment for a photo-sensitive condition such as porphyria or lupus erythematosus;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has previously participated in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe presence of an implanted pacemaker or implanted defibrillator deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of severe claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners and members of other vulnerable populations will be excluded from this study; non-English speaking population will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXMinors will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXCoagulopathy with platelets (Plt) < 10 kXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory failure requiring greater than 6 Lpm supplemental oxygen (O2) by nasal cannula or mechanical ventilation within the past six weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of alcohol abuse or alcohol dependency in the 3 years before study entry, or is an alcoholic or drug addict, as determined by the investigatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal uptake in prostate necessitating biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 2 months since any prior prostate biopsy (to decrease false positive uptake from inflammation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of complying with study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is able to remain still for duration of imaging procedure (about one hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has previously received [18F]NaF in the last thirty daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to undergo serial imaging proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must agree to allow access to clinical records regarding response to treatment and long term follow upXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals weighing more than 300 lb; (this is the weight limit of the scanner table)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients who require monitored anesthesia for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with local or regional nodal disease are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to PETXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject enrolled into the protocol BDS-USHPV and identified as eligible for the longitudinal protocol • Subjects enrolled into protocol BDS-USHPV with a baseline colposcopy and biopsy procedure and not treated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with prior complete or partial hysterectomy involving removal of the cervixXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on whom conization, LEEP, cervical laser surgery, or cryosurgery has been performed since enrollment into the BDS-USHPV studyXx_NEWLINE_xXYear 3 visit can not exceed 3 years and 6 months from the baseline visitXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of calcifications on mammogramXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with injection of other radioactive material within 90 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXhave implanted prosthetic heart valve,Xx_NEWLINE_xXpacemaker,Xx_NEWLINE_xXneurostimulator,Xx_NEWLINE_xXhave engaged in occupations or received orthodontic work which may have caused lodging of ferromagnetic materials in the body;Xx_NEWLINE_xXare claustrophobic;Xx_NEWLINE_xXhave been allergic to contrast agents;Xx_NEWLINE_xXare diabetic;Xx_NEWLINE_xXor have a history of kidney disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have a biopsy-proven high-grade retroperitoneal or soft tissue extremity sarcoma confirmed by independent evaluation of a University of North Carolina (UNC) sarcoma specialized pathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have surgically curable disease as evaluated by initial imaging by our UNC surgeonsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of pacemaker, intracranial aneurysm clip, bladder stimulator, cochlear implant or metal near eyes or near pelvis that would create excessive imaging artifactXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 35Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of distant disease on physical exam or initial imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXIncarcerated or otherwise institutionalized at time of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXBe medically stable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are medically unstable, patients who are seriously or terminally ill, and patients whose clinical course is unpredictable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with congenital heart defects.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRefusal to have an IV placed for injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXGamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) > 2.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent disease or a new primary will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infusion reactions monoclonal antibody therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving class IA (quinidine, procainamide) or class III (dofetilide, amiodarone, sotalol) antiarrhythmic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups will be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known hepatic insufficiency or cirrhosis as determined by either a prior diagnosing physician or at review at initial consultation; these disease entities do not have formal associated lab values and are thus a clinical diagnosis by the prior aforementioned physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXEvaluated by radiation oncologist to be appropriate SBRT candidate and scheduled to undergo SBRT as part of their careXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with tumors < 1 cmXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with allergies to iodinated contrast not amenable to pre-medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not able to lie supine with arms raised, and cooperate with breathholding instructionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPacked cell volume (PCV) >= 30 (with or without transfusion)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be deemed not candidates for surgical resection and therefore ineligible for this study based on imaging criteria alone, if CT chest, abdomen, pelvis demonstrates:\r\n* Any disease in the thoracic cavity >= 1 cm\r\n* Any suprarenal lymphadenopathy >= 1 cm\r\n* Liver metastases >= 1 cm\r\n* Disease in the porta hepatis or gallbladder fossa >= 1 cm\r\n* Pleural effusion >= 50% volume of the chest cavity on chest x-ray\r\n* Omental extension to the stomach, spleen, or lesser sac\r\n* Extension to the pelvic sidewall (this criteria may also be assessed on physical examination\r\n* Involvement of the root of the mesenteryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient declines procedures that might be necessary for optimal primary cytoreduction (i.e. colostomy or splenectomy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical contraindications to esophagectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with evidence of iron overloadXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known hepatic insufficiency or cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a known hypersensitivity to indocyanine green (ICG), methylene blue and Technetium TC-99m colloid (99mTc-colloid)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is unable to receive high dose rate prostate brachytherapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of complying with study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHCC PATIENTS: Patient with confirmed diagnosis of HCC, and untreated orXx_NEWLINE_xXHCC PATIENTS: Patients with suspected HCC (suspected HCC nodules should preferably be smaller than 3 cm and preferably within 6 cm in depth of the transducer head to minimize attenuation) and untreated orXx_NEWLINE_xXHCC PATIENTS: Patients at a higher risk of HCC undergoing a screening program by ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal volunteersXx_NEWLINE_xXThe protocol nurse will check with the patient that there is no history of (h/o) kidney diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with an estimated GFR (eGFR) > 90 ml/min reported within 30 days, and who have not had intervening chemotherapy or other treatment or condition that might deteriorate renal function, may receive any gadolinium agentXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects found to have any constitutionally present non-MR compatible ferromagnetic materials will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are acutely ill who are deemed by their treating physician as not suitable candidates for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have vascular access ports or other implanted devices rated as anything other than “safe” or “conditional 6”Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) status will be determined by clinical exam or genetic testingXx_NEWLINE_xXNF1-associated optic pathway glioma (OPG) will be defined as radiographic evidence of glioma along the optic nerve, chiasm, tract or radiation in a child with NF1Xx_NEWLINE_xXMajor psychiatric diagnosis prior to neuro-oncological diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXBe medically stableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with uncontrollable emphysema, pulmonary vasculitis, pulmonary hypertension or a history of pulmonary emboliXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to lie still for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXAdults with intraocular tumors (melanoma, metastasis, retinal tumors) who are going to undergo enucleation diagnosed in the Emory Eye Center Ocular Oncology Service; patients will be assessed by a cardiologist or cardiology fellowsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with right-to-left, bi-direction, or transient right-to-left cardiac shuntsXx_NEWLINE_xXRespiratory failures marked by signs and symptoms of carbon dioxide (CO2) retention or hypoxemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere emphysema, pulmonary emboli, or other conditions that cause pulmonary hypertension due to compromised pulmonary-arterial vasculatureXx_NEWLINE_xXOff Sandostatin (octreotide acetate)-long acting release (LAR) > 4 weeks and off immediate release (subcutaneous) for 12 hrs prior to 68Ga-DOTATOC PET-CTXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight more than 400 pounds (subjects who weigh more than 400 pounds will not be able to fit inside the imaging machines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason =< 3+3Xx_NEWLINE_xX=< 3 total cores positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence on biopsy of extracapsular extensionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is able and willing to abide by the study protocol or cooperate fully with the investigator or designeeXx_NEWLINE_xXConditions which make repeat TRUS biopsies not feasibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is capable of complying with study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is able to remain still for duration of imaging procedure (about one hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is participating in other research protocols at the time of the NaF/FDG PETMRI scanXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrical implants such as cardiac pacemakers or perfusion pumpsXx_NEWLINE_xXFerromagnetic implants such as aneurysm clips, surgical clips, prostheses, artificial hearts, valves with steel parts, metal fragments, shrapnel, tattoos near the eye, or steel implants ferromagnetic objects such as jewelry or metal clips in clothingXx_NEWLINE_xXPreexisting medical conditions or claustrophobic reactions, and any greater than normal potential for cardiac arrestXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected lifespan less than 12 months by investigator assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-removable hearing aid or dentures, metal intrauterine device (IUD), surgical aneurysm clips, cardiac pacemaker, prosthetic heart valve, neurostimulator, implanted pumps, cochlear implants, metal rods, plates or screws, surgery leaving implanted materials, metal injury to eye, metallic tattoos anywhere on the body, tattoos near the eye and transdermal patchesXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant with at least one neck that is clinically N0 as defined by clinical exam (physical exam with CT and/or MRI as the gold standard of the N0 neck); stages T2, T3, or T4. N0–N3, excluding N2c for bilateral disease based on criteria from the American Joint Commission on CancerXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with sinonasal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with tumors in the head and neck that are not SCCXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with salivary gland malignanciesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with thyroid cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with nasopharyngeal carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who weighs more than the weight limit for the PET tableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients starting abiraterone or starting enzalutamide ), within approximately 1-7 days of baseline 18F-DCFPyL PET/CTXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of pituitary or adrenal dysfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must document their willingness to be followed for a period of time; for the purposes of imaging data analysis this will ideally be for at least 12 months after completing the investigational or recently approved therapy, however this may not always be possible; by signing informed consent, the patients are documenting their agreement to have clinical and radiographic endpoints and the results of histopathologic tissue analysis and other laboratory information entered into a research databaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients who require monitored anesthesia for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be referred by the Urology or Medical Oncology Departments for participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects will be selected on the basis of their willingness and ability to participate and on their likelihood of completing the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXElectrical implants such as cardiac pacemakers or perfusion pumpsXx_NEWLINE_xXFerromagnetic implants such as aneurysm clips, surgical clips, prostheses, artificial heart, valves with steel parts, metal fragments, shrapnel, bullets, tattoos near the eye, or steel implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXFerromagnetic objects such as jewelry or metal clips in clothingXx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXAny racial or ethnic originXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are excluded from 7T MR imaging because of titanium implants that are not yet established to be safe at 7T remain eligible for the imaging at 3TXx_NEWLINE_xXBody weight > 137 Kg (300 lbs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave measurable disease in their skin by direct visualization (visible lesion typically > 0.5 cm in maximal diameter); to perform a microscopic observation, the lesion will have to be visible by the naked eye, lined-up visually, and be able to interface with the microscope objective; a melanoma lesion that is smaller than 0.5 cm in diameter would present several obstacles to obtaining a reliable microscopic observation in the operating room; therefore, a visible lesion, at a minimum of 0.5 cm in diameter, is proposed for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXTo determine any sensitivity to fluorescein, subject must have a skin prick test preoperatively (at the time of the preoperative visit and after signed informed consent for entry into this clinical trial is given); a negative skin prick test to fluorescein is an inclusion criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXMelanoma deposit is deemed inaccessible to microscopic observation during the operative procedure (i.e., lesion is less than 0.5 cm or is not clearly visible to the naked eye)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will have been originally diagnosed with localized (stage T1c, T2, or T3) prostate carcinoma and have undergone what was considered definitive non-prostatectomy therapy for localized diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXIn the case of cryotherapy, external beam radiation, or high intensity focused ultrasound (HiFU) the procedure will have occurred at least one year in the past; in the case of brachytherapy, treatment will have occurred at least 2 years in the past to eliminate patients with so-called “PSA bump”Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to lie still for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than 1 month since any prior prostate biopsy (to decrease false positive uptake from inflammation)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWeight > 350 lbsXx_NEWLINE_xXAll men undergoing robotic prostatectomy or cystoprostatectomy at City of Hope will be eligible for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXUnacceptable hemogram: hematocrit < 34%Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo other active cancersXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven Kaposi’s sarcoma involving the skin or mucosaXx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Exceptions to laboratory (lab) parameters may be allowed with approval of the Protocol ChairXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who lack fitness for flexible bronchoscopy as determined by the physician performing the bronchoscopy before the procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects on anticoagulation (other than aspirin) whom cannot have their anticoagulation held for the procedure due to other clinical reasons (i.e. recent cardiac stent placement)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 13 micro International units/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infusion reactions to cetuximab or other monoclonal antibody therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving class IA (quinidine, procainamide) or class III (dofetilide, amiodarone, sotalol) antiarrhythmic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient scheduled for TRUS-guided prostrate biopsy with or without MR TRUS Fusion determined based on standard of care requirementsXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindications to TRUS prostrate biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious prostrate surgeriesXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior pelvic irradiationXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic acute prostatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXActively taking blood thinning agents (with the exception of low dose aspirin [81 mg] Plavix, Coumadin, etc.) or severe comorbidity prohibiting halting of anticoagulation therapies or history of bleeding disorder (e.g., coagulopathyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a compromised immune system or autoimmune disease (WBC < 4000 or > 20,000)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is mentally incompetent or a prisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXThose with contraindications for exercise tolerance test (ETT) testing, including unstable angina or inability to exercise on a treadmill or stationary cycleXx_NEWLINE_xXLOCALIZED RCC TREATED WITH PARTIAL NEPHRECTOMY:\r\nHave primary or suspected diagnosis of RCC, with presence of cT1-2 renal mass by diagnostic computed tomography (CT) assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXLOCALIZED RCC TREATED WITH PARTIAL NEPHRECTOMY:\r\nScheduled for partial nephrectomy of renal massXx_NEWLINE_xXLOCALIZED RCC TREATED WITH PARTIAL NEPHRECTOMY:\r\nExpected survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXLOCALIZED RCC TREATED WITH PARTIAL NEPHRECTOMY:\r\nEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) =< 1Xx_NEWLINE_xXADVANCED RCC TREATED WITH RADICAL NEPHRECTOMY:\r\nHave pathologic or suspected diagnosis of RCC with presence of cT1-4 renal mass and evidence of nodal or metastatic involvement by diagnostic CT assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXADVANCED RCC TREATED WITH RADICAL NEPHRECTOMY:\r\nExpected survival of at least 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXADVANCED RCC TREATED WITH RADICAL NEPHRECTOMY:\r\nECOG =< 2Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to fluorescent lightXx_NEWLINE_xXAIMS 1 AND 2: Healthy individuals with pigmented lesions or a partially biopsied melanoma or cutaneous melanoma metastasis whose treatment plan includes excisionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects enrolled on the University of Pennsylvania/Abramson Cancer Center (UPCC) 13413 CART-19 autologous T-cell trial with relapsed or refractory DLBCL and FLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are pregnant or lactating; subjects will be co-enrolled in this study and UPCC 13413 and therefore must comply with the UPCC 13413 requirements pertaining to pregnancy, lactation, conception and contraception use throughout their participation in both studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen presenting for mammographic evaluation of an undiagnosed palpable mass found either by self examination and/or examination by referring physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a solid lung lesion 1.5-5cm identified on chest computed tomography (CT) (obtained within previous 3 months) with the intention to undergo bronchoscopic evaluation; if the lesion is partially solid (i.e. there is a ground glass component) then the solid portion must make up > 75% of the lesion and measure at 1.5-5cm; the decision to pursue biopsy will be made by the treating physician and agreed upon by the patient; this will include patients determined to have an intermediate risk of malignancy (5-65%) and those non-surgical candidate with higher risk lesions in need of diagnosis for alternative treatment; ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose targeted lung lesion is visualized with fluoroscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a pure ground-glass opacity identified on chest CTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with endobronchial involvement seen on chest CTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who refuse to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXLack fitness to undergo flexible bronchoscopy as determined by the bronchoscopist prior to procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a biliary strictureXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of altered anatomy (Billroth II or Roux-en-Y reconstruction)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIntrahepatic biliary strictures or strictures within 2 cm of the ampullaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo strictureXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of histologically-confirmed neoplasm of any of the following classifications: solid malignancy, myeloid neoplasm, lymphoid neoplasmXx_NEWLINE_xXInability or refusal to have at least one peripheral intravenous line for intravenous access (as applicable to the day of 18F SKI-249380 injection and blood draws)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be available for follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be a candidate for SLNBXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must be scheduled to undergo radioembolization for any indicationXx_NEWLINE_xXThere are no ethnic restrictionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to tolerate supine positionXx_NEWLINE_xXHEALTHY VOLUNTEERS: Able to tolerate supine positionXx_NEWLINE_xXPain in supine positionXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions and/or clip targetable with image guidanceXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically unstable, severely ill, or moribundXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to lie flat, still or tolerate a PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to furosemide administration including prior allergy or adverse reaction to furosemide or sulfa drugs; (Note: This exclusion criteria can be removed if furosemide is omitted as part of the PET imaging protocol if a second-generation scatter correction is available for the used PET device)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients exceeding the weight limitations of the scanner or are not able to enter the bore of the PET scanner due to body mass index (BMI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNegative for BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy volunteersXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain still for duration of each imaging procedure (about one hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetallic implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have their echocardiograms performed such that strain may be calculated using either GE or Tomtec softwareXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with Breast Imaging-Reporting and Data System (BI-RADS) 4 or 5Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf an initial biopsy demonstrates neoplasm other than GBMXx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious illness (es), which might preclude completion of this study or interfere with determination of causality of any adverse effects experienced in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOff Sandostatin (octreotide acetate)-long acting release (LAR) > 4 weeks and off immediate release (subcutaneous) for at least 12 hours (hrs) prior to 68Ga-DOTATOC PET-CT imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients exceeding the weight limitations of the scanner or are not able to enter the bore of the PET/CT scanner due to body mass index (BMI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegistration to Step 1:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be eligible for breast-conserving therapy (BCT) based on clinical examination and mammography; if ultrasound is performed, findings must also be consistent with eligibility for BCTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have multicentric disease scheduled to undergo multiple lumpectomies; multifocal disease that can be encompassed in a single operative bed are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXRegistration to Step 2:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe clinician/patient has made the decision as to whether the patient will proceed to wide local excision or mastectomy or patient has been diagnosed with invasive disease\r\n* NOTE: if surgical decision is delayed greater than 10 weeks after the MRI or patient is diagnosed with invasive disease, the patient should register to Step 2, arm B, and proceed to follow-up to capture all relevant dataXx_NEWLINE_xXRegistration to Step 3:Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe Oncotype DX Patient Report of the DCIS Score from the Oncotype DX Breast Cancer Assay performed by Genomic Health on the excision tissue have been uploaded by the site into the Rave electronic case report forms (eCRF)\r\n* NOTE: Prior to registration to Step 3, the institution must upload a redacted copy of the first page of the “Oncotype DX Patient Report” to the ‘DCIS Score’ eCRF in Rave; after submission of the Oncotype DX Patient Report, the institution may proceed to register the patient to Step 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have biopsy-proven cervical cancer (International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics [FIGO] stage-Ib2-IVb)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one brain metastasis must be >= 1 cm to allow adequate quantitative imaging measurement for DSC-PMRXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient may be part of other clinical trials (as long as no other local treatments beyond GK such as WBRT or other local therapy are indicated to the brain) or imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have melanomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have hemorrhagic lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-ENROLLMENT BIOPSY PARAMETERS: minimum of 12 biopsy coresXx_NEWLINE_xXPRE-ENROLLMENT BIOPSY PARAMETERS: Gleason 6 (3+3) or 7 (3+4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFINAL ENROLLMENT BIOPSY PARAMETERS: Gleason 6 (3+3) or 7 (3+4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of TURP (transurethral resection of prostate) or other similar procedures (transurethral microwave thermotherapy [TUMT], transurethral needle ablation [TUNA])Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen who have received any hormonal manipulation (antiandrogens; luteinizing hormone releasing hormone [LHRH] agonist; 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors) within the previous 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician recommendation of ADTXx_NEWLINE_xXPhysician prescription of androgen receptor antagonist therapy (examples: bicalutamide, flutamide, or enzalutamide) during time of protocol scansXx_NEWLINE_xXOther serious illness(es) which might preclude completion of this study or interfere with determination of causality of any adverse effects experienced in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have received trastuzumab within 6 weeks of projected 64Cu-DOTA-trastuzumab/PET-CTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient would require anesthesia for the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are claustrophobicXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients exceeding the weight limitations of the scanner or are not able to enter the bore of the PET/CT scanner due to body mass index (BMI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo primary debulking surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXUnresolved bowel obstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who undergo intra-arterial hepatic 99mTc MAA evaluation in anticipation of 90Y microsphere radioembolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be clinical candidates for radioembolization with either SIR-spheres or TheraSphere due to metastatic or primary malignancies of the liverXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) > 35 (patients who may not fit on a 35 x 35 detector)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to tolerate 60 min of PET imaging per imaging sessionXx_NEWLINE_xXEvolving brain lesions post SRS requiring neurosurgical resection (whether for symptomatic control or to establish pathology)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have difficulty lying flat on their back for extended periods of timeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have histological verification of one of the eligible diagnosis listed below; biopsy is required at time of diagnosis with the exception of optic pathway tumors and diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas (DIPG); patients with spinal cord disease are eligible if they have a lesion > 1 cm in 2 dimensions; the following histologies are eligible:\r\n* Astrocytoma variants: fibrillary, protoplasmic, mixed\r\n* Pilocytic astrocytoma, including pilomyxoid variants\r\n* Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma\r\n* Infantile desmoplastic astrocytoma\r\n* Ganglioneuroma\r\n* Oligodendroglial tumor\r\n* Mixed glioma (including oligoastrocytoma)\r\n* Anaplastic astrocytoma\r\n* Anaplastic oligoastrocytoma\r\n* Anaplastic oligodendroglioma\r\n* Anaplastic ganglioglioma\r\n* Glioblastoma multiforme (including giant cell and gliosarcoma types)\r\n* Medulloblastoma\r\n* Ependymoma\r\n* Diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas (DIPG)\r\n* Other rare malignant CNS tumors (i.e., pinealblastoma, small cell astrocytoma, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHypertensive patients are eligible provided the hypertension is well controlled (95th percentile for age and height if patient =< 17 years) on stable doses of medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not be taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS), clopidogrel, dipyridamole, or aspirin therapy > 81 mg/dayXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not require sedation for imaging purposesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a known thrombophilic condition (i.e. protein S, protein C or antithrombin III deficiency, Factor V Leiden, Factor II G20210A mutation, homocysteinemia, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome); testing is not required in patients without a thrombophilic historyXx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) =< 10 micro international units/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infusion reactions to cetuximab or other monoclonal antibody therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have a serious reaction with the test/loading cetuximab dose for which they were not able to receive the full doseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients receiving class IA (quinidine, procainamide) or class III (dofetilide, amiodarone, sotalol) antiarrhythmic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult males with unfavorable intermediate- to high-risk localized disease identified as one of the following three categories for unfavorable intermediate-high risk factors, but must have visible disease on baseline MRI of the following:\r\n* Clinical or radiographic T2b-T4 primary tumor\r\n* Gleason score 7-10 in any core\r\n* PSA >= 10 prior to initiation of therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of allergic reaction to latex or gadolinium containing intravenous contrast agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDetermination by the surgeon that the neoplasm is non-palpable; a patient with a palpable hematoma from core biopsy, but a non-palpable neoplasm, will be eligible for studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of median sternotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have either primary or recurrent papillary thyroid cancer (PTC) or medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC) with nodal metastases detected through physical examination and/or standard imaging techniquesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects will have had standard care computed tomography (CT), MRI, or ultrasound, and a fine-needle aspiration biopsy demonstrating PTC or MTC with nodal metastases or recurrent/persistent nodal disease in a patient with known PTC or MTCXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with sickle cell disease, hemoglobinopathy, hemochromatosis or other clinical conditions that may lead to iron overloadXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrollment will not be restrictive and will encompass patients who are women, minorities and other underrepresented populationsXx_NEWLINE_xXNormal subjects could be recruited from the population of patients routinely undergoing PET CT for assessment of a pulmonary nodule (presumed unlikely to have marrow disease); alternatively, normal subjects could be recruited from the cohort of myeloma patients termed “asymptomatic” who are assumed not to have marrow involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients who are contraindicated for MR imaging in general; contraindications include:\r\n* Electrical implants such as cardiac pacemakers or perfusion pumps\r\n* Ferromagnetic implants such as aneurysm clips, surgical clips, prostheses, artificial hearts, valves with steel parts, metal fragments, shrapnel, tattoos near the eye, or steel implants\r\n* Ferromagnetic objects such as jewelry or metal clips in clothing\r\n* Pregnant subjects\r\n* Pre-existing medical conditions including a likelihood of developing seizures or claustrophobic reactions, and any greater than normal potential for cardiac arrest.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgeon and medical oncologist agree one week window trial is appropriate/safe for the patient and that surgery appointment/initiation of therapeutic systemic therapy can accommodate treatment schedule as outlined in the study schemaXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of radiosensitizers, Gliadel wafers, or other interstitial intracranial treatmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHas acquired resistance to EGFR TKI according to the Jackman criteria (PMID: 19949011)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas been receiving erlotinib, gefitinib, afatinib, or osimertinib for at least 6 weeks with well-controlled related toxicities less than Grade 3 in severity at the time of ScreeningXx_NEWLINE_xXDemonstrates absence of EGFR T790M mutation if treated with erlotinib, gefitinib, or afatinib. No EGFR mutation testing is required if treated with osimertinib.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas previously documented evidence of ALK fusion, ROS1 fusion, BRAF V600E mutation, RET rearrangement, HER2 mutation, MET amplification, or MET exon 14 skipping mutation. No new testing for these genomic alterations is required for Screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuperficial bladder tumors (Ta, Tis, T1) ORXx_NEWLINE_xXNasal, paranasal sinus, or nasopharyngeal carcinoma, aside from WHO Type I and II (keratinizing, non-EBV positive) nasopharyngeal carcinoma which will be allowed.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed/Refractory Cohorts: Pathologically confirmed relapsed or refractory (primary refractory and/or relapsed refractory) AML or confirmed intermediate, high, or very high risk MDS that is relapsed, refractory or intolerant to conventional therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXRollover Cohort: Patients on active Hu5F9-G4 therapy on the Phase 1 AML (SCI-CD47-002) trial who are deriving clinical benefit by Investigator assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be:Xx_NEWLINE_xXLife expectancy >1 year. LGL-Specific:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhenotypic studies (obtained within 8 weeks prior to study drug administration) from peripheral blood showing CD3+, CD57+ cells >400/mm³ or CD8+ cells >650/mm³.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNote: Complete blood count (CBC) and differential should be reported for the phenotyped sample.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence for clonal T-cell receptor gene rearrangement (obtained within 1 year prior to study drug administration). CTCL-Specific:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathologically confirmed mycosis fungoides or Sézary syndrome (CTCL stage IIB or greater according to the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer/International Society for Cutaneous Lymphomas [EORTC-ISCL] consensus classification) at study entry with progressive, persistent, or recurrent disease who have no available remaining standard therapeutic options (i.e., Refractory) as determined by the Investigator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBulky disease (defined as a nodal mass measuring >= 10 cm by CT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergies and adverse drug reaction to study drug componentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have solid tumors with malignant lesions in the thorax, abdominal cavity, head and neck region, or extremities (any histology) likely to benefit from palliative radiotherapy; subjects requiring palliative RT for lesions in the spine or lesions adjacent to the spinal cord are excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior RT to the same region that would be irradiated in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects at increased risk for radiation toxicities, such as known collagen vascular disease (example, scleroderma, Sjogren's disease, etc) or other inherited radiation hypersensitivity syndromes (example, Gorlin syndrome, Fanconi anemia, ataxia-telangiectasia, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlans to proceed to surgery following pre-operative chemotherapy based on standard staging studies per local practice.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must complete all baseline screening assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation, or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for > 2 weeks prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled tumor-related pain: patients requiring narcotic pain medication must be on a stable regimen at registration; symptomatic lesions (e.g., bone metastases or metastases causing nerve impingement) amenable to palliative radiotherapy should be treated prior to randomization; patients should be recovered from the effects of radiation; there is no required minimum recovery period; asymptomatic metastatic lesions whose further growth would likely cause functional deficits or intractable pain (e.g., epidural metastasis that is not presently associated with spinal cord compression) should be considered for loco-regional therapy if appropriate prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal c-MET dysregulation, defined as the following from archival historical results of molecular pre-screening evaluations.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDose Escalation SegmentXx_NEWLINE_xXor c-MET amplification; FISH c-MET to chromosome 7 (CEP 7) ratio ? 2.2; NGS copy number variation ? 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXor mutation, including any deletions and any met fusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXDose and Disease Expansion CohortsXx_NEWLINE_xXc-MET amplification; FISH c-MET to chromosome 7 (CEP 7) ratio ? 2.2; NGS copy number variation ? 4Xx_NEWLINE_xXor mutation, including any deletions and any met fusionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 1: HCC; cholangiocarcinoma; or esophageal, nasopharyngeal, or serous ovarian cancer, regardless of FGF/FGFR status.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2: Subjects will be enrolled into 1 of 3 cohorts:Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort A: HCC with FGF19 amplification.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B: HCC without FGF19 amplification.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory parameters outside the protocol-defined ranges.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHLA-DPB1*04:01 positiveXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline oxygen saturation > 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any indwelling line or drain. Note: Dedicated central venous access catheters such as a Port-a-Cath are permitted.Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinically detectable hepatic encephalopathy or hepatic encephalopathy requiring medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with advanced AML that harbors IDH1 mutationXx_NEWLINE_xXExtramedullary disease onlyXx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine phosphokinase (CPK) =< 2.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known active advanced malignant solid tumors are excluded (except for basal or squamous skin cancers, or carcinomas in situ); patients with additional hematologic malignancies that require treatment are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologically confirmed MCL (in tumor tissue), with documentation of either overexpression of cyclin D1 in association with other relevant markers (eg, CD19, CD20, PAX5, CD5) or evidence of t(11;14) as assessed by cytogenetics, fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH), or polymerase chain reaction (PCR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented evidence of progressive MM (based on the Investigator's determination according to the modified IMWG response criteria) on or after their most recent regimen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody Surface Area < 1.4 m2 at baseline, calculated by the Dubois or Mosteller method.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic ischemia, orXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to any of the required concomitant drugs or supportive treatments.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects enrolled into Part 1 must have metastatic lesions where repeated IT injections are not feasible and in whom SC injection is the only viable route of CMP-001 administration, based on Investigator judgment. Subjects with injectable lesions are NOT eligible to participate in Part 1. Subjects enrolled into Part 2 must have metastatic lesions that are amenable to repeated IT injections.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCapable of understanding and complying with protocol requirements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLDH ?2.0 times the ULN range of each institutionXx_NEWLINE_xXImmunocompromised (due to conditions including HIV infection, hematopoietic-cell or solid organ transplantation, and chronic glucocorticoid use) men and women of any ethnic group aged ?18 years.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcyclovir resistant mucocutaneous HSV infection based on clinical failure (no improvement after at least 5 days with FDA approved high doses with acyclovir, valacyclovir or famciclovir) requiring switch to foscarnet treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXLesion accessible for size measurement and photography.Xx_NEWLINE_xXthe use of the copper-releasing intrauterine device (to have been in place for at least 2 months prior to screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXthe use of one of the following: diaphragm, Lea's shield, FemCap, sponge, andXx_NEWLINE_xXmonogamous relationship with vasectomized partnerXx_NEWLINE_xXthe use of a male condom during each act of sexual intercourse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXACV-resistant and foscarnet-resistant/intolerant mucocutaneous HSV infection based on clinical failure (no improvement after at least 5 days of foscarnet therapy or intolerance to foscarnet requiring cessation of foscarnet treatment) or result from genotypic/phenotypic testing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNeed to use drugs that have a narrow therapeutic index and are substrates for CYP2B6, CYP2C8, CYP2C9, CYP2C19, OATP1B1, OATP1B3, and OCT1 (organic cation transporter 1), ie warfarin, digoxin, phenytoin, paclitaxel, S-mephenytoinXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere renal insufficiency (GFR ? 29).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormalities in hematological, clinical chemical or any other laboratory variables at Screening measured by the central or local laboratory regarded as clinically relevant by the investigator unless they are due to underlying disease or condition.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumentation of a TP53 gene mutation by next generation sequencing (NGS) based on central or local evaluationXx_NEWLINE_xXRevised International Prognostic Scoring System (IPSS-R) criteria for intermediate, high-risk or very high-riskXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure to specific substrates of the drug transporters OATP1B1, OATP1B3, MATE1 and MATE2K within the appropriate wash-out period (a minimum of 5 x reported elimination half-life) before the first dose of study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have AML at initial diagnosis or at first relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXFor patients with evidence of minimal residual disease prior to vaccination, assessment of minimal residual disease status by cytogenetics or fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) will be followed post vaccinationXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 doses of fusion vaccine were produced (Arm A only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic or anaphylactic reactions to monoclonal antibody therapy or to the chemotherapy drugs used in this study, unless the antibody can be given through a desensitization program in consultation with an allergistXx_NEWLINE_xXECOG 0 or 1 at enrolment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParaneoplastic syndrome of autoimmune nature, requiring systemic treatment or clinical symptomatology suggesting worsening of PNSXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologic verification of osteosarcoma at initial diagnosis or relapseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have documented pulse oximetry >= 92% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xX>1 week since palliative RTXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated sarcomasXx_NEWLINE_xXLow-grade sarcomas as well as alveolar soft parts sarcoma, clear cell sarcoma, extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma, well-differentiated liposarcoma, gastrointestinal stromal tumor, chordomaXx_NEWLINE_xXNo other known etiology of the thrombocytopenia (such as infection, medication, etc.) or anemia (such as blood loss, iron deficiency, etc.).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcute graft versus host disease (GvHD) Grade III or IV, or severe chronic GvHD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are to be excluded from the study if they have any of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXRadioiodine (RAI)-resistant disease as defined by one or more of the following criteria:\r\n* One or more measurable lesions that do not demonstrate RAI uptake\r\n* One or more measurable lesions progressive by RECIST 1.1 =< 14 months of prior RAI therapy\r\n* One or more measurable lesions present after cumulative RAI dose of >= 600 mCi\r\n* One or more measurable lesions that are fludeoxyglucose F-18 (FDG)-avid (> 5 standardized uptake value [SUV]), if positron emission tomography (PET)/CT scan performed; these lesions may also be RAI-avidXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to complete patient medication and blood pressure diaries by themselves or with assistanceXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort 2 only: discontinued lenvatinib due to toxicityXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that require supplemental oxygen are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXHistopathological evidence of glioblastoma (WHO grade IV) on a progressive tumor specimen after treatment with temozolomide or PCV chemotherapy; the diagnosis of glioblastoma must be confirmed on central review by a study-designated neuropathologist at New York University Langone Medical Center (NYULMC) at screening; exceptions to this eligibility include the following:\r\n* Any progressive glioma with IDH1 or IDH2 mutation, regardless of WHO grade, histopathological diagnosis, or prior therapy, will be eligible if the progressive tumor specimen is found to have one of the genetic alterations below:\r\n** >= 20 somatic mutations per Mb by whole-exome sequencing\r\n** High mutation burden or microsatellite instability (MSI) identified by Foundation Medicine panel next-generation sequencing (FoundationOne, FoundationOne CDx); Foundation Medicine's threshold for high mutation burden (HMB) in their panel next generation sequencing (NGS) assays is >= 20 somatic mutations per megabase (Mb); Foundation Medicine's panel NGS assay has been validated by whole-exome and whole-genome sequencing to correlate tightly with tumor mutation burden (R^2 = 0.94)\r\n** Mutation in a mismatch repair gene or other genes known to be associated with hypermutator phenotypes or microsatellite instability, including but not limited to MSH2, MSH6, MLH1, POLE, PMS2, POLD as determined by validated methods\r\n** Microsatellite instability as identified by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or other validated methods\r\n* Progressive oligodendroglioma (with 1p/19q codeletion) that has hallmark histopathological features of glioblastoma (i.e. necrosis, pseudopalisading necrosis, or microvascular proliferation) is eligible as IDH1/2 mutant, 1p/19q codeleted oligodendrogliomas that have progressed after chemotherapy have been shown to develop hypermutation phenotypeXx_NEWLINE_xXIs able to take medications orally (e.g., no feeding tube).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have, or accept to have, an acceptable central catheter for infusion of melflufenXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary refractory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenstrom's macroglobulinemia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of lorlatinib (PF-06463922)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression is excluded unless the patient demonstrates good pain control attained through therapy and there is stabilization or recovery of neurological function for two weeks prior to study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with predisposing characteristics for acute pancreatitis according to investigator judgment (e.g. current gallstone disease, alcoholism)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of drugs that are CYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic indices such as astemizole, terfenadine, cisapride, pimozide, quinidine, tacrolimus, cyclosporine, sirolimus, (alfentanil and fentanyl, including transdermal patch) or ergot alkaloids (ergotamine, dihydroergotamine) should be used with cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of drugs that are CYP2C9 substrates with narrow therapeutic indices, such as warfarin, phenytoin or a sensitive substrate such as celecoxib should be used with cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of drugs that are sensitive CYP2B6 substrates, such as bupropion, efavirenz should be used with cautionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is considered an adult according to local regulation at the time of obtaining consent form (ICF).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject will not proceed with transplantation as either a decision not to proceed with transplantation has been made either on the recommendation of the treating physician or by the patient or a suitable donor could not be identified.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is < 2 months from the start of the last cycle of consolidation and should have completed the recommended number of consolidations per local practice.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is suitable for oral administration of study drug.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe of nonchildbearing potential:Xx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented surgically sterile or status posthysterectomy (at least 1 month prior to screening)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFemale subject must not donate ova starting at screening and throughout the study period, and for 6 months after the final study drug administration.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject with hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia at screening (defined as values below LLN).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has progressing infection defined as hemodynamic instability attributable to sepsis or new symptoms, worsening physical signs or radiographic findings attributable to infection. Persisting fever without other signs or symptoms will not be interpreted as progressing infection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject requires treatment with concomitant drugs that target serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 1 (5HT1R) or 5-hydroxytryptamine receptor 2B (5HT2BR) or sigma nonspecific receptor with the exception of drugs that are considered absolutely essential for the care of the subject.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to travel to appointments and willingness to participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is not a candidate for robotic assisted hysterectomy and lymphadenectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has known or suspected allergies to iodine, indocyanine green (ICG) or isosulfan blue (ISB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has hepatic dysfunction confirmed by bilirubin > 2 x normal (based on reference values from the laboratory used by the patient)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are medically unstableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unstable cardiopulmonary conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXAny and all primary disease sites in the abdomen and pelvis will be allowedXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary or secondary iron overloadXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically documented or risk of primary or secondary iron overloading (e.g. history of thalassemia, sickle cell anemia, hereditary hemochromatosis, multiple transfusions with any reason), anemia not caused by iron deficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain still for duration of each imaging procedure (about one hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients meeting the criteria for enrollment on research protocol 11-016 to receive DSTP3086S antibody drug conjugate (ADC) (the therapeutic ADC based on MSTP2109A) will be preferred patients for this study; patients that are to receive DSTP3086S will not be injected with DSTP2086S until imaging with 89Zr-DFO-MSTP2109A is finished, approximately 1 weekXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious anaphylactic reaction to human, humanized or chimeric antibodyXx_NEWLINE_xXTREATMENT GROUP: Premenopausal or peri-menopausal, defined by having regular menstrual cycles that are regular but may have > 7 days variability in the length of consecutive cycles (irregularity caused by hormonal contraceptive use is acceptable if the subject is 45 years of age or younger)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL GROUP: Premenopausal or peri-menopausal, defined by having regular menstrual cycles that are regular but may have > 7 days variability in the length of consecutive cycles (irregularity caused by hormonal contraceptive use is acceptable if the subject is 45 years of age or younger)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL GROUP: If subject is presently using oral contraceptives at the beginning of the study, does not plan to stop oral contraceptive use for the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL GROUP: If subject is not using oral contraceptives at the beginning of the study, does not plan to begin oral contraceptive use during the duration of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave permanently implanted prosthetic heart valves, pacemaker, neuro-stimulation devices, surgical clips (hemostatic clips) or other metallic implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave engaged in occupations or activities which may cause accidental lodging of ferromagnetic materials, or have imbedded metal fragments from military activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave received orthodontic work involving ferromagnetic materialsXx_NEWLINE_xXAre claustrophobicXx_NEWLINE_xXMedically unstableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a grade 1/2 tumors and evidence of deep myometrial invasion or cervical involvement on preoperative imaging or physical examXx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of peritoneal disease on preoperative imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXMedical co-morbidities making surgery unsafe, as determined by the primary treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of peritoneal or distant metastasis on preoperative imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline creatinine (necessary for imaging studies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have gynecologic malignancies involving the upper, middle and/or lower third of the vagina or are undergoing pelvic exenterationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny implantable medical device that is not MRI compatible (e.g. pacemakers, defibrillators, pain pumps or insulin pumps)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known contraindications for whole body MR imaging (e.g., pacemakers, recent surgery, brain vascular clips, etc.) will be excluded from the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be screened with a questionnaire to be sure they have no medical devices that could make the procedure unsafeXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject weighs more than 400 pounds; (subjects who weigh more than 400 pounds will not be able to fit inside the imaging machines)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled or unstable hyperthyroidism or Grave’s diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to murine proteins or chimeric antibodiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to lie still for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of secondary hyperparathyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior external beam, proton, or brachytherapy to the prostateXx_NEWLINE_xXBe a female diagnosed by x-ray mammography (performed within 90 days prior to the study procedure) as having a solid breast mass or abnormal area without a massXx_NEWLINE_xXBe scheduled for a biopsy (core/excisional/lumpectomy) of the mass or region of abnormality or for mastectomy within 30 days after this study procedureXx_NEWLINE_xXBe medically stableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose breast lesion is unequivocally a cyst by unenhanced USXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are medically unstable, patients who are seriously or terminally ill, and patients whose clinical course is unpredictableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on life support or in a critical care unitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with unstable occlusive disease (eg, crescendo angina)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recent cerebral hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with congenital heart defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe emphysema, pulmonary vasculitis, or a history of pulmonary emboliXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had excisional biopsy/lumpectomy of the current area of interest within the past 6 weeksXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled for an EUS-FNA procedure of a pancreatic cystXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication for undergoing EUS/FNA procedure (such as unwilling or medically unstable patients, patients with severe coagulopathy, patients with poor visualization on EUS for various reasons, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere allergic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiencyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be enrolled or being considered for enrollment on protocol 2010-0085Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal or family history of porphyriasXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have been listed on the regional OPTN/UNOS liver transplant wait list with HCC-exception Model for End Stage Liver Disease (MELD) points prior to enrollment in this trial OR \r\n* Site principal investigator (PI) or designated site co-investigator determines whether patient is likely to meet all criteria for being listed on the regional OPTN/UNOS liver transplant waitlist with HCC-exception MELD points, but has not yet been listed with UNOS UNet\r\n* Investigator has completed and signed the Declaration of Intent to List source document declaring that the patient will likely meet all wait list criteria\r\n* Participants listed with the intent to undergo either deceased donor transplant or live donor adult liver transplantation (LDALT) are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXRenal insufficiency at the time of enrollment, as determined by eGFR 30 to 60 mL/min/1.73 m^2 by the MDRD model based on a serum creatinine level obtained within 28 days prior to enrollment, unless permitted by the institution’s policy and/or American College of Radiology (ACR) guidance for risk reduction strategiesXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown allergy-like reaction to contrast media (iodinated or extracellular gadolinium that does not have dominant hepatobiliary excretion) or moderate or severe allergic reactions to one or more allergens as defined by the ACR, and unwillingness to undergo pre-treatment as defined by the institution’s policy and/or ACR guidanceXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not meet OPTN Class 5 imaging criteria for HCC, even if they have biopsy-proven HCC; NOTE: Patients enrolled to the trial under the “Declaration of Intent to List” mechanism who fail to be listed with HCC MELD/PELD Score Exception history data on the UNOS UNET Web site within 60 days from enrollment will come off trial and will not be counted towards target accrualXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have previously responded to a molecularly-targeted therapy and subsequently developed resistance, or have an analogous clinical situation in which determining their molecular genotype is of interest clinically and/or scientificallyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a pathologically-proven diagnosis of classic HL or DLBCL with measurable disease by any imaging technique or physical examinationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects may be excluded at the discretion of the principal investigator or study team membersXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will undergo IVU using digital tomosynthesis and staging abdomino-pelvic CT as part of their routine care, will be invited to participate in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have been referred for CTU will also be invited to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have upper tract TCCXx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP 1: Non-oncologic patients from Veteran Affairs Medical Center (VAMC) in Houston:Xx_NEWLINE_xXClaustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to hold a breathXx_NEWLINE_xXAscites or other clinical or radiographical signs of portal hypertensionXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously untreated subjects must have a lesion on an imaging studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with clinically significant signs of uncal herniation, such as acute pupillary enlargement, rapidly developing motor changes (over hours), or rapidly decreasing level of consciousness, are not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known allergic or hypersensitivity reactions to parenteral iron, parenteral dextran, parenteral iron-dextran, or parenteral iron-polysaccharide preparations (Ferumoxytol Investigator’s Drug Brochure, 2012); subjects with significant drug or other allergies or autoimmune diseases may be enrolled at the investigator’s discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known hepatic insufficiency or cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with known or suspected iron overload (genetic hemochromatosis or history of multiple transfusions)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with three or more drug allergies from separate drug classesXx_NEWLINE_xXHas the following International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) IA2-IIA1staging. Subjects with a single enlarged/suspicious node on PET/CT will still be considered eligible as consistent with FIGO guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 13 micro international units/mLXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of infusion reactions to cetuximab or other monoclonal antibody therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have a serious reaction with the test/loading cetuximab dose for which they were not able to receive the full doseXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects receiving class IA (quinidine, procainamide) or class III (dofetilide, amiodarone, sotalol) antiarrhythmic agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight over 350 lbs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal digital rectal exam (i.e. palpable nodule, induration or firm area to the prostate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP B (no pain group): Must either have subjective symptoms of painless neuropathy (loss of sensation, worsening balance, strange sensation in fingers and/or toes) or no complaints related to neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of:\r\n* Neuropathy or numbness/tingling suspicious for neuropathy prior to the first dose of chemotherapy for ovarian cancer\r\n* History of prior treatment for other cancers that includes drugs known to cause neuropathy; these drugs include but are not limited to vinca-alkaloids, platinums, taxanes, bortizomib.\r\n* B12 deficiency\r\n* Known peripheral vascular disease\r\n* Chronic daily headache or headache more than 14 days of the monthXx_NEWLINE_xXHas pain rated 50 or higher on a scale of 0-100, with 0 = no pain at all and 100 = worst pain imaginable on the day of the first DLss testXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will be undergoing surgery for newly-diagnosed glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubtotal, gross total or biopsy patients will be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXConfirmation of pathology as glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score =< 6Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior history of prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to prostate mpMRI (renal failure, hip prosthesis, pacemaker, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to prostate biopsy via transrectal or transperineal approaches (including coagulopathy)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor part 2 of the study: plans to initiate castrating therapy (with a gonadotropin-releasing hormone [GnRH] antagonist, GnRH agonist, or orchiectomy); an antiandrogen may be started after initial imaging but cannot be used prior to baseline imaging; an antiandrogen is allowed but not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject has received, or is scheduled to receive, another IMP from 1 month before to 1 month after inclusion in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOngoing acute or chronic pulmonary bronchospastic disease, including a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma, with an exacerbation within the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with mCRPC and painful bone metastases, referred for Xofigo (radium Ra 223 dichloride)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain still for duration of the imaging procedure (about one hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMetallic implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPART A: Healthy volunteers enrolled from within the Department of Radiology at University of California San Francisco (UCSF)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPART B: Contra-indication to gadolinium contrast (e.g. chronic renal disease, prior allergic reaction) for patient studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant hasXx_NEWLINE_xXNo clinically relevant deviations in renal function (Serum Creatinine > Grade 2 CTCAE v4.0.). Maximal interval between confirmation and injection of 18F-FSPG is one week.Xx_NEWLINE_xXevaluation of 18F-FSPG safety and tolerability will not be confounded by the other investigational PET or SPECT tracerXx_NEWLINE_xXa minimum of two days (or longer as necessary based on radiological half-life) have elapsed between investigational PET or SPECT tracer administrations to allow acceptable clearance of the tracerXx_NEWLINE_xXthe investigational PET or SPECT tracer administration was well tolerated by the patient.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one of the brain lesions must measure 5 mm (or more) in short axis diameter in the axial planeXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be scheduled to receive a 3-Tesla (3T) MRI exam as part of their standard of care (this exam will be\r\nmodified to also include pulse sequences which are for research only)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must document their willingness to be followed for up to 24 months following enrollment in this imaging trial; by signing informed consent, the patients will document their agreement to have clinical and radiographic endpoints and the results of histopathologic tissue analysis and other laboratory information entered into a research databaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAdult patients who require monitored anesthesia for PET scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have experienced allergic or other adverse reactions in response to intravenous injection of fluorinated radiotracers and other contrast media used in PET/CTXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with cT2N1-3M0 or cT2-4NxM0 will be considered eligible for participationXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight in excess of limitations of the scanner or girth that prohibits entry into the bore of the PET/CT scanner due to sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXAny medical condition which impairs the ability to lie flat and without movement for 15 minutes (e.g. cough, severe arthritis, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to use of fluoropyrimidines as a radiosensitizing agentXx_NEWLINE_xXSuspected new diagnosis or suspected recurrence of gliomaXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain still for duration of each imaging procedure (about 20 minutes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have had an adverse reaction to oxytocinXx_NEWLINE_xXTransaminases =< IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXElevated LDH levels are permissible if transaminases are =< IULNXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have verified unresectable hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), diagnosed on the basis of clinical and imaging criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be scheduled to undergo transarterial chemoembolization (TACE)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have at least 1 lesion being targeted by TACE that is > 2 cm in the longest cross-sectional (axial plane) diameterXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have undergone prior radioembolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have any type of biomedical implant, device and/or ferromagnetic material that can be displaced, perturbed, or otherwise malfunction due to mechanical, electronic, or magnetic means; these items may include:\r\n* Metallic fragments or shrapnel (such as from war wounds)\r\n* Cerebral aneurysm clips, biopsy marker clips\r\n* Vascular access ports (as are used with intravenous chemotherapy)\r\n* Cochlear implants, pacemakers, neurostimulators, biostimulators, and electronic infusion pumps\r\n**Implanted materials other than those verified as being rated “magnetic resonance [MR] Safe” or “MR Conditional 6” will not be allowed on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have had past allergic or other adverse reactions to intravenous injection of Magnevist® (gadopentetate dimeglumine) or other gadolinium-containing contrast agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who exhibit noticeable anxiety, claustrophobia, or vertigo when moved into the scannerXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a pacemaker or defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any type of bioimplant activated by mechanical, electronic, or magnetic means (e.g., cochlear implants, pacemakers, neurostimulators, biostimulators, electronic infusion pumps, etc), because such devices may be displaced or malfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have any type of ferromagnetic bioimplant that could potentially be displacedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have cerebral aneurysm clipsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who may have shrapnel imbedded in their bodies (such as from war wounds), metal workers and machinists (potential for metallic fragments in or near the eyes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who exhibit noticeable anxiety and/or claustrophobia or who exhibit severe vertigo when they are moved into the magnet boreXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who are planning to undergo hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, and pelvic lymphadenectomy for the management of their endometrial cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with a history of prior loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP) or cone procedures performed on their cervixXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with a history of lymphedema, lymphoma, or lymphatic hyperplasia (Castleman disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen may also be excluded at the discretion of their surgeon if he or she feels that the patient is not an appropriate candidateXx_NEWLINE_xXBreast size and epithelial integrity adequate to allow NIR imaging examsXx_NEWLINE_xXPre-existing respiratory conditions:\r\n* Severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (including chronic bronchitis and/or emphysema)\r\n* Other respiratory or lung conditions, which would place the participant at risk\r\n* Presence of any other significant cardiac or pulmonary symptoms, such as moderate or severe dyspnea on exertion, orthopnea, or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspneaXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance of hyperoxia or hypercarbia as delivered by the RespirAct™ breathing circuitXx_NEWLINE_xXnewly diagnosed glioblastoma or recurrent/suspected recurrent glioblastomaXx_NEWLINE_xXscheduled to undergo a clinically-indicated surgery or biopsy (specific cohorts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXhas the initiative and means to be compliant with the protocol and be within geographical proximity to make the required study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit < 22%Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have histologically proven osteogenic sarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH), or Ewing sarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have any type of bioimplant activated by mechanical, electronic, or magnetic means (e.g., cochlear implants, pacemakers, neurostimulators, biostimulators, electronic infusion pumps, etc.), because such devices may be displaced or malfunctionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have any type of ferromagnetic bioimplant that could potentially be displacedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have vascular access ports or other implanted devices rated as anything other than “Safe” or “Conditional 6”Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have cerebral aneurysm clipsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who may have shrapnel imbedded in their bodies (such as from war wounds), metal workers and machinists (potential for metallic fragments in or near the eyes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who have exhibited past allergic or other adverse reactions in response to intravenous injection of Magnevist (gadopentetate dimeglumine) or other gadolinium-containing contrast agentsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who exhibit noticeable anxiety and/or claustrophobia or who exhibit severe vertigo when they are moved into the magnet boreXx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in the National Institutes of Health (NIH) phase II clinical protocol evaluating FdCyd with THU (National Cancer Institute [NCI] protocol # 09-C-0214 [Cancer Therapy Evaluation Program (CTEP)# 8351]) or NCI protocol #12-C-0066 (CTEP# 9127) with target lesion measured as >= 10 mm with spiral CT scanXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 400 lbs (weight limit for scanner table), or unable to fit within the imaging gantryXx_NEWLINE_xXThe subject is unable to lie still for ~75 minutesXx_NEWLINE_xXNote that patients will need to be sufficiently healthy to undergo audiovisual (AV) biofeedbackXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren, pregnant women, Stanford employees or students, or prisoners will be excluded from this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny person with a lesion of the oral mucosa; persons with changes in existing lesions or those who develop new lesions can be re-evaluated, but it is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXARM III ONLY: Patients must have identifiable metastatic disease on at least 1 clinically indicated imaging modality; if only soft tissue metastasis, one lesion must measure at least 6 mm or greater; patients must have confirmation of prostate cancer prior to 18F-DCFBC imaging\r\n* Note: a patient who is eligible for one arm, subsequently may cross-over into a different armXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe claustrophobia unresponsive to oral anxiolyticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 350 lbs. (weight limit for scanner table), or unable to fit within the imaging gantryXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject presenting, at the time of inclusion, with known or highly suspected focal areas of disrupted BBB (e.g., primary and secondary tumors, focal inflammatory or demyelinating disorders) including at least one expected enhancing lesion of minimum 5 mm (long axis). This lesion must have been detected on a previous imaging procedure (computerized Tomography (CT) or MRI).Xx_NEWLINE_xXCancer patients receiving radiation treatment to the thorax to at least 45 Gy; patient must have pathologic confirmation of diagnosis, or have an enlarging lung mass on at least two scans spaced 3 months apart, and FDG avidity on PET scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients unable to tolerate a SPECT/CT 99mTc-MAA and 99mTc-DTPA scanXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing an upper endoscopy for BE surveillance with prior biopsy-confirmed BE with dysplasia (at least LGD).Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo significant esophagitis (LA grade < B, C and D).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have achieved complete remission of intestinal metaplasia (CR-IM)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients without visible BE at time of study EGD.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients for whom use of the NvisionVLE device would be in conflict with the Instructions for Use (IFU).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant esophageal stricture requiring dilatation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who require anticoagulation for whom biopsy would be contraindicated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be assessed by surgeons and are considered surgically resectableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatents must have no contraindication to cisplatin chemotherapy including no clinically significant hearing loss unless willing to accept the potential of further loss of hearing, no symptomatic peripheral neuropathyXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate venous accessXx_NEWLINE_xXFit to undergo all procedures listed in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious hip replacement surgery, metallic hip replacement or extensive pelvic orthopaedic metal workXx_NEWLINE_xXUnfit to undergo any procedures listed in protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXLesion can be visualized with EUS and is ?1 cm in sizeXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of anticoagulants that cannot be discontinued in order to guarantee an INR below 1.5Xx_NEWLINE_xXPurely cystic lesionsXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale or male adult patient (patient having reached legal majority age)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with national health insurance (according to local regulatory requirements)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with known severely impaired renal function (defined as eGFR MDRD< 30 ml/min/1.73m2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient with known severe adverse drug reaction or contraindication to Gadolinium-Based Contrast AgentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient having received any contrast agent within 48 hours prior to first study contrast agent injection scheduled for the study and patient expected to receive any other contrast agent within 24 hours of the last study contrast agent injectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients of any ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXNo requirements due to co-morbid disease or intercurrent illness, as neededXx_NEWLINE_xXNo restrictions on allergic reactions as no imaging agent will be usedXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with severe claustrophobia unresponsive to oral anxiolyticsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing > 136 kg (weight limit for scanner table)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have a clinically documented primary brain tumor for which resection is clinically indicated; individuals with suspected newly diagnosed or recurrent malignant gliomas will be considered eligible for the study; the anticipated histology at resection should include: anaplastic astrocytoma (10002224), anaplastic ependymoma, anaplastic oligodendroglioma, astrocytoma malignant not otherwise specified (NOS) (10003572), glioblastoma (10018336), glioblastoma multiforme (10018337), or gliosarcoma (10018340)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal or family history of porphyriasXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology reviewed by Moffitt pathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXLess than ten biopsies obtained at time of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPathology not reviewed by Moffitt pathologistXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with T2b tumors or T3 tumors > 5 cm or patients with tumors involving the central chest/structures of the mediastinumXx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary tumor of any T-stage within or touching the zone of the proximal bronchial tree, defined as a volume 2 cm in all directions around the proximal bronchial tree (carina, right and left main bronchi, right and left upper lobe bronchi, bronchus intermedius, right middle lobe bronchus, lingular bronchus, right and left lower lobe bronchi)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDirect evidence of regional or distant metastases after appropriate staging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contra-indication to MR including severe claustrophobia, incompatible aneurysm clips or cardiac pacemakerXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate venous access per assessment of treating health care providerXx_NEWLINE_xXClinically referred for portal vein embolizationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with Barrett’s esophagus scheduled for esophageal surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), but without Barrett’s esophagus scheduled for esophageal surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with peripheral lung lesions 1-7 cm in size identified on chest CT with the intention to undergo bronchoscopic evaluation and biopsy; the decision to pursue biopsy will be made by the treating physician and agreed upon by the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who refuse to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXAre physically unable to tolerate flexible bronchoscopy or moderate sedation as determined by the bronchoscopistXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior diagnosis of cancer treatment induced left ventricular dysfunction (CILVD) with recovered LVEF (i.e. improved to > 50%) for at least 6 months with recommended HF medications (ACE-I or ARB and/or beta [B]-blocker)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAbsence of other causes of cardiomyopathy (e.g. ischemia, hypertension, amyloidosis, or hemochromatosis) per chart review of the clinician’s documentationXx_NEWLINE_xXResidence within the United StatesXx_NEWLINE_xXExhibiting HF symptoms (e.g. shortness of breath, edema)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain still for duration of each imaging procedure (about one hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere coexisting or terminal systemic disease that may interfere with the conduct of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHemosiderosis/hemochromatosisXx_NEWLINE_xXIron overload from any cause (not just hemosiderosis or hemochromatosis), even if secondary to frequent blood transfusions, severe chronic hemolysis, excess dietary or parenteral iron, or any other etiologyXx_NEWLINE_xXPreviously received cryotherapy of RCCXx_NEWLINE_xXBe medically stableXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recent cerebral hemorrhageXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known sensitivities to albumin, blood, or blood productsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with congenital heart defectsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with severe emphysema, pulmonary vasculitis, or a history of pulmonary emboliXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with renal insufficiency such that they cannot get intravenous contrast as part of screening or follow-upXx_NEWLINE_xXBe taking metformin, aminoglycosides, other nephrotoxic medications, or daily use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of severe claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXBe using more than one antihypertensive drugXx_NEWLINE_xXHave collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL VOLUNTEERS: Be taking metformin, aminoglycosides, other nephrotoxic medications, or daily use of NSAIDsXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL VOLUNTEERS: Have a history of severe claustrophobiaXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL VOLUNTEERS: Be using more than one antihypertensive drugXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL VOLUNTEERS: Have collagen vascular diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNORMAL VOLUNTEERS: Currently treated for hyperthyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has had either a) previous axilla surgery, b) reduction mammoplasty, or c) lymphatic function that is impaired in the surgeon's judgment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has received a Feraheme® (ferumoxytol) Injection within the past 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has an iron overload disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has pacemaker or other implantable device in the chest wall.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior SLN dissectionXx_NEWLINE_xXNegative nodal basin clinical examXx_NEWLINE_xXHistologic or imaging evidence of urothelial carcinoma of the bladderXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of pacemaker/implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) or perfusion pumpsXx_NEWLINE_xXFerromagnetic implants such as aneurysm clips, surgical clips, prostheses, artificial heart, valves with steel parts, metal fragments, shrapnel, bullets, tattoos near the eye, or steel implantsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient weighs > 30 kgXx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate < 60 prior to propranololXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior diagnosis of asthma, OR use of an inhaler in past three years to treat or prevent bronchospasmXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of medications to control blood pressure or improve cardiac outputXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown to suffer from stable angina pectoris and/or proven coronary disease, or have symptoms suspicious of coronary diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXClinical evidence of T1-4N1-2, T3-4N0 disease; this can be either by imaging studies or by physical exam findingsXx_NEWLINE_xXReferred to University Hospitals Case Medical Center (UHCMC) Nuclear Medicine for methylene diphosphonate (MDP) bone scintigraphyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who cannot tolerate imaging up to 120 minutes of total imaging (breaks of several minutes between imaging will be available)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy volunteersXx_NEWLINE_xXInadequate venous access (two antecubital or equivalent venous access sites)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects weighing >= 350 lbs or are unable to fit within the imaging gantryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with (any one of the following):\r\n* Suspicion of NET on axial imaging (CT/magnetic resonance imaging [MRI]/fludeoxyglucose [FDG] PET) and/or\r\n* Biochemical evidence of neuroendocrine tumor (serum/urinary) based on elevated levels of chromogranin A, pancreatic polypeptide, neuron-specific enolase, vasoactive intestinal polypeptide, serotonin (urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid [HIAA]), gastrin, somatostatin, catecholamines, metanephrines, calcitonin, fasting insulin, C-peptide (proinsulin), glucagon and/or\r\n* Familial predisposition to NET in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) and Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) (symptomatic and/or asymptomatic cases; with biochemical or anatomic imaging evidence of disease)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAsymptomatic womenXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with symptoms such as palpable mass or nipple dischargeXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who have had a moderate or severe contrast reaction to intravenous gadolinium-diethylenetriamine pentaacetic acid (DTPA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe a candidate for [18F]FLT PET imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight exceeding capacity of imaging tableXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject's schedule permits compliance with all study proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious anaphylactic reaction to huJ591 antibody or FDG imagingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to perform ABC proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients requiring continuous supplemental oxygen due to the requirement of spirometry during all imaging studiesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo vulnerable populations will be enrolled (prisoners, children, pregnant females or institutionalized individuals)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain still for duration of each imaging procedure (about 30 minutes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of allergic reaction to MR contrast mediaXx_NEWLINE_xXAn upper GI endoscopy is scheduled to check upper abdominal symptoms.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere respiratory diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is scheduled for standard clinical and/or investigational PET/CT scan or 131 I therapy within the Nuclear Medicine Service at Main HospitalXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hypermetabolic activity and uptake in the neck, axilla, breast and inguinal region on scan, defined visually as significant lesion suspicious for malignancy by a nuclear medicine physician or trainee; (we will include a subset of patients with normal lymph nodes during screening; this subset of patients will be imaged as a negative control for this study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients imaged for Cerenkov luminescence are going to be required to be in a darkened enclosure for at least 10 minutes and sit still during image acquisition, potentially covered by a dark cloth in case that the ambient light level remains too high for the ultra-sensitive camera; any conditions that would prevent this will exclude the patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with brain metastasis are acceptable if the clinical condition has been stable for at least one month; subjects who are on stable doses (as determined by the principal investigator) of steroids may enroll in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubject is judged by the investigator to have the initiative and means to be compliant with the protocol and be within geographical proximity to make the required study visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXAnticipated survival less than 5 years, as per the treating physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit < 22%Xx_NEWLINE_xXRight-hand dominanceXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of pain that developed or worsened since breast cancer diagnosis (not specifically due to an identifiable trauma [eg fracture or injury]) and has been present for at least 3 months; average pain must be at least 4 on a 0-10 scale over the past 7 daysXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of significant medical illness: autoimmune/inflammatory diseases, cardiopulmonary disorders (i.e., angina, congestive heart failure, severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD]), uncontrolled endocrine disorders (i.e., hypothyroidism, diabetes), vestibular neuritis, Meniere's syndrome, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, or known or previously diagnosed structural disorder of the peripheral vestibular systemXx_NEWLINE_xXRoutine daily use of duloxetine and/or milnacipranXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere psychiatric illnesses (current schizophrenia, major depression with suicidal ideation, or substance abuse within two years)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of tobacco- or nicotine-containing products in excess of the equivalent of 5 cigarettes per dayXx_NEWLINE_xXThumbnail abnormalities on either hand (such as due to chemotherapy or trauma, or artificial nails) that are likely to alter pain perception during testingXx_NEWLINE_xXThe principal investigator determines that the patient is acting in ways that would lessen their chances of completing the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior diagnosis of fibromyalgiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal or family history of porphyriasXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least one lesion that can be accurately measured in two dimensions utilizing mammogram, ultrasound, or MRI images to define specific size and validate complete pathologic response.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should have clinical characteristics that would suggest an increased probability of benefit from an EGFR inhibitor; specifically, they should have known EGFR mutations or high gene copy numberXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation < 90% on room airXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must agree to receive standard or dose-dense adriamyacin, cyclophosphamide, and taxane-based\r\nchemotherapy given preoperativelyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with newly diagnosed, relapsed, or refractory EBV-associated or KSHV-associated malignancies including human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-associated lymphomas are potentially eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be able to lie flat for at least 60 minutes and fit on PET-CT scannerXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanned treatment with standard agents or investigational agents that can potentially activate herpesvirus TK, including but not limited to the following; concurrent radiation therapy is permissible:\r\n* Platinum compounds (for example, cisplatin, carboplatin)\r\n* Anthracyclines (for example, doxorubicin or pegylated doxorubicin)\r\n* Tubulin disrupting agents (for example, vincristine, vinblastine)\r\n* Rituximab\r\n* Gemcitabine\r\n* Cytarabine\r\n* Histone deacetylase inhibitors\r\n* Bortezomib; Note: patients who would not receive bortezomib as part of their usual care may receive a one-time dose of bortezomib for the purpose of imaging with 124I-FIAU and FIAU-PET-CTXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic renal insufficiency requiring dialysisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has contraindication to either endobronchial ultrasound or mediastinoscopy such as: history of bleeding diathesis, latex allergy, mediastinoscopy, mediastinal nodal resection, tracheostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has two separate same histology lung tumors (where the question of two separate primaries or metastatic disease makes definitive clinical staging inaccurate)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAn intact cervix.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to undergo colposcopy and biopsy and endocervical curettage within 8 weeks after study Visit 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPresenting for colposcopy at study Visit 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHysterectomy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject must be a patient undergoing diagnostic bronchoscopy and/or thoracoscopy at University of California Irvine Medical Center (UCIMC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is taking any photosensitizing drugsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who presents to clinic with a history of hoarseness and voice changes and are noted to have changes to their vocal folds that are concerning for the possibility of dysplasia or early stage malignancyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient will have vocal fold leukoplakia or other abnormal epithelial changesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must not have a documented reaction to fluorescein (fluorescein sodium)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave had stereotactic or ultrasound-guided biopsy with marker placementXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a lesion or biopsy marker that is visible under ultrasoundXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a lesion in which the center/focal area is definedXx_NEWLINE_xXRequire more than one localization needle for localization of the surgical target (bracket localization)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen who have elected to proceed with a diagnostic prostate biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXUrine culture positive for significant urinary tract infection (UTI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who are willing to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXExtremely poor intravenous access, prohibiting the placement of a peripheral IV line for injection of radiotracerXx_NEWLINE_xXWeight > 300 pounds (lbs)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of uncontrolled seizuresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient who has a contraindication to endoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum iron, total iron binding capacity, and serum ferritin within normal institutional limits; patients are eligible even if they are taking an iron supplementXx_NEWLINE_xXReceipt of any other iron-oxide based nanoparticle therapy or IV iron within 4 weeks of scansXx_NEWLINE_xXA known history of contrast sensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXCohort A: Screening visit peripheral blood must be available for retrospective analysis of spliceosome mutations of interest.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCohort B and Expansion: Screening visit peripheral blood must be submitted for central analysis at a sponsor-designated laboratory to identify spliceosome hotspot mutations in SF3B1, SRSF2, U2AF1, mutations in ZRSR2, and SRSF2 deletion including amino acid P95.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of a core binding factor leukemia (t(8;21), t(16;16) or inv(16)).Xx_NEWLINE_xXFamily history of Leber Hereditary Optic Neuropathy, Autosomal Dominant Optic Atrophy, Late-Onset Retinal Degeneration, Familial Dysautonomia or other hereditary mitochondrial disease, unless the causative mutation(s) in the family have been determined and the participant has tested negative for the mutation(s).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown prior or current retinal or optic nerve disease (eg, Retinitis Pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, optic neuritis) based on screening ophthalmology assessment for eligibility.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCorrected vision is worse than 20/40 unless due to cataracts.Xx_NEWLINE_xXVitamin B12, folate or vitamin A deficiency. Rescreening following repletion therapy is acceptable.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of concomitant medications with evidence for an association with drug-induced mitochondrial optic neuropathy including systemic administration of ethambutol, chloramphenicol, linezolid, erythromycin, streptomycin, and zidovudine.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to cisplatin, 5-fluorouracil, tamoxifen, and/or MEK inhibitors within 3 months of enrollment and/or ethambutol and/or hydroxychloroquine within 12 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXADULT PATIENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPEDIATRIC PATIENTS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBlood only collections from patients with partial or stable disease response\r\n* Blood will not be collected from patients whose disease demonstrates ongoing partial response or with ongoing (i.e., prolonged) stable disease given the poor rate of model generation from such samples\r\n* Blood will not be collected from patients between doses within a single treatment cycleXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant symptom burden from presumed diagnosis including large volume ascites, pain requiring narcotic medication, or shortness of breath on exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXThe use of statins including atorvastatin are prohibited and patients should be moved on to non-breast cancer resistance protein (BCRP) alternativesXx_NEWLINE_xXThe lesion is suitable for repeat measurementXx_NEWLINE_xXNonhepatic lesionXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have had external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) or loco-regional therapies such as radiofrequency (RF) ablation or chemoembolization must show evidence of progressive disease based on RECIST 1.1 to be deemed a target lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo evidence of biliary duct obstruction unless obstruction controlled by local treatment or, the biliary tree can be decompressed by endoscopic or percutaneous stenting with subsequent reduction in bilirubin to ?1.5×ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent evidence of corneal disorder/keratopathy including but not limited to bullous/band keratopathy, corneal abrasion, inflammation/ulceration, or keratoconjunctivitisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma (PDAC); pathologic confirmation is mandated before initiation of any protocol specified imaging studies or drug administrations; it is recognized that for some patients, histologic or cytologic confirmation of cancer may be obtained following study enrollment; patient volunteers to the DW- and DCE-MRI sequence parameter optimization imaging portion of the study are eligible if they have any pancreatic lesion, histologic or cytologic confirmation of pathology is not required for this patient volunteer groupXx_NEWLINE_xXRadiographically resectable PDAC as adjudicated by Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) surgical oncologist without evidence of distant metastases by computed tomography (CT) or by laparoscopy, if performed at the discretion of the surgeon*Xx_NEWLINE_xX* Patient volunteers for the DW- and DCE-MRI sequence parameter optimization portion of the study are exempt from these criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive infection, with the exception of resolving cholangitis, will preclude enrollment on the study; preoperative interventions can only be initiated when acute cholangitis has resolved*Xx_NEWLINE_xX* Patient volunteers for the DW- and DCE-MRI sequence parameter optimization portion are exempt from these criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be considered an appropriate candidate for surgery by a qualified surgeonXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of supplemental vitamin D totaling >= 2,000 IU/day in the past year\r\n* Use of supplemental vitamin D or supplements containing vitamin D beyond the protocol-prescribed study treatment is not allowed during the treatment period of this clinical trial\r\n* In order to maintain blinding, vitamin D levels should not be routinely checked at screening or during the study by the treating investigator; vitamin D levels will be assayed only as part of the research blood samples collected during the study; if there are concerns related to a participant’s vitamin D status, the lead principal investigator should be contacted for further discussionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown active hyperparathyroid disease or other serious disturbance of calcium metabolism in the past 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of symptomatic genitourinary stones within the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXExtensive prior surgery/radiation present that would render the biopsy highly complex and the risk of intraoperative injury highXx_NEWLINE_xXAny chronic medical condition requiring daily corticosteroids or other immunosuppressants (e.g. tacrolimus, sirolimus, cyclosporine, azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil, etc.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of spinal cord compressionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) being treated with metformin (any dose) for a clinical indication at the time of study enrollment are eligible, and will continue metformin treatment as clinically indicated during the presurgical study period. Their dose of metformin will NOT be changedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients must be willing to keep a drug diary indicating the dates and times of metformin administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who, at the time of study entry, are not taking metformin for a clinical indication, and who will need a radiographic analysis with an iodinated contrast agent during the metformin study treatment periodXx_NEWLINE_xXThis criterion does not apply to patients taking clinically indicated metformin at the time of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of reactive hypoglycemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXActive or history of lactic acidosis, metabolic acidosis, or diabetic ketoacidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to travel to National Institutes of Health (NIH) for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a known history of psychiatric issuesXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients at risk for fall or who have had recent fracturesXx_NEWLINE_xXMen newly diagnosed with PCa who are scheduled for radical prostatectomy (RP) (stage T1 or T2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index (BMI) 25-45 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXInternet access\r\n* If patients do not own a compatible device the study team will loan a device to be returned at the end of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of 5 alpha reductase inhibitors prior 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCastration-resistant PCaXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of metastasisXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of biochemical recurrenceXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-identify as African American or BlackXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoke at least five cigarettes daily for the past yearXx_NEWLINE_xXNot interested in quitting smoking in the next 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to use electronic (e)-cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXNo contraindications for e-cigarette useXx_NEWLINE_xXRecent unstable or untreated psychiatric diagnosis including substance abuse, as determined by the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition (DSM-IV) criteriaXx_NEWLINE_xXUse in the past 30 days of tobacco or nicotine products including e-cigarettes, other than regular cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXLabs required for enrollment (prior to microinjection):Xx_NEWLINE_xXHematocrit > 25%Xx_NEWLINE_xXTumors near critical structures such as those located near or in the brain or spine. This assessment will be determined by the treating clinician.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be in adequate general medical health to safely tolerate a craniotomyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or former smoker by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to abstain from cruciferous vegetable consumption other than the study vegetables during the study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic proton pump inhibitor, H2-blocker (i.e., ranitidine, famotidine), and/or calcium carbonate useXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of tobacco products other than cigarettes (i.e. snuff, snuz, smokeless tobacco, cigars, pipes) or use of these products within 3 months of study registrationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (within 12 months) problems with drug use or alcohol dependence by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXAntibiotic use within 2 months of study enrollment or during the study by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol dependence, abuse, or history of dependence/abuse by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXVegetariansXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of metronidazole or antabuse during the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXAmbulatory and possessing all four limbsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are candidates for thyroidectomy based on fine needle aspiration biopsy results of dominant (> 1.5 cm) thyroid nodules will be considered for study enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPreoperative fine needle aspiration cytology classified as papillary thyroid carcinoma or suspicious for papillary thyroid carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of prior thyroid/parathyroid surgery will be excluded from the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with indications for initial total thyroidectomy (TT) including preexisting hypothyroidism or history of head and neck radiation when < 18 years old will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with indications that limit or extend initial surgery, including need for lymphadenopathy, recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) dysfunction, and concurrent primary hyperparathyroidism will be excluded.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to idelalisibXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown John Cunningham (JC) virus infection and/or progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnancy or active nursing of an infantXx_NEWLINE_xXPreoperative diagnosis of recurrent high-grade glioma having EGFR positive tissue from prior surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients on any experimental anti-EGFR targeted therapiesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a body mass index (BMI) > 30Xx_NEWLINE_xXAre currently taking a statin or have taken a statin in the past 6 months or have a history of an allergic reaction or intolerance at any time to a statinXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of alcoholismXx_NEWLINE_xXAre taking a drug that may significantly interact or influence the metabolism of atorvastatinXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant cyclosporine, gemfibrozil, telaprevir, or tipranavir/ritonavir useXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled hypothyroidismXx_NEWLINE_xXHealthy adults who reside within the greater Twin Cities areaXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any aspirin-containing products or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (>= 2 days per week on a regular basis)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use of laxatives (e.g. Ex-lax, Dulcolax, Miralax) that may affect the microbiome >= 2 days a weekXx_NEWLINE_xXUnexplained change in weight (> 4.5 kg) within the past 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor changes in eating habits within the past 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to remain still for duration of each imaging procedure (about one hour)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn remission (complete remission [CR], partial remission [PR], or stable disease based on clinical, not necessarily radiologic, assessment) and currently being observed and with no current cytotoxic chemotherapy planned; patients may be on rituximab maintenanceXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to eat a full range of solid food and liquids and tolerate seeds/nutsXx_NEWLINE_xXMaintain a consistent general diet without significant variationXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to deliver four fresh (within 24 hours) stool samples to Mayo Clinic Rochester over a four month periodXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to recollect dietary intake for the prior 24 hours in order to complete a one-day food record with assistance from a dietician at each study visitXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to complete the food frequency questionnaire (FFQ) at baseline and at 16 week visits with assistance from a dieticianXx_NEWLINE_xXHave taken fish oil, another dedicated n-3 supplement, or SH seed from another source within the last 28 days; patients on multivitamins that contain n-3 are eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXOn prophylactic antibiotics, such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for pneumocystis prophylaxis or post-transplant penicillin prophylaxisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that have previously been treated with ixazomib, or participated in a study with ixazomib whether treated with ixazomib or notXx_NEWLINE_xXAim 1 only: 1) smokers who smoke at least 10 cigarettes per day with a stable smoking pattern of at least 6 months and no prior e-cig use within one year; smoking status will be confirmed by salivary cotinine; subjects with at least 10 ng/ml cotinine in their saliva being considered smokers; 2) e-cig users who report using e-cigs daily for 3 months with at least one nicotine-containing cartridge/day or 1 ml of liquid/day; they should have not smoked a cigarette for at least one year; 3) non-smokers who have smoked less than 100 cigarettes in their lifetime and not for at least 1 year, and not have used an e-cig for at least 1 year; lack of regular smoking will be confirmed by salivary cotinineXx_NEWLINE_xXAim 2 only: Smokeless tobacco users who use ST daily (>= 6 dips or pouches/day) for at least 6 months and no other tobacco use or e-cig use for at least 1 year (ST use will be confirmed by salivary cotinine), and in good physical and mental health; no serious quit attempts in the last three months particularly for those randomized to the control conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to read adequately to complete the survey and related study documents or give consentXx_NEWLINE_xXImmune system disorders, pulmonary diseases (e.g., asthma within the prior 5 years, acute bronchitis within 1 year, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD], chronic bronchitis, and restrictive lung disease), clinically diagnosed kidney or liver diseases, or any other medical disorders that will increase the risk from bronchoscopy, affect biomarker data, or increase risk of an adverse effect from e-cig use; all subjects are screened by a pulmonologist obtaining a medical history and a physical examination (heart, lungs and oral cavity) to ensure no increased risk from bronchoscopy or e-cig useXx_NEWLINE_xXGeneral anesthesia within one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of inhalant medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXAllergies to study medications, such as, lidocaine, Versed, or CetacaineXx_NEWLINE_xXBronchoscopy or any other lung procedure for any reason within the previous yearXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (within three months) alcohol or drug abuse problems, including marijuana use within prior year, assessed via the Drug Use Questionniare-1 monthXx_NEWLINE_xXOther tobacco use (e.g., combustible products, vapors, etc.) within the last 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently using nicotine replacement or other tobacco cessation products or intention to quit in next three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to read for comprehension or completion of study documentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have too much esterase as determined by a pre-screen dose, with a conversion rate yielding concentration of CPT > 100 ng/ml in vitro.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCachexiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of medical noncomplianceXx_NEWLINE_xXA diagnosis of synovial sarcoma and myxoid/round cell liposarcomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of coronary artery disease must have had a normal stress test within 180 days of starting IFN gammaXx_NEWLINE_xXCancer/testis antigen 1B (NY-ESO-1) specific T cell therapy within 1 year of starting on the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of a pacemaker or defibrillatorXx_NEWLINE_xXIntolerance to broccoli/ITC-BSE tasteXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent ingestion of broccoli sprout extract, which may confound study resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with grade >= 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown prosthetic devices that would prohibit imaging of lesion of interest due to radiographic artifactXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants cannot be taking the following medications because of major pharmacokinetic interactions with celecoxib while being enrolled in the study: abciximab, argatroban, bivalirudin, cilostazol, dabigatran, etexilate, dipyridamole, fondaparinux, heparin, lepirudin, pemetrexed, protein C, rivaroxaban, sibutramine, Ticlopidine, tirofiban, vilazodone and warfarinXx_NEWLINE_xXNo daily NSAIDs intake within the past 4 weeks; intermittent non-daily NSAIDs is allowed under principle investigator (PI) discretionXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion criteria (for all subjects)\n\n          -  Male and/or female subjects 18-75 years of age\n\n          -  Females must be of non-childbearing potential . All non-postmenopausal females must\n             have a confirmed negative serum pregnancy\n\n          -  Subjects in good health condition as determined by no clinically significant findings\n             from medical history and physical examination.\n\n          -  Body mass index (BMI) between ?18.0 and ?38.0 kg/m2, with body weight ? 50 kg and no\n             more than 140 kg\n\n          -  Laboratory values must be within normal limits (correction allowed) or considered\n             clinically insignificant\n\n          -  Do not participate in any other clinical trials with a BRAF or other RAF inhibitors\n\n        Additional inclusion criteria for patients with normal hepatic function (Control group):\n\n          -  Absence of clinically significant deviation from normal in medical history, physical\n             examination, vital signs, electrocardiograms and clinical laboratory determinations.\n\n          -  Must match to at least one hepatic impairment subject by age, gender and bodyweight\n\n        Additional inclusion criteria for hepatic impaired subjects:\n\n          -  Confirmed hepatic disease\n\n          -  Stable Child-Pugh status within 28 days prior to dosing.\n\n        Exclusion criteria for all subjects\n\n          -  Participation in any clinical investigation within 4 weeks prior to dosing\n\n          -  Significant acute illness within the two weeks prior to dosing\n\n          -  History of immunodeficiency diseases, including a positive HIV\n\n          -  History of malignancy of any organ system, treated or untreated, within 5 years\n\n          -  Any prior history of keratoacanthoma and/or cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma\n\n          -  A known diagnosis of any of the RASopathies, such as NF-1, Noonan syndrome, or related\n             conditions.\n\n          -  History of drug or alcohol abuse within the 6 months prior to dosing\n\n          -  Smoking: urine cotinine levels below 500 ng/mL on Day -1.\n\n          -  Use of drugs known to affect CYP3A4 and/or CYP2C8 including both (strong or moderate)\n             inhibitors and inducers, within 7 days prior to dosing\n\n          -  Administration of medications that prolong the QT interval within 4 weeks prior to\n             dosing and until EOT.\n\n          -  History or current diagnosis of cardiac disease indicating significant risk of safety\n\n          -  Any surgical or medical condition which might significantly alter the absorption,\n             distribution, metabolism or excretion of drugs.\n\n        Additional exclusion criteria for healthy subjects (control group):\n\n          -  Clinical evidence of liver disease or liver injury\n\n          -  History or presence of renal impairment as indicated by abnormal creatinine or BUN\n             values\n\n          -  A positive Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) or Hepatitis C antibody\n\n        Additional exclusion criteria for subjects with hepatic impairment:\n\n          -  Alcohol or drug abuse within one month prior to dosing or evidence of such\n\n          -  History of liver transplantation at any time in the past and is on immunosuppressant\n             therapy.\n\n          -  Encephalopathy Grade 3 or worse within 28 days of dosing.\n\n          -  History of surgical portosystemic shunt.\n\n          -  Life expectancy ?3 months\n\n        Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion may apply.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCreatine phosphokinase (CPK) =< 2.5 x ULNXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with lesions safely accessible for protocol driven biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXNo active peptic ulcer diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXAny co morbid condition that‚ in the view of the attending physician‚ renders the patient at high risk from ketorolac treatment complicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a smoking history of at least 5 cigarettes daily for at least 1 year (carbon monoxide [CO] > 8 parts per million (ppm); if CO =< 8 ppm, then Nic Alert test =< level 3) and no serious quit attempts in the last 3 months (to ensure stability of smoking)Xx_NEWLINE_xXImmune system disorders, respiratory diseases, kidney or liver diseases or any other medical disorders that may affect biomarker dataXx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rate > 100Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (within the past 3 months) alcohol or drug abuse problems (to ensure alcohol and drug use does not affect biomarkers of exposure and to maximize retention)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRegular use (e.g., greater than weekly) of tobacco products (including e-cigarettes) other than cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of > 25% of cigarettes in the form of roll-your-own cigarettes unless they are machine rolled and include a filterXx_NEWLINE_xXUse within the last month of nicotine replacement or other tobacco cessation products for purpose of quitting; situational use of nicotine replacement is not a reason for exclusion (to prevent undermining of cessation efforts)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIf does not have a stable place to liveXx_NEWLINE_xXIf does not have a way that the research team can communicate with them by phone or e-mailXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a variety of malignancies (i.e., melanoma, sarcoma, colon, head and neck,\r\nrenal, breast, lung, ovary, liver)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of any condition deemed by the principal investigator to be a contraindication to B-WARM therapy (e.g., skin reaction, dysregulation of thermoregulation, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients with transdermal patches (e.g.; fentanyl, Lidoderm, scopolamine, etc)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients should not have either CT scanning or B-WARM if they have a fever at the time\r\n* Fever should be worked up and treated as appropriate\r\n* Patients should be afebrile for 24 hours prior to scanning or B-WARM therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent use of any proton pump inhibitorsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of lactic acidosis as per prior medical records or provided by the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXMetabolic acidosis, acute or chronic; acidosis will be defined a blood pH < 7.35; acidosis will be suspected if serum bicarbonate is < 22 mEq/L; in such cases, venous blood pH would be checked to confirm or exclude acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of ongoing alcohol abuse or binge drinking; alcohol abuse will be defined as a pattern of drinking that results in harm to one’s health, interpersonal relationships, and ability to work; binge drinking will be defined as at least one episode of consuming more than five units in men and four units in women during the previous month; one unit of alcohol can generally said to be a half pint of beer, a single measure (shot glass) of a spirit or a small glass of table wineXx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reported race other than non-Hispanic white or non-Hispanic blackXx_NEWLINE_xXGastric bypassXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of thyroid replacement medication (Synthroid or similar) for < 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression not definitively treated with surgery and/or radiation or previously diagnosed and treated spinal cord compression without evidence that disease has been clinically stable for >= 2 weeks prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXMalignancies within 5 years prior to enrollment, with the exception of those with a negligible risk of metastasis or death and treated with expected curative outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXOther concomitant malignancies (with some exceptions per protocol)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is a candidate for radical prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAny evidence of lymphatic or hematogenous metastasesXx_NEWLINE_xXGROUP 2 (trametinib arm): History or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR):\r\n* History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g. uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes).\r\n* Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or CSR such as:\r\n** Evidence of new optic disc cupping\r\n** Evidence of new visual field defects  \r\n** Intraocular pressure > 21 mm HgXx_NEWLINE_xXUnwillingness to engage in adequate contraceptionXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior use of degarelix, enzalutamide, trametinib, or dasatinib in any contextXx_NEWLINE_xXNon-diabetic and obeseXx_NEWLINE_xXInitial body mass index (BMI) >= 30.0 kg/m^2 and < 40 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling and able to participate in clinic visits, group sessions, and telephone and Internet communications at specified intervalsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to provide data through questionnaires and by telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to maintain contact with the investigators for 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to allow blood collectionsXx_NEWLINE_xXCapable of performing a simple test for assessing cardiopulmonary fitnessXx_NEWLINE_xXA history or presence of a comorbid disease for which diet modification and increased physical activity may be contraindicatedXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently actively involved in another diet intervention study or organized weight loss programXx_NEWLINE_xXMinimum of one 3cm area of non-ulcerated columnar-lined esophagus or squamous-lined tissue suitable for ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has esophageal narrowing limiting access to the intended sites of ablationXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival > 6 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAlanine aminotransferase =< 40 IU/dLXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients’ availability to check their weight twice per week, during the study durationXx_NEWLINE_xXDiabetic patients are eligible but will be excluded if they are taking metformin, insulin or sulfonilureasXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with plasma bicarbonate less than 22 mEq/L or history of lactic or any other metabolic acidosisXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with myocardial ischemia or peripheral muscle ischemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of hepatic dysfunction or hepatic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a history of excessive alcohol intake which is defined in accordance with Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) definitions as more than 1 drink per day for women and more than 2 drinks per day for men; this definition is referring to the amount consumed on any single day and is not intended as an average over several days; a standard drink is equal to 13.7 grams (0.6 ounces) of pure alcohol; generally, this amount of pure alcohol is found in 12-ounces of beer, 8-ounces of malt liquor, 5-ounces of wine, 1.5-ounces or a “shot” of 80-proof distilled spirits or liquor (e.g., gin, rum, vodka, or whiskey)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a lower body mass index (BMI) (BMI < 18) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with history of known defects in fat metabolism (ie pyruvate carboxylase deficiency, prophyria, fatty acid oxidation defects, primary carnitine deficiencies, organic acidurias, hypoglicemia) will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXStudy Arm 1: primary diagnosis of a pelvic or adnexal mass of presumed gynecologic origin who is scheduled for operative resectionXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sarcomatous histologiesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent usage of VPA or Dex, if patient has been on these medications in the past but is not currently taking them she is still a candidate for the study; prior use must be greater than one month for VPA; there is no “wash out” period required for DEXXx_NEWLINE_xXAny contraindication to dexamethasone or valproic acid such as known allergies or sensitivityXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic or acute pancreatitis as evidenced by clinical or pathologic diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant symptom burden from presumed diagnosis including large volume ascites, pain requiring narcotic medication, or shortness of breath on exertionXx_NEWLINE_xXAs judged by the investigator, any evidence of severe or uncontrolled systemic diseases (e.g., severe hepatic impairment, interstitial lung disease [bilateral, diffuse, parenchymal lung disease], uncontrolled chronic renal diseases [glomerulonephritis, nephritic syndrome, Fanconi syndrome or renal tubular acidosis]), or current unstable or uncompensated respiratory or cardiac conditions, or uncontrolled hypertension (blood pressure >= 140/90), active bleeding diatheses or active infection including hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and human immunodeficiency virus; screening for chronic conditions is not requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXHistological diagnosis other than PTC; patients with anaplastic tumors are not eligible; however, patients whose tumors contain areas of un-differentiated or dedifferentiated histology may enroll provided the original diagnosis was clearly PTC, and the tumor histology remains predominantly papillary at enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXIs MMR-proficient [selected by the site based on microsatellite instability assay (MSI) and/or immunohistochemistry (IHC) for MMR proteins]Xx_NEWLINE_xXPeripheral blood MDSC level ? 10% of mononuclear cell fraction (assayed at a central laboratory)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with asthma who require intermittent use of bronchodilators (such as albuterol) will not be excluded from this study. Inhaled steroids and intra-articular steroid injections are permitted in this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires daily supplemental oxygen.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas history or current use of over-the-counter medications, dietary supplements, or drugs outside protocol-specified parametersXx_NEWLINE_xXthe analysis of resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have taken ASA or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in the last two weeks or have an allergy to ASA will not be eligible for enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smoker of >= 5 cigarettes daily, determined by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to take kava supplement as instructedXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown hepatobiliary disease or impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXChronic medication use that cannot be safely stoppedXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of tobacco products other than cigarettes (i.e. snuff, snuz, smokeless tobacco, cigars, pipes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent or recent (within 12 months) problems with drug use or alcohol dependence by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXAntibiotic use within 2 months of study enrollment by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXAlcohol dependence, abuse, or history of dependence/abuse by self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXMay continue ongoing antiestrogenXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptomatic coronary artery disease currently or within the past 6 months,Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing unilateral SLNDs either levels I-III, I-IV, II-III, or II-IV for oral cavity, oropharynx (if the resection does not connect to the neck), thyroid, salivary gland, parotid, and skin carcinomaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with neck dissection connected to upper aerodigestive tractXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients found to require sternocleidomastoid muscle or internal jugular vein excisionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing bilateral neck dissectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients undergoing neck skin defect reconstructionXx_NEWLINE_xXMust be able to tolerate PET/CT (i.e. not claustrophobic and able to remain supine)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo restrictions based on gender or racial/ethnic backgroundXx_NEWLINE_xXHave measurable disease that is amenable to a radiographic or ultrasound-guided biopsy or may be biopsied in the office without radiologic guidance.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave predisposing conditions that are consistent with development of aneurysms of the ascending aorta or aortic stress (for example, family history of aneurysms, Marfan-Syndrome, bicuspid aortic valve, evidence of damage to the large vessels of the heart documented by computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with a diagnosis that qualifies them for UCBTXx_NEWLINE_xXBiliary obstruction for whom a biliary drain or stent has been placed are eligible, provided that the drain or stent have been in place for at least 10 days prior to the first dose of crizotinib, and the liver function has stabilized as defined by 2 measurements at least 5 days apart that put the patient in the same hepatic dysfunction stratum as defined in Section 3.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUntreated esophageal varices observed on EGD or imaging study; however, patients with known portal hypertension and evidence of varices on EGD or imaging study who have undergone appropriate therapy as indicated within the last 6 months (if applicable) are eligible for enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpinal cord compression.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive hemolysis or evidence of biliary sepsis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of drugs that are CYP3A4 substrates with narrow therapeutic indices, including but not limited to dihydroergotamine, ergotamine, and pimozide.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject enrolls into LCCC9819Xx_NEWLINE_xXSurgeon and medical oncologist agree one week window trial appropriate/safe for trial candidate and that surgery appointment can accommodate a 7 day (one week) treatment scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocolXx_NEWLINE_xXhistory of idiopathic urinary calcium stone disease, chronic hypercalcemia, or gastrointestinal malabsorptive conditionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients may not have a history of severe allergic reactions to paclitaxel or other drugs formulated in cremaphor® ELXx_NEWLINE_xX(STEP 1) - PRIMARY INTERVENTION STUDY (RANDOMIZED CONTROLLED TRIAL [RCT]):Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be registered to the first screening step (Step 0) for the National Cancer Institute (NCI)-MATCH trial (EAY131)Xx_NEWLINE_xX(STEP 2) - SECONDARY GENETIC COUNSELING SUBSTUDY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXReport any level of cognitive difficulty to the question, “Are you currently experiencing any cognitive problems (such as in your memory, attention, concentration, multi-tasking) since your cancer diagnosis?” at chemotherapy cycle 4 or after; participant must answer YES to this question\r\n* NOTE: If a participant answers NO, you may re-approach them at a subsequent cycleXx_NEWLINE_xXAgree not to take a daily dosage of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID) except 81 mg cardioprotective aspirin for the 6-week intervention period; (higher doses of an NSAID on an ‘as needed’ basis for acute pain management are permitted but should not exceed more than 1000 mg on any given day)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave the approval of their treating physician to receive the 6 week ibuprofen/placebo regimen (200 mg twice a day and doses 8 hours apart); (physician must sign eligibility checklist prior to registration)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe diagnosed with a neurodegenerative diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a history of peptic ulcer disease within the last 12 months unless adequately treated as assessed by the participant’s primary care physician or medical oncologistXx_NEWLINE_xXHave a contraindication to NSAIDs at the oncologist’s discretion (i.e., allergy, worsening of ongoing medical problem due to NSAID, low platelet count from chemotherapy, and uncontrolled condition such as hypertension or asthma)Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcurrent administration of warfarin, full dose aspirin, clopidogrel, apixaban or other medications known to increase the risk of bleeding or with antiplatelet activitiesXx_NEWLINE_xXBe colorblindXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed alcoholism within the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must not have any known contraindication to CSFs prior to registration, including prior hypersensitivity to Escherichia coli-derived proteins, filgrastim, pegfilgrastim, or tbo-filgrastimXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of Institutional Review Board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXReceived HBOC genetic counseling or mutation testing prior to diagnosis; if the patient was previously tested only for a variant of uncertain clinical significance (i.e., not for known familial mutation, Jewish ethnicity panel/multisite 3 or comprehensive sequencing) and documentation is provided, they remain eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXThe SunCoast Community Clinical Oncology Program (CCOP) Research Base does not exclude patients who are participating in other investigational studies; refer to the local Institutional Review Board (IRB) guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXAs a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the systemXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must consent and provide both their contact information and that of their representative for a monthly 24-hour dietary recall phone call to be conducted by the Arizona Diet, Behavior and Quality of Life Assessment LabXx_NEWLINE_xXSTUDY PARTICIPANT ELIGIBLITY:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAfrican American or Black raceXx_NEWLINE_xXRecently diagnosed (i.e., within 70 days of enrollment) with clinically suspicious or biopsy-proven early stage (i.e., stage I-II) NSCLC; the inclusion criteria will be operationalized as follows:\r\n* Recently diagnosed (i.e., within 70 days of definitive tissue biopsy) biopsy-proven NSCLC\r\n* Recently diagnosed (i.e., within 70 days of clinical diagnosis) probable NSCLC where \probable NSCLC\ is defined as a suspicious lung nodule for which the patient was referred for\r\n** Invasive diagnostic procedure (i.e., bronchoscopy or image-guided biopsy), OR\r\n** Surgical or radiation oncology consultation and \date of clinical diagnosis\ is defined as (whichever comes first)\r\n** Date of referral for invasive diagnostic procedure (i.e., bronchoscopy or image-guided biopsy), OR\r\n** Date of referral for surgical or radiation oncology consultation\r\n* Study sites should enroll patients that meet either of the above inclusion criteria as early as possible during the diagnostic work-up (i.e., if the patient meets the criteria for recently diagnosed, clinically suspicious NSCLC, definitive tissue biopsy is not required for eligibility)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to a telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with impaired decision-making capacity (such as with a diagnosis of dementia or memory loss) are not eligible for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive an allogeneic HCT at the Dana-Farber Inpatient Hospital or Brigham and Women's Hospital (BWH) under the care of a DFCI physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXResidence in New York, Maine, New Hampshire, Vermont, Connecticut, Rhode Island, or MassachusettsXx_NEWLINE_xXReferred from one of the above six centers, or chooses to receive care at one of the six centersXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to receive an autologous HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXDid not receive an allogeneic HCT at Dana-FarberXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not live in New York, Maine, New Hampshire, Vermont, Connecticut, Rhode Island, or MassachusettsXx_NEWLINE_xXRegistered Nurse (RN) or Doctor of Medicine (MD) degree.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of head injury or dementia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of cognitive impairment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Women who have “dementia” (of any kind) or memory problems listed in their problem listXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Women that score > 10 on the Orientation-Memory-Concentration (OMC) test (indicative of dementia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Women who do not have capacity to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Women that answer 3 or more of the questions about the benefits and risks of the study incorrectly will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Women with capacity to participate but mild cognitive impairment (MCI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Women who have “dementia” (of any kind) or memory problems listed in their problem list and we will exclude women that score > 10 on the OMC test (indicative of dementia)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Women who do not have capacity to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant must be a hematologist, oncologist, nurse practitioner, or physician assistant who practices medicine in the Duke Cancer NetworkXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipant is willing to participate in the educational component of this projectXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is expected to see their physician or another member of their care team at least 3 times annuallyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients self-identify as Black, African American, or White and non-HispanicXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of other ethnic minorities will not be includedXx_NEWLINE_xXSeeing a participating physician for less than a year and expecting to see this physician at least once in the following yearXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients will be excluded if physicians/staff determine they will not be eligible for a trial during the study period (e.g., entering hospice; moving away)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIAN: MSK medical oncology HCPs - specifically identified as attendings, fellows, or advance practice professional (APP) – either a nurse practitioner (NP) or physician assistant (PA) from gastrointestinal (GI), genitourinary (GU) oncology, lymphoma, or bone marrow transplant (four services with a large number of geriatric patients)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIAN: Willingness to be audio-recorded as per self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: MSK patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENT: Willingness to be audio-recorded as per self-reportXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVER: Accompanying an MSK patient undergoing treatment for cancer by one of the consented HCPs as per the HCP and/or EMRXx_NEWLINE_xXAll male patients (all ages) scheduled for standard prostate needle biopsy (first, repeat or active surveillance biopsy) under local anesthesia will be eligible for the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to smartphone, tablet or computer with capability to utilize symptom-tracking applicationXx_NEWLINE_xXChildren will not be included in the study. The pattern of disease and symptoms are different in children than in an adult population. The web-based tool was designed based on the symptom experience of adults with cancerXx_NEWLINE_xXIs medically or otherwise unable to participate (as determined by a physician or study principal investigator [PI])Xx_NEWLINE_xXEnrolled in hospiceXx_NEWLINE_xXConsidering a mastectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 1: Not meeting national guidelines for aerobic physical activity (i.e., at least 150 minutes per week of moderate intensity aerobic physical activity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2: Having a short message service (SMS) capable mobile phone that is not shared with anyone elseXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2: Text messaging more than once a monthXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 2: Not meeting national guidelines for aerobic physical activity (i.e., at least 150 minutes per week of moderate intensity aerobic physical activity)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 1: Difficulty reading due to poor eyesight (i.e., reporting more than “only a little difficulty”)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that primary care providers excludeXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 1-3Xx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to provide access to medical records, insurance and billing data, biospecimens and respond to questionnaires, typically by phone, but possibly to include online or in-person surveysXx_NEWLINE_xXAIM 3 ONLYXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be current smokers who smoke at least one cigarette most days per week, or recent quitters who smoked at least one cigarette most days per week (< 3 months); andXx_NEWLINE_xXHousehold members must be current smokers, defined as smoking at least one cigarette most days per weekXx_NEWLINE_xXBeing treated with definitive chemoradiotherapy or surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXHearing and vision impairments that would prevent ability to complete consent, interviews, or sample collectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients presenting as follow-ups only at the outpatient Supportive Care CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXAltered cognition (as assessed routinely in the Supportive Care Clinic using the Memorial Delirium Assessment Scale [MDAS], with a score of >= 7/30)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with hearing and/or visual impairmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must have ongoing oncologic needs and plan to receive all care at the study institution and not already be in hospice or home-careXx_NEWLINE_xXMust have internet access and a valid email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXHave not previously viewed the Pathways decision aidXx_NEWLINE_xXMEDICAL CHART REVIEWXx_NEWLINE_xXPost-intervention: 200 patient records receiving care beginning six months post training are subject to review; the first 50 records with a diagnoses of head and neck, lung, prostate, or breast will be utilizedXx_NEWLINE_xXPROVIDER TRAININGXx_NEWLINE_xXOHSU Radiation Medicine department has agreed to participate as pilot department for this project; all active Radiation Medicine providers are requested to participate in the training; providers have the option to not participateXx_NEWLINE_xXTOBACCO CESSATION COACHINGXx_NEWLINE_xXWilling to consider quitting smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to meet four times in person or on the phone to discuss tobacco useXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must be willing to be audio recorded during the sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who meet this criteria will be referred to OHSU Health Promotion Sports Medicine researcher, Carol DeFrancesco, to complete assessment using stages of change tobacco use readiness ruler and question setXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient smoking status will be documented in their electronic health record, per routine careXx_NEWLINE_xXVulnerable Populations\r\n* The following groups will be excluded from participation:\r\n** Children\r\n** Decisionally impaired adults\r\n** Prisoners\r\n** Pregnant womenXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: A prognosis of 12 months or less based on the treating oncologist’s assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Already enrolled on hospice, or enrolling on hospice upon discharge from the hospital admissionXx_NEWLINE_xXPATIENTS: Admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) during their hospitalizationXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERS: Adult caregivers (> 18 years) of patients who have agreed to participate in studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCAREGIVERS: A relative or a friend upon whom the patient relies for help and who will be likely to be present during hospitalization, or willing to participate by phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXAll diseases that are indications for allogeneic BMT at Stanford University will be eligible for participation in this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients scheduled to receive first allogeneic BMTXx_NEWLINE_xXPrior allogeneic BMTXx_NEWLINE_xXBoard-certified oncologists who practice in any setting in the United States and have a smartphoneXx_NEWLINE_xXEligible caregivers who will be recorded are those present in the room with the enrolled oncologist and the patient participant receiving oncology care during the audio-recorded clinic visitXx_NEWLINE_xXDana Farber Cancer Institute (DFCI) oncologists are excluded from this study; this includes DFCI satellite sites, non-DFCI Dana Farber (DF)/Harvard Cancer Center (HCC) sites, and other non- DF/HCC sites that are under the DFCI Institutional Review Board (IRB)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient samples will be identified from among those receiving care in one of 28 Henry Ford Health System (HFHS) primary care clinicsXx_NEWLINE_xXAverage-risk patients due for colorectal cancer (CRC) screening at the time of a primary care appointment who initiate a portal session within the two-week period following their visitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with electronic health record (EHR)-documented colonoscopy in the past 10 years, sigmoidoscopy in the past 5 years, or fecal occult blood test (FOBT) or fecal immunochemical test (FIT) in the past 12 months will be excludedXx_NEWLINE_xX“High risk” patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have access to a computer or smartphone and internet connection at home on which they would be willing to do a telehealth studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPennsylvania or New Jersey residents\r\n* Telehealth visits for New Jersey residents will only be performed by physicians with a current medical license issued by the state of New JerseyXx_NEWLINE_xXKPS < 60%Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo access to a computer, smartphone or internetXx_NEWLINE_xXDecisionally impaired patientsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients not residing in Pennsylvania or New JerseyXx_NEWLINE_xXStaff of the Department of General Internal Medicine (usability test)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis by a rheumatologist (randomized controlled trial [RCT])Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdequate cognitive status as determined by a research coordinator at recruitment; to assess the participant‘s capacity to take part in the interview, the interviewer will note and comment on the participant's spontaneous speech and capacity to write date at the time of consent; participants should be oriented to person, place, date, time, and events (RCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLiving in the community (not institutionalized, etc) (RCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse internet on average at-least once a week (RCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDisease duration 10 years or less (RCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXFamiliarity with and participation in social media (e.g. Facebook) (usability test and RCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHospitalized (RCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not verbally, written, or electronically consent to participate (usability test and RCT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to undergo surgery that will result in the creation of an ileostomyXx_NEWLINE_xXAgreed to receive home healthcareXx_NEWLINE_xXHas access to telephoneXx_NEWLINE_xXMembers of all races and ethnic groups are eligible for this trialXx_NEWLINE_xXLocated in the New York City (NYC) Borough of Manhattan, Queens, Brooklyn, or the BronxXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a roster of at least 100 driversXx_NEWLINE_xXPlanning on remaining in NYC for at least 1 year, (with no vacations or trips to exceed two months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLicensed taxi driver for at least three monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXAffiliated with a NYC garageXx_NEWLINE_xXOwns a cell phone that can receive text messages and is willing to receive text messages for this studyXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not have a usual primary care provider (PCP) at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXHas not seen a doctor for an annual physical within the last year, not including an annual required physical for work, at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXTIPs INCLUSION: Planning on remaining in NYC for at least 1 year, (with no vacations or trips to exceed one month)Xx_NEWLINE_xXTIPs INCLUSION: Licensed taxi driver for at least two yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXTIPs INCLUSION: Affiliated with a NYC garageXx_NEWLINE_xXTIPs INCLUSION: Willing and able to attend in person TIPs training sessionsXx_NEWLINE_xXTIPs INCLUSION: As per study team judgment, based upon the TIPs screening tool, is socially active among fellow taxi drivers, cares about health issues, and wants to help others improve their healthXx_NEWLINE_xXDoes not agree to holding screening health fairs on location (e.g. does not sign enrollment form, or send email confirming agreement, or verbally agree to study team management)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPart-time driver (drives fewer than 35 hours per week); although it is highly unlikely for NYC taxi drivers to work for multiple garages at study baseline, drivers may switch jobs and/or their garage base affiliation while participating in this study; new jobs and/or garage base affiliations will be tracked during follow-up assessments and noted for potential limitations with study retention and intervention contamination; drivers will be allowed to continue the study even if they are no longer working with the initial garage baseXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must have one negative cystoscopy 3 months following most recent biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient must be at low- or low-intermediate risk for disease recurrence and progression according to the EAU guidelinesXx_NEWLINE_xXHave variant histology (micropapillary, nested variant, non-urothelial cell carcinoma elements)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed with colorectal adenocarcinoma at Ohio State University (OSU) (or a participating Ohio hospital) with sufficient tumor available to perform the microsatellite instability (MSI) test, regardless of age at diagnosis or family historyXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst-degree relatives of the cases who test positive for LSXx_NEWLINE_xXFirst-degree relatives of the cases who test negative for LSXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are cognitively impairedXx_NEWLINE_xXLives in the Houston area (Harris county or a contiguous county) (Pre-pilot phase)Xx_NEWLINE_xXEastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) status of 0 - 2, or self-reports being up and about more than 50% of waking hours and able to provide self-care (Arm 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of any of the following cancers: stage 1-4b oropharyngeal, hypopharyngeal, nasopharyngeal, salivary gland or oral cavity; stage 3-4b laryngeal; any unknown primary head and neck cancer with cervical metastasis that will be addressed with treatment to bilateral necks and mucosa; or other head and neck cancers medically approved by one of our Radiation Oncology collaborating medical doctors (MDs) (Arms 2 and 3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted to being a current smoker or recent quitter upon admission to MD Anderson Cancer Center (MDACC) (Arm 4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a valid home address and functioning home telephone number (Arm 4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXLives in the Houston or surrounding area, or resides in this same area during the time period that coincides with this study (Arms 1-4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who will undergo curative pancreatectomy for pancreatic adenocarcinoma, pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors, or pancreatic cysts (malignant or benign) (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMust have telephone access and agree to engage with research personnel using telephone (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelf-reports hypertension that is not being monitored by a physician and is not being managed with either medication, observation, or lifestyle change (Pre-pilot phase, Arms 1-3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOvert cognitive difficulty demonstrated by not being clearly oriented to time or person or place (Arms 1-4)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOrthopedic, neurologic, or musculoskeletal disability that would interfere with the functional task of standing on a weight scale (Pre-pilot phase, Arm 2)Xx_NEWLINE_xXZubrod performance status > 2, or self-reports either not being up and about more than 50% of waking hours or unable to provide self-care (Arms 2 and 3)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently enrolled in protocol 2014-0712 (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo home access to internet (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXNo home WiFi connection (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecent fracture or acute musculoskeletal injury that precludes the ability to fully bear weight on all 4 limbs in order to participate in an exercise intervention (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPoorly-controlled pain with a self-reported pain score of 7/10 at the time of enrollment (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMyopathic or rheumatologic disease that impacts physical function (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a pacemaker or other internal medical device, or reports being pregnant (PCS study)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMothers self-identified as primary caregivers to minor-age children ages 8-17 years old participating in genetic counseling and testing for BRCA 1/2 mutationsXx_NEWLINE_xXMothers must have ready and consistent access to a telephone to participate in the trial's assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXHave resided (and intend to continue to reside) in the same home as the child/ren for the past 6 months (and the next 6 months)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least one of 10 pre-defined anatomic mucosal subsites on viewXx_NEWLINE_xXphysiologic condition that precludes the use of an oral rinseXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of mucosal ulceration at baselineXx_NEWLINE_xXOncology providers and staff at Moses Cone Health System (MCHS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXOncology providers and staff at the University of Pittsburgh Medical Center (UPMC)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAfrican American or White patients who reside in Guilford County, NC or Allegheny County, Pennsylvania (PA)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUninsured or UnderinsuredXx_NEWLINE_xXColonoscopy not completed in the last 10 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSigmoidoscopy not completed in the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXFecal Occult Blood Test (FOBT) or fecal immunochemical test (FIT) not completed in the last yearXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete contact information on fileXx_NEWLINE_xXNot incarcerated or homelessXx_NEWLINE_xXInsured but not underinsuredXx_NEWLINE_xXColonoscopy completed within the last 10 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXSigmoidoscopy completed within the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXFOBT or FIT screening completed within the last yearXx_NEWLINE_xXIncomplete contact information (i.e., no address or phone number on file)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIncarcerated or homelessXx_NEWLINE_xXAND with one or more of the following highly prevalent ambulatory-sensitive chronic conditions (diabetes, hypertension, chronic lung disease, chronic kidney disease, depression, or heart disease).Xx_NEWLINE_xXOR Patients with impaired hearing or speech;Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe a phase 1 trial in expansion, phase 2, or 3Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe interventional trialsXx_NEWLINE_xXRecruit for at least 9 months at the point of enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXSet monthly accrual target >= 1/ and annual accrual target >= 12Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhase 1 trials in dose escalationXx_NEWLINE_xXMissouri residentsXx_NEWLINE_xXCalling for themselvesXx_NEWLINE_xXInterested in trying to quit in the next 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to receive calls from others (i.e., coaches, navigators) to help them quit smoking and address barriers to cessationXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to provide multiple contacts (i.e., phone numbers, addresses of close others) if not reached for follow-up assessmentsXx_NEWLINE_xXOwn a cell phone, are able to send and receive text message and access the internet, andXx_NEWLINE_xXDo not own a smart phoneXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to respond to text messages and questions or unable download the study appXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to see the app and study materials and videos (i.e., are blind, deaf)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRETROSPECTIVE STUDY POPULATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient on the gynecologic oncology serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXAdmitted to Seidman 6th floor of the Seidman Cancer CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXDiarrhea or clinical concern for C. difficile infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXPROSPECTIVE STUDY POPULATIONXx_NEWLINE_xXResidents covering the gynecologic oncology serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXNurses covering patients on Seidman 6 under the care of the Gynecologic Oncology serviceXx_NEWLINE_xXThose who do not wish to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Have been registered in 1209 Clinic for at least two years and assigned a primary care physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE I: Are fluent in SpanishXx_NEWLINE_xXUSABILITY PHASE: Have been registered in 1209 Clinic for at least two years and assigned a primary care physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXUSABILITY PHASE: Pregnant women will be eligible to participateXx_NEWLINE_xXPHASE II: Have been registered at a University of New Mexico (UNM) Clinic for six months and assigned a primary care providerXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are prisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent smoker, or former smoker who has less than a 16-year quit historyXx_NEWLINE_xXHave at least a 30-pack year smoking history (average packs per day x years smoking)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient of the Internal Medicine Clinic at University of North Carolina (UNC) Health CareXx_NEWLINE_xXCoughed up blood from lungs (also called hemoptysis) within the past year prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXExperienced unexplained weight loss of 15-pounds or more during six months prior to enrollmentXx_NEWLINE_xXFOCUS GROUP SUBJECT SELECTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXRANDOMIZED-CONTROLLED TRIAL SUBJECT SELECTIONXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled to see a primary care provider for a routine (i.e., non-urgent care) visitXx_NEWLINE_xXDue for CRC screening:\r\n* No colonoscopy within the prior 10 years\r\n* No flexible sigmoidoscopy within the prior 5 years\r\n* No fecal blood testing (FOBT or FIT) within the prior 12 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXA personal history of CRCXx_NEWLINE_xXSpecific CRC risk factors, including:\r\n* First degree relative with CRC\r\n* Personal history of adenomatous polyps\r\n* Recent blood in stools\r\n* Currently taking medication for a diagnosis of dementiaXx_NEWLINE_xXObvious physical or mental disability that would prevent participant from interacting with a tablet deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXExclude patients who have a FOBT or colonoscopy scheduled within the last six monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXBe seen regularly (at least monthly) at a Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) gastrointestinal (GI) medical oncology clinicXx_NEWLINE_xXHas a metastatic neuroendocrine histology with MSKCC pathology confirmation as moderately or poorly differentiated or intermediate or high gradeXx_NEWLINE_xXPart 2 only: did not complete part 1 of the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXShort portable mental status questionnaire (SPMSQ) score of less than \intact mental functioning\ (3 or more errors)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients referred for consultation to the Supportive Care teamXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients have never done the ESAS beforeXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to independently complete the study as assessed by the research staffXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have clinical evidence of cognitive impairment as determined by the research staffXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have already done the ESAS in the pastXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are considered to be in severe physical or emotional distress based on the assessment by the research staffXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who refuse to participate in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXOutpatients (either new referrals or follow ups) seen in the supportive care clinicXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with normal cognitive status (Memorial Delirium Assessment Scale [MDAS] =< 6/30) who are able to understand the nature and purpose of the study and have the ability to complete the consent processXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are experiencing severe symptom distress, including severe emotional distress and cognitive dysfunction, which may interfere with study participation; this will be determined by the principle investigator and/or attending physician who is caring for the patient during that visitXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose size and weight would not allow CT scanningXx_NEWLINE_xXFollow up patients seen in the outpatient Supportive Care CenterXx_NEWLINE_xXDocumented cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXUndiagnosed cirrhosisXx_NEWLINE_xXAny Parkland outpatient visit during study periodXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of HCC or suspicious mass on imaging within 6 months prior to ascertainment of eligibilityXx_NEWLINE_xXHCC screening prior to randomizationXx_NEWLINE_xXAny health care provider (physician, advanced practice clinician) at a study site (Fox Chase Cancer Center [FCCC] and Fox Chase Cancer Center Partners [FCCCP]) who provides care for NSCLC and/or CRC survivorsXx_NEWLINE_xXCharts eligible for audit after completion of the educational initiative will be for those CRC and NSCLC survivors presenting for follow-up after the initiative has been completed by site health care providersXx_NEWLINE_xXFox Chase Cancer Partners sites who do not agree to chart audit procedures or providers are unable or unwilling to participate in the educational initiativeXx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants will be patients scheduled to visit the Barnes-Jewish Hospital (BJH)/Washington University (WU) Department of Otolaryngology clinic for management of thyroid disorders (ranging from benign to cancerous nodules or masses) that will involve surgical interventions of complete or partial thyroidectomiesXx_NEWLINE_xXAre eligible to participate in one of the phase III or IV BCCT open at the CTRC at the time of diagnosisXx_NEWLINE_xXReasonably able to read a newspaper or book (without sight impairment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXReasonably able to listen to radio, television (without hearing impairment)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCLINICIANS:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConsent both to provide data themselves and to assist in identifying eligible patients for recruitment to the trialXx_NEWLINE_xXAbility to understand and the willingness to use the PMSA on the patient’s personal smartphoneXx_NEWLINE_xXDisplays ability to use and understand the PMSA as evidenced by successful response to alarm and successful entries while monitored by the principal investigator (PI)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not own smartphones or who do not use them for more than email, texting and callingXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to successfully respond to the PMSA alarm and properly enter their dataXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are unable to validate their understanding of the pain scaleXx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking cigarettes for at least 3 years (so that smoking is expected to be reasonably established)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking, on average, 4-27 days per month (the lower limit avoids including intermittent smokers [ITS] whose smoking is so sparse that it cannot be stably observed or assessed over a 2-week period; the upper limit avoids recruiting people who are essentially daily smokers.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSmoking non-daily for the previous one yearXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to try novel cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to come to the University of Pittsburgh’s Smoking Research Group lab for 11 visits over a 12-week period, and to report on smoking behavior via an IVR telephone system during that timeXx_NEWLINE_xXActive plans to quit or actively seeking smoking cessation treatment in the next 3 months. (Subjects are permitted to quit during the study, and this will be assessed and analyzed, but those with stated active intention to quit at the time of screening will not be included.)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSevere psychiatric disorders that may interfere with study procedures (though volunteers will not be otherwise screened for psychopathology or drug use, which are prevalent among smokers)Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent, regular (i.e., monthly or more) use of nicotine replacement or other tobacco products, by self-report (e-cigarette users will be excluded if their average monthly use exceeds half of their average monthly use of conventional tobacco cigarettes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXExclusive use of roll-your-own cigarettes (since the study uses manufactured cigarettes); and cannot be currently smoking more than 1/3 of roll your own cigarettesXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of medications such as chantix (varenicline), zyban, wellbutrin, or bupropion for any purpose, including stopping smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXNight and/or ‘swing’ shift work (which complicates phone-based reporting system)Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown plans to relocate or move from the Pittsburgh area within the coming 3 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXOther household members are participating or have participatedXx_NEWLINE_xXIdentification of cost being the primary reason why person does not smoke daily (so that the study outcome variable of smoking rate isn’t influenced by participant receiving research cigarettes)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAt first session, reporting smoking 28 or more days of the past 30, or registering a carbon monoxide (CO) reading of 15 or aboveXx_NEWLINE_xXActive plans to leave the country in the next 3.5 monthsXx_NEWLINE_xXOnly women considering mastectomy will be eligible; that is, women who have definitely selected lumpectomy will not be approachedXx_NEWLINE_xXAll patients who have received anti-CD19 directed CART therapy and completed or discontinued early from a Novartis sponsored treatment protocol that utilized CD19-directed CART cells or from any CD19 CART trial sponsored by the University of Pennsylvania with which Novartis has a contractual agreement to co-develop the CAR technology.Xx_NEWLINE_xXRecipients with AML will be recruited by personnel at the transplant centers (TC) who are candidates for URD HCTXx_NEWLINE_xXSensitivity to filgrastim or to E. coli-derived recombinant protein products.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of iritis or episcleritis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThrombocytopenia < 150 x 10(9)/L (< 150,000/µL) at baseline evaluation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent treatment with lithium. Drug interactions between filgrastim and lithium, which may potentiate the release of neutrophils, have not been fully evaluated.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe scheduled to receive one of 3 myeloablative conditioning regimens (defined in population) followed by allogeneic SCT for hematological malignancy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing and capable of swishing/gargling oral gel/solution as required per protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXBe willing and capable of completing the assessments and adhering to protocol requirements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of uncontrolled infection (oral/oropharyngeal or systemic), including oral herpes or unexplained febrile illness (? 99.5F /37.5C) requiring systemic anti-infectives, within 7d of treatment Day 1.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with active oral lesions or other mouth/throat soreness within 7d of study randomization.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCandidate for bronchoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXAbnormal blood resultsXx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival longer than 3 months from enrollment in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling (including pharmacokinetic [PK] sampling).Xx_NEWLINE_xXImplantable cardioverter defibrillator.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCardiac pacemaker with heart rate (HR) set at a fixed rate and treatment with concomitant medication that may limit increase in HR in response to hypotension (example, high-dose beta blocker).Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown moderate to severe aortic stenosis, moderate to severe mitral stenosis, or other valvulopathy (ongoing).Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave an ECOG score of 0-1Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient scheduled for radical retropubic prostatectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient opted for robotic (da Vinci robot) or laparoscopic surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXActively taking blood thinning agents (with the exception of low dose aspirin {81 mXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has compromised immune system or autoimmune disease (WBC < 4000 or > 20,000)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient is mentally incompetent or a prisonerXx_NEWLINE_xXIndividuals who are unable to complete study materialsXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least two manifestations drawn from at least two of the categories (clinical symptoms, laboratory abnormalities and radiographic abnormalities), which are at least possibly attributable to KICS and are not readily explicable from known medical conditions in the patientXx_NEWLINE_xXFever (> 38° Celsius [C]), chills or rigorXx_NEWLINE_xXFatigue or lethargyXx_NEWLINE_xXCachexia or edemaXx_NEWLINE_xXCough, dyspnea, airway hyperreactivity, or nasal inflammationXx_NEWLINE_xXNausea, anorexia, abdominal pain or altered bowel habitXx_NEWLINE_xXArthralgia or myalgiaXx_NEWLINE_xXAltered mental stateXx_NEWLINE_xXHyponatremia (sodium < 135 mmol/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXRADIOGRAPHIC ABNORMALITIESXx_NEWLINE_xXPathologic lymphadenopathy (at least five discrete nodes each > 1cm in their longest dimension)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSplenomegaly (> 12 cm in the longest dimension)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHepatomegaly (> 17cm in the longest dimension)Xx_NEWLINE_xXBody cavity effusions not caused by primary effusion lymphoma nor chylous effusions directly related to lymphatic infiltration by KSXx_NEWLINE_xXExposure risk for KSHV infection (including being a first or second generation immigrant from an endemic area, or male-to-male sexual activity) or evidence of KSHV infection demonstrated by one of:\r\n* Molecular evidence of KSHV in whole blood, confirmed by testing at Focus Laboratories, CA (human herpes virus-8 [HHV-8] quantitative polymerase chain reaction [PCR], Focus Unit Code 45700)\r\n* Immunohistochemical evidence of KSHV in tissues (for example by staining for latency\r\nassociated nuclear antigen [LANA] or viral [v] IL-6) confirmed in the Laboratory of Pathology, Center for Cancer Research (CCR), National Cancer Institute (NCI)\r\n* Presence of KS or primary effusion lymphoma (PEL) (KSHV-associated malignancies), confirmed in the Laboratory of Pathology, CCR, NCIXx_NEWLINE_xXBiopsy proven KSHV-associated multicentric Castleman disease (MCD), confirmed in the Laboratory of Pathology, CCR, NCIXx_NEWLINE_xXAny abnormality that would be scored as NCI Common Terminology Criterial (CTC) grade 4 toxicity that is unrelated to HIV, its treatment, or to KICS that would preclude the use of all of the study treatments or the ability to monitor the natural history of KICS untreatedXx_NEWLINE_xXBody mass index is >= 25 kg/m^2Xx_NEWLINE_xXPersonal phone with SMS text messaging capabilityXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any antidiabetic, weight loss, or appetite control medicationXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any other medication that could impact dietary intake, such as prednisoneXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrently fasts 12 hours or more (on either of two 24 hour diet recalls, conducted during interim 1)Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to fast due to medical reason such as pregnancyXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to travel to National Institutes of Health (NIH) for follow-up visitsXx_NEWLINE_xXAble to access a computer, tablet or smartphone at home or public locationXx_NEWLINE_xXAccess to a device capable of receiving plain text messagesXx_NEWLINE_xXA personal email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling that is, including PK and pharmacodynamic sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior exposure to targeted SYK inhibitors.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse or consumption of:Xx_NEWLINE_xXHave not recovered from adverse events due to other pharmaceutical or diagnostic agents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reaction attributed to any contrast agent or drugs containing polyethylene glycol (PEG).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUndergoing a second lumpectomy procedure because of positive margins in a previous surgery prior to entering this study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCriteria 3, There is invasion by cancer into the main blood vessels such as the portal vein, hepatic vein or the vena cavaXx_NEWLINE_xXWho are scheduled to undergo laparotomy for the debulking surgery ORXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with known ovarian cancer miliary disease prior to surgery 5. Any medical condition that, in the opinion of the investigators, could potentially jeopardize the safety of the patient 6. History of anaphylactic reactions 7. History of allergy to any of the components of OTL38, including folic acid 8. Pregnancy or positive pregnancy test 9. Clinically significant abnormalities on electrocardiogram (ECG) 10. Presence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up schedule 11. Impaired renal function defined as eGFR< 50 mL/min/1.73m2 12. Impaired liver function defined as values > 3x the upper limit of normal (ULN) for alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alkaline phosphatase (ALP), or total bilirubin.Xx_NEWLINE_xXGerm cell tumors (GCTs).Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpansion cohort at the RD: All patients must have:Xx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant diseases/conditions:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have previously discontinued gemcitabine-containing regimens due to gemcitabine-related toxicity.Xx_NEWLINE_xXTiming of surgery: Must be anticipated to take place at least 1 hour after BLZ-100 administrationXx_NEWLINE_xXConcomitant medications:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPhotosensitizing drugs, medications which might generate fluorescence or according to label, might generate photochemical reaction. These include hematoporphyrin derivatives and purified fractions; Photofrin®; and precursors of protoporphyrin IX (5-Aminolevulinic acid) used in Gliolan or HexvixXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects requiring anticoagulation not eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients eligible for this companion sample collection protocol sample collection protocol must meet all inclusion in CLEE011A2404.Xx_NEWLINE_xXN0 and M0 at the time of study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of severe allergic-like reaction to iodinated contrast mediaXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient dosed with UCART19 who completed or discontinued early from a sponsored or from any investigator-initiated study that tested UCART19, or patients who were administered UCART19 under a special access scheme (compassionate use);Xx_NEWLINE_xXIndividual test orders; defined as single biomarker assessmentXx_NEWLINE_xXDue to the complexity of state and federal requirements governing the participation\n             of prisoners in research, prisoner-patients shall not be approached for participation\n             in the Registry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive Coombs tests at screening.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of at least 3 months from the date of enrollment in the study.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling (including PK sampling).Xx_NEWLINE_xXSedentary baseline lifestyle, with an average of < 180 minutes/week of moderate-intensity aerobic activityXx_NEWLINE_xXAttending surgeon clearance to undergo a supervised exercise training programXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to exercise training, such as skeletal metastases, symptomatic coronary artery disease, severe anemia, or any condition limiting their ability to participate in an exercise training programXx_NEWLINE_xXDaily smoker;Xx_NEWLINE_xXGenerally good health;Xx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to read for comprehension or completion of study documents.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPredominant clear cell histology:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll men > 40 years age and <80 years of age with an indication for a prostate biopsy will be offered inclusion in the study. Typical indications for biopsy include abnormal PSA (prostate specific antigen) and/or abnormal DRE (digital rectal exam).Xx_NEWLINE_xXMen undergoing TRUS-guided prostate biopsy in the OR under anesthesiaXx_NEWLINE_xXMen with anorectal abnormalities preventing TRUS-guided prostate biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXTarget PopulationXx_NEWLINE_xXMen and women diagnosed with CP-CML, on treatment with dasatinib for a minimum of 2 years at the time of enrollment and in dasatinib-induced complete molecular remission ongoing for at least 1 year prior to study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients are eligible if they have been in stable dasatinib induced CMR for a minimum of nine months, documented by at least three assessments, conducted 2 - 6.5 months apart, at a local lab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAge and Reproductive StatusXx_NEWLINE_xXTarget Disease ExceptionsXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who have not achieved a 1-log reduction in BCR-ABL transcript levels compared with baseline as determined by local standards or > 10% IS [International Standard]) documented at 3.0-6.5 months since the initial start of dasatinib therapy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious diagnosis of CML accelerated phase or blast crisisXx_NEWLINE_xXSex and Reproductive StatusXx_NEWLINE_xXPrisoners or subjects who are involuntarily incarceratedXx_NEWLINE_xXAny patient who has lost MMR and is eligible for re-starting dasatinib therapy must not have developed a condition that precludes dasatinib use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary nasopharyngeal carcinoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (eg, herpetic keratitis or encephalitis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires intermittent or chronic treatment with an antiherpetic drug (eg, acyclovir), other than intermittent topical use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who is unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for HSV-1 induced complications (eg, immunosuppressed individuals, HIV-positive individuals, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year) during talimogene laherparepvec treatment and through 30 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvecXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of re-irradiation to a field which includes the carotid arteriesXx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent smoker of at least 5 cigarettes per day for at least 1 yearXx_NEWLINE_xXat least some concern for health effects of smokingXx_NEWLINE_xXhaving an easily accessible email addressXx_NEWLINE_xXpast six month use of any e-cigaretteXx_NEWLINE_xXlifetime ever purchase of any e-cigaretteXx_NEWLINE_xXany major current psychiatric impairment, including current alcohol/drug abuse/dependenceXx_NEWLINE_xXcurrent use of any smoking cessation medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient is receiving digoxin, digitoxin, lanatoside C or any type of digitalis alkaloids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly subjects previously participating in two specific studies are eligible to enroll into this study. Enrollment is not open to subjects if not previously enrolled in studies B1871006 or B1871008.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects are excluded unless previously participating in studies B1871006 or B1871008.Xx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of typical BCR-ABL transcripts (b3a2 and/or b2a2) at the time of CML-CP diagnosis i.e. prior to first start of TKI treatment which are amenable to standardized RT-PCR quantification\Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient in MR4.5 at prescreening at Novartis designated labXx_NEWLINE_xXPotassium (suggested keep to prevent issues with QT and/or rhythm abnormalities)Xx_NEWLINE_xXMagnesium (suggested keep to prevent issues with QT and/or rhythm abnormalities)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious anticancer agents for CML other than nilotinib except for cytoreduction after CML diagnosis until up to 4 weeks after first dose of nilotinibXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown second chronic phase of CML after previous progression to AP/BCXx_NEWLINE_xXComplete left bundle branch blockXx_NEWLINE_xXRight bundle branch block plus left anterior or posterior hemiblockXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of unstable angina within 1 year of study entryXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of study entry or past medical history of chronic pancreatitisXx_NEWLINE_xXUse of a combination of any two of the following:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with poorly differentiated pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors (according to WHO 2000 classification).Xx_NEWLINE_xXpoor cytogeneticsXx_NEWLINE_xXsynchronous tumorsXx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional Inclusion Requirements for TAK-580 + nivolumab a) BRAF V600 mutation-positive or NRAS mutation-positive disease previously untreated with RAF, MEK, or other inhibitors of the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) pathway. Participants who have progressed on these agents can still be enrolled in TAK-202 (plozalizumab) + nivolumab or vedolizumab + nivolumab + ipilimumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional Inclusion Requirements for expansion cohorts only a) Measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) guidelines (Version 1.1) and at least 1 nonsignificant risk, non-target lesion accessible for biopsy per the guidelines above (for TAK-580 + nivolumab and TAK-202 (plozalizumab) + nivolumab only).Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional Exclusion Requirements for arm 1 only (nivolumab Plus TAK-580)Xx_NEWLINE_xXAdditional Exclusion Requirements for arm 3 only (vedolizumab Plus nivolumab Plus ipilimumab)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHad prior exposure to rituximab, natalizumab, vedolizumab, or alemtuzumab.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas a history of any major neurological disorders, including stroke, multiple sclerosis, or neurodegenerative disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSCLC or PAC that is advanced or has spread to other parts of the bodyXx_NEWLINE_xXno CHR by 12 weeks (whether lost or never achieved)Xx_NEWLINE_xXno partial cytogenetic response by 24 weeks (ie, 1 to 35% Ph-positive) (whether lost or never achieved) no major cytogenetic response by 52 weeks (ie, ?35% Ph-positive) (whether lost or never achieved)Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn patients with rapidly proliferating disease, hydroxyurea may be administered before study entry, if clinically indicated, to control disease. In such cases, complete hematologic response (CHR) must be sustained for at least 4 weeks for accelerated CML, and at least 8 weeks for chronic phase CML, following the discontinuation of hydroxyurea, to be considered as a CHR.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient has lymphoid Ph+ blast crisis or blast phase CML.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatient must be willing and able to undergo the imaging studies outlined in the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOnly measureable disease (primary or metastatic) is located in or near the thyroid gland, liver, kidney, or urinary bladder.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMedical conditions such as ischemic heart or lung disease that may be considered an unacceptable risk.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown bladder outlet obstruction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with a known current condition of substance addiction.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects who will have administration of methylene blue or any blue dye used for sentinel node mapping procedures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reaction attributed to any contrast agent or drugs containing polyethylene glycol (PEG).Xx_NEWLINE_xXdiagnosis of AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXable to stand independentlyXx_NEWLINE_xXnot experiencing psychiatric neurological disorders (assessed through clinical team members) that would prevent obtaining consent.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAny of the following laboratory abnormalities at Screening:Xx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled asthma or asthma requiring oral corticosteroids.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown or suspected sensitivity to indocyanine green (ICG).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse of any ongoing medications which might generate fluorescence or, according to the medication label, might generate a photochemical reaction. These include haematoporphyrin derivatives and purified fractions, Photofrin®, and the precursors of protoporphyrin IX (5-Aminolevulinic acid) used in Gliolan or Hexvix.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSpecific serum electrolyte levelsXx_NEWLINE_xXHeart rhythm disturbancesXx_NEWLINE_xXWho are scheduled to undergo laparotomy for the debulking surgery ORXx_NEWLINE_xXWho are scheduled to undergo laparoscopy and pre-authorized to undergo laparotomy for the debulking surgery, if cancer is detected on the laparoscopyXx_NEWLINE_xXPrevious exposure to OTL38Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reactions or severe allergiesXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of any psychological, familial, sociological or geographical condition potentially hampering compliance with the study protocol and follow-up scheduleXx_NEWLINE_xXImpaired renal function defined as eGFR< 50 mL/min/1.73m2Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown sensitivity to fluorescent lightXx_NEWLINE_xXrecruited through primary care sites aligned with studyXx_NEWLINE_xXno FDA contraindications for use of NRT:Xx_NEWLINE_xXno recent (past 3 months) cardiovascular trauma: MI, strokeXx_NEWLINE_xXRelapsed or progressive advanced malignancies (solid tumors or hematologic malignancies)Xx_NEWLINE_xXClinical diagnosis of chronic hepatic impairment that is stable with no acute worsening of liver failure within one month prior to enrollment. Hepatic impairment will be assessed as per National Cancer Institute Organ Dysfunction Working Group Criteria (NCI-ODWG) schema and will fall into one of the following three categories:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSignificant neurotoxicity (Grade 2 with pain or higher) at the time of enrolmentXx_NEWLINE_xXWaldenström MacroglobulinemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXContraindication to test article, constituents, or required concomitant medicationsXx_NEWLINE_xXEvidence of visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmologic examination that is considered a risk factor for retinal vein thrombosis or neurosensory retinal detachmentXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of glaucomaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of retinal vein occlusion (RVO), neurosensory retinal detachment, or neovascular macular degenerationXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent severe, uncontrolled systemic diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient agrees to the collection and testing of their blood and is willing and able\n             to provide approximately 40mL blood draw(s) at:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBaseline (prior to the initiation of new ET), and;Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are or will be taking other unapproved (i.e. not cleared/approved by the\n             FDA) anti-neoplastic therapies concurrently are not eligible (exception: ET with\n             everolimus is acceptable).Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion criteria:\n\n        1)15-29 year olds receiving treatment for any type of cancer, either primary or\n        recurrent/relapsed disease.\n\n        2) Patient has completed at least one month of therapy\n\n        3)Patient is expected to remain on therapy for 3 month duration of study\n\n        4) Patient has an iPhone, iPad, or iTouch running iOS 4.0 or later\n\n        5) Patient is willing to use a smart-phone medication reminder application-\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        1)Patients who are unable to speak/read/write English as required for use of smart-phone\n        medication reminder application and completion of study measures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion criteria:\n\n        1)15-29 year olds receiving treatment for any type of cancer, either primary or\n        recurrent/relapsed disease.\n\n        2) Patient has completed at least one month of therapy\n\n        3)Patient is expected to remain on therapy for 3 month duration of study\n\n        4) Patient has an iPhone, iPad, or iTouch running iOS 4.0 or later\n\n        5) Patient is willing to use a smart-phone medication reminder application-\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        1)Patients who are unable to speak/read/write English as required for use of smart-phone\n        medication reminder application and completion of study measures.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are able to tolerate flexible bronchoscopy.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with implants in the chest region that contain metal or conductive materials (e.g., metal implants, rods, or plates) which the Sponsor considers will interfere with the Calypso System's electromagnetic localization (note that the Sponsor will review a patient's implanted metal on a case by case basis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with active implanted devices, such as pacemakers, defibrillators, and drug infusion pumps since the effect of the Calypso System operation on these devices is unknown.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with bronchiectasis in the lobe of the intended implantation sites.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients whose lung tumors are being monitored with MR imaging (MR imaging of the anchored transponders is safe but yields an image artifact around the anchored transponders).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients enrolled in any other clinical studies the investigator believes to be in conflict with this investigation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. age 18 or older\n\n          2. former smoker who quit during pregnancy as assessed via self-report\n\n          3. smoked an average of greater than or equal to 1 cigarette per day during the year\n             prior to the current pregnancy\n\n          4. gestational age < 33 weeks and ability to attend an in-person visit at University of\n             Texas MD Anderson Cancer Center (UTMDACC) between 30-33 weeks of gestational age\n\n          5. can speak, read and write in English.\n\n          6. must have a functioning home or personal cell phone\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        1) high-risk pregnancy or known negative birth outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXInclusion Criteria:\n\n          1. age 18 or older\n\n          2. former smoker who quit during pregnancy as assessed via self-report\n\n          3. smoked an average of greater than or equal to 1 cigarette per day during the year\n             prior to the current pregnancy\n\n          4. gestational age < 33 weeks and ability to attend an in-person visit at University of\n             Texas MD Anderson Cancer Center (UTMDACC) between 30-33 weeks of gestational age\n\n          5. can speak, read and write in English.\n\n          6. must have a functioning home or personal cell phone\n\n        Exclusion Criteria:\n\n        1) high-risk pregnancy or known negative birth outcomeXx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling (that is, PK).Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse or consumption of any of the following substances:Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are at least 18 years old, who have been identified by the BMT social worker as having a cancer or pre-cancer diagnosis and are Minnesota residents with potential legal needs (see the list below), expected to proceed to transplant, considered the primary client for legal services or are at least 18 years old and have a legal-designate.Xx_NEWLINE_xXThe patient or legal designate must be able to complete study tools by the BMT social workers. Interpreters will be provided by UMMC for non-English speaking pt's and BMT social workers will assist patients who cannot read.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients must have interest in a legal consultation as specified by the I-Help model to receive free legal consultation.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who do not have any identified any potential legal needs, or whose legal needs are beyond those covered in the I-Help model.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are not residents of Minnesota as CALL attorneys are only licensed to practice law in Minnesota.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrisonersXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale participant must be scheduled for a total laparoscopic or robotic-assisted hysterectomy for a gynecologic conditionXx_NEWLINE_xXFemale participant is not eligible if the surgeon does not plan to use a uterine manipulatorXx_NEWLINE_xXAny medical conditions that would impose excessive risk to the patient, or would adversely affect his/her participation in the studyXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must be sufficiently healthy to undergo surgery or an endoscopic procedure.Xx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of anaphylactic reaction attributed to any contrast agent or drugs containing polyethylene glycol (PEG).Xx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness to have close follow-up and treatment at the Clinic at the Seattle Cancer Care Alliance (SCCA) or at a local facility; typically, patients will be seen at least 3 times per week as per standard practice, including at least once weekly at the SCCAXx_NEWLINE_xXPermanent or temporary housing available within a 60 minute (min) commute from the SCCAXx_NEWLINE_xXAvailable caregiverXx_NEWLINE_xXWillingness and ability to use the telemonitoring deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXCognitive impairmentXx_NEWLINE_xXScheduled for endoscopic screening and/or evaluation of Barrett’s esophagusXx_NEWLINE_xXSymptoms of dysphagiaXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of prior surgery on the oropharynx, neck, esophagus, or stomachXx_NEWLINE_xXMajor physical disability which would prevent subject from transferring from a chair to a bed and sitting in an upright positionXx_NEWLINE_xXAll subjects or legally appointed representatives/caregivers, must personally sign and date the IRB/IEC approved consent form before initiating any study specific procedures or activities.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within the protocol-defined range.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients that require supplemental oxygen are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXFor those enrolled in Adjuvant Treatment with Optune™, patients are excluded if they are < 22 years of age, have an active implanted medical device, a skull defect, bullet fragments in the head, sensitivity to conductive hydrogels, a scalp condition that might interfere with wearing the device, or GBM that is not supratentorial.Xx_NEWLINE_xXExpected survival of more than 6 months.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOvarian tumors with low malignant potential (i.e. borderline tumors).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRelapse/progression based solely on elevation of CA-125, in absence of measurable disease, according to irRECIST criteria.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who were treated with blinatumomab in the past will be allowed on the study as long as they have persistent CD19 expression on leukemia cells and did not experience unacceptable toxicities with prior blinatumomab administration; patients who were treated with chimeric antigen receptor (CAR)-modified T cells targeting CD19 in the past will be allowed on the study as long as they have persistent CD19 expression on leukemia cellsXx_NEWLINE_xXOxygen saturation >= 90% when ambulating and not requiring supplemental oxygenXx_NEWLINE_xXNewly diagnosed, de novo or secondary, previously untreated AMLXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects must have the following screening laboratory values:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSelected electrolytes within normal limits or correctable with supplements.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAgree to follow the CC-90009 Pregnancy Prevention Plan (PPP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSuitable venous access for the study-required blood sampling, including PK and pharmacodynamic (PD) sampling.Xx_NEWLINE_xXUse or consumption of any of the following substances:Xx_NEWLINE_xXSatisfactory laboratory parameters within defined parameters (ANC, platelet count, Hb, total bilirubin, ALT, AST and GFR)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHas centrally confirmed TNBC, as defined by the most recent American Society of Clinical Oncology/college of American Pathologists (ASCO/CAP) guidelines.Xx_NEWLINE_xXFor men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating spermXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled tumour-related pain or hypercalcemiaXx_NEWLINE_xXSerum albumin <25 gram per liter (g/L)Xx_NEWLINE_xXProstate adenocarcinoma with High Risk (HR) and Unfavorable Intermediate Risk (UIR) for recurrence classification as determined by one of the following combinations: o High risk (HR): subjects with one or more of the following risk factors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score (GS): 8-10Xx_NEWLINE_xXN0 o Unfavorable Intermediate Risk (UIR): subjects with no HR features but with one or more of the following adverse risk factors:Xx_NEWLINE_xXGleason score (GS) 4+3=7Xx_NEWLINE_xXMales have undergone sterilization with appropriately confirmed absence of sperm in the post-vasectomy ejaculate, orXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of colorectal surgery, or repeated endoscopic examinations/interventions related to anorectal diseases or proximal urethral stricture requiring dilatationXx_NEWLINE_xXProstate size volume ?90 ccXx_NEWLINE_xXBrachytherapy with EBRT in subjects whose prostate volume is >60ccXx_NEWLINE_xXSevere, active co-morbidity, defined as follows:Xx_NEWLINE_xXAcquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS) based upon current CDC (Centers for Disease Control) definitionXx_NEWLINE_xXSubjects with congenital long QT syndrome or subjects taking Class IA, Class III or Class IC anti-arrhythmic medications will require a cardiologist's evaluation prior to eligibility assessment. subjects with cardiovascular diseases can be included as long as the benefits of androgen deprivation therapy outweigh the potential risk of cardiovascular eventsXx_NEWLINE_xXPresence of bilateral hip replacement prosthesesXx_NEWLINE_xXDeclared high-risk for anesthesia by attending anesthesiologist, cardiologist, or other physicianXx_NEWLINE_xXEGFR genotype must not be known; however, pending EGFR tumor genotyping is allowed\r\n* Participants with positive or pending EGFR mutation on plasma genotyping performed at the central lab are eligible for enrollment, and will not need to repeat initial plasma genotyping on studyXx_NEWLINE_xXCYP3A substrates with narrow therapeutic window (including, but not limited to, alfentanil, cyclosporine, dihydroergotamine, ergotamine, fentanyl, pimozide, quinidine, sirolimus, tacrolimus).Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients who are immunosuppressed (including known HIV infection), have a serious active infection at the time of treatment, have interstitial lung disease/pneumonitis, or have any serious underlying medical condition that would impair the ability of the patient to receive protocol treatment. Patients with controlled hepatitis C, in the investigator's opinion, are allowed. Patients with known hepatitis B must be HBeAg and HB viral DNA negative for enrollment. Note that, because of the high prevalence, all patients in the Asia-Pacific region (except Australia, New Zealand, and Japan) must be tested and, if HBsAg positive, must be HBeAg and HB viral DNA negative for enrollment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit compliance with the protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIn France, a subject will not be eligible when under legal protection.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrimary ocular or mucosal melanoma.Xx_NEWLINE_xXActive herpetic skin lesions or prior complications of herpetic infection (eg, herpetic keratitis or encephalitis).Xx_NEWLINE_xXRequires intermittent or chronic treatment with an antiherpetic drug (eg, acyclovir), other than intermittent topical use.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject has known sensitivity to any of the products or components to be administered during dosing.Xx_NEWLINE_xXSubject who is unwilling to minimize exposure with his/her blood or other body fluids to individuals who are at higher risks for HSV-1 induced complications (immunosuppressed individuals, HIV-positive individuals, pregnant women, or children under the age of 1 year) during talimogene laherparepvec treatment and through 28 days after the last dose of talimogene laherparepvec.Xx_NEWLINE_xXMeasureable diseaseXx_NEWLINE_xXNo ongoing requirement for dexamethasone or anti-epileptic drugs.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPrior therapy with mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR), phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K), or dual PI3K-mTOR inhibitors, serine/threonine-specific protein kinase (AKT) inhibitors, or fulvestrant.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPlacement of certain intrauterine devices (IUD) or intrauterine systems (IUS)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHysterectomy, or vasectomy of the partner (provided that partner is the sole sexual partner of the woman of childbearing potential trial participant and that the vasectomized partner has received medical assessment of the surgical success) In addition, the use of condoms for patients or their partners is requiredXx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of 1 of the following diseases:Xx_NEWLINE_xXBPDCNXx_NEWLINE_xXAble and willing to complete the entire studyXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients required to be on any of the concomitant medications are excludedXx_NEWLINE_xXFollicular variantXx_NEWLINE_xXVariants (including but not limited to tall cell, columnar cell, cribriform-morular, solid, oxyphil, Warthin's-like, trabecular, tumor with nodular fasciitis-like stroma, Hürthle cell variant of papillary carcinoma, poorly differentiated)Xx_NEWLINE_xXHurthle cellXx_NEWLINE_xXClear cellXx_NEWLINE_xXInsularXx_NEWLINE_xXLesions that have had external beam radiotherapy (EBRT) or locoregional therapies such as radiofrequency (RF) ablation must show evidence of progressive disease based on RECIST 1.1 to be deemed a target lesion.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must show evidence of disease progression within 12 months (an additional month will be allowed to accommodate actual dates of performance of screening scans, ie, within ?13 months) prior to signing informed consent, according to RECIST 1.1 assessed and confirmed by central radiographic review of CT and/or MRI scans.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more measurable lesions that do not demonstrate iodine uptake on any radioiodine scan.Xx_NEWLINE_xXOne or more measurable lesions that have progressed according to RECIST 1.1 within 12 months (an additional month will be allowed to accommodate actual dates of performance of screening scans, ie, within ?13 months) after Iodine-131 therapy, despite demonstration of radioiodine avidity at the time of that treatment by pre- or posttreatment scanning. These participants must not be eligible for possible curative surgery.Xx_NEWLINE_xXCumulative activity of Iodine-131 of >600 mCi or 22 gigabecquerels (GBq), with the last dose administered at least 6 months prior to study entry.Xx_NEWLINE_xXParticipants must be receiving thyroxine suppression therapy and thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) should not be elevated (TSH should be ?5.50 mcIU/ML). When tolerated by the participant, thyroxine dose should be changed to achieve TSH suppression (TSH <0.50 mcIU/ML) and this dose may be changed concurrently upon starting study drug treatment.Xx_NEWLINE_xXAnaplastic or medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosed with meningeal carcinomatosis.Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen who have declined or otherwise not received preceding surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen with positive margins after primary surgeryXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen without histologic confirmation of nodal involvementXx_NEWLINE_xXActive collagen vascular disease, specifically dermatomyositis with a creatine kinase (CPK) level above normal or with an active skin rash, systemic lupus erythematosus, or sclerodermaXx_NEWLINE_xXLaboratory and medical history parameters not within the protocol-defined rangeXx_NEWLINE_xXWomen must have newly diagnosed histologically confirmed ER positive (+) DCIS scheduled to undergo surgical therapy; the pathology report (signed pathology report from attending pathologist) from each individual institution will be used to determine eligibility\r\n* Note: After the patient has completed the study and the slides have been sent to Northwestern University (NU), our pathologists will review the slides to confirm the diagnosis\r\n* Note: DCIS suspicious for micro invasion is eligible on core biopsyXx_NEWLINE_xXDCIS must be >= 5 mm of DCIS on one single core; can be < 5 mm if DCIS is identified on multiple cores (at least 2 cores)Xx_NEWLINE_xXWomen presenting after excision with positive margins are eligible; Ki-67, cyclooxygenase 2 (Cox-2), cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 2A (P-16), expression in immediately adjacent tissue is similar to what is found in DCIS\r\n* Note: Positive margins are defined as DCIS present at the inked margin or DCIS < 1 mm from the marginXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with recurrent ipsilateral DCISXx_NEWLINE_xXKnown protein C, protein S, or anti-thrombin deficiency or other known thrombophilic disordersXx_NEWLINE_xXUnexplained/undiagnosed abnormal uterine bleeding (concern for undiagnosed endometrial cancer)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with EGFR mutations expected to be sensitive to EGFR inhibitors and patients with EML4/ALK translocations are excluded, unless all available Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved targeted therapy options have been utilized; for example, a patient with exon 19 EGFR mutation who has never been treated with an EGFR inhibitor would be excluded; patients with other sensitizing mutations that become actionable with FDA-approved targeted therapies during the course of this trial (e.g., crizotinib for MET deletion 14) will also be expected to have utilized all available FDA-approved targeted therapy options prior to eligibility\r\n* Note: In contrast to the above, a patient with an EGFR mutation who has been treated with a first-generation and third generation tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) and then with four cycles of carboplatin plus pemetrexed would be eligibleXx_NEWLINE_xXHad inadequate home environment or social support to safely complete the trial proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXHas responded (achieved a CR or PR) to BV or BV-containing regimens, if previously treated with BV.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDiagnosis of BRAF V600 mutant High Grade glioma that has relapsed, progressed or failed to respond to frontline therapyXx_NEWLINE_xXActive graft-versus-host disease.Xx_NEWLINE_xXKnown history of positive serum human ADA.Xx_NEWLINE_xXIsolated extramedullary relapse.Xx_NEWLINE_xXElevated serum hCG (in cases of choriocarcinoma); elevated hCG or measurable disease (in cases of PSTT or ETT)Xx_NEWLINE_xXPregnant or actively breastfeeding without intention to discontinue prior to initiation of studyXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of peptic ulcer disease or erosive gastritis within the past 6 months, unless treated for the condition and complete resolution has been documented by esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) within 28 days of starting study treatmentXx_NEWLINE_xXPatient has a history of other malignancies within the last 5 yearsXx_NEWLINE_xXUnable to take drugs orallyXx_NEWLINE_xXAt least 2 distinct measurable metastatic sites, which are 1 cm or largerXx_NEWLINE_xXAuto-immune disease, which:Xx_NEWLINE_xXhas a substantial probability to cause an irreversible injury to any tissue and/orXx_NEWLINE_xXhas been diagnosed less than 3 months before study entry and/orXx_NEWLINE_xXhas a substantial risk to progress and cause severe complications.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPositive HBs Ag or positive HBV viremia, Positive HCV viremia.Xx_NEWLINE_xXPsychological, familial, sociological, or geographical conditions that do not permit medical follow-up and compliance with study protocol.Xx_NEWLINE_xXDeemed to not be a candidate for radical cystectomy by attending urologic oncologist or refuse radical cystectomyXx_NEWLINE_xXCurrent use of any implanted electronic stimulation deviceXx_NEWLINE_xXFor biochemically relapsed patients, no concurrent use of ADT or orchiectomy and no known prior or current evidence of any metastatic involvement of distant organsXx_NEWLINE_xXHistory of Richter’s or prolymphocytic transformationXx_NEWLINE_xXUncontrolled autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) or idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)Xx_NEWLINE_xXSerologic status and/or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing reflecting active hepatitis B or C infectionXx_NEWLINE_xXIneligible for high dose cisplatin therapy; the reason for ineligibility must be defined; acceptable reasons for ineligibility include the following:\r\n* Abnormal renal function (glomerular filtration rate [GFR] < lower limit of institutional normal (< lower limit of institutional normal [LLN])\r\n* Abnormal hearing (patient or audiology defined)\r\n* Pre-existing tinnitus\r\n* Neuropathy (bilateral paresthesias or loss of deep tendon reflexes in upper and/or lower extremities)\r\n* Diabetes mellitus\r\n* Oncologist-certification that patient would not be considered eligible for high dose cisplatin when given as standard of care (for example, due to age or another medical problem); reason should be documented\r\n* Patient refusal for high dose cisplatinXx_NEWLINE_xXHas inadequate home environment or social support to safely complete the trial proceduresXx_NEWLINE_xXPatients with glioblastoma multiformeXx_NEWLINE_xX